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  • C# file Decryption - Bad Data

    - by Jon
    Hi all, I am in the process of rewriting an old application. The old app stored data in a scoreboard file that was encrypted with the following code: private const String SSecretKey = @"?B?n?Mj?"; public DataTable GetScoreboardFromFile() { FileInfo f = new FileInfo(scoreBoardLocation); if (!f.Exists) { return setupNewScoreBoard(); } DESCryptoServiceProvider DES = new DESCryptoServiceProvider(); //A 64 bit key and IV is required for this provider. //Set secret key For DES algorithm. DES.Key = ASCIIEncoding.ASCII.GetBytes(SSecretKey); //Set initialization vector. DES.IV = ASCIIEncoding.ASCII.GetBytes(SSecretKey); //Create a file stream to read the encrypted file back. FileStream fsread = new FileStream(scoreBoardLocation, FileMode.Open, FileAccess.Read); //Create a DES decryptor from the DES instance. ICryptoTransform desdecrypt = DES.CreateDecryptor(); //Create crypto stream set to read and do a //DES decryption transform on incoming bytes. CryptoStream cryptostreamDecr = new CryptoStream(fsread, desdecrypt, CryptoStreamMode.Read); DataTable dTable = new DataTable("scoreboard"); dTable.ReadXml(new StreamReader(cryptostreamDecr)); cryptostreamDecr.Close(); fsread.Close(); return dTable; } This works fine. I have copied the code into my new app so that I can create a legacy loader and convert the data into the new format. The problem is I get a "Bad Data" error: System.Security.Cryptography.CryptographicException was unhandled Message="Bad Data.\r\n" Source="mscorlib" The error fires at this line: dTable.ReadXml(new StreamReader(cryptostreamDecr)); The encrypted file was created today on the same machine with the old code. I guess that maybe the encryption / decryption process uses the application name / file or something and therefore means I can not open it. Does anyone have an idea as to: A) Be able explain why this isn't working? B) Offer a solution that would allow me to be able to open files that were created with the legacy application and be able to convert them please? Thank you

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  • OnExit is not entering via PostSharp in asp.net project.

    - by mark smith
    Hi there, I have setup PostSharp and it appears to be working but i don't get it entering OnExit (i have logged setup to ensure it is working) ... Its a bit tricky to configure with asp.net - or is it just me ... I am using the 1.5 new version I basically have the following in my web.config and i had to add the SearchPath otherwise it can't find my assemblies <postsharp directory="C:\Program Files\PostSharp 1.5" trace="true"> <parameters> <!--<add name="parameter-name" value="parameter-value"/>--> </parameters> <searchPath> <!-- Always add the binary folder to the search path. --> <add name="bin" value="~\bin"/> </searchPath> </postsharp> I have set tracing on but what is strange to me is that it appears to build to the temp directory, maybe this is my issue, i am unsure .. hence i do F5 ... Is it possible to name the Output directory and output file?? As you can see it is editing a DLL in the temp dir so IIS is no longer in control so it doesn't execute it ??? Confused! :-) C:\Program Files\PostSharp 1.5\postsharp.exe "/P:Output=C:\Windows\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v2.0.50727\Temporary ASP.NET Files\mysitemvc-1.2\c2087140\8ac2dc93\postsharp\App_Web_04ae3ewy.dll" "/P:IntermediateDirectory=C:\Windows\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v2.0.50727\Temporary ASP.NET Files\mysitemvc-1.2\c2087140\8ac2dc93\postsharp " /P:CleanIntermediate=False /P:ReferenceDirectory=. /P:SignAssembly=False /P:PrivateKeyLocation= /P:ResolvedReferences= "/P:SearchPath=C:\Source Code\Visual Studio 2008\Projects\mysitemvc\mysitemvc\bin," /V /SkipAutoUpdate "C:\Program Files\PostSharp 1.5\Default.psproj" "C:\Windows\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v2.0.50727\Temporary ASP.NET Files\mysitemvc-1.2\c2087140\8ac2dc93\before-postsharp\App_Web_04ae3ewy.dll" PostSharp 1.5 [1.5.6.627] - Copyright (c) Gael Fraiteur, 2005-2009. info PS0035: C:\Windows\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v2.0.50727\ilasm.exe "C:\Windows\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v2.0.50727\Temporary ASP.NET Files\mysitemvc-1.2\c2087140\8ac2dc93\postsharp\App_Web_04ae3ewy.il" /QUIET /DLL /PDB "/RESOURCE=C:\Windows\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v2.0.50727\Temporary ASP.NET Files\mysitemvc-1.2\c2087140\8ac2dc93\postsharp\App_Web_04ae3ewy.res" "/OUTPUT=C:\Windows\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v2.0.50727\Temporary ASP.NET Files\mysitemvc-1.2\c2087140\8ac2dc93\postsharp\App_Web_04ae3ewy.dll" /SUBSYSTEM=3 /FLAGS=1 /BASE=18481152 /STACK=1048576 /ALIGNMENT=512 /MDV=v2.0.50727

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  • Doubt about adopting CI (Hudson) into an existing automated Build Process (phing, svn)

    - by maraspin
    OUR CURRENT BUILD PROCESS We're a small team of developers (2 to 4 people depending on project) who currently use Phing to deploy code to a staging environment, before going live. We keep our code in a SVN repo, where the trunk holds current active development and, at certain times, we do make branches that we test and then (if successful), tag and export to the staging env. If everything goes well there too, we finally deploy'em in production servers. Actions are highly automated, but always triggered by human intervention. THE DOUBT We'd now like to introduce Continuous Integration (with Hudson) in the process; unfortunately we have a few doubts about activity syncing, since we're afraid that CI could somewhat interfere with our build process and cause certain problems. Considering that an automated CI cycle has a certain frequency of automatically executed actions, we in fact only see 2 possible cases for "integration", each with its own problems: Case A: each CI cycle produces a new branch with its own name; we do use such a name to manually (through phing as it happens now) export the code from the SVN to the staging env. The problem I see here is that (unless specific countermeasures are taken) the number of branches we have can grow out of control (let's suppose we commit often, so that we have a fresh new build/branch every N minutes). Case B: each CI cycle creates a new branch named 'current', for instance, which is tagged with a unique name only when we manually decide to export it to staging; the current branch, at any case is then deleted, as soon as the next CI cycle starts up. The problem we see here is that a new cycle could kick in while someone is tagging/exporting the 'current' branch to staging thus creating an inconsistent build (but maybe here I'm just too pessimist, since I confess I don't know whether SVN offers some built-in protection against this). With all this being said, I was wondering if anyone with similar experiences could be so kind to give us some hints on the subject, since none of the approaches depicted above looks completely satisfing to us. Is there something important we just completely left off in the overall picture? Thanks for your attention &, in advance, for your help!

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  • Trouble with OpenLayers Styles.

    - by Jenny
    So, tired of always seeing the bright orange default regular polygons, I'm trying to learn to style OpenLayers. I've had some success with: var layer_style = OpenLayers.Util.extend({},OpenLayers.Feature.Vector.style['default']); layer_style.fillColor = "#000000"; layer_style.strokeColor = "#000000"; polygonLayer = new OpenLayers.Layer.Vector("PolygonLayer"); polygonLayer.style = layer_style; But sine I am drawing my polygons with DrawFeature, my style only takes effect once I've finished drawing, and seeing it snap from bright orange to grey is sort of disconcerting. So, I learned about temporary styles, and tried: var layer_style = new OpenLayers.Style({"default": {fillColor: "#000000"}, "temporary": {fillColor: "#000000"}}) polygonLayer = new OpenLayers.Layer.Vector("PolygonLayer"); polygonLayer.style = layer_style; This got me a still orange square--until I stopped drawing, when it snapped into completely opaque black. I figured maybe I had to explicitly set the fillOpacity...no dice. Even when I changed both fill colors to be pink and blue, respectively, I still saw only orange and opaque black. I've tried messing with StyleMaps, since I read that if you only add one style to a style map, it uses the default one for everything, including the temporary style. var layer_style = OpenLayers.Util.extend({}, OpenLayers.Feature.Vector.style['default']); var style_map = new OpenLayers.StyleMap(layer_style); polygonLayer = new OpenLayers.Layer.Vector("PolygonLayer"); polygonLayer.style = style_map; That got me the black opaque square, too. (Even though that layer style works when not given to a map). Passing the map to the layer itself like so: polygonLayer = new OpenLayers.Layer.Vector("PolygonLayer", style_map); Didn't get me anything at all. Orange all the way, even after drawn. polygonLayer = new OpenLayers.Layer.Vector("PolygonLayer", {styleMap: style_map}); Is a lot more succesful: Orange while drawing, translucent black with black outline when drawn. Just like when I didn't use a map. Problem is, still no temporary... So, I tried initializing my map this way: var style_map = new OpenLayers.StyleMap({"default": layer_style, "temporary": layer_style}); No opaque square, but no dice for the temporary, either... Still orange snapping to black transparent. Even if I make a new Style (layer_style2), and set temporary to that, still no luck. And no luck with setting "select" style, either. What am I doing wrong? Temporary IS for styling things that are currently being sketched, correct? Is there some other way specific to the drawFeature Controller? Edit: setting extendDefault to be true doesn't seem to help, either... var style_map = new OpenLayers.StyleMap({"default": layer_style, "temporary": layer_style}, {"extendDefault": "true"});

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  • DataTrigger only works on first TabItem in TabControl

    - by JustusJonas
    Hi! It seems like a bug in WPF, but maybe someone has an answers to this. I have a DataTrigger for an editable ComboBox. It works on the first TabItem of my TabControl, but not on the second. If you switch the first with the second TabItem, the "second" will work. The same effect happens when you give the style exactly to the ComboBox (ComboBox.Stye ...). <Window xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" x:Class="MainWindow" x:Name="Window" Title="MainWindow" Width="640" Height="480"> <Window.Resources> <Style TargetType="{x:Type ComboBox}"> <Setter Property="Height" Value="25" /> <Setter Property="Width" Value="125" /> <Style.Triggers> <DataTrigger Binding="{Binding ElementName=PART_EditableTextBox, Path=IsFocused}" Value="True"> <Setter Property="BitmapEffect"> <Setter.Value> <OuterGlowBitmapEffect GlowColor="Red" GlowSize="5" /> </Setter.Value> </Setter> </DataTrigger> </Style.Triggers> </Style> </Window.Resources> <Grid x:Name="LayoutRoot"> <TabControl> <TabItem Header="TabItem1"> <Grid> <ComboBox IsEditable="True"/> </Grid> </TabItem> <TabItem Header="TabItem2"> <Grid> <ComboBox IsEditable="True"/> </Grid> </TabItem> </TabControl> </Grid>

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  • ModalPopup CodeBehind Function Wait For User Response

    - by Snave
    I have set up a function which returns an enum of the button that the user clicked in the ModalPopup. I have a variable of type enum to store which button the user clicks in the button click event. In this function, I call the ModalPopupExtender's Show() method. My problem is, the function finishes out and returns the default enum (which is "none" since no button was clicked yet) before the ModalPopup can be shown and store which button the user clicks. So without changing the function to a method and using a different way to store the user's button click, how can I pause the function after the Show() method of the MPE has been called and wait for the user to click a button? Edit(11/20/2009): Clarification: On the aspx page, I include a ScriptManager, PlaceHolder, and an asp:Button with a codebehind click event. What I want is to click the button, then in the click event handler, I want to call a custom static class function that returns a variable. One of the arguments it takes is the PlaceHolder. The function creates all the necessary controls in the PlaceHolder needed to display a ModalPopup. It calls the created ModalPopupExtender's Show() method. What should happen: At this point is the ModalPopup gets displayed, the user clicks a button, that button's event handler fires, the button sets a variable indicating that it was clicked, it then calls the ModalPopupExtender's .Hide() method, and then the function returns the variable that indicates which button was clicked. We then return to the event handler from the original button that was clicked and the programmer can then perform some logic based on what variable was returned. Crux: When the ModalPopupExtender's .Show() method gets called, it does not display the ModalPopup until AFTER the function returns a default variable (because no button was clicked yet) and after the event handler from the original button that was clicked ends. What I need: After the ModalPopupExtender's .Show() method is called, I need the ModalPopup to get displayed immediately and I need the function to wait for a button click to be made from the ModalPopup. My thoughts: Some PostBack needs to be made to the page telling it to update and display the ModalPopup Panel. Then maybe a while loop can be run in the function that waits for a button to be clicked in the ModalPopup.

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  • Another design-related C++ question

    - by Kotti
    Hi! I am trying to find some optimal solutions in C++ coding patterns, and this is one of my game engine - related questions. Take a look at the game object declaration (I removed almost everything, that has no connection with the question). // Abstract representation of a game object class Object : public Entity, IRenderable, ISerializable { // Object parameters // Other not really important stuff public: // @note Rendering template will never change while // the object 'lives' Object(RenderTemplate& render_template, /* params */) : /*...*/ { } private: // Object rendering template RenderTemplate render_template; public: /** * Default object render method * Draws rendering template data at (X, Y) with (Width, Height) dimensions * * @note If no appropriate rendering method overload is specified * for any derived class, this method is called * * @param Backend & b * @return void * @see */ virtual void Render(Backend& backend) const { // Render sprite from object's // rendering template structure backend.RenderFromTemplate( render_template, x, y, width, height ); } }; Here is also the IRenderable interface declaration: // Objects that can be rendered interface IRenderable { /** * Abstract method to render current object * * @param Backend & b * @return void * @see */ virtual void Render(Backend& b) const = 0; } and a sample of a real object that is derived from Object (with severe simplifications :) // Ball object class Ball : public Object { // Ball params public: virtual void Render(Backend& b) const { b.RenderEllipse(/*params*/); } }; What I wanted to get is the ability to have some sort of standard function, that would draw sprite for an object (this is Object::Render) if there is no appropriate overload. So, one can have objects without Render(...) method, and if you try to render them, this default sprite-rendering stuff is invoked. And, one can have specialized objects, that define their own way of being rendered. I think, this way of doing things is quite good, but what I can't figure out - is there any way to split the objects' "normal" methods (like Resize(...) or Rotate(...)) implementation from their rendering implementation? Because if everything is done the way described earlier, a common .cpp file, that implements any type of object would generally mix the Resize(...), etc methods implementation and this virtual Render(...) method and this seems to be a mess. I actually want to have rendering procedures for the objects in one place and their "logic implementation" - in another. Is there a way this can be done (maybe alternative pattern or trick or hint) or this is where all this polymorphic and virtual stuff sucks in terms of code placement?

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  • Guides for PostgreSQL query tuning?

    - by Joe
    I've found a number of resources that talk about tuning the database server, but I haven't found much on the tuning of the individual queries. For instance, in Oracle, I might try adding hints to ignore indexes or to use sort-merge vs. correlated joins, but I can't find much on tuning Postgres other than using explicit joins and recommendations when bulk loading tables. Do any such guides exist so I can focus on tuning the most run and/or underperforming queries, hopefully without adversely affecting the currently well-performing queries? I'd even be happy to find something that compared how certain types of queries performed relative to other databases, so I had a better clue of what sort of things to avoid. update: I should've mentioned, I took all of the Oracle DBA classes along with their data modeling and SQL tuning classes back in the 8i days ... so I know about 'EXPLAIN', but that's more to tell you what's going wrong with the query, not necessarily how to make it better. (eg, are 'while var=1 or var=2' and 'while var in (1,2)' considered the same when generating an execution plan? What if I'm doing it with 10 permutations? When are multi-column indexes used? Are there ways to get the planner to optimize for fastest start vs. fastest finish? What sort of 'gotchas' might I run into when moving from mySQL, Oracle or some other RDBMS?) I could write any complex query dozens if not hundreds of ways, and I'm hoping to not have to try them all and find which one works best through trial and error. I've already found that 'SELECT count(*)' won't use an index, but 'SELECT count(primary_key)' will ... maybe a 'PostgreSQL for experienced SQL users' sort of document that explained sorts of queries to avoid, and how best to re-write them, or how to get the planner to handle them better. update 2: I found a Comparison of different SQL Implementations which covers PostgreSQL, DB2, MS-SQL, mySQL, Oracle and Informix, and explains if, how, and gotchas on things you might try to do, and his references section linked to Oracle / SQL Server / DB2 / Mckoi /MySQL Database Equivalents (which is what its title suggests) and to the wikibook SQL Dialects Reference which covers whatever people contribute (includes some DB2, SQLite, mySQL, PostgreSQL, Firebird, Vituoso, Oracle, MS-SQL, Ingres, and Linter).

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  • GMF - programmatically create connections without commands

    - by user1437515
    Hi I am developing an graphical editor with GMF and want to create a set of nodes (Resources in my project) and connections between them upon intialization of a new diagram. I do not want to use commands here because without the code is much slimmer, easier to read and also faster it seems to me. There is no problem creating nodes by calling my XXXFactory.eInstance.createResource() and adding them to the diagram model. My connection is contained as source-/targetConnections feature in the resource class. So I added a similarly created connection as source/target to the resources. But it will not show up in the diagram even though it exists in the ResourceImpl structural feature. Maybe I need to add it additionally to the diagram but since its contained by a feature contained by the diagram, I dont know how. Am i doing something wrong or missing something or is it just not possible to do this without commands. Any help would be much appreciated. Sample code is below. The output of it is the two nodes but no connection. Thanks Lars Example createInitialModel method: private static RDFEditor.ShapesDiagram createInitialModel() { ShapesDiagram diagram = >RDFEditor.RDFEditorFactory.eINSTANCE.createShapesDiagram(); RDFEditor.Resource res = RDFEditorFactory.eINSTANCE.createResource(); RDFEditor.Resource res2 = RDFEditorFactory.eINSTANCE.createResource(); Connection con = RDFEditorFactory.eINSTANCE.createConnection(); EStructuralFeature target = >res.eClass().getEStructuralFeature("targetConnections"); EStructuralFeature source = >res.eClass().getEStructuralFeature("sourceConnections"); res2.setName("rdfs:Resource"); res.setName("rdfs:Class"); con.setName("rdfs:type"); con.setSource(res); con.setTarget(res2); res.getSourceConnections().add(con); res.getTargetConnections().add(con); //res2.eSet(target, con); //res.eSet(source, con); List<? extends Shape> resList = Arrays.asList(res,res2); EStructuralFeature shapes = >diagram.eClass().getEStructuralFeature("shapes"); diagram.eSet(shapes, resList); return diagram; }

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  • C++ How to deep copy a struct with unknown datatype?

    - by Ewald Peters
    hi, i have a "data provider" which stores its output in a struct of a certain type, for instance struct DATA_TYPE1{ std::string data_string; }; then this struct has to be casted into a general datatype, i thought about void * or char *, because the "intermediate" object that copies and stores it in its binary tree should be able to store many different types of such struct data. struct BINARY_TREE_ENTRY{ void * DATA; struct BINARY_TREE_ENTRY * next; }; this void * is then later taken by another object that casts the void * back into the (struct DATA_TYPE1 *) to get the original data. so the sender and the receiver know about the datatype DATA_TYPE1 but not the copying object inbetween. but how can the intermidiate object deep copy the contents of the different structs, when it doesn't know the datatype, only void * and it has no method to copy the real contents; dynamic_cast doesn't work for void *; the "intermediate" object should do something like: void store_data(void * CASTED_DATA_STRUCT){ void * DATA_COPY = create_a_deepcopy_of(CASTED_DATA_STRUCT); push_into_bintree(DATA_COPY); } a simple solution would be that the sending object doesn't delete the sent data struct, til the receiving object got it, but the sending objects are dynamically created and deleted, before the receiver got the data from the intermediate object, for asynchronous communication, therefore i want to copy it. instead of converting it to void * i also tried converting to a superclass pointer of which the intermediate copying object knows about, and which is inherited by all the different datatypes of the structs: struct DATA_BASE_OBJECT{ public: DATA_BASE_OBJECT(){} DATA_BASE_OBJECT(DATA_BASE_OBJECT * old_ptr){ std::cout << "this should be automatically overridden!" << std::endl; } virtual ~DATA_BASE_OBJECT(){} }; struct DATA_TYPE1 : public DATA_BASE_OBJECT { public: string str; DATA_TYPE1(){} ~DATA_TYPE1(){} DATA_TYPE1(DATA_TYPE1 * old_ptr){ str = old_ptr->str; } }; and the corresponding binary tree entry would then be: struct BINARY_TREE_ENTRY{ struct DATA_BASE_OBJECT * DATA; struct BINARY_TREE_ENTRY * next; }; and to then copy the unknown datatype, i tried in the class that just gets the unknown datatype as a struct DATA_BASE_OBJECT * (before it was the void *): void * copy_data(DATA_BASE_OBJECT * data_that_i_get_in_the_sub_struct){ struct DATA_BASE_OBJECT * copy_sub = new DATA_BASE_OBJECT(data_that_i_get_in_the_sub_struct); push_into_bintree(copy_sub); } i then added a copy constructor to the DATA_BASE_OBJECT, but if the struct DATA_TYPE1 is first casted to a DATA_BASE_OBJECT and then copied, the included sub object DATA_TYPE1 is not also copied. i then thought what about finding out the size of the actual object to copy and then just memcopy it, but the bytes are not stored in one row and how do i find out the real size in memory of the struct DATA_TYPE1 which holds a std::string? Which other c++ methods are available to deepcopy an unknown datatype (and to maybe get the datatype information somehow else during runtime) thanks Ewald

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  • ant compile problem

    - by senzacionale
    If I start ant compile in JDeveloper all classes are compiled successfully and copied to the classes folder. But if I run ant compile from console then no classes are copied to the classes folder. Does anyone know why? Maybe the problem is with: build.compiler=oracle.ojc.ant.taskdefs.OjcAdapter? build.properties: javac.debug=on oracle.home=C:/Oracle/jdevstudio10133 build.compiler=oracle.ojc.ant.taskdefs.OjcAdapter output.dir=classes javac.deprecation=on javac.nowarn=off package.name=KIS dest.dir=C:/Projekti/Projekt ANT/CVS src.dir=src view.dir=View model.dir=Model modelirc2000.dir=ModelIRC2000 build.xml for compile <target name="compile" description="Compile Java source files" depends="init"> <javac destdir="${dest.dir}/${package.name}/${model.dir}/${output.dir}" classpathref="classpath" debug="${javac.debug}" nowarn="${javac.nowarn}" deprecation="${javac.deprecation}" encoding="Cp1250" source="1.5" target="1.5"> <src path="${dest.dir}/${package.name}/${model.dir}/${src.dir}"/> <exclude name="irc/kis/model/dm/entity/common/ZnanjeImplMsgBundle.java/"/> <exclude name="META-INF/"/> <exclude name="irc/kis/view/"/> <exclude name="irc/kis/model/zap/view/vp/"/> </javac> </target> <target name="copy" description="Copy files to output directory" depends="init"> <patternset id="copy.patterns"> <include name="**/*.gif"/> <include name="**/*.jpg"/> <include name="**/*.jpeg"/> <include name="**/*.png"/> <include name="**/*.properties"/> <include name="**/*.xml"/> <include name="**/*-apf.xml"/> <include name="**/*.ejx"/> <include name="**/*.xcfg"/> <include name="**/*.cpx"/> <include name="**/*.dcx"/> <include name="**/*.wsdl"/> <include name="**/*.ini"/> <include name="**/*.tld"/> <include name="**/*.tag"/> <include name="**/*.jpx"/> </patternset> <copy todir="${dest.dir}/${package.name}/${model.dir}/${output.dir}"> <fileset dir="${dest.dir}/${package.name}/${model.dir}/${src.dir}"> <patternset refid="copy.patterns"/> </fileset> </copy> </target>

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  • Oracle 9i Session Disconnections

    - by mlaverd
    [Cross-Posting from ServerFault] I am in a development environment, and our test Oracle 9i server has been misbehaving for a few days now. What happens is that we have our JDBC connections disconnecting after a few successful connections. We got this box set up by our IT department and handed over to. It is 'our problem', so options like 'ask you DBA' isn't going to help me. :( Our server is set up with 3 plain databases (one is the main dev db, the other is the 'experimental' dev db). We use the Oracle 10 ojdbc14.jar thin JDBC driver (because of some bug in the version 9 of the driver). We're using Hibernate to talk to the DB. The only thing that I can see that changed is that we now have more users connecting to the server. Instead of one developer, we now have 3. With the Hibernate connection pools, I'm thinking that maybe we're hitting some limit? Anyone has any idea what's going on? Here's the stack trace on the client: Caused by: org.hibernate.exception.GenericJDBCException: could not execute query at org.hibernate.exception.SQLStateConverter.handledNonSpecificException(SQLStateConverter.java:126) [hibernate3.jar:na] at org.hibernate.exception.SQLStateConverter.convert(SQLStateConverter.java:114) [hibernate3.jar:na] at org.hibernate.exception.JDBCExceptionHelper.convert(JDBCExceptionHelper.java:66) [hibernate3.jar:na] at org.hibernate.loader.Loader.doList(Loader.java:2235) [hibernate3.jar:na] at org.hibernate.loader.Loader.listIgnoreQueryCache(Loader.java:2129) [hibernate3.jar:na] at org.hibernate.loader.Loader.list(Loader.java:2124) [hibernate3.jar:na] at org.hibernate.loader.hql.QueryLoader.list(QueryLoader.java:401) [hibernate3.jar:na] at org.hibernate.hql.ast.QueryTranslatorImpl.list(QueryTranslatorImpl.java:363) [hibernate3.jar:na] at org.hibernate.engine.query.HQLQueryPlan.performList(HQLQueryPlan.java:196) [hibernate3.jar:na] at org.hibernate.impl.SessionImpl.list(SessionImpl.java:1149) [hibernate3.jar:na] at org.hibernate.impl.QueryImpl.list(QueryImpl.java:102) [hibernate3.jar:na] ... Caused by: java.sql.SQLException: Io exception: Connection reset at oracle.jdbc.driver.DatabaseError.throwSqlException(DatabaseError.java:112) [ojdbc14.jar:Oracle JDBC Driver version - "10.2.0.4.0"] at oracle.jdbc.driver.DatabaseError.throwSqlException(DatabaseError.java:146) [ojdbc14.jar:Oracle JDBC Driver version - "10.2.0.4.0"] at oracle.jdbc.driver.DatabaseError.throwSqlException(DatabaseError.java:255) [ojdbc14.jar:Oracle JDBC Driver version - "10.2.0.4.0"] at oracle.jdbc.driver.T4CPreparedStatement.executeForDescribe(T4CPreparedStatement.java:829) [ojdbc14.jar:Oracle JDBC Driver version - "10.2.0.4.0"] at oracle.jdbc.driver.OracleStatement.executeMaybeDescribe(OracleStatement.java:1049) [ojdbc14.jar:Oracle JDBC Driver version - "10.2.0.4.0"] at oracle.jdbc.driver.T4CPreparedStatement.executeMaybeDescribe(T4CPreparedStatement.java:854) [ojdbc14.jar:Oracle JDBC Driver version - "10.2.0.4.0"] at oracle.jdbc.driver.OracleStatement.doExecuteWithTimeout(OracleStatement.java:1154) [ojdbc14.jar:Oracle JDBC Driver version - "10.2.0.4.0"] at oracle.jdbc.driver.OraclePreparedStatement.executeInternal(OraclePreparedStatement.java:3370) [ojdbc14.jar:Oracle JDBC Driver version - "10.2.0.4.0"] at oracle.jdbc.driver.OraclePreparedStatement.executeQuery(OraclePreparedStatement.java:3415) [ojdbc14.jar:Oracle JDBC Driver version - "10.2.0.4.0"] at org.hibernate.jdbc.AbstractBatcher.getResultSet(AbstractBatcher.java:208) [hibernate3.jar:na] at org.hibernate.loader.Loader.getResultSet(Loader.java:1812) [hibernate3.jar:na] at org.hibernate.loader.Loader.doQuery(Loader.java:697) [hibernate3.jar:na] at org.hibernate.loader.Loader.doQueryAndInitializeNonLazyCollections(Loader.java:259) [hibernate3.jar:na] at org.hibernate.loader.Loader.doList(Loader.java:2232) [hibernate3.jar:na]

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  • getExtra from Intent launched from a pendingIntent

    - by spagi
    Hi. I am trying to make some alarms after the user selects something with a time from a list and create a notification for it at the given time. My problem is that the "showname" that a putExtra on my Intent cant be received at the broadcast receiver. It always get null value. This is the way I do it for most of my intents but I think this time maybe because of the pendingIntent or the broadcastReceiver something need to be done differentelly. Thank you The function that sends the Intent through the pending intent public void setAlarm(String showname,String time) { String[] hourminute=time.split(":"); String hour = hourminute[0]; String minute = hourminute[1]; Calendar rightNow = Calendar.getInstance(); rightNow.set(Calendar.HOUR_OF_DAY, Integer.parseInt(hour)); rightNow.set(Calendar.MINUTE, Integer.parseInt(minute)); rightNow.set(Calendar.SECOND, 0); long t=rightNow.getTimeInMillis(); long t1=System.currentTimeMillis(); try { Intent intent = new Intent(this, alarmreceiver.class); Bundle c = new Bundle(); c.putString("showname", showname);//This is the value I want to pass intent.putExtras(c); PendingIntent pendingIntent = PendingIntent.getBroadcast(this, 12345, intent, 0); AlarmManager alarmManager = (AlarmManager) getSystemService(ALARM_SERVICE); alarmManager.set(AlarmManager.RTC_WAKEUP, rightNow.getTimeInMillis(),pendingIntent); //Log.e("ALARM", "time of millis: "+System.currentTimeMillis()); Toast.makeText(this, "Alarm set", Toast.LENGTH_LONG).show(); } catch (Exception e) { Log.e("ALARM", "ERROR IN CODE:"+e.toString()); } } And this is the receiving end public class alarmreceiver extends BroadcastReceiver { @Override public void onReceive(Context context, Intent intent) { // Toast.makeText(context, "Alarm worked.", Toast.LENGTH_LONG).show(); Bundle b = intent.getExtras(); String showname=b.getString("showname");//This is where I suppose to receive it but its null NotificationManager manger = (NotificationManager) context .getSystemService(context.NOTIFICATION_SERVICE); Notification notification = new Notification(R.drawable.icon, "TVGuide ?pe???µ?s?", System.currentTimeMillis()); PendingIntent contentIntent = PendingIntent.getActivity(context, 0, new Intent(context, tvguide.class), 0); notification.setLatestEventInfo(context, "?? ?????aµµa ?e????se", showname, contentIntent); notification.flags = Notification.FLAG_ONLY_ALERT_ONCE; notification.sound = Uri.parse("file:///sdcard/dominating.mp3"); notification.vibrate = new long[]{100, 250, 100, 500}; manger.notify(1, notification); } }

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  • jQuery: how can I clear content without getting the dreaded "stop running this script?" dialog?

    - by Cheeso
    I have a div, that holds a div. like this: <div id='reportHolder' class='column'> <div id='report'> </div> </div> Within the inner div, I add a bunch (7-12) of pairs of a and div elements, like this: <h4><a>Heading1</a></h4> <div> ...content here....</div> The total size of the content, is maybe 200k. Each div just contains a fragment of HTML. After I add all the content, I then create an accordion. like this: $('#report').accordion({collapsible:true, active:false}); This all works fine. The problem is, when I try to clear or remove the report div, it takes a looooooong time, and I get 3 or 4 popups asking "Do you want to stop running this script?" I have tried several ways: option 1: $('#report').accordion('destroy'); $('#report').remove(); $("#reportHolder").html("<div id='report'> </div>"); option 2: $('#report').accordion('destroy'); $('#report').html(''); $("#reportHolder").html("<div id='report'> </div>"); option 3: $('#report').accordion('destroy'); $("#reportHolder").html("<div id='report'> </div>"); No matter what, it hangs for a long while. The call to accordion('destroy') seems to not be the source of the delay. It's the erasure of the html content within the report div. EDIT - fixed typo. ps: this happens on FF3.5 as well as IE8 . Questions: What is taking so long? How can I remove content more quickly?

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  • Displaying FontFamily in Combobox

    - by Torsten
    Hi. My goal is to manipulate the text-styles of my application via DependencyProperties. I got a diagram in which the texts are to be manipulated in size, fontfamily, color, etc. So I'd like to use an interface similar to a rich text editor like Word. I'm using this code in my TextStyleVM http://shevaspace.blogspot.com/2006/12/i-have-some-fun-with-formattedtext_14.html So I have a FontFamilyProperty and a Getter and Setter for it: public static DependencyProperty FontFamilyProperty = DependencyProperty.Register( "FontFamily", typeof(FontFamily), typeof(OutlinedText), new FrameworkPropertyMetadata( SystemFonts.MessageFontFamily, FrameworkPropertyMetadataOptions.AffectsRender | FrameworkPropertyMetadataOptions.AffectsMeasure), new ValidateValueCallback(IsValidFontFamily)); public FontFamily FontFamily { get { return (FontFamily)base.GetValue(FontFamilyProperty); } set { base.SetValue(FontFamilyProperty, value); } } Then there is a ToStyle method, which sets the style for the labels of the diagram, which are to be manipulated: Style style = new Style(); Binding fontFamilyBinding = new Binding("FontFamily"); fontFamilyBinding.Source = this; Setter fontFamilySetter = new Setter(); fontFamilySetter.Property = TextBlock.FontFamilyProperty; fontFamilySetter.Value = fontFamilyBinding; style.Setters.Add(fontFamilySetter); return style; Now this works for a TextBox. The textbox displays the current FontFamily, and if I enter a new, valid FontFamily like Arial into the textbox the FontFamily of the labels are changed. However, what I'd like to have is a combobox, which displays the SystemFonts and where I can choose one FontFamily for my labels. However, the binding doesn't seem to work. Neither the system fonts nor the current fonts of the labels are displayed. The combobox is just empty. This is my xaml: <r:RibbonLabel Content="FontFamily" /> <!--these do not work--> <r:RibbonComboBox SelectedItem="{Binding FontFamily}"/> <r:RibbonComboBox ItemsSource="{Binding FontFamily}"/> <!--this works--> <r:RibbonTextBox Text="{Binding FontFamily}"/> Now, I assume I have to set a different Setter for a ComboBox in the ToStyle Method. But I have no clue, which one. Maybe someting like this: fontFamilySetter.Property = ComboBox.ItemSource; However, if I set that Property, the TextBox still works. So is this the wrong place to start at? I'd also be grateful if someone could hint me to some documentation about using these Style-, Setter-, Binding-key-words, which are used in the ToStyle method, since this is somebody elses code I'm working with.

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  • Best practices for sending automated daily emails from web service

    - by Tauren
    I am running a web service that currently sends confirmation emails out to new users via the gmail smtp servers. As I'm only getting a few new users each day, this hasn't been a problem. I've recently added new features to the webapp that will require a customized message to be sent out to each user every day. Think of this as similar to the regular messages LinkedIn sends out that give you a status report on the activity in your network. Every user's message will be different. With thousands of users, this means thousands of unique messages will be sent each day. Edit: I've since found that these types of email are called "transactional or relationship messages". Spamtacular has a good article on differentiating between marketing and transactional email. I don't think using gmail's smtp servers will cut it anymore, but I don't know that for sure. I don't know what gmail's maximum outgoing messages per account is (it might be 100/day), but they limit outgoing mail to 500 recipients per message. I'm not sending a single message to 500 recipients, but I'm going to be sending 1000's of customized messages with each recipient getting one per day. I'm interested to learn any best practices for doing this (especially for Java-based webapps). Here are some of my thoughts and concerns on it: Should I set up my own outgoing mail server? If I do this, it seems like I'll have all sorts of other issues to worry about, such as preventing mail server abuse, monitoring bounces, allowing ways to opt-out of emails, etc. Are there any tools or services to help with this? Maybe something like OpenEMM or a services like MailChimp? But those seem focused more toward email marketing campaigns. I don't think I should have the webapp itself handle sending emails as it currently is for new user signups. I'm thinking I should setup a separate messaging server that can access the same backend/datastore as the webapp. Thoughts on this? Should I consider setting up some sort of message queueing service to help with this, such as JMS, RabbitMQ, ActiveMQ, etc.? Do I need to provide users a way to opt-out? Do I need to flag these as bulk messages? I don't really consider these email marketing messages, but I'm unsure what is considered appropriate or proper netiquette. Any advice is appreciated. I'm also very interested in open source tools or web services that simplify things and could help me to ramp up as quickly as possible. Thanks!

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  • Asynchronous sockets in C#

    - by IVlad
    I'm confused about the correct way of using asynchronous socket methods in C#. I will refer to these two articles to explain things and ask my questions: MSDN article on asynchronous client sockets and devarticles.com article on socket programming. My question is about the BeginReceive() method. The MSDN article uses these two functions to handle receiving data: private static void Receive(Socket client) { try { // Create the state object. StateObject state = new StateObject(); state.workSocket = client; // Begin receiving the data from the remote device. client.BeginReceive( state.buffer, 0, StateObject.BufferSize, 0, new AsyncCallback(ReceiveCallback), state); } catch (Exception e) { Console.WriteLine(e.ToString()); } } private static void ReceiveCallback( IAsyncResult ar ) { try { // Retrieve the state object and the client socket // from the asynchronous state object. StateObject state = (StateObject) ar.AsyncState; Socket client = state.workSocket; // Read data from the remote device. int bytesRead = client.EndReceive(ar); if (bytesRead > 0) { // There might be more data, so store the data received so far. state.sb.Append(Encoding.ASCII.GetString(state.buffer,0,bytesRead)); // Get the rest of the data. client.BeginReceive(state.buffer,0,StateObject.BufferSize,0, new AsyncCallback(ReceiveCallback), state); } else { // All the data has arrived; put it in response. if (state.sb.Length > 1) { response = state.sb.ToString(); } // Signal that all bytes have been received. receiveDone.Set(); } } catch (Exception e) { Console.WriteLine(e.ToString()); } } While the devarticles.com tutorial passes null for the last parameter of the BeginReceive method, and goes on to explain that the last parameter is useful when we're dealing with multiple sockets. Now my questions are: What is the point of passing a state to the BeginReceive method if we're only working with a single socket? Is it to avoid using a class field? It seems like there's little point in doing it, but maybe I'm missing something. How can the state parameter help when dealing with multiple sockets? If I'm calling client.BeginReceive(...), won't all the data be read from the client socket? The devarticles.com tutorial makes it sound like in this call: m_asynResult = m_socClient.BeginReceive (theSocPkt.dataBuffer,0,theSocPkt.dataBuffer.Length, SocketFlags.None,pfnCallBack,theSocPkt); Data will be read from the theSocPkt.thisSocket socket, instead of from the m_socClient socket. In their example the two are one and the same, but what happens if that is not the case? I just don't really see where that last argument is useful or at least how it helps with multiple sockets. If I have multiple sockets, I still need to call BeginReceive on each of them, right?

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  • CSS sliding doors technique for buttons, IE8 problem

    - by Kelvin
    Hello All! I used sliding doors technique, explained here: http://www.oscaralexander.com/tutorials/how-to-make-sexy-buttons-with-css.html With only one exception, that I decided to add one more image for "hover" effect. My code works well for all browsers, except IE8 (and maybe earlier versions). a.submit-button:active and a.submit-button:active span are simply blocked by "hover" and never work. Does anyone knows solution for this? Thanks a lot in advance! <style type="text/css"> .clear { /* generic container (i.e. div) for floating buttons */ overflow: hidden; width: 100%; } a.submit-button { background: transparent url('images/button-1b.png') no-repeat scroll top right; color: #fff; display: block; float: left; font: bold 13px sans-serif, arial; height: 28px; margin-right: 6px; padding-right: 18px; /* sliding doors padding */ text-decoration: none; outline: none; } a.submit-button span { background: transparent url('images/button-1a.png') no-repeat; display: block; line-height: 14px; padding: 6px 0 8px 24px; } a.submit-button:hover { background-position: right -28px; outline: none; /* hide dotted outline in Firefox */ color: #fff; } a.submit-button:hover span { background-position: 0px -28px; } a.submit-button:active { background-position: right -56px; color: #e5e5e5; outline: none; } a.submit-button:active span { background-position: 0px -56px; padding: 7px 0 7px 24px; /* push text down 1px */ } </style> And this is the button: <div class="clear"> <a class="submit-button" href="#" onclick="this.blur();"><span>Hello All</span></a> </div>

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  • Code Complete 2ed, composition and delegation.

    - by Arlukin
    Hi there. After a couple of weeks reading on this forum I thought it was time for me to do my first post. I'm currently rereading Code Complete. I think it's 15 years since the last time, and I find that I still can't write code ;-) Anyway on page 138 in Code Complete you find this coding horror example. (I have removed some of the code) class Emplyee { public: FullName GetName() const; Address GetAddress() const; PhoneNumber GetWorkPhone() const; ... bool IsZipCodeValid( Address address); ... private: ... } What Steve thinks is bad is that the functions are loosely related. Or has he writes "There's no logical connection between employees and routines that check ZIP codes, phone numbers or job classifications" Ok I totally agree with him. Maybe something like the below example is better. class ZipCode { public: bool IsValid() const; ... } class Address { public: ZipCode GetZipCode() const; ... } class Employee { public: Address GetAddress() const; ... } When checking if the zip is valid you would need to do something like this. employee.GetAddress().GetZipCode().IsValid(); And that is not good regarding to the Law of Demeter ([http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Law_of_Demeter][1]). So if you like to remove two of the three dots, you need to use delegation and a couple of wrapper functions like this. class ZipCode { public: bool IsValid(); } class Address { public: ZipCode GetZipCode() const; bool IsZipCodeValid() {return GetZipCode()->IsValid()); } class Employee { public: FullName GetName() const; Address GetAddress() const; bool IsZipCodeValid() {return GetAddress()->IsZipCodeValid()); PhoneNumber GetWorkPhone() const; } employee.IsZipCodeValid(); But then again you have routines that has no logical connection. I personally think that all three examples in this post are bad. Is it some other way that I haven't thougt about? //Daniel

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  • Classic ASP vs. ASP.NET encryption options

    - by harrije
    I'm working on a web site where the new pages are ASP.NET and the legacy pages are Classic ASP. Being new to development in the Windows env, I've been studying the latest technology, i.e. .NET and I become like a deer in headlights when ever legacy issues come up regarding COM objects. Security on the website is an abomination, but I've easily encrypted the connectionStrings in the web.config file per http://www.4guysfromrolla.com/articles/021506-1.aspx based on DPAPI machine mode. I understand this approach is not the most secure, but it's better than nothing which is what it was for the ASP.NET pages. Now, I question how to do similar encryption for the connection strings used by the Classic ASP pages. A complicating factor is that the web sited is hosted where I do not have admin permissions or even command line access, just FTP. Moreover I want to avoid managing the key. My research has found: DPAPI with COM interop. Seems like this should already be available, but the only thing I could find discussing this is CyptoUtility (see http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/magazine/cc163884.aspx) which is not installed on the hosting server. There are plenty of other third party COM objects, e.g. Crypto from Dalun Software http://www.dalun.com, but these aren't on the hosted server either, and they look to me to require you to do some kind of key management. There is CAPICOM on the hosted server, but M$ has deprecated it and many report it is not the easiest to use. It is not clear to me whether I can avoid key management with CAPICOM similar to using DPAPI for ASP.NET. If anyone happens to know, please clue me in. I could write an web service in ASP.NET and have the classic ASP pages use it to get the decrypted connection strings and then store those in an application variable. I would not need to use SSL since I could use localhost and nothing would be sent over the internet. In the simpliest form I could implement what someone termed a poor man's version based on a simple XML stream, however, I really was looking to avoid any development since I find it hard to believe there is not a simple solution for Classic ASP like there is for ASP.NET. Maybe I'm missing some options... Recommendations are requested...

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  • iPhone MailComposer class UIViewController dismissModalViewControllerAnimated issues

    - by Scott Pendleton
    I created a class to launch the MailComposer so that my iPhone app would only have one place to go when generating various kinds of e-mail: some with attachments, some not. Some with pre-filled addresses, some not. I didn't want my class implement UIViewController, but it has to so it can be the delegate for the MailComposer. Otherwise, the view controllers that call my class would themselves have to be delegates for the MailComposer, which defeats the purpose. The downside of having my class be a view controller is that it has to load to the screen before it can modally bring up the MailComposer. Unfortunately, view controllers can't be transparent. The effect is, whatever is on screen gets covered by a solid white view controller for a moment before the MailComposer appears. I could maybe live with that, but not this: after the MailComposer goes away, I'm left with my blank view controller occupying the screen. I ought to be able to get rid of it from within itself by calling this: [self.parentViewController dismissModalViewControllerAnimated:NO]; But that dies a horrible death: "Loading 43365 stack frames..." Has my class -- a UIViewController that pre-fills and then launches a MailComposer -- lost track of its parentViewController? It isn't nil, because I've tested for that. As launched from within the current view controller... // My class is called Email. Email *oEmail = [[[Email alloc] init] retain]; // Red, to remind myself that I'd like to someday learn to make it transparent. oEmail.view.backgroundColor = [UIColor redColor]; // Pre-fill whatever fields you want, and specify attachments. oEmail.EmailSubject = @"I am truly stumped"; // This has to go on screen first. [self presentModalViewController:oEmail animated:NO]; // Then this can happen, which brings up the MailComposer. [oEmail f_SendEmail]; // Commenting out the next line didn't help, so I turned it back on. [oEmail release]; Inside the class, you need the mailComposeController:didFinishWithResult:error: method to make the MailComposer go away, and for that to happen, the class has to be the MFMailComposeViewControllerDelegate. Here's what happens in there: // This gets rid of the mail composer. [self dismissModalViewControllerAnimated:YES]; // This never fails to get rid of other modal view controllers when called // from within those controllers, but boy does it not work here. [self.parentViewController dismissModalViewControllerAnimated:NO]; If you can help me, I will be truly thankful!

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  • Good Email Notification Sending Service

    - by Philibert Perusse
    I need to send a few but important email notifications to individual users. For instance, when they register their software I send them a confirmation email. Right now, I am using 'sendmail' from my Perl CGI script to do the job. Most of my automated email are lost or marked as junk. Unfortunately, I am using shared hosting services and not a very good control over the SPF and SenderID DNS records. Even more bad, some other user of that shared server has been infected with some kind of SPAM-BOT and the IP is now blacklisted until further notice! Anyway I just don't want to deal with this kind of headache. I am looking for an online service that I will be able to subscribe to and pay something like 0.10$ per email I send with no monthly fees. I just need and API to be able to send the email from PHP or Perl code I will have to write. I have been looking around at all those "Email Sending Services" and they are all wrapped around creating campains and managing lists for bulk email marketing distribution and newsletters. But remember, I want to send an email notification to a "single" recipient. So far, I have look at MailChimp, SocketLabs, iContact, ConstantContact, StreamSend and so many others to no avail. I have seen one comment at Hackers News saying that MailChimp have an API for transactional e-mails (i.e. ad-hoc ones to welcome a user for example). So you're not just restricted to using them for bulk emails But I cannot find this in the API documentation supplied, maybe this was removed. Any suggestions out there. Here is a summary of my requirements: Allows ad hoc sending of email to a single recipient. Throughput may well be throttle I don't care, i am sending like 2-5 emails a day. API available in PHP or Perl to connect to that web service. Ideally I can send HTML formatted emails, otherwise I will live with text only. Solution not too expensive, between 0.01$ and 0.25$ per email would be acceptable. No recurring monthly fees.

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  • CSS Background-Images Loading after HTML Images (Involves Javascript)

    - by Kevin C.
    I threw together a quick little microsite that you can see at http://monterraauction.com. If you don't have a super-fast connection (and nothing's cached), the very last items to load are the background-images that are used for CSS image-text replacement (primarily, that h1#head at the top, with a 7kb background image). Nothing debilitating, but it looks slightly awkward. And I'm asking this question as a matter of curiosity more than anything else ;) Also, please note that this occurs in Firefox, but not Chrome. Now, underneath the h1#head I have a jquery.cycle.lite-powered slideshow in div#photo. In the HTML markup there are a total of 13, heavy image files that make up each of the slides. If I remove all but the first slide, then the problem goes away! So the CSS background-images are loading after...those HTML images are done? But here's what's confusing: I check it out in YSlow...the CSS background-images have a much lower response time than all of the slides in #photo. Right after all the JS files finish loading, in fact. So why aren't they showing up first? I tried $('#photo img:last-child').load(function() { alert('Locked and Loaded!')});, but the background-images pop up a while before the alert does, so I'm assuming it's not waiting until the last slide has loaded (admittedly I'm a bit of JS noob so maybe I'm just making a wrong assumption). I also tried commenting out all the jquery.cycle.lite stuff, so that I knew I didn't have any JS manipulating the DOM elements in #photo, but that wasn't the problem. I tried putting all the JS at the bottom of the document, right before </body>, but that didn't work. Lastly, I tried turning off javascript, and of course the css background-image loads way before the images in #photo, so it's definitely a JS thing (amirite?) I guess the obvious solution here is to mark the slides up as LINKS rather than IMGs, and have Javascript insert those 12 extra slideshow images after the DOM is ready--users without javascript shouldn't need to download the extra images anyways. But again, I'm curious: Why does removing the extra HTML images from within #photo solve the problem? And why are the CSS background-images showing up after the HTML images have loaded, even though YSlow says the css background-images loaded first? Seeing as how it happens in FF but not Chrome, is it simply a browser issue? I appreciate any insight you guys could give me!

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  • Does weak typing offer any advantages?

    - by sub
    Don't confuse this with static vs. dynamic typing! You all know JavaScripts/PHPs infamous type systems: PHP example: echo "123abc"+2; // 125 - the reason for this is explained // in the PHP docs but still: This hurts echo "4"+1; // 5 - Oh please echo "ABC"*5; // 0 - WTF // That's too much, seriously now. // This here might be actually a use for weak typing, but no - // it has to output garbage. JavaScript example: // A good old JavaScript, maybe you'll do better? alert("4"+1); // 51 - Oh come on. alert("abc"*3); // NaN - What the... // Have your creators ever heard of the word "consistence"? Python example: # Python's type system is actually a mix # It spits errors on senseless things like the first example below AND # allows intelligent actions like the second example. >>> print("abc"+1) Traceback (most recent call last): File "<pyshell#2>", line 1, in <module> print("abc"+1) TypeError: Can't convert 'int' object to str implicitly >>> print("abc"*5) abcabcabcabcabc Ruby example: puts 4+"1" // Type error - as supposed puts "abc"*4 // abcabcabcabc - makes sense After these examples it should be clear that PHP/JavaScript probably have the most inconsistent type systems out there. This is a fact and really not subjective. Now when having a closer look at the type systems of Ruby and Python it seems like they are having a much more intelligent and consistent type system. I think these examples weren't really necessary as we all know that PHP/JavaScript have a weak and Python/Ruby have a strong type system. I just wanted to mention why I'm asking this. Now I have two questions: When looking at those examples, what are the advantages of PHPs and JavaScripts type systems? I can only find downsides: They are inconsistent and I think we know that this is not good Types conversions are hardly controllable Bugs are more likely to happen and much harder to spot Do you prefer one of the both systems? Why? Personally I have worked with PHP, JavaScript and Python so far and must say that Pythons type system has really only advantages over PHPs and JavaScripts. Does anybody here not think so? Why then?

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  • Modeling distribution of performance measurements

    - by peterchen
    How would you mathematically model the distribution of repeated real life performance measurements - "Real life" meaning you are not just looping over the code in question, but it is just a short snippet within a large application running in a typical user scenario? My experience shows that you usually have a peak around the average execution time that can be modeled adequately with a Gaussian distribution. In addition, there's a "long tail" containing outliers - often with a multiple of the average time. (The behavior is understandable considering the factors contributing to first execution penalty). My goal is to model aggregate values that reasonably reflect this, and can be calculated from aggregate values (like for the Gaussian, calculate mu and sigma from N, sum of values and sum of squares). In other terms, number of repetitions is unlimited, but memory and calculation requirements should be minimized. A normal Gaussian distribution can't model the long tail appropriately and will have the average biased strongly even by a very small percentage of outliers. I am looking for ideas, especially if this has been attempted/analysed before. I've checked various distributions models, and I think I could work out something, but my statistics is rusty and I might end up with an overblown solution. Oh, a complete shrink-wrapped solution would be fine, too ;) Other aspects / ideas: Sometimes you get "two humps" distributions, which would be acceptable in my scenario with a single mu/sigma covering both, but ideally would be identified separately. Extrapolating this, another approach would be a "floating probability density calculation" that uses only a limited buffer and adjusts automatically to the range (due to the long tail, bins may not be spaced evenly) - haven't found anything, but with some assumptions about the distribution it should be possible in principle. Why (since it was asked) - For a complex process we need to make guarantees such as "only 0.1% of runs exceed a limit of 3 seconds, and the average processing time is 2.8 seconds". The performance of an isolated piece of code can be very different from a normal run-time environment involving varying levels of disk and network access, background services, scheduled events that occur within a day, etc. This can be solved trivially by accumulating all data. However, to accumulate this data in production, the data produced needs to be limited. For analysis of isolated pieces of code, a gaussian deviation plus first run penalty is ok. That doesn't work anymore for the distributions found above. [edit] I've already got very good answers (and finally - maybe - some time to work on this). I'm starting a bounty to look for more input / ideas.

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