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• uiview's controls unresponsive.. or how to foul up a view hierarchy

  - by user293139

  Hello all, I'm working on an app that has two sections, a config section and a results section. My config section needs to be 2 separate views (horizontal and vert, and yes, I can hear the intake of breath from here), with one rotatable view for the results. b/c of layout restraints and a lot of pain around rotation, I'm not using a navigation controller. I've been experiencing the joys of rotation experimentation and have settled upon keeping my views contained as subviews of my view controller. i.e. view controller.view.subviews = configH, configV, and results. I then use the controller.view bringSubviewToFront to bring the either the configH, configV, or the result view to the front. Rotation works-queue(humor intended) the angelic choirs... almost. What's happening is that my configV button's are responsive, but when the device (or simulator) is rotated, my configH controls are not. (configV is the second subview added, but the first one to be brought to the front because app comes up in portrait mode) The controls on the results view also work. Plan B was to assign the controller.view to configH, configV, or results. All of my controls now work, but rotation is now fouled up. Question 1: Is there a better way to do this? (a horizontal and vertical config view and a rotatable results view) Question 2: Does the above suggest a design issue, or is it more likely that my addled brain is just missing something in my own code. (nothing from the peanut gallery please) many thanks!

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• jQuery update not replacing js files in Drupal 6.16.

  - by vr3690

  Hi, I am using jquery update in drupal 6.16 along with a lot of other modules. I am trying to use jquery ui 1.7.2 to render tabs. But unfortunately they don't work properly since jquery update is not replacing the jquery file (jquery 1.3.2). I checked the version using $.fn.jquery (in firebug) and got 1.2.6 (not 1.3.2 as required) as the result - and as expected the aggregated js file was using the 1.2.6 version of jquery (see source). earlier I had just replaced the core script files in /misc with the js files in sites/default/modules/jquery_update/replace folder (like you'd do in 5.x) and got the necessary result (i also renamed jquery.min.js to jquery.js ). now suddenly that stopped working after i upgraded to 6.x-2.0-alpha1 and also installed the mollom module. disabling/uninstalling mollom or down-grading jQuery update does not seem to help. the problem only occurs on the front page though. other content pages have jQuery 1.3.2 the problem can be seen here. So, basically, for some reason, jquery update is not replacing the jquery files (as it is supposed to) on the front page. and i cannot figure out why that happens. any ideas?

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• Do I have to create a static library to test my application?

  - by Christopher Gateley

  I'm just getting started with TDD and am curious as to what approaches others take to run their tests. For reference, I am using the google testing framework, but I believe the question is applicable to most other testing frameworks and to languages other than C/C++. My general approach so far has been to do either one of three things: Write the majority of the application in a static library, then create two executables. One executable is the application itself, while the other is the test runner with all of the tests. Both link to the static library. Embed the testing code directly into the application itself, and enable or disable the testing code using compiler flags. This is probably the best approach I've used so far, but clutters up the code a bit. Embed the testing code directly into the application itself, and, given certain command-line switches either run the application itself or run the tests embedded in the application. None of these solutions are particularly elegant... How do you do it?

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• Eclipse doesn't see my new junit test

  - by morgancodes

  I'm using eclipse to run the tests in a single junit(4) test class. The tests in the class all run just fine. Then I add an additional test and run the class through the test running in ecplise again. Only the old tests are run. The new test isn't seen by eclipse. There's no error or anything, it's just as if eclipse is looking at an old version of the test. If I run the tests using maven, everything works fine. Additionally, after I run the tests in maven, ecplipse can see and run the new test correctly. Any ideas what's going on? Any ideas how to get ecplipse's test runner to see my new test cases?

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• Dynamic classloading fails on runtime

  - by Henrik Paul

  I have the following snippet of java code: final Class<?> junitCoreClass = AccessController.doPrivileged( new PrivilegedAction<URLClassLoader>() { @Override public URLClassLoader run() { return new URLClassLoader(new URL[] { junitJarUrl }); } }).loadClass("org.junit.runner.JUnitCore"); System.out.println(junitCoreClass.getName()); final JUnitCore junitCore = (JUnitCore) junitCoreClass.newInstance(); This compiles fine. But when I try to run it, something weird happens; a java.lang.NoClassDefFoundError is thrown on that last line, referring to the class just loaded. The weird part is, the println prints the exact class name. I checked that if I keep the reference as an Object and manipulate it only through reflection, everything's fine, so the offending piece of code must be the explicit cast. Can someone explain to me why this happens, and also tell me how I can achieve what I'm trying to do?

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• Pass Parameter to Subroutine in Codebehind

  - by Sanjubaba

  I'm trying to pass an ID of an activity (RefNum) to a Sub in my codebehind. I know I'm supposed to use parentheses when passing parameters to subroutines and methods, and I've tried a number of ways and keep receiving the following error: BC30203: Identifier expected. I'm hard-coding it on the front-end just to try to get it to pass [ OnDataBound="FillSectorCBList("""WK.002""")" ], but it's obviously wrong. :( Front-end: <asp:DetailsView ID="dvEditActivity" AutoGenerateRows="False" DataKeyNames="RefNum" OnDataBound="dvSectorID_DataBound" OnItemUpdated="dvEditActivity_ItemUpdated" DataSourceID="dsEditActivity" > <Fields> <asp:TemplateField> <ItemTemplate> <br /><span style="color:#0e85c1;font-weight:bold">Sector</span><br /><br /> <asp:CheckBoxList ID="cblistSector" runat="server" DataSourceID="dsGetSectorNames" DataTextField="SectorName" DataValueField="SectorID" OnDataBound="FillSectorCBList("""WK.002""")" ></asp:CheckBoxList> <%-- Datasource to populate cblistSector --%> <asp:SqlDataSource ID="dsGetSectorNames" runat="server" ConnectionString="<%$ ConnectionStrings:dbConn %>" ProviderName="<%$ ConnectionStrings:dbConn.ProviderName %>" SelectCommand="SELECT SectorID, SectorName from Sector ORDER BY SectorID"></asp:SqlDataSource> </ItemTemplate> </asp:TemplateField> </Fields> </asp:DetailsView> Code-behind: Sub FillSectorCBList(ByVal RefNum As String, ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Dim SectorIDs As New ListItem Dim myConnection As String = ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings("dbConn").ConnectionString() Dim objConn As New SqlConnection(myConnection) Dim strSQL As String = "SELECT DISTINCT A.RefNum, AS1.SectorID, S.SectorName FROM Activity A LEFT OUTER JOIN Activity_Sector AS1 ON AS1.RefNum = A.RefNum LEFT OUTER JOIN Sector S ON AS1.SectorID = S.SectorID WHERE A.RefNum = @RefNum ORDER BY A.RefNum" Dim objCommand As New SqlCommand(strSQL, objConn) objCommand.Parameters.AddWithValue("RefNum", RefNum) Dim ad As New SqlDataAdapter(objCommand) Try [Code] Finally [Code] End Try objCommand.Connection.Close() objCommand.Dispose() objConn.Close() End Sub Any advice would be great. I'm not sure if I even have the right approach. Thank you!

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• Understanding the concept of inheritance in Java

  - by Nirmal

  Hello All.... I am just refreshing the oops features of the java. So, I have a little confusion regarding inheritance concept. For that I have a following sample code : class Super{ int index = 5; public void printVal(){ System.out.println("Super"); } } class Sub extends Super{ int index = 2; public void printVal(){ System.out.println("Sub"); } } public class Runner { public static void main(String args[]){ Super sup = new Sub(); System.out.println(sup.index+","); sup.printVal(); } } Now above code is giving me output as : 5,Sub. Here, we are overriding printVal() method, so that is understandable that it is accessing child class method only. But I could not understand why it's accessing the value of x from Super class... Thanks in advance....

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• Maven: Multiple class with the same path implemented in different jar

  - by Phuong Nguyen de ManCity fan

  I'm running into trouble with having multiple class with the same path (i.e. same name, same package!!!). For some reason, gwt-dev comes with its own version of org.apache.xerces.jaxp.DocumentBuilderFactoryImpl and javax.xml.parsers.DocumentBuilderFactory. At the same time, spring also depends on these classes but from different jar. I don't know what should be, but look like xalan & xml-api are the two dependencies that spring depends on (these dependency are optional) Funny thing is that eclipse can run the same code (it's a unit test) without problem, but surefire cannot. So I guess the problem is due to the way each runner consider the priority of each jar. Now come to the question: How can I setup my POM so that I can sure that when ever any code running inside my app, then class from a jar will be selected over class from other jar? Thanks.

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• Interactive World Map, highlight countries on mouseover

  - by BrenGG

  I need to create an interactive world map on the front page of a site, the view portal will be about 650x200 pixels. The interactivity would include the following, mouse-over a country would highlight (the countries are will literally be filled with "red" for example) that country and display the countries' name (preferably text in a div), I will also be linking the highlighting event with a that will highlight a country when selected. I am having a difficult time finding a suitable solution, I refuse to use or learn a proprietry technology such as flash so it is not an option. I created a simple mockup using openlayers and a custom map image but the countries' markers load too slowly in IE6. Also svg seems too large, as I tried to use RaphaelJS, but abondoned it when I realised the world map data is 1.2mb which is totally un acceptable for the front page of a site.. I am really at a loss on how I am going to do this, my last resort is to manually create 250+ (however many countries there are) pngs and apply mouseover events to hotspots in the image... but this is probably going to be a dead end too.. desperately seeking a solution, any helpful comments will be appreciated!

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• C++ syntax issue

  - by Doug

  It's late and I can't figure out what is wrong with my syntax. I have asked other people and they can't find the syntax error either so I came here on a friend's advice. template <typename TT> bool PuzzleSolver<TT>::solve ( const Clock &pz ) { possibConfigs_.push( pz.getInitial() ); vector< Configuration<TT> > next_; //error is on next line map< Configuration<TT> ,Configuration<TT> >::iterator found; while ( !possibConfigs_.empty() && possibConfigs_.front() != pz.getGoal() ) { Configuration<TT> cfg = possibConfigs_.front(); possibConfigs_.pop(); next_ = pz.getNext( cfg ); for ( int i = 0; i < next_.size(); i++ ) { found = seenConfigs_.find( next_[i] ); if ( found != seenConfigs_.end() ) { possibConfigs_.push( next_[i] ); seenConfigs_.insert( make_pair( next_[i], cfg ) ); } } } } What is wrong? Thanks for any help.

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• sybase - values from one table that aren't on another, on opposite ends of a 3-table join

  - by Lazy Bob

  Hypothetical situation: I work for a custom sign-making company, and some of our clients have submitted more sign designs than they're currently using. I want to know what signs have never been used. 3 tables involved: table A - signs for a company sign_pk(unique) | company_pk | sign_description 1 --------------------1 ---------------- small 2 --------------------1 ---------------- large 3 --------------------2 ---------------- medium 4 --------------------2 ---------------- jumbo 5 --------------------3 ---------------- banner table B - company locations company_pk | company_location(unique) 1 ------|------ 987 1 ------|------ 876 2 ------|------ 456 2 ------|------ 123 table C - signs at locations (it's a bit of a stretch, but each row can have 2 signs, and it's a one to many relationship from company location to signs at locations) company_location | front_sign | back_sign 987 ------------ 1 ------------ 2 987 ------------ 2 ------------ 1 876 ------------ 2 ------------ 1 456 ------------ 3 ------------ 4 123 ------------ 4 ------------ 3 So, a.company_pk = b.company_pk and b.company_location = c.company_location. What I want to try and find is how to query and get back that sign_pk 5 isn't at any location. Querying each sign_pk against all of the front_sign and back_sign values is a little impractical, since all the tables have millions of rows. Table a is indexed on sign_pk and company_pk, table b on both fields, and table c only on company locations. The way I'm trying to write it is along the lines of "each sign belongs to a company, so find the signs that are not the front or back sign at any of the locations that belong to the company tied to that sign." My original plan was: Select a.sign_pk from a, b, c where a.company_pk = b.company_pk and b.company_location = c.company_location and a.sign_pk *= c.front_sign group by a.sign_pk having count(c.front_sign) = 0 just to do the front sign, and then repeat for the back, but that won't run because c is an inner member of an outer join, and also in an inner join. This whole thing is fairly convoluted, but if anyone can make sense of it, I'll be your best friend.

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• horizontal uiview's controls unresponsive.. or how to foul up a view hierarchy

  - by Oldmicah

  Hello all, I'm working on an app that has two sections, a config section and a results section. My config section needs to be 2 separate views (horizontal and vert, and yes, I can hear the intake of breath from here), with one rotatable view for the results. b/c of layout restraints and a lot of pain around rotation, I'm not using a navigation controller. I've been experiencing the joys of rotation experimentation and have settled upon keeping my views contained as subviews of my view controller. i.e. view controller.view.subviews = configH, configV, and results. I then use the controller.view bringSubviewToFront to bring the either the configH, configV, or the result view to the front. Rotation works-queue(humor intended) the angelic choirs... almost. What's happening is that my configV button's are responsive, but when the device (or simulator) is rotated, my configH controls are not. (configV is the second subview added, but the first one to be brought to the front because app comes up in portrait mode) The controls on the results view also work. Plan B was to assign the controller.view to configH, configV, or results. All of my controls now work, but rotation is now fouled up. Question 1: Is there a better way to do this? (a horizontal and vertical config view and a rotatable results view) Question 2: Does the above suggest a design issue, or is it more likely that my addled brain is just missing something in my own code. (nothing from the peanut gallery please) many thanks!

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• Good case for a Null Object Pattern? (Provide some service with a mailservice)

  - by fireeyedboy

  For a website I'm working on, I made an Media Service object that I use in the front end, as well as in the backend (CMS). This Media Service object manipulates media in a local repository (DB); it provides the ability to upload/embed video's and upload images. In other words, website visitors are able to do this in the front end, but administrators of the site are also able to do this in the backend. I'ld like this service to mail the administrators when a visitor has uploaded/embedded a new medium in the frontend, but refrain from mailing them when they upload/embed a medium themself in the backend. So I started wondering whether this is a good case for passing a null object, that mimicks the mail funcionality, to the Media Service in the backend. I thought this might come in handy when they decide the backend needs to have implemented mail functionality as well. In simplified terms I'ld like to do something like this: Frontend: $mediaService = new MediaService( new MediaRepository(), new StandardMailService() ); Backend: $mediaService = new MediaService( new MediaRepository(), new NullMailService() ); How do you feel about this? Does this make sense? Or am I setting myself up for problems down the road?

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• Java website protection solutions (especially XSS)

  - by Mark

  I'm developing a web application, and facing some security problems. In my app users can send messages and see other's (a bulletin board like app). I'm validating all the form fields that users can send to my app. There are some very easy fields, like "nick name", that can be 6-10 alpabetical characters, or message sending time, which is sended to the users as a string, and then (when users ask for messages, that are "younger" or "older" than a date) I parse this with SimpleDateFormat (I'm developing in java, but my question is not related to only java). The big problem is the message field. I can't restrict it to only alphabetical characters (upper or lowercase), because I have to deal with some often use characters like ",',/,{,} etc... (users would not be satisfied if the system didn't allow them to use these stuff) According to this http://ha.ckers.org/xss.html, there are a lot of ways people can "hack" my site. But I'm wondering, is there any way I can do to prevent that? Not all, because there is no 100% protection, but I'd like a solution that can protect my site. I'm using servlets on the server side, and jQuery, on the client side. My app is "full" AJAX, so users open 1 JSP, then all the data is downloaded and rendered by jQuery using JSON. (yeah, I know it's not "users-without-javascript" friendly, but it's 2010, right? :-) ) I know front end validation is not enough. I'd like to use 3 layer validation: - 1. front end, javascript validate the data, then send to the server - 2. server side, the same validation, if there is anything, that shouldn't be there (because of client side javascript), I BAN the user - 3. if there is anything that I wasn't able to catch earlier, the rendering process handle and render appropriately Is there any "out of the box" solution, especially for java? Or other solution that I can use?

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• What is the correct stage to use for Google Guice in production in an application server?

  - by Yishai

  It seems like a strange question (the obvious answer would Production, duh), but if you read the java docs: /** * We want fast startup times at the expense of runtime performance and some up front error * checking. */ DEVELOPMENT, /** * We want to catch errors as early as possible and take performance hits up front. */ PRODUCTION Assuming a scenario where you have a stateless call to an application server, the initial receiving method (or there abouts) creates the injector new every call. If there all of the module bindings are not needed in a given call, then it would seem to have been better to use the Development stage (which is the default) and not take the performance hit upfront, because you may never take it at all, and here the distinction between "upfront" and "runtime performance" is kind of moot, as it is one call. Of course the downside of this would appear to be that you would lose the error checking, causing potential code paths to cause a problem by surprise. So the question boils down to are the assumptions in the above correct? Will you save performance on a large set of modules when the given lifetime of an injector is one call?

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• reinitialize an object with self.__init__(...)

  - by Kara Jevo

  Could anybody explain whether it is safe to reinitialize an object by calling "self.init(". as shown in the following simplified example? The reason i'm asking is that i couldn't find this method neither in several python books nor in internet. There are some who suggest to list all attributes and set them to initial value one by one. Basically i want to set my object to initial state after it has finished some tasks. class Book(object): def __init__(self,name,author): self.name = name self.author = author self.copies = 5 def reset(self): self.__init__(self.name,self.author) def incrementCopy(self): self.copies += 1 Kite = Book('kite runner','khaled hosseini') print 'initial number of copies:', Kite.copies Kite.incrementCopy() Kite.incrementCopy() Kite.incrementCopy() print '3 copies are added:', Kite.copies Kite.reset() print 'number of copies are reinitialized', Kite.copies initial number of copies: 5 3 copies are added: 8 number of copies are reinitialized 5

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• How do I pass a function to NUnit Throws.Constraints?

  - by Serge Belov

  I'm trying to write some NUnit tests in F# and having trouble passing a function to the ThrowsConstraint. A distilled (non)working sample is below. open System.IO open NUnit.Framework [<TestFixture>] module Example = [<Test>] let foo() = let f = fun () -> File.GetAttributes("non-existing.file") Assert.That(f, Throws.TypeOf<FileNotFoundException>()) This compiles just fine but I get the following from the NUnit test runner: FsTest.Tests.Example.foo: System.ArgumentException : The actual value must be a TestDelegate but was f@11 Parameter name: actual While I'm able to work around the problem using ExpectedException attribute, my question is what is the correct way of using an F# function in this situation?

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• Using IAM for user authentication

  - by mdavis6890

  I've read lots and lots of posts that touch on what I think should be a very common use case - but without finding exactly what I want, or a simple reason why it can't be done. I have some files on S3. I want to be able to grant certain users access to certain files, via a front end that I build. So far, I've made it work this way: I built the front end in Django, using it's built-in Users and Groups I have a model for Buckets, in which I mirror my S3 buckets. I have a m2m relationship from groups to buckets representing the S3 permissions. The user logs in and authenticates against Django's users. I grab from Django the list of buckets that the user is allowed to see I use boto to grab a list of links to files from those buckets and display to user. This works, but isn't ideal, and also just doesn't feel right. I've got to keep a mirror of the buckets, and I also have to maintain my own list of user/passwords and permissions, when AWS already has all that built in. What I really want is to simply create the users in IAM and use group permissions in IAM to control access to the S3 buckets. No duplication of data or function. My app would request a UN/PW from the user and use that to connect to IAM/S3 to pull the list of buckets and files, then display links to the user. Simple. How can I, or why can't I? Am I looking at this the wrong way? What's the "right" way to address this (I assume) very common use case?

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• Can I have code that executes before and after tests are run by NUnit?

  - by Billy ONeal

  I've got a bunch of tests in NUnit which create garbage data on the filesystem (bad, I know, but I have little control over this). Currently we have a cleanup tool that removes these temporaries and such, but I'd like to be able to run that cleanup tool automatically. I'd have to be able to run it after all tests have finished running. I have similar checking that I'd like to do at the beginning, to ensure that there are none of these temporaries left from previous runs that might change the outcome of the tests. Is such a thing simple or am I going to have to implement a whole new test runner for such a thing?

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• How do you run your unit tests? Compiler flags? Static libraries?

  - by Christopher Gateley

  I'm just getting started with TDD and am curious as to what approaches others take to run their tests. For reference, I am using the google testing framework, but I believe the question is applicable to most other testing frameworks and to languages other than C/C++. My general approach so far has been to do either one of three things: Write the majority of the application in a static library, then create two executables. One executable is the application itself, while the other is the test runner with all of the tests. Both link to the static library. Embed the testing code directly into the application itself, and enable or disable the testing code using compiler flags. This is probably the best approach I've used so far, but clutters up the code a bit. Embed the testing code directly into the application itself, and, given certain command-line switches either run the application itself or run the tests embedded in the application. None of these solutions are particularly elegant... How do you do it?

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• reshaping a data frame into long format in R

  - by user1773115

  I'm struggling with a reshape in R. I have 2 types of error (err and rel_err) that have been calculated for 3 different models. This gives me a total of 6 error variables (i.e. err_1, err_2, err_3, rel_err_1, rel_err_2, and rel_err_3). For each of these types of error I have 3 different types of predivtive validity tests (ie random holdouts, backcast, forecast). I would like to make my data set long so I keep the 4 types of test long while also making the two error measurements long. So in the end I will have one variable called err and one called rel_err as well as an id variable for what model the error corresponds to (1,2,or 3) Here is my data right now: iter err_1 rel_err_1 err_2 rel_err_2 err_3 rel_err_3 test_type 1 -0.09385732 -0.2235443 -0.1216982 -0.2898543 -0.1058366 -0.2520759 random 1 0.16141630 0.8575728 0.1418732 0.7537442 0.1584816 0.8419816 back 1 0.16376930 0.8700738 0.1431505 0.7605302 0.1596502 0.8481901 front 1 0.14345986 0.6765194 0.1213689 0.5723444 0.1374676 0.6482615 random 1 0.15890059 0.7435382 0.1589823 0.7439204 0.1608709 0.7527580 back 1 0.14412360 0.6743928 0.1442039 0.6747684 0.1463520 0.6848202 front and here is what I would like it to look like: iter model err rel_err test_type 1 1 -0.09385732 (#'s) random 1 2 -0.1216982 (#'s) random 1 3 -0.1216982 (#'s) random and on... I've tried playing around with the syntax but can't quite figure out what to put for the time.varying argument Thanks very much for any help you can offer.

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• Does the managed main UI thread stay on the same (unmanaged) Operation System thread?

  - by Daniel Rose

  I am creating a managed WPF UI front-end to a legacy Win32-application. The WPF front-end is the executable; as part of its startup routines I start the legacy app as a DLL in a second thread. Any UI-operation (including CreateWindowsEx, etc.) by the legacy app is invoked back on the main UI-thread. As part of the shutdown process of the app I want to clean up properly. Among other things, I want to call DestroyWindow on all unmanaged windows, so they can properly clean themselves up. Thus, during shutdown I use EnumWindows to try to find all my unmanaged windows. Then I call DestroyWindow one the list I generate. These run on the main UI-thread. After this background knowledge, on to my actual question: In the enumeration procedure of EnumWindows, I have to check if one of the returned top-level windows is one of my unmanaged windows. I do this by calling GetWindowThreadProcessId to get the process id and thread id of the window's creator. I can compare the process id with Process.GetCurrentProcess().Id to check if my app created it. For additional security, I also want to see if my main UI-thread created the window. However, the returned thread id is the OS's ThreadId (which is different than the managed thread id). As explained in this question, the CLR reserves the right to re-schedule the managed thread to different OS threads. Can I rely on the CLR to be "smart enough" to never do this for the main UI thread (due to thread-affinity of the UI)? Then I could call GetCurrentThreadId to get the main UI-thread's unmanaged thread id for comparison.

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• JavaScript: function returning NAN

  - by Michael

  I'm working on a codecademy.com lesson with instructions to write the calculateTotal function below. When I click run, it's returning NaN. Anyone know what's wrong with the calculateTotal function as I wrote it that's making it return NaN. Note, I understand that NaN means not a number... // runner times var carlos = [9.6,10.6,11.2,10.3,11.5]; var liu = [10.6,11.2,9.4,12.3,10.1]; var timothy = [12.2,11.8,12.5,10.9,11.1]; // declare your function calculateTotal here var calculateTotal = function(raceTimes){ var totalTime; for(i = 0; i < raceTimes.length; i++){ totalTime += raceTimes[i]; return totalTime; } }; var liuTotal = calculateTotal(liu); console.log(liuTotal);

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• Comments on this assumption about running on dev server vs a real instance in app engine (python)?

  - by Jacob Oscarson

  Hello app engineers! I'm on an app engine project where I'd like to put in a link to a Javascript test runner that I'd like to only exist when running the development server. I've made some experiments on a local shell with configuration loaded using the technique found in NoseGAE versus live on the 'App Engine Console' [1] and it looks to me like a distinction btw real instance and dev server is the presence of the module google.appengine.tools. Which lead me to this utility function: def is_dev(): """ Tells us if we're running under the development server or not. :return: ``True`` if the code is running under the development server. """ try: from google.appengine import tools return True except ImportError: return False The question (finally!) would be: is this a bad idea? And in that case, can anyone suggest a better approach? [1] http://con.appspot.com/console/ (try it! very handy indeed)

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• Capistrano update causes C: to be placed in the current directory (cygwin)

  - by user321775

  When I run cap deploy:update in a directory on my local machine (via cygwin), "C:" magically appears in the directory. Sure enough, I can cd to it and it's my windows C: drive. Now I'm afraid to delete it, but I definitely don't want it in this directory (a rails project under /home/username/blah/blah). Here's my config/deploy.rb file. custom options set :application, "xyz.com" set :repository, "ssh://[email protected]:yyyy/home/git/xxx" set :user, "myname" set :runner, user set :use_sudo, false server "xxx.xxx.xxx.xxx:yyyy", :app, :web, :db, :primary = true deploy to set :deploy_to, "/home/myname/public_html/xyz" repository set :scm, :git set :deploy_via, :copy ssh options default_run_options[:pty] = true ssh_options[:paranoid] = false ssh_options[:port] = yyyy start passenger namespace :deploy do task :start do ; end task :stop do ; end task :restart, :roles = :app, :except = { :no_release = true } do run "#{try_sudo} touch #{File.join(current_path,'tmp','restart.txt')}" end end Anyone see the problem? And does anyone know a safe way of getting rid of the C: drives that have already shown up (this has happened in a few directories)?

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