Search Results

Search found 12291 results on 492 pages for 'fluent api'.

Page 457/492 | < Previous Page | 453 454 455 456 457 458 459 460 461 462 463 464  | Next Page >

  • Basic user authentication with records in AngularFire

    - by ajkochanowicz
    Having spent literally days trying the different, various recommended ways to do this, I've landed on what I think is the most simple and promising. Also thanks to the kind gents from this SO question: Get the index ID of an item in Firebase AngularFire Curent setup Users can log in with email and social networks, so when they create a record, it saves the userId as a sort of foreign key. Good so far. But I want to create a rule so twitter2934392 cannot read facebook63203497's records. Off to the security panel Match the IDs on the backend Unfortunately, the docs are inconsistent with the method from is firebase user id unique per provider (facebook, twitter, password) which suggest appending the social network to the ID. The docs expect you to create a different rule for each of the login method's ids. Why anyone using 1 login method would want to do that is beyond me. (From: https://www.firebase.com/docs/security/rule-expressions/auth.html) So I'll try to match the concatenated auth.provider with auth.id to the record in userId for the respective registry item. According to the API, this should be as easy as In my case using $registry instead of $user of course. { "rules": { ".read": true, ".write": true, "registry": { "$registry": { ".read": "$registry == auth.id" } } } } But that won't work, because (see the first image above), AngularFire sets each record under an index value. In the image above, it's 0. Here's where things get complicated. Also, I can't test anything in the simulator, as I cannot edit {some: 'json'} To even authenticate. The input box rejects any input. My best guess is the following. { "rules": { ".write": true, "registry": { "$registry": { ".read": "data.child('userId').val() == (auth.provider + auth.id)" } } } } Which both throws authentication errors and simultaneously grants full read access to all users. I'm losing my mind. What am I supposed to do here?

    Read the article

  • Common methods/implementation across multiple WCF Services

    - by Rob
    I'm looking at implementing some WCF Services as part of an API for 3rd parties to access data within a product I work on. There are currently a set of services exposed as "classic" .net Web Services and I need to emulate the behaviour of these, at least in part. The existing services all have an AcquireAuthenticationToken method that takes a set of parameters (username, password, etc) and return a session token (represented as a GUID), which is then passed in on calls to any other method (There's also a ReleaseAuthenticationToken method, no guesses needed as to what that does!). What I want to do is implement multiple WCF services, such as: ProductData UserData and have both of these services share a common implementation of Acquire/Release. From the base project that is created by VS2k8, it would appear I will start with, per service: public class ServiceName : IServiceName { } public interface IServiceName { } Therefore my questions would be: Will WCF tolerate me adding a base class to this, public class ServiceName : ServiceBase, IServiceName, or does the fact that there's an interface involved mean that won't work? If "No it won't work" to Question 1, could I change IServiceName so it extends another interface, IServiceBase, thus forcing the presence of Acquire/Release methods, but then having to supply the implementation in each service. Are 1 and 2 both really bad ideas and there's actually a much better solution that, knowing next to nothing about WCF, I just haven't thought of?

    Read the article

  • Parsing Windows Event Logs, is it possible?

    - by xceph
    Hello, I am doing a little research into the feasibility of a project I have in mind. It involves doing a little forensic work on images of hard drives, and I have been looking for information on how to analyze saved windows event log files. I do not require the ability to monitor current events, I simply want to be able to view events which have been created, and record the time and application/process which created those events. However I do not have much experience in the inner workings of the windows system specifics, and am wondering if this is possible? The plan is to create images of a hard drive, and then do the analysis on a second machine. Ideally this would be done in either Java or Python, as they are my most proficient languages. The main concerns I have are as follows: Is this information encrypted in anyway? Are there any existing API for parsing this data directly? Is there information available regarding the format in which these logs are stored, and how does it differ from windows versions? This must be possible from analyzing the drive itself, as ideally the installation of windows on the drive would not be running, (as it would be a mounted image on another system) The closest thing I could find in my searches is http://www.j-interop.org/ but that seems to be aimed at remote clients. Ideally nothing would have to be installed on the imaged drive. The other solution which seemed to also pop up is the JNI library, but that also seems to be more so in the area of monitoring a running system. Any help at all is greatly appreciated. :)

    Read the article

  • Confused about std::runtime_error vs. std::logic_error

    - by David Gladfelter
    I recently saw that the boost program_options library throws a logic_error if the command-line input was un-parsable. That challenged my assumptions about logic_error vs. runtime_error. I assumed that logic errors (logic_error and its derived classes) were problems that resulted from internal failures to adhere to program invariants, often in the form of illegal arguments to internal API's. In that sense they are largely equivalent to ASSERT's, but meant to be used in released code (unlike ASSERT's which are not usually compiled into released code.) They are useful in situations where it is infeasible to integrate separate software components in debug/test builds or the consequences of a failure are such that it is important to give runtime feedback about the invalid invariant condition to the user. Similarly, I thought that runtime_errors resulted exclusively from runtime conditions outside of the control of the programmer: I/O errors, invalid user input, etc. However, program_options is obviously heavily (primarily?) used as a means of parsing end-user input, so under my mental model it certainly should throw a runtime_error in the case of bad input. Where am I going wrong? Do you agree with the boost model of exception typing?

    Read the article

  • Same Origin issue with web service call

    - by Wjdavis5
    My web server runs at http://mypc.com:80 ` Given the following snip: $(window).load(function () { var myURL = "http://mypc.com:8000/PSOCharts/service/HighChart_ColumnChart/i"; $.getJSON(myURL) .done(function(data) {alert(data);}); }); I am running to this error: XMLHttpRequest cannot load http://mypc.com:8000/PSOCharts/service/HighChart_ColumnChart/i. Origin http://mypc.com is not allowed by Access-Control-Allow-Origin. I understand why (I think) b/c my webservice runs at port 8000 which is different from what IIS is running on (port 80). I thought I could get around by using jsonp (according to the jQuery documentation here So I copied the example of making a call to the flickr api, but it isnt working. Any thoughts/sugggestions? UPDATE Ok so my request is being made now: var myURL = "http://192.168.1.104:8000/PSOCharts/service/HighChart_ColumnChart/i?jsoncallback=?"; $.ajax({ url :myURL, dataType: "jsonp", success: function(data) {a(data)} , error: function(){alert("err");}, }); But I am continually hitting the error function, here is what's being returned: [1.4,54.43,49.39,93.23] Now I'm assuming this is b/c the response text doesnt contain any type of callback here is the part of the interface I'm calling: [WebInvoke(Method = "GET", RequestFormat = WebMessageFormat.Json, ResponseFormat = WebMessageFormat.Json, UriTemplate = "HighChart_ColumnChart/{id}?callback={cb}")] List<double> HighChart_ColumnChart(string id,string cb); Here is the actual function being called: public List<double> HighChart_ColumnChart(string id,string cb) { var z = new List<double>(); z.Add(1.4); z.Add(54.43); z.Add(49.39); z.Add(93.23); return z; } when I debug, the CB param is something like : "jQuery19108121746340766549_1372630643878". How do I modify the code to wrap it correctly? Thanks for the help thus far!

    Read the article

  • What is the best way of doing this? (WCF 4)

    - by Jason Porter
    I have a multith-threaded, continusly running application that connects with multiple devices via TCP/IP sockets and exposes a set of WCF API's for controlling, monitoring and reporting on these devices. I would like to host this on IIS for the ususal reasons of not having to worry about re-starting the app in case of errors. So the issue I have is the main application running in parallel with the WCF Servies. To accomplish this I use the static AppInitialize class to start a thread which has the main applicaiton loop. The WCF services mostly report or control the shared objects with this thread. There are two problems that I see with this approach. One is that if the thread dies, IIS has no clue to re-start it so I have to play some tricks with some WCF calls. The other is that the backrgound thread deals with potentially thousands of devices that are connected permanently (typically a thread per socket connection). So I am not sure if IIS is buying me anything in this case. Another approach that I am thinking is to use WF for the main application that deals with the sockets and host both the WF and my WCF services in IIS using AppFabric. Since I have not use WF or AppFabric I am reaching out to see if this would be good approach or there are better alternative.

    Read the article

  • How often should network traffic/collisions cause SNMP Sets to fail?

    - by A. Levy
    My team has a situation where an SNMP SET will fail once every two weeks or so. Since this set happens automatically, we don't necessarily notice it immediately when it fails, and this can result in an inconsistent configuration and associated wailing and gnashing of teeth. The plan is to fix this by having our software automatically retry the SET when it fails. The problem is, we aren't sure why the failure is happening. My (extremely limited) knowledge of SNMP isn't particularly helpful in diagnosing this problem, so I thought I'd ask StackOverflow for some advice. We think that every so often a spike in network traffic will cause the SET to fail. Since SNMP uses UDP for communication, I would think it would be relatively easy for a command to be drowned out if traffic was high for a short period of time. However, I have no idea how common this is. We have a small network with a single cisco router and there are less than a dozen SNMP controlled devices on that network. In addition to the SNMP traffic, there are some status web pages being loaded from the various devices. In case it makes a difference, I believe we are using the AdventNet SNMP API version 4.0.4 for Java. Does it sound reasonable that there will be some SET commands dropped occasionally, or should we be looking for other causes?

    Read the article

  • Can't authenticate mobile client with node.js (using passport.js)

    - by Pazinio
    I'm trying to build some CRUD application with node.js as a back-end API (express) and web-app (backbone) and mobile client (native android) as front-ends.(I'm node.js beginner) My server solution is based on the following great tutorial 'easy-node-authentication'. In my android app I have managed to get the user Google-Token after I completed the authentication step with Google Plus SDK.(mobile to google-plus directly request). I'm trying to understand and find right and elegant way to re-use a given google-token and authenticate again my android user through Google-Plus account to ensure the mobile client holds real token, then add a new entry (id, token, email, name) to my users table DB within my node back-end. The question is: what should be my next step in case I want to keep my back-end without changes? should I send a GET request with the token as a cookie to /auth/google? maybe to /auth/google/callback? another URL? Does this make sense at all? Please note: I'm aware to the fact the mentioned above 'easy-node-auth' solution is based on sessions and cookies. having said that, i'm still trying to understand if there is a convenient way to integrate both (android and node) as it works good for my web-app and node. Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • How to get a nicely formatted PHP Web Service response?

    - by Bruno
    I called an API like this: $service = new Class_Service(); $parameters = new GetClasses(); $parameters->Request = new GetClassesRequest(); $parameters->Request->SourceCredentials = new SourceCredentials(); $parameters->Request->SourceCredentials->SourceName = "Name"; $parameters->Request->SourceCredentials->Password = "Pass"; $parameters->Request->SourceCredentials->SiteIDs = array( 12 ); $classes = $service->GetClasses($parameters); var_dump($classes); And received a response like this: object(GetClassesResponse)#7 (1) { ["GetClassesResult"]=> object(GetClassesResult)#8 (6 { ["Classes"]=> object(stdClass)#9 (1) { ["Class"]=> array(25) { [0]=> object(Mi_Class)#10 (21) { ["ClassScheduleID"]=> int(15) ["Visits"]=> NULL ["Clients"]=> NULL ["Location"]=> object(Location)#11 (30) { ["BusinessID"]=> NULL ["SiteID"]=> int(12) ["BusinessDescription"]=> NULL ["AdditionalImageURLs"]=> object(stdClass)#12 (0) { } ["FacilitySquareFeet"]=> NULL Does a response normally look like this? How do I go about getting the data in a formatted manner?

    Read the article

  • Major JQuery bug on IE not reproducible - What can i do in this situation to solve this bug?

    - by ming yeow
    I am hoping to get some help on this issue. Some users on IE have been reporting this javascript issue, but I have been unable to re-produce it. In essence, for some class of windows IE users, the game doesn't work (or $.ajax() is not working). What I know: I swapped out an ajax call (ajax_init_trainer) and used a standard link with some request parameters to do the initialization and ppl seemed to get passed the problem until they hit the next ajax call. I read somewhere that IE does crazy caching so you need to make the urls unique, which is why i added the _requestno parameter. However, setting the cache:false is said to also do this. This didn't fix it for someone who was complaining. function done(res, status) { var data = JSON.parse(res.responseText); hide_loading(); if (status == "success") { window.location.href="/bamo/battle/?{{ fb_sig}}"; } else { display_alert("Problem!",data.msg,$("#notifications")); } }; $(".monster_select_class").click(function() { $(this).attr("src","{{MEDIA_URL}}/bamo/button_select_click.png"); monster_class = $(this).attr("monster_class"); monster_type = $(this).attr("monster_type"); ajax_init_trainer(monster_class,monster_type); }); function ajax_init_trainer(trainer_class,monster_type) { var data = {trainer_class:trainer_class,monster_type:monster_type}; var d = new Date(); var args = { type:"POST",url:"/bamo/api/init_trainer/?_requestno="+d.getTime(),data:data,contentType:"application/json;", dataType: "json",cache:false,complete:done}; $.ajax(args); return false; };

    Read the article

  • Why use shorter VARCHAR(n) fields?

    - by chryss
    It is frequently advised to choose database field sizes to be as narrow as possible. I am wondering to what degree this applies to SQL Server 2005 VARCHAR columns: Storing 10-letter English words in a VARCHAR(255) field will not take up more storage than in a VARCHAR(10) field. Are there other reasons to restrict the size of VARCHAR fields to stick as closely as possible to the size of the data? I'm thinking of Performance: Is there an advantage to using a smaller n when selecting, filtering and sorting on the data? Memory, including on the application side (C++)? Style/validation: How important do you consider restricting colunm size to force non-sensical data imports to fail (such as 200-character surnames)? Anything else? Background: I help data integrators with the design of data flows into a database-backed system. They have to use an API that restricts their choice of data types. For character data, only VARCHAR(n) with n <= 255 is available; CHAR, NCHAR, NVARCHAR and TEXT are not. We're trying to lay down some "good practices" rules, and the question has come up if there is a real detriment to using VARCHAR(255) even for data where real maximum sizes will never exceed 30 bytes or so. Typical data volumes for one table are 1-10 Mio records with up to 150 attributes. Query performance (SELECT, with frequently extensive WHERE clauses) and application-side retrieval performance are paramount.

    Read the article

  • Error logging/handling on application basis?

    - by Industrial
    Hi everybody, We have a web server that we're about to launch a number of applications on. On the server-level we have managed to work out the error handling with the help of Hyperic to notify the person who is in charge in the event of a database/memcached server is going down. However, we are still in the need of handling those eventual error and log events that happen on application level to improve the applications for our customers, before the customers notices. So, what's then a good solution to do this? Utilizing PHP:s own error log would quickly become cloggered if we would run a big number of applications at the same time. It's probably isn't the best option if you like structure. One idea is to build a off-site lightweight error-handling application that has a REST/JSON API that receives encrypted and serialized arrays of error messages and stores them into a database. Maybe it could, depending on the severity of the error also be directly inputted into our bug tracker. Could be a few well spent hours, but it seems like a quite fragile solution and I am sure that there's better more-reliable alternatives out there already. Thanks,

    Read the article

  • is there something equivalent to 'Address of' or offset operator in .net?

    - by Gio
    We have nested stuctures as such, used as an interface for some device drivers. On occasion we have to update individual elements. An 'address of' operator would be helpful, but an 'offset' function or operator is what I'm really looking for, but not sure how to go about it. In other words, how far is structureN.elementX away from the start of the structure in bytes? [StructLayout(LayoutKind.Sequential)] public struct s1 { UInt16 elem1; UInt16 elem2; UInt16 elem3; } [StructLayout(LayoutKind.Sequential)] public struct s2 { UInt16 elem1; UInt16 elem2; UInt16 elem3; } [StructLayout(LayoutKind.Sequential)] public struct driver { public S1 s1; public S2 s2; } For instance we need to send the device driver some data to update driver.s1.elem3, by way of providing an offset address, data block and length. We would update our local copy, then call the device api with the afore mentioned data. Not sure I have to do this with 'unsafe' method calls. Any help?

    Read the article

  • Sample twitter App

    - by Jack
    I am now running my code on a web hosting service http://xtreemhost.com/ <?php function updateTwitter($status) { $username = 'xxxxxx'; $password = 'xxxx'; $url = 'http://twitter.com/statuses/update.xml'; $postargs = 'status='.urlencode($status); $responseInfo=array(); $ch = curl_init($url); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_CONNECTTIMEOUT, 2); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER, 1); curl_setopt ($ch, CURLOPT_POST, true); // Give CURL the arguments in the POST curl_setopt ($ch, CURLOPT_POSTFIELDS, $postargs); // Set the username and password in the CURL call curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_USERPWD, $username.':'.$password); // Set some cur flags (not too important) $response = curl_exec($ch); if($response === false) { echo 'Curl error: ' . curl_error($ch); } else { echo 'Operation completed without any errors<br/>'; } // Get information about the response $responseInfo=curl_getinfo($ch); // Close the CURL connection curl_close($ch); // Make sure we received a response from Twitter if(intval($responseInfo['http_code'])==200){ // Display the response from Twitter echo $response; }else{ // Something went wrong echo "Error: " . $responseInfo['http_code']; } curl_close($ch); } updateTwitter("Just finished a sweet tutorial on http://brandontreb.com"); ?> I get the following error now Curl error: Couldn't resolve host 'api.twitter.com' Error: 0 Please somebody solve my problem

    Read the article

  • Flash Player, security: If a URL starts with "http://" will the SWF always be loaded into REMOTE san

    - by Pavel
    Seems to be a question for a Flash security guru. Suppose we are loading an external SWF movie with MovieClipLoader.loadMovie(url:String) Is it safe to assume that if url starts with "http://", the movie will be loaded in REMOTE sandbox? We need to tell local SWFs from remote ones to close a security hole. If you need the context read on. We have developed a Projector, written in C++ embedding Flash Player ActiveX. Our Flash application runs inside the Projector. Soon we want to give our users a way to create plugins for the application. The plugins are obviously will be SWF movies. The case I'm afraid of is the following. A bad person creates a malicious evil.swf pretending it to be nice plugin for our app. In case evil.swf is loaded from the local file system it is granted an access to the whole MovieClip tree and Projector API, opening C++ file access operations. On the other hand if evil.swf is loaded from the internet, remotely, it will be locked in REMOTE sandbox by Flash security model. Because of this, we need a reliable way to tell local SWF from remote one before loading it. And we must not make a mistake. So again, is it safe to assume that if url begins with "http://", the clip will be loaded inside REMOTE sandbox?

    Read the article

  • UIImagePickerController Crash after 5 to 7 pictures - again

    - by Sophtware
    OK, I know this one has been beaten to death on this forum, but I'm still having the memory problem and I have tried all the techniques on the web to get around this. I have an application that uses the UIImagePickerController to capture an image from the camera. I've tried both creating and destroying the controller for each picture, and keeping it around for the life of the app. Both are failing. The first way crashes the phone almost immediately. While the second, leaving the controller around, crashes the app after about 5 to 7 pictures. My original app used an undocumented API to get around this issue, but Apple rejected it because of this. I really need to get my app to the store. Does anyone have code showing how they got around the issue? I know there is a way because there are apps on the store using the camera, but I just can't seem to get it. Any help is greatly appreciated! I can post my code here too, if needed.

    Read the article

  • android.intent.action.NOTIFICATION_REMOVE not available on all devices?

    - by Matt McMinn
    I've got a receiver set up in my android application to catch android.intent.action.NOTIFICATION_REMOVE intents. On my Evo, it works fine - when a notification is cleared from the notification bar, I catch that event and can run some code. I tried running this on a Samsung Moment though, and it is never caught. So now I'm trying to figure out why, and I can't seem to find anything on Google about this intent action - and I set this code up a few months ago, so I don't remember where I even found this action, it doesn't seem to be in the API. The evo is running 2.2, and the moment is running 2.1-update1, so I'm guessing that it's undocumented, and only available in 2.2. Is there any other way to catch an event that a notification has been cleared? Note that I'm not trying to cancel a notification that I put up, or trying to cancel another app's notification, just catch an event when a notification has been cleared. Here's my receiver in AndroidManafest.xml: <receiver android:name=".NotificationClearedReciever"> <intent-filter> <action android:name="android.intent.action.NOTIFICATION_REMOVE" /> </intent-filter> </receiver>

    Read the article

  • parsing python to csv

    - by user185955
    I'm trying to download some game stats to do some analysis, only problem is each season the data their isn't 100% consistent. I grab the json file from the site, then wish to save it to a csv with the first line in the csv containing the heading for that column, so the heading would be essentially the key from the python data type. #!/usr/bin/env python import requests import json import csv base_url = 'http://www.afl.com.au/api/cfs/afl/' token_url = base_url + 'WMCTok' player_url = base_url + 'matchItems/round' def printPretty(data): print(json.dumps(data, sort_keys=True, indent=2, separators=(',', ': '))) session = requests.Session() # session makes it simple to use the token across the requests token = session.post(token_url).json()['token'] # get the token session.headers.update({'X-media-mis-token': token}) # set the token Season = 2014 Roundno = 4 if Roundno<10: strRoundno = '0'+str(Roundno) else: strRoundno = str(Roundno) # get some data (could easily be a for loop, might want to put in a delay using Sleep so that you don't get IP blocked) data = session.get(player_url + '/CD_R'+str(Season)+'014'+strRoundno) # print everything printPretty(data.json()) with open('stats_game_test.csv', 'w', newline='') as csvfile: spamwriter = csv.writer(csvfile, delimiter="'",quotechar='|', quoting=csv.QUOTE_ALL) for profile in data.json()['items']: spamwriter.writerow(['%s' %(profile)]) #for key in data.json().keys(): # print("key: %s , value: %s" % (key, data.json()[key])) The above code grabs the json and writes it to a csv, but it puts the key in each individual cell next to the value (eg 'venueId': 'CD_V190'), the key needs to be just across the first row as a heading. It gives me a csv file with data in the cells like this Column A B 'tempInCelsius': 17.0 'totalScore': 32 'tempInCelsius': 16.0 'totalScore': 28 What I want is the data like this tempInCelsius totalScore 17 32 16 28 As I mentioned up the top, the data isn't always consistent so if I define what fields to grab with spamwriter.writerow([profile['tempInCelsius'], profile['totalScore']]) then it will error out on certain data grabs. This is why I'm now trying the above method so it just grabs everything regardless of what data is there.

    Read the article

  • In C/C++,how to link dynamic link lib which compiled in GCC/G++ in MS VStudio?

    - by coanor
    These days, I use Flex & Bison generated some codes to develop a SQL-parser alike tools, these code can't compiled silently(may be this another topic) in VS2005,but GCC/G++ works well, then I compiled these code with mingw in dll(in windows xp), and then linked these function facades in VS2005, but it seems can't link the dll during linking. Does MS VS2005 recognize the dll which compiled using mingw on windows? Is there anything I need to do additional? For example, adding something in the include-file that declare the exported APIs? Does any one can give some advices? The condition is, as in VS2005, if you want to export some APIs, you may show a *.def file to tell nmake which API you want to export, and then you may create a(or some) *.h file to declare somthing about these APIs(adding some stdcall alike prefix as a call protocal) and some data-type definition. But with GCC/G++, you do not need to do such boring things, just use [ar], you can get these APIs, so my *.h file do not add call protocol and no *.def, just like common function declaration. After *.dll generated, add the *.h file and [mv] generated *.dll in VS2005 project directory, then set the linking *.dll in project setting. Does these steps generated my Question? BTW, I found and tested VC6-compiled dll can be linked with mingw in Windows XP, but the reverse can't work. Anyway, forgive my poor English, and thanks for your concern.

    Read the article

  • Javascript Conflict on PHP page

    - by patrick
    I am having trouble running two javascript files on the same page. I used JQuery.noConflict() (http://api.jquery.com/jQuery.noConflict/) but no luck. <script src="http://www.google.com/jsapi"></script> <script> google.load("prototype", "1.6.0.3",{uncompressed:false}); google.load("scriptaculous", "1.8.1",{uncompressed:false}); </script> <script src="js/jquery.tools.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $jQuery.noConflict(); jQuery(document).ready(function($) { $("#download_now").tooltip({ effect: 'slide'}); }); function show_text() { new Ajax.Request('./new.php', { method: 'post', parameters: { userid: $('userid').value }, onSuccess: function(r) { $('update').update(r.responseText) } }); } document.observe("dom:loaded", function() { $('loading').hide(); Ajax.Responders.register({ onCreate: function() { new Effect.Opacity('loading',{ from: 1.0, to: 0.3, duration: 0.7 }); new Effect.toggle('loading', 'appear'); }, onComplete: function() { new Effect.Opacity('loading', { from: 0.3, to: 1, duration: 0.7 }); new Effect.toggle('loading', 'appear'); } }); }); </script>

    Read the article

  • Rails: update_attribute vs update_attributes

    - by Sam
    Object.update_attribute(:only_one_field, "Some Value") Object.update_attributes(:field1 => "value", :field2 => "value2", :field3 => "value3") Both of these will update an object without having to explicitly tell AR to update. Rails API says: for update_attribute Updates a single attribute and saves the record without going through the normal validation procedure. This is especially useful for boolean flags on existing records. The regular update_attribute method in Base is replaced with this when the validations module is mixed in, which it is by default. for update_attributes Updates all the attributes from the passed-in Hash and saves the record. If the object is invalid, the saving will fail and false will be returned. So if I don't want to have the object validated I should use update_attribute. What if I have this update on a before_save, will it stackoverflow? My question is does update_attribute also bypass the before save or just the validation. Also, what is the correct syntax to pass a hash to update_attributes... check out my example at the top.

    Read the article

  • How to Sort a TreeList in Sitecore 6 in the Source

    - by Scott
    My team uses Sitecore 6 as content management system and then .Net to interface with Sitecore API. In many of our templates we make use of a Treelist. When adding a new item to the selected items Treelist it automatically puts the item at the bottom of the list. In some lists they get very large. In most cases end users would like to see these lists sorted descending by a Date field that is part of the templates that can be added as selected to the Treelist. Programmatically on the .Net side its very easy to handle this using Linq OrderByDescending and all displays great in the site to visitors. What I am trying to figure out is how to get it to display the same in Sitecore Content Editor. I've not found anything from Google search other than there seems to be a SortBy you can specify in the source but I tried this and can't get it to have any effect. Has anyone dealt with this before? Again, main goal is to sort items in a Treelist in the Sitecore Content Editor itself. Thanks for any input anyone has.

    Read the article

  • Is Storing Cookies in a Database Safe?

    - by viatropos
    If I use mechanize, I can, for instance, create a new google analytics profile for a website. I do this by programmatically filling out the login form and storing the cookies in the database. Then, for at least until the cookie expires, I can access my analytics admin panel without having to enter my username and password again. Assuming you can't create a new analytics profile any other way (with OpenAuth or any of that, I don't think it works for actually creating a new Google Analytics profile, the Analytics API is for viewing the data, but I need to create an new analytics profile), is storing the cookie in the database a bad thing? If I do store the cookie in the database, it makes it super easy to programatically login to Google Analytics without the user ever having to go to the browser (maybe the app has functionality that says "user, you can schedule a hook that creates a new anaytics profile for each new domain you create, just enter your credentials once and we'll keep you logged in and safe"). Otherwise I have to keep transferring around emails and passwords which seems worse. So is storing cookies in the database safe?

    Read the article

  • Conditional compilation hackery in C# - is there a way to pull this off?

    - by Chris
    I have an internal API that I would like others to reference in their projects as a compiled DLL. When it's a standalone project that's referenced, I use conditional compilation (#if statements) to switch behavior of a key web service class depending on compilation symbols. The problem is, once an assembly is generated, it appears that it's locked into whatever the compilation symbols were when it was originally compiled - for instance, if this assembly is compiled with DEBUG and is referenced by another project, even if the other project is built as RELEASE, the assembly still acts as if it was in DEBUG as it doesn't need recompilation. That makes sense, just giving some background. Now I'm trying to work around that so I can switch the assembly's behavior by some other means, such as scanning the app/web config file for a switch. The problem is, some of the assembly's code I was switching between are attributes on methods, for example: #if PRODUCTION [SoapDocumentMethodAttribute("https://prodServer/Service_Test", RequestNamespace = "https://prodServer", ResponseNamespace = "https://prodServer")] #else [SoapDocumentMethodAttribute("https://devServer/Service_Test", RequestNamespace = "https://devServer", ResponseNamespace = "https://devServer")] #endif public string Service_Test() { // test service } Though there might be some syntactical sugar that allows me to flip between two attributes of the same type in another fashion, I don't know it. Any ideas? The alternative method would be to reference the entire project instead of the assembly, but I'd rather stick with just referencing the compiled DLL if I can. I'm also completely open to a whole new approach to solve the problem if that's what it takes.

    Read the article

  • PHP and storing stats

    - by John
    Using PHP5 and the latest version of MySQL I want to be able to track impressions and clicks for business listings. My question is if I did this myself what would be the best method in storing it so I can run reports? Before I just had a table that had the listing id, user ip address and if it was a click or impression as well as the date it was tracked. However the database itself is approaching 2GB of data and its very slow, part of the problem is its a pretty simple script that includes impressions and clicks from anyone including search engines and basically anyone or anything that accesses the listing page. Is there an api or file out there that has an update to date list that can detect if the person viewing is a actually person and not a spider so I dont fill up the database with unneeded stats? Just looking for suggestions, do I just have a raw database that gets just the hits then a cron job at night tally up for the day for each listing for each ip and store the cumulative stats in a different table? Also what type of database should it be? Innodb? MyISAM?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 453 454 455 456 457 458 459 460 461 462 463 464  | Next Page >