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  • Windows 7 misses keystrokes from internal keyboard after hibernation (on Acer Aspire 5820)

    - by ron
    I face a very strange symptom on my Acer Aspire laptop (with the factory default Win7 install and divers. Windows update running). After waking the computer from hibernation, it is a pain to type, since on average 5-10 keypresses are missing per 100 presses, using the laptop's keyboard. Steps to reproduce: 1) Power off 2) Power on, wait for system to become usable 3) Open notepad, for 5 times do hit 10x the same character. This gives a similar pattern of 50 chars total: xxxxxxxxxxyyyyyyyyyyaaaaaaaaaassssssssssdddddddddd 4) Optionally repeat. Everything is fine this far. 5) Hibernate. 6) Power on and resume. 7) Repeat steps 3)-4). This time approximately 3-5 character will be missing from each 50 characters. What I ruled out: putting to Sleep or just Locking and resuming from there does not cause problem battery / AC usage does not matter net connection does not matter running processes seem to be the same before and after hibernation key press speed doesn't really matter. For the test I use a nominal 3-5 strokes/second beat. plugging in an external USB keyboard works fine, but the built-in one still misbehaves What could be the problem? How could I diagnose if the keypresses arrive in, but get swallowed at some point? (maybe some nasty keyboard handler hook misbehaves?). Update: It seems that pushing the PowerSmart button and toggling to power saving state fixes the problem. Also, toggling it again back to the original state keeps it fixed. So this may be a fine workaround, but is not a conforming solution.

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  • How can I diagnose what's causing Outlook 2007 when sending an attachment to fail with error 800CCC0F even though the message was sent?

    - by James
    As the title suggests, I've got an issue where outlook 2007 is reporting it failed to send email with error 800ccc0f (unexpectedly terminated connection) but only with attachments. The email is actually sent, but outlook keeps retrying (stays in the outbox), generating more emails to the original recipient (which do get delivered) I've got QMail on the server side supporting a half dozen domains. It doesn't appear to matter which account I send from. I can successfully send attachments via alternate mail clients (webmail, thunderbird) while outlook is failing, or send messages without attachments; so it's seemingly not the accounts themselves or serverside, which leaves outlook as the culprit. There doesn't appear to be any pattern to the failures, and it's not consistent (I successfully sent an attachment as recently as 3 weeks ago) so I'm at a loss as to where to look. Qmail logs don't look any different between successes and failures. Has anybody seen this before/have a solution? UPDATE : It appears it's only PDF files that this occurs with, so I'm even more stumped. I can send html/docx/txt and zip, UNLESS the zip file contains a pdf ... whiskey tango foxtrot

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  • SSL configuration issue. SSL/IIS7 not loading all scripts/CSS on user's first visit

    - by Chris
    Hi all, Hopefully this isnt a tricky one. I've got a web app that doesn't load all javascript/css/images on the first visit. Second visit is fine. After approximately 2 minutes of inactivity the problem reoccurs. These problems only started occuring after the customer requested SSL be applied to the application. Ajax requests stop working after 2 minutes of activity despite a successful page load of all javascript elements. Application timeout is 30 minutes - like I said, everything was fine before SSL was applied. All javascript and CSS files use absolute URLS - e.g https://blablabla There appears to be no pattern as to why certain files arent loaded. The firebug Net output shows the status for the failed elements as 'Aborted'. For example, site.css and nav.css are in the same folder, are declared after each other in the head tag yet one is loaded and the other is not. Both will load fine after refreshing the page (unless roughly two minutes have passed). An Ajax request also shows as aborted after two minutes. However, if i do the request again the Ajax request will succeed. Almost as if the first request woke something up. None of these problems occur in Chrome Any ideas? FYI this is a .Net 4 C# MVC app running under IIS7 but I'm not sure its relevant since it works in Chrome. Everything worked fine before SSL was applied. Originally posted on stackoverflow but recommended to list here. Can provide additional details if necessary.

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  • Did Windows 7 Startup Repair trash My Documents?

    - by Metaphile
    Earlier today, I rebooted my computer. Partway through the boot process, it shut down suddenly. When I tried again, I was prompted to run Startup Repair, and I did. Afterwards, my computer booted normally and everything seemed to be in order. Then I noticed that my My Documents folder contains a mix of old and new files. On closer inspection, it appears that Windows has reverted my system to a previous state. Two things puzzle me: 1) According to Microsoft, "System Restore does not affect personal files, such as e-mail, documents, or photos [...]", yet many of my personal files have been affected. 2) Why were some things reverted, but not others? I had recently reorganized a bunch of files in My Documents. The reverted directory structure seems to be a hybrid of old a new, with a lot of new stuff missing. It's hard to say for sure, but it looks like the stuff that's missing would have been in conflict (two folders with the same name, for example), and Windows favored the old stuff. Is this normal behavior for Startup Repair/System Restore? To modify personal files, I mean? Is there a pattern to the mess it's made of My Documents?

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  • Monitor programs accessing my keyboard?

    - by Anti Earth
    As of a few days ago, my computer is behaving 'erratically'. When I am typing, my pointer will randomly move to another place in the text and start typing a semi-random string of characters. ("gvyfn" is common; It has typed this about 8 times whilst I composed all the text above) It often highlights part of or all the text and overwrites it. It sometimes goes into loops of pressing Control-alt-delete down, bringing up Windows 7 menu thing. It sometimes even messes with mouseclicks; they have unexpected results, like requesting admin priveledges from applications, instead of switching to their window. I believe this is because it is holding a alt-function key down. This behaviour happens periodically, in waves. It might subside for an hour, then continue to haunt me. I believe it to be a virus or malicious program. My anti-virus (Symantec) and multiply MS rootkit removers could not find anything suspicious. I've noticed that sometimes it re-maps keys, and types gibberish when I press certain keys (though no pattern is evident). I believe a malicious program has installed a keyhook on my computer. I'm wondering... - Is there a way to let me view which programs are emulating keystrokes? - Is there a way to view what keyboard hooks are installed? (I'm also at liberty to try any other techniques to remove this blasted thing. It is easily the most fustrating computer problem I've encountered). Thanks!

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  • Load balance to proxies

    - by LoveRight
    I have installed several proxy programs whose IP addresses are, for example, 127.0.0.1:8580(use http), 127.0.0.1:9050(use socks5). You may regrard them as Tor and its alternatives. You know, certain proxy programs are faster than others at times, while at other times, they would be slower. The Firefox add-in, AutoProxy and FoxyProxy Standard, can define a list of rules such as any urls matching the pattern *.google.com should be proxied to 127.0.0.1:8580 using socks5 protocol. But the rule is "static". I want *.google.com to be proxied to the fastest proxy, no matter which one. I think that is kind of load balancing. I thought I could set a rule that direct request of *.google.com to the address the load balancer listens, and the load balancer forwards the request to the fastest real proxy. I notice that tor uses socks5 protocol and some other applications use http. I feel confused that which protocol should the load balancer use. I also start to wonder about the feasibility of this solution. Any suggestions? My operating system is Windows 7 x64.

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  • Diagnosing PC crashes (most often while using shared folders or torrents)

    - by Dyppl
    For the last few weeks my PC (pretty old P4 with WinXP SP3) has been crashing randomly. It just suddenly reboots instanteneously. It feels hardware-related but I wasn't able to determine wether it's software or hardware that causes it. I did notice a pattern though: it's more likely to crash when I copy a lot of files over network or have uTorrent running, but sometimes it crashes when I am not doing anything with it. Copying files from it over network causes it to crash in 1 to 10 minutes almost every time. Using torrents causes it to crash every 1-3 hours. With neither or that on it crashes every 24 hours or so. I ruled out the following probable causes: PSU (I bought a new one and turned off most of the drives so the power is sufficient 100%) Bad HDD or interface cable on my SATA disk from which I was originally copying the data over network (bought new SATA cable and later yanked out the HDD completely, PC still crashes without it) Video adapter (AGP slot is now empty, using the onboard VGA at the moment) Network adapter (removed it from PCI, using onboard LAN) CPU (I think: I changed the termopaste and it's temperature is below 50C) RAM (I think: I ran Memtest86 and it didn't show any errors) At the moment I only have only one system HDD and DVD drives, a mouse and a keyboard plugged in. The fact that it crashes most often when I use network extensively makes me think that maybe it's software related (I removed the network adapter from PCI and now am using an onboard one, so network hardware is unlikely to cause problems). I am now pondering system reinstall but it's not a pleasant solution so I decided to ask wether there are better ideas first. If someone can share a good diagnostic tool it would be great because I didn't find anything good. Thanks in advance, I hope that "help to diagnose" questions aren't entirely banned here. EDIT: Motherboard is actually ~4 years old as I replaced it back in 2007

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  • Linux Server partitioning

    - by user1717735
    There's a lot of infos about this out there, but there's also a lot of contradictory infos… That's why i need some advices about it. So far, on the servers i had home for test (or even "home production") purposes i didn't really care about partitioning and i configured all in / + a swap partition, over RAID 0. Nevertheless, this pattern can't apply to production servers. I have found a good starting point here, but also it depends on what the servers will be used for… So basically, i have a server on which there will be apache, php, mysql. It will have to handle file uploads (up to 2GB) and has 2*2TB hard drive. I plan to set : / 100GB, /var 1000GB (apache files and mysql files will be here), /tmp 800GB (handles the php tmp file) /home 96GB swap 4GB All of this if of course over RAID 1. But actually, it's not a big deal if I lose data being uploaded, so would it be interesting mounting /tmp over raid 0 while maintaining the rest over raid 1? Sounds complicated…

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  • sp_send_dbmail attach files stored as varbinary in database

    - by Mindstorm Interactive
    I have a two part question relating to sending query results as attachments using sp_send_dbmail. Problem 1: Only basic .txt files will open. Any other format like .pdf or .jpg are corrupted. Problem 2: When attempting to send multiple attachments, I receive one file with all file names glued together. I'm running SQL Server 2005 and I have a table storing uploaded documents: CREATE TABLE [dbo].[EmailAttachment]( [EmailAttachmentID] [int] IDENTITY(1,1) NOT NULL, [MassEmailID] [int] NULL, -- foreign key [FileData] [varbinary](max) NOT NULL, [FileName] [varchar](100) NOT NULL, [MimeType] [varchar](100) NOT NULL I also have a MassEmail table with standard email stuff. Here is the SQL Send Mail script. For brevity, I've excluded declare statements. while ( (select count(MassEmailID) from MassEmail where status = 20 )>0) begin select @MassEmailID = Min(MassEmailID) from MassEmail where status = 20 select @Subject = [Subject] from MassEmail where MassEmailID = @MassEmailID select @Body = Body from MassEmail where MassEmailID = @MassEmailID set @query = 'set nocount on; select cast(FileData as varchar(max)) from Mydatabase.dbo.EmailAttachment where MassEmailID = '+ CAST(@MassEmailID as varchar(100)) select @filename = '' select @filename = COALESCE(@filename+ ',', '') +FileName from EmailAttachment where MassEmailID = @MassEmailID exec msdb.dbo.sp_send_dbmail @profile_name = 'MASS_EMAIL', @recipients = '[email protected]', @subject = @Subject, @body =@Body, @body_format ='HTML', @query = @query, @query_attachment_filename = @filename, @attach_query_result_as_file = 1, @query_result_separator = '; ', @query_no_truncate = 1, @query_result_header = 0; update MassEmailset status= 30,SendDate = GetDate() where MassEmailID = @MassEmailID end I am able to successfully read files from the database so I know the binary data is not corrupted. .txt files only read when I cast FilaData to varchar. But clearly original headers are lost. It's also worth noting that attachment file sizes are different than the original files. That is most likely due to improper encoding as well. So I'm hoping there's a way to create file headers using the stored mimetype, or some way to include file headers in the binary data? I'm also not confident in the values of the last few parameters, and I know coalesce is not quite right, because it prepends the first file name with a comma. But good documentation is nearly impossible to find. Please help!

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  • Deploy ASP.NET MVC 2 to IIS 7.5 targeting .NET 3.5

    - by Agent_9191
    I created an ASP.NET MVC 2 application in Visual Studio 2008. I set the release build to go through the ASP.NET compiler to precompile all the views, minify Javascript and CSS, clean up the web.config, etc. Since the production deployment is going to an IIS6 server, I set up my pseudo-production deployment on my Windows 7 machine to have the application pool run in classic mode targeting the 2.0 runtime. I set up the extensionless handler in the web.config that's necessary and everything worked great. The problem came when I upgraded the solution to Visual Studio 2010. I'm still targeting the 3.5 framework, but now I'm using MSBuild 4.0 since that's what Visual Studio 2010 uses. Everything still compiles correctly because it runs fine under Cassini, but when I deploy it to the same location (same application pool, identity, etc) it now behaves differently. I still have the extensionless handler in the web.config, but now when I navigate to the root of the application it does directory browsing, and any routes that it had previously handled now come back as 404 errors being handled by the StaticFile handler in IIS. I'm at a loss for what changed and is causing the break. I have looked at this question, but I have already verified that all the prerequisite components are installed.

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  • Error launching application after ClickOnce deployment - "An application for this deployment is alre

    - by digiduck
    As part of my continuous integration build the application is deployed as a ClickOnce application. This works great the first time, but when I try the launch the app after an update has been deployed I get the following error. An application for this deployment is already installed with a different application identity. If I run mage.exe -cc to clear the application cache for all ClickOnce apps then I can launch the application just fine. Has anyone run into this before? How can I fix this? Here are the steps in my build script that publish the ClickOnce application. ./tools/windows_sdk/mage.exe -New Application -Processor msil -ToFile "C:\temp\build\RoadrunnerTrap.exe.manifest" -Name "Roadrunner Trap" -Version 1.0.0.1 -FromDirectory "C:\temp\build" # artifacts from C:\temp\build\ are copied to \\server\publish\v1.0.0.1\ ./tools/windows_sdk/mage.exe -New Deployment -Processor msil -Install false -Publisher "Acme, Inc." -ProviderUrl "\\server\publish\RoadrunnerTrap.application" -Name "Roadrunner Trap" -AppManifest "\\server\publish\v1.0.0.1\RoadrunnerTrap.exe.manifest" -ToFile "\\server\publish\RoadrunnerTrap.application" Note that the version number does change with every deployment.

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  • ASP.NET PowerShell Impersonation

    - by Ben
    I have developed an ASP.NET MVC Web Application to execute PowerShell scripts. I am using the VS web server and can execute scripts fine. However, a requirement is that users are able to execute scripts against AD to perform actions that their own user accounts are not allowed to do. Therefore I am using impersonation to switch the identity before creating the PowerShell runspace: Runspace runspace = RunspaceFactory.CreateRunspace(config); var currentuser = WindowsIdentity.GetCurrent().Name; if (runspace.RunspaceStateInfo.State == RunspaceState.BeforeOpen) { runspace.Open(); } I have tested using a domain admin account and I get the following exception when calling runspace.Open(): Security Exception Description: The application attempted to perform an operation not allowed by the security policy. To grant this application the required permission please contact your system administrator or change the application's trust level in the configuration file. Exception Details: System.Security.SecurityException: Requested registry access is not allowed. The web application is running in full trust and I have explicitly added the account I am using for impersonation to the local administrators group of the machine (even though the domain admins group was already there). I'm using advapi32.dll LogonUser call to perform the impersonation in a similar way to this post (http://blogs.msdn.com/webdav_101/archive/2008/09/25/howto-calling-exchange-powershell-from-an-impersonated-thead.aspx) Any help appreciated as this is a bit of a show stopper at the moment. Thanks Ben

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  • InvalidOperationException when calling SaveChanges in .NET Entity framework

    - by Pär Björklund
    Hi, I'm trying to learn how to use the Entity framework but I've hit an issue I can't solve. What I'm doing is that I'm walking through a list of Movies that I have and inserts each one into a simple database. This is the code I'm using private void AddMovies(DirectoryInfo dir) { MovieEntities db = new MovieEntities(); foreach (DirectoryInfo d in dir.GetDirectories()) { Movie m = new Movie { Name = d.Name, Path = dir.FullName }; db.AddToMovies(movie); } db.SaveChanges(); } When I do this I get an exception at db.SaveChanges() that read. The changes to the database were committed successfully, but an error occurred while updating the object context. The ObjectContext might be in an inconsistent state. Inner exception message: AcceptChanges cannot continue because the object's key values conflict with another object in the ObjectStateManager. Make sure that the key values are unique before calling AcceptChanges. I haven't been able to find out what's causing this issue. My database table contains three columns Id int autoincrement Name nchar(255) Path nchar(255) Update: I Checked my edmx file and the SSDL section have the StoreGeneratedPattern="Identity" as suggested. I also followed the blog post and tried to add ClientAutoGenerated="true" and StoreGenerated="true" in the CSDL as suggested there. This resulted in compile errors ( Error 5: The 'ClientAutoGenerated' attribute is not allowed.). Since the blog post is from 2006 and it has a link to a follow up post I assume it's been changed. However, I cannot read the followup post since it seems to require an msdn account.

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  • ASP.NET / Active Directory - Supporting auto login for domain users

    - by Krisc
    I am developing a simple ASP.NET website that will run on the intranet on a WS2008(IIS7) box and respond to users running XP/IE8. Everything is domain connected and I am trying to automatically login the users much like SharePoint does. On my dev machine (XP), when running the site through VS, everything works. I can pickup on the user perfectly. I am using the following settings: <authentication mode="Windows"/> <identity impersonate="true"/> <anonymousIdentification enabled="false"/> <authorization> <allow users="*"/> <deny users="?"/> </authorization> However, when I publish to the WS2008 box, it doesn't work. Clearly I am missing a setting in IIS7 to support this. I have the following set for Authentication on the site: Anon Auth - Enabled ASP.NET Impersonation - Enabled Basic Auth - Disabled Forms Auth - Disabled Windows Auth - Disabled What am I missing? Thanks

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  • Silverlight 4 - MVC 2 ASP.NET Membership integration "single sign on"

    - by Scrappydog
    Scenario: I have an ASP.NET MVC 2 site using ASP.NET Forms Authentication. The site includes a Silverlight 4 application that needs to securely call internal web services. The web services also need to be publically exposed for third party authenticated access. Challenges: Securely accessing webservices from Silverlight using the current users identity without requiring the user to re-login in in the Silverlight application. Providing a secure way for third party applications to access the same webservices the same users credentials, ideally with out using ASP.NET Forms Authentication. Additional details and limitations: This application is hosted in Azure. We would rather NOT use RIA Services if at all possible. Solutions Under Consideration: I think that if the webservices are part of the same MVC site that hosts the Silverlight application then forms authentication should probably "just work" from Silverlight based on the users forms auth cookies. But this seems to rule out the possibility of hosting the webservices seperately (which is desirable in our scenario). For third-party access to the web services I'm guessing that seperate endpoints with a different authenication solution is probably the right answer, but I would rather only support one version of the services if possible... Questions: Can anybody point me towards any sample applications that implements something like this? How would you recommend implementing this solution?

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  • LINQ To SQL ignore unique constraint exception and continue

    - by Martin
    I have a single table in a database called Users Users ------ ID (PK, Identity) Username (Unique Index) I have setup a unique index on the Username table to prevent duplicates. I am then enumerating through a collection and creating a new user in the database for each item. What I want to do is just insert a new user and ignore the exception if the unique key constraint is violated (as it's clearly a duplicate record in that case). This is to avoid having to craft where not exists kind of queries. First off, is this going to be any more efficient or should my insert code be checking for duplicates instead? I'm drawn more to the database having that logic as this prevents any other type of client from inserting duplicate data. My other issue is related to LINQ To SQL. I have the following code: public class TestRepo { DatabaseDataContext database = new DatabaseDataContext(); public void Add(string username) { database.Users.InsertOnSubmit(new User() { Username = username }); } public void Save() { database.SubmitChanges(); } } And then I iterate over a collection and insert new users, ignoring any exceptions: TestRepo repo = new TestRepo(); foreach (var name in new string[] { "Tim", "Bob", "John" }) { try { repo.Add(name); repo.Save(); } catch { } } The first time this is run, great I have three users in the table. If I remove the second one and run this code again, nothing is inserted. I expected the first insert to fail with the exception, the second to succeed (as I just removed that item from the DB) and the third to then fail. What seems to be happening is that once the SqlException is thrown (even though the loop continues to iterate) all of the next inserts fail - even when there isn't a row in the table that would cause a unique violation. Can anyone explain this? P.S. The only workaround I could find was to instantiate the repo each time before the insert, then it worked exactly as excepted - indicating that it's something to do with the LINQ To SQL DataContext. Thanks.

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  • Problem loading Oracle client libraries when running in a NAnt build

    - by Chris Farmer
    I am trying to use dbdeploy to manage Oracle schema changes. I can run it successfully from the command line to get it to generate my change scripts, but when I try to execute it via the dbdeploy NAnt task running through TeamCity, I get an error: System.Data.OracleClient requires Oracle client software version 8.1.7 or greater. I do have the Oracle 10.2.0.2 client software installed. It's the first entry in the system path, and the dbdeploy.exe app is able to successfully negotiate an Oracle connection. The dbdeploy code dynamically loads the System.Data.OracleClient assembly, which in-turn tries to use the Oracle client bits to talk to the database. This is what is failing in my NAnt environment. I have verified the following points: The same user identity is running the process in both cases The same working directory is used in both cases The same dbdeploy code is running in both cases and with the same supplied parameters The same database connection string is being used in both cases The same ADO.NET assembly is being dynamically loaded in both cases (System.Data.OracleClient, Version=1.0.5000.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=b77a5c561934e089) Here's the top of the stack trace during the error: at System.Data.OracleClient.OCI.DetermineClientVersion() at System.Data.OracleClient.OracleInternalConnection.OpenOnLocalTransaction (String userName, String password, String serverName, Boolean integratedSecurity, Boolean unicode, Boolean omitOracleConnectionName) at System.Data.OracleClient.OracleInternalConnection..ctor( OracleConnectionString connectionOptions) at System.Data.OracleClient.OracleConnectionFactory.CreateConnection( DbConnectionOptions options, Object poolGroupProviderInfo, DbConnectionPool pool, DbConnection owningObject) at System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionFactory.CreatePooledConnection( DbConnection owningConnection, DbConnectionPool pool, DbConnectionOptions options) at System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionPool.CreateObject( DbConnection owningObject) at System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionPool.UserCreateRequest( DbConnection owningObject) at System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionPool.GetConnection( DbConnection owningObject) at System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionFactory.GetConnection( DbConnection owningConnection) at System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionClosed.OpenConnection( DbConnection outerConnection, DbConnectionFactory connectionFactory) at System.Data.OracleClient.OracleConnection.Open() at Net.Sf.Dbdeploy.Database.DatabaseSchemaVersionManager. GetCurrentVersionFromDb() My main question is this: how can I discover what's different about these running environments to see why my Oracle client software can't be loaded?

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  • Unicode Collations problem ?

    - by Bayonian
    (.NET 3.5 SP1, VS 2008, VB.NET, MSSQL Server 2008) I'm writing a small web app to test the Khmer Unicode and Lao Unicode. I have a table that store text in Khmer Unicode with the following structure : [t_id] [int] IDENTITY(1,1) NOT NULL [t_chid] [int] NOT NULL [t_vn] [int] NOT NULL [t_v] [nvarchar](max) NOT NULL I can use Linq to SQL to do CRUD normally. The text display properly on the web page, even though I didn't change the default collation of MSSQL Server 2008. When it comes to search the column [t_v], the page will take a very long time to load and in fact, it loads every row of that column. It never compares with the "key word" criteria that I use for the search. Here's my query for the search : Public Shared Function SearchTestingKhmerTable(ByVal keyword As String) As DataTable Dim db As New BibleDataClassesDataContext() Dim query = From b In db.khmer_books _ From ch In db.khmer_chapters _ From v In db.testing_khmers _ Where v.t_v.Contains(keyword) And ch.kh_book_id = b.kh_b_id And v.t_chid = ch.kh_ch_id _ Select b.kh_b_id, b.kh_b_title, ch.kh_ch_id, ch.kh_ch_number, v.t_id, v.t_vn, v.t_v Dim dtDataTableOne = New DataTable("dtOne") dtDataTableOne.Columns.Add("bid", GetType(Integer)) dtDataTableOne.Columns.Add("btitle", GetType(String)) dtDataTableOne.Columns.Add("chid", GetType(Integer)) dtDataTableOne.Columns.Add("chn", GetType(Integer)) dtDataTableOne.Columns.Add("vid", GetType(Integer)) dtDataTableOne.Columns.Add("vn", GetType(Integer)) dtDataTableOne.Columns.Add("verse", GetType(String)) For Each r In query dtDataTableOne.Rows.Add(New Object() {r.kh_b_id, r.kh_b_title, r.kh_ch_id, r.kh_ch_number, r.t_id, r.t_vn, r.t_v}) Next Return dtDataTableOne End Function Please note that I use the exact same code and database design with Lao Unicode and it works just fine. I get the returned query as expected for the search. I can't figure out what the problem with searching for query in Khmer table.

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  • Accessing Elmah.axd with SqlErrorLog in SharePoint without adding user to db

    - by Chloraphil
    I have installed/configured Elmah on my personal SharePoint dev environment and everything works great since I'm logged in as admin, etc. I am using the MS Sql Server Error Log. (I am also using log4net to handle DEBUG/INFO/etc level logging and log statements are also stored in the db, in the same table as ELMAH's.) However, on the actual dev server (not my personal environment), when I access http://example/elmah.axd I get the error "Login failed for user 'NT AUTHORITY\ANONYMOUS LOGON'". I understand that this is the traditional error for the "double-hop problem" but I don't even want my credentials to be passed along - I would just like the database access to be made with the credentials of the Application Pool Identity. When using the SP object model the SPSecurity.RunWithElevatedPrivileges is available; however, I do not want to modify the Elmah source. My production environment precludes the use of SQL Server authentication, changing impersonation to false, or giving myself permissions on the db directly. How can I get this to work? Am I missing something?

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  • C# Design How to Elegantly wrap a DAL class

    - by guazz
    I have an application which uses MyGeneration's dOODads ORM to generate it's Data Access Layer. dOODad works by generating a persistance class for each table in the database. It works like so: // Load and Save Employees emps = new Employees(); if(emps.LoadByPrimaryKey(42)) { emps.LastName = "Just Got Married"; emps.Save(); } // Add a new record Employees emps = new Employees(); emps.AddNew(); emps.FirstName = "Mr."; emps.LastName = "dOOdad"; emps.Save(); // After save the identity column is already here for me. int i = emps.EmployeeID; // Dynamic Query - All Employees with 'A' in thier last name Employees emps = new Employees(); emps.Where.LastName.Value = "%A%"; emps.Where.LastName.Operator = WhereParameter.Operand.Like; emps.Query.Load(); For the above example(i.e. Employees DAL object) I would like to know what is the best method/technique to abstract some of the implementation details on my classes. I don't believe that an Employee class should have Employees(the DAL) specifics in its methods - or perhaps this is acceptable? Is it possible to implement some form of repository pattern? Bear in mind that this is a high volume, perfomacne critical application. Thanks, j

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  • How can I copy a SQL record which has related records in other tables to the same database?

    - by DerekVS
    Hi. I created a function in C# which allows me to copy a record and its related children to a new record and new related children in the same database. (This is for an application that allows the use of previous work as a template for new work.) Anyway, it works great... Here's a description of how it accomplishes the copy: It populates a two-column memory-based look-up table with the current primary key of each record. Next, as it individually creates each new copy record, it updates the look-up table with the Identity PK of the new record [retrieved from SCOPE_IDENTITY()]. Now, when it copies over any related children, it can look up the new parent PK to set the FK on the new record. In testing, it only took a minute to copy a relational structure on a local instance of SQL Server 2005 Express Edition. Unfortunately it is proving to be horribly slow in production! My users are dealing with 60,000+ records per parent record over the LAN to our SQL Server! While my copy function still works, each of those records represents an individual SQL UPDATE command and it loads the SQL Server at about 17% CPU from its normal 2% idle. I just finished testing a 50,000 record copy and it took almost 20 minutes! Is there a way to duplicate this functionality in SQL queries or stored procecures to make the SQL server do all of the copy work instead of blasting it over the LAN from each client? (We're running Microsoft SQL Server 2005 Standard Edition.) Thanks! -Derek

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  • Implement DDD and drawing the line between the an Entity and value object

    - by William
    I am implementing an EMR project. I would like to apply a DDD based approach to the problem. I have identified the "Patient" as being the core object of the system. I understand Patient would be an entity object as well as an aggregrate. I have also identified that every patient must have a "Doctor" and "Medical Records". The medical records would encompass Labs, XRays, Encounter.... I believe those would be entity objects as well. Let us take a Encounter for example. My implementation currently has a few fields as "String" properties, which are the complaint, assessment and plan. The other items necessary for an Encounter are vitals. I have implemented vitals as a value object. Given that it will be necessary to retrieve vitals without haveing to retrieve each Encounter then do vitals become part of the Encounter aggregate and patient aggregrate. I am assuming I could view the Encounter as an aggregrate, because other items are spwaned from the Encounter like prescriptions, lab orders, xrays. Is approach right that I am taking in identifying my entities and aggregates. In the case of vitals, they are specific to a patient, but outside of that there is not any other identity associated with them.

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  • sqlalchemy date type in 0.6 migration using mssql

    - by nosklo
    I'm connection to mssql server through pyodbc, via FreeTDS odbc driver, on linux ubuntu 10.04. Sqlalchemy 0.5 uses DATETIME for sqlalchemy.Date() fields. Now Sqlalchemy 0.6 uses DATE, but sql server 2000 doesn't have a DATE type. How can I make DATETIME be the default for sqlalchemy.Date() on sqlalchemy 0.6 mssql+pyodbc dialect? I'd like to keep it as clean as possible. Here's code to reproduce the issue: import sqlalchemy from sqlalchemy import Table, Column, MetaData, Date, Integer, create_engine engine = create_engine( 'mssql+pyodbc://sa:sa@myserver/mydb?driver=FreeTDS') m = MetaData(bind=engine) tb = sqlalchemy.Table('test_date', m, Column('id', Integer, primary_key=True), Column('dt', Date()) ) tb.create() And here is the traceback I'm getting: Traceback (most recent call last): File "/tmp/teste.py", line 15, in <module> tb.create() File "/home/nosklo/.local/lib/python2.6/site-packages/sqlalchemy/schema.py", line 428, in create bind.create(self, checkfirst=checkfirst) File "/home/nosklo/.local/lib/python2.6/site-packages/sqlalchemy/engine/base.py", line 1647, in create connection=connection, **kwargs) File "/home/nosklo/.local/lib/python2.6/site-packages/sqlalchemy/engine/base.py", line 1682, in _run_visitor **kwargs).traverse_single(element) File "/home/nosklo/.local/lib/python2.6/site-packages/sqlalchemy/sql/visitors.py", line 77, in traverse_single return meth(obj, **kw) File "/home/nosklo/.local/lib/python2.6/site-packages/sqlalchemy/engine/ddl.py", line 58, in visit_table self.connection.execute(schema.CreateTable(table)) File "/home/nosklo/.local/lib/python2.6/site-packages/sqlalchemy/engine/base.py", line 1157, in execute params) File "/home/nosklo/.local/lib/python2.6/site-packages/sqlalchemy/engine/base.py", line 1210, in _execute_ddl return self.__execute_context(context) File "/home/nosklo/.local/lib/python2.6/site-packages/sqlalchemy/engine/base.py", line 1268, in __execute_context context.parameters[0], context=context) File "/home/nosklo/.local/lib/python2.6/site-packages/sqlalchemy/engine/base.py", line 1367, in _cursor_execute context) File "/home/nosklo/.local/lib/python2.6/site-packages/sqlalchemy/engine/base.py", line 1360, in _cursor_execute context) File "/home/nosklo/.local/lib/python2.6/site-packages/sqlalchemy/engine/default.py", line 277, in do_execute cursor.execute(statement, parameters) sqlalchemy.exc.ProgrammingError: (ProgrammingError) ('42000', '[42000] [FreeTDS][SQL Server]Column or parameter #2: Cannot find data type DATE. (2715) (SQLExecDirectW)') '\nCREATE TABLE test_date (\n\tid INTEGER NOT NULL IDENTITY(1,1), \n\tdt DATE NULL, \n\tPRIMARY KEY (id)\n)\n\n' ()

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  • powershell / runspace in a thread

    - by Vincent
    Hello ! I'm running the following code : RunspaceConfiguration config = RunspaceConfiguration.Create(); PSSnapInException warning; config.AddPSSnapIn("Microsoft.Exchange.Management.PowerShell.Admin", out warning); if (warning != null) throw warning; Runspace thisRunspace = RunspaceFactory.CreateRunspace(config); thisRunspace.Open(); string alias = usr.AD.CN.Replace(' ', '.'); string letter = usr.AD.CN.Substring(0, 1); string email = alias + "@" + (!usr.Mdph ? Constantes.AD_DOMAIN : Constantes.MDPH_DOMAIN) + "." + Constantes.AD_LANG; string db = "CN=IS-" + letter + ",CN=SG-" + letter + ",CN=InformationStore,CN=" + ((char)letter.ToCharArray()[0] < 'K' ? Constantes.EXC_SRVC : Constantes.EXC_SRVD) + Constantes.EXC_DBMEL; string cmd = "Enable-Mailbox -Identity \"" + usr.AD.CN + "\" -Alias " + alias + " -PrimarySmtpAddress " + email + " -DisplayName \"" + usr.AD.CN + "\" -Database \"" + db + "\""; Pipeline thisPipeline = thisRunspace.CreatePipeline(cmd); thisPipeline.Invoke(); The code is running in a thread created that way : t.WorkThread = new Thread(cu.CreerUser); t.WorkThread.Start(); If I run the code directly (not through a thread), it's working. When in a thread it throws the following exception : ObjectDisposedException "The safe handle has been closed." (Translated from french) I then replaced "Open" wirh "OpenAsync" which helped not getting the previous exception. But when on Invoke I get the following exception : InvalidRunspaceStateException "Unable to call the pipeline because its state of execution is not Opened. Its current state is Opening." (Also translated from french) I'm clueless... Any help welcome !!! Thanks !!!

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  • Moq: Unable to cast to interface

    - by Pickels
    Hello, earlier today I asked this question. So since moq creates it's own class from an interface I wasn't able to cast it to a different class. So it got me wondering what if I created a ICustomPrincipal and tried to cast to that. This is how my mocks look: var MockHttpContext = new Mock<HttpContextBase>(); var MockPrincipal = new Mock<ICustomPrincipal>(); MockHttpContext.SetupGet(h => h.User).Returns(MockPrincipal.Object); In the method I am trying to test the follow code gives the error(again): var user = (ICustomPrincipal)httpContext.User; The error is the following: Unable to cast object of type 'IPrincipalProxy4081807111564298854aabfc890edcc8' to type 'MyProject.Web.ICustomPrincipal'. I guess I still need some practice with interfaces and moq but shouldn't I be able to cast the class that moq created back to ICustomPrincipal? I know httpContext.User returns an IPrincipal so maybe something gets lost there? Well if anybody can help me I would appreciate that. Pickels Edit: As requested the full code of the method I am testing. It's still not finished but this is what I have so far: public bool AuthorizeCore(HttpContextBase httpContext) { if (httpContext == null) { throw new ArgumentNullException("httpContext"); } var user = (ICustomPrincipal)httpContext.User; if (!user.Identity.IsAuthenticated) { return false; } return true; }

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