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  • Flickr API automated login using Python library flickrapi

    - by Dave Aaron Smith
    I have a web application that I want to sync with Flickr. I don't want the users to have to log into Flickr so I plan to use a single login. I believe I'll need to do something like this: import flickrapi flickr = flickrapi.FlickrAPI(myKey, mySecret) (token, frob) = flickr.get_token_part_one(perms='write', my_auth_callback) flickr.get_token_part_two((token, frob,)) flickr.what_have_you(... I don't know what my_auth_callback should look like though. I suspect it will have to post my login information to flickr. Could I do the get_token_part_one step just once manually perhaps and then re-use it in get_token_part_two?

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  • Function signature-like expressions as C++ template arguments

    - by Jeff Lee
    I was looking at Don Clugston's FastDelegate mini-library and noticed a weird syntactical trick with the following structure: TemplateClass< void( int, int ) > Object; It almost appears as if a function signature is being used as an argument to a template instance declaration. This technique (whose presence in FastDelegate is apparently due to one Jody Hagins) was used to simplify the declaration of template instances with a semi-arbitrary number of template parameters. To wit, it allowed this something like the following: // A template with one parameter template<typename _T1> struct Object1 { _T1 m_member1; }; // A template with two parameters template<typename _T1, typename _T2> struct Object2 { _T1 m_member1; _T2 m_member2; }; // A forward declaration template<typename _Signature> struct Object; // Some derived types using "function signature"-style template parameters template<typename _Dummy, typename _T1> struct Object<_Dummy(_T1)> : public Object1<_T1> {}; template<typename _Dummy, typename _T1, typename _T2> struct Object<_Dummy(_T1, _T2)> : public Object2<_T1, _T2> {}; // A. "Vanilla" object declarations Object1<int> IntObjectA; Object2<int, char> IntCharObjectA; // B. Nifty, but equivalent, object declarations typedef void UnusedType; Object< UnusedType(int) > IntObjectB; Object< UnusedType(int, char) > IntCharObjectB; // C. Even niftier, and still equivalent, object declarations #define DeclareObject( ... ) Object< UnusedType( __VA_ARGS__ ) > DeclareObject( int ) IntObjectC; DeclareObject( int, char ) IntCharObjectC; Despite the real whiff of hackiness, I find this kind of spoofy emulation of variadic template arguments to be pretty mind-blowing. The real meat of this trick seems to be the fact that I can pass textual constructs like "Type1(Type2, Type3)" as arguments to templates. So here are my questions: How exactly does the compiler interpret this construct? Is it a function signature? Or, is it just a text pattern with parentheses in it? If the former, then does this imply that any arbitrary function signature is a valid type as far as the template processor is concerned? A follow-up question would be that since the above code sample is valid code, why doesn't the C++ standard just allow you to do something like the following, which is does not compile? template<typename _T1> struct Object { _T1 m_member1; }; // Note the class identifier is also "Object" template<typename _T1, typename _T2> struct Object { _T1 m_member1; _T2 m_member2; }; Object<int> IntObject; Object<int, char> IntCharObject;

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  • DOM and Javascript

    - by Bob Smith
    I let a user reconfigure the location of a set of rows in a table by giving them ability to move them up and down. The changes are done by swapping nodes in the DOM. After the user has moved rows around, when I do a view source, I see the HTML in the original state (before the user made any changes). Can someone explain why that is? My understanding was when we do any DOM operations, the underlying HTML will be changed as well. EDIT: Does that mean on the server side, when attempt to get the state after user's changes, I will be able to get what I need? I am using C#/ASP.NET. Could it be because this is a HTML table (not ASP.NET Server control), that it's not maintaining the state of the changes?

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  • MySqlDataAdapter or MySqlDataReader for bulk transfer?

    - by Jeff Meatball Yang
    I'm using the MySql connector for .NET to copy data from MySql servers to SQL Server 2008. Has anyone experienced better performance using one of the following, versus the other? DataAdapter and calling Fill to a DataTable in chunks of 500 DataReader.Read to a DataTable in a loop of 500 I am then using SqlBulkCopy to load the 500 DataTable rows, then continue looping until the MySql record set is completely transferred. I am primarily concerned with using a reasonable amount of memory and completing in a short amount of time. Any help would be appreciated!

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  • Python: does it make sense to refactor this check into it's own method?

    - by Jeff Fry
    I'm still learning python. I just wrote this method to determine if a player has won a game of tic-tac-toe yet, given a board state like:'[['o','x','x'],['x','o','-'],['x','o','o']]' def hasWon(board): players = ['x', 'o'] for player in players: for row in board: if row.count(player) == 3: return player top, mid, low = board for i in range(3): if [ top[i],mid[i],low[i] ].count(player) == 3: return player if [top[0],mid[1],low[2]].count(player) == 3: return player if [top[2],mid[1],low[0]].count(player) == 3: return player return None It occurred to me that I check lists of 3 chars several times and could refactor the checking to its own method like so: def check(list, player): if list.count(player) == 3: return player ...but then realized that all that really does is change lines like: if [ top[i],mid[i],low[i] ].count(player) == 3: return player to: if check( [top[i],mid[i],low[i]], player ): return player ...which frankly doesn't seem like much of an improvement. Do you see a better way to refactor this? Or in general a more Pythonic option? I'd love to hear it!

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  • Is it possible to virtualize war file execution without separate J2EE container deployments?

    - by Smith
    Let's say I want to allow my developers to upload their war files to a web app (not the application server itself) running on our intranet and that web app would then run those wars as if they were separate apps deployed individually in our J2EE container. In other words, we are not actually deploying the wars as separate apps in the container - they are simply running side-by-side inside this one web app that acts like a J2EE container. Is that possible? Something like a war virtualization app?

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  • JQuery Help: slidetoggle() is not working properly

    - by John Smith
    Hi all, I'm trying to use JQuery Slidetoggle functionality, but not able to use properly. The problem I'm currently facing is my div is sliding down on the click of slide image icon, but after that suddenly data div (in which data is loading) disappears. Means sliding down is perfect but div (in which data is loading , here #divMain) is not visible after that. I want to achieve sliding effect in my code, like this has (Please see Website Design, Redesign Services slider): Here is my code: HTML: <div> <div class="jquery_inner_mid"> <div class="main_heading"> <a href="#"> <img src="features.jpg" alt="" title="" border="0" /></a> </div> <div class="plus_sign"> <img id="imgFeaturesEx" src="images/plus.jpg" alt="" title="" border="0" /> <img id="imgFeaturesCol" src="images/minus.jpg" alt="" title="" border="0" /></div> <div class="toggle_container"> <div id="divMain" > </div> </div> </div> <div class="jquery_inner_mid"> <div class="main_heading"> <img src="About.jpg" alt="" title="" /></div> <div class="plus_sign"> <img id="imgTechnoEx" src="images/plus.jpg" alt="" title="" border="0" /> <img id="imgTechnoCol" src="images/minus.jpg" alt="" title="" border="0" /></div> <div class="toggle_container"> <div id="divTechnossus" > </div> </div> </div> </div> JQuery: $(function() { $('#imgFeaturesCol').hide(); $('#imgTechnoCol').hide(); $('#imgFeaturesEx').click(function() { $.getJSON("/Visitor/GetFeatureInfo", null, function(strInfo) { $('#divMain').html(strInfo).slideToggle("slow"); LoadDiv(); }); $('#imgFeaturesEx').hide(); $('#imgFeaturesCol').show(); }); $('#imgFeaturesCol').click(function() { $('#divMain').html("").slideToggle("slow"); $('#imgFeaturesCol').hide(); $('#imgFeaturesEx').show(); }); $('#imgTechnoEx').click(function() { $.getJSON("/Visitor/GetTechnossusInfo", null, function(strInfo) { $('#divTechnossus').html(strInfo).slideToggle("slow"); }); $('#imgTechnoEx').hide(); $('#imgTechnoCol').show(); }); $('#imgTechnoCol').click(function() { $('#divTechnossus').html("").slideToggle("slow"); $('#imgTechnoCol').hide(); $('#imgTechnoEx').show(); }); })(); function LoadDiv() { $('#s4').cycle({ speed: 200, timeout: 0, pager: '#nav' }); }

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  • Problem with Scrolling UITableView

    - by HiGuy Smith
    Hello, I have a navigation-based application that has a scrolling UITableView filled with the contents of a directory. Somehow, when I try to scroll a new cell into view, the application crashes. I have determined that it goes down to these lines of code in - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath {: NSString *cellText = [contentArray objectAtIndex:indexPath.row]; cell.textLabel.text = cellText; Now why this is crashing, I don't know. contentArray is a NSArray with the table data. If you need a bit more code to tell: - (NSInteger)numberOfSectionsInTableView:(UITableView *)tableView { return 1; } - (NSInteger)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView numberOfRowsInSection:(NSInteger)section { return [contentArray count]; } Please help me with this problem, HiGuy

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  • All words in a trie data-structure

    - by John Smith
    I'm trying to put all words in a trie in a string, a word is detonated by the eow field being true for a certain character in the trie data structure, hence a trie can could have letters than lead up to no word, for ex "abc" is in the trie but "c"'s eow field is false so "abc" is not a word Here is my Data structure struct Trie { bool eow; //when a Trie field isWord = true, hence there is a word char letter; Trie *letters[27]; }; and here is my attemped print-all function, basically trying to return all words in one string seperated by spaces for words string printAll( string word, Trie& data) { if (data.eow == 1) return word + " "; for (int i = 0; i < 26; i++) { if (data.letters[i] != NULL) printAll( word + data.letters[i]->letter, *(data.letters[i])); } return ""; } Its not outputting what i want, any suggestions?

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  • Java hangs when trying to close a ProcessBuilder OutputStream

    - by Jeff Bullard
    I have the following Java code to start a ProcessBuilder, open an OutputStream, have the process write a string to an OutputStream, and then close the OutputStream. The whole thing hangs indefinitely when I try to close the OutputStream. This only happens on Windows, never on Mac or Linux. Some of the related questions seem to be close to the same problem I'm having, but I haven't been able to figure out how to apply the answers to my problem, as I am a relative newbie with Java. Here is the code. You can see I have put in a lot of println statements to try to isolate the problem. System.out.println("GenMic trying to get the input file now"); System.out.flush(); OutputStream out = child.getOutputStream(); try { System.out.println("GenMic getting ready to write the input file to out"); System.out.flush(); out.write(intext.getBytes()); System.out.println("GenMic finished writing to out"); System.out.flush(); out.close(); System.out.println("GenMic closed OutputStream"); System.out.flush(); } catch (IOException iox) { System.out.println("GenMic caught IOException 2"); System.out.flush(); String detailedMessage = iox.getMessage(); System.out.println("Exception: " + detailedMessage); System.out.flush(); throw new RuntimeException(iox); } And here is the output when this chunk is executed: GenMic trying to get the input file now GenMic getting ready to write the input file to out GenMic finished writing to out

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  • Proper binding data to combobox and handling its events.

    - by Wodzu
    Hi guys. I have a table in SQL Server which looks like this: ID Code Name Surname 1 MS Mike Smith 2 JD John Doe 3 UP Unknown Person and so on... Now I want to bind the data from this table into the ComboBox in a way that in the ComboBox I have displayed value from the Code column. I am doing the binding in this way: SqlDataAdapter sqlAdapter = new SqlDataAdapter("SELECT * FROM dbo.Users ORDER BY Code", MainConnection); sqlAdapter.Fill(dsUsers, "Users"); cbxUsers.DataSource = dsUsers.Tables["Users"]; cmUsers = (CurrencyManager)cbxUsers.BindingContext[dsUsers.Tables["Users"]]; cbxUsers.DisplayMember = "Code"; And this code seems to work. I can scroll through the list of Codes. Also I can start to write code by hand and ComboBox will autocomplete the code for me. However, I wanted to put a label at the top of the combobox to display Name and Surname of the currently selected user code. My line of though was like that: "So, I need to find an event which will fire up after the change of code in combobox and in that event I will get the current DataRow..." I was browsing through the events of combobox, tried many of them but without a success. For example: private void cbxUsers_SelectionChangeCommitted(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (cmUsers != null) { DataRowView drvCurrentRowView = (DataRowView)cmUsers.Current; DataRow drCurrentRow = drvCurrentRowView.Row; lblNameSurname.Text = Convert.ToString(drCurrentRow["Name"]) + " " + Convert.ToString(drCurrentRow["Surname"]); } } This give me a strange results. Firstly when I scroll via mouse scroll it doesn't return me the row wich I am expecting to obtain. For example on JD it shows me "Mike Smith", on MS it shows me "John Doe" and on UP it shows me "Mike Smith" again! The other problem is that when I start to type in ComboBox and press enter it doesn't trigger the event. However, everything works as expected when I bind data to lblNameSurname.Text in this way: lblNameSurname.DataBindings.Add("Text", dsusers.Tables["Users"], "Name"); The problem here is that I can bind only one column and I want to have two. I don't want to use two labels for it (one to display name and other to display surname). So, what is the solution to my problem? Also, I have one question related to the data selection in ComboBox. Now, when I type something in the combobox it allows me to type letters that are not existing in the list. For example, I start to type "J" and instead of finishing with "D" so I would have "JD", I type "Jsomerandomtexthere". Combobox will allow that but such item does not exists on the list. In other words, I want combobox to prevent user from typing code which is not on the list of codes. Thanks in advance for your time.

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  • How to get rid of duplicates in regex

    - by Emmanuel Smith
    Suppose I had a string, "cats cats cats and dogs dogs dogs." What regular expression would I use in order to replace that string with,"cats and dogs." i.e. removing duplicates. The expression however must only remove duplicates that follow after each other. For instance: "cats cats cats and dogs dogs dogs and cats cats and dogs dogs" Would return: "cats and dogs and cats and dogs"

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  • response.redirect to classic asp failing {Unable to evaluate expression because the code is optimize

    - by jeff
    I have the following code pasted below. For some reason, the response.redirect seems to be failing and it is maxing out the cpu on my server and just doesn't do anything. The .net code uploads the file fine, but does not redirect to the asp page to do the processing. I know this is absolute rubbish why would you have .net code redirecting to classic asp, it is a legacy app. I have tried putting false or true etc. at the end of the redirect as I have read other people have had issues with this. Please help as it's driving me insane! It's so strange, it runs locally on my machine but won't run on my server! I am getting the following error when I debugged remotely. {Unable to evaluate expression because the code is optimized or a native frame is on top of the call stack.} (UPDATED) After debugging remotely and taking the redirect out of the try catch, I have found that the redirect is trying to get to the correct location but after it leaves the redirect is just seems to get lost. (almost as if it can't navigate away from the cobra_import project) back up a level to COBRA/pages. Why is this??? This has worked previously!!! public void btnUploadTheFile_Click(object Source, EventArgs evArgs) { //need to check that the uploaded file is an xls file. string strFileNameOnServer = "PJI3.txt"; string strBaseLocation = ConfigurationSettings.AppSettings["str_file_location"]; if ("" == strFileNameOnServer) { txtOutput.InnerHtml = "Error - a file name must be specified."; return; } if (null != uplTheFile.PostedFile) { try { uplTheFile.PostedFile.SaveAs(strBaseLocation+strFileNameOnServer); txtOutput.InnerHtml = "File <b>" + strBaseLocation+strFileNameOnServer+"</b> uploaded successfully"; Response.Redirect ("/COBRA/pages/sap_import_pji3_prc.asp"); } catch (Exception e) { txtOutput.InnerHtml = "Error saving <b>" + strBaseLocation+strFileNameOnServer+"</b><br>"+ e.ToString(); } } }

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  • SQLAlchemy - how to map against a read-only (or calculated) property

    - by Jeff Peck
    I'm trying to figure out how to map against a simple read-only property and have that property fire when I save to the database. A contrived example should make this more clear. First, a simple table: meta = MetaData() foo_table = Table('foo', meta, Column('id', String(3), primary_key=True), Column('description', String(64), nullable=False), Column('calculated_value', Integer, nullable=False), ) What I want to do is set up a class with a read-only property that will insert into the calculated_value column for me when I call session.commit()... import datetime def Foo(object): def __init__(self, id, description): self.id = id self.description = description @property def calculated_value(self): self._calculated_value = datetime.datetime.now().second + 10 return self._calculated_value According to the sqlalchemy docs, I think I am supposed to map this like so: mapper(Foo, foo_table, properties = { 'calculated_value' : synonym('_calculated_value', map_column=True) }) The problem with this is that _calculated_value is None until you access the calculated_value property. It appears that SQLAlchemy is not calling the property on insertion into the database, so I'm getting a None value instead. What is the correct way to map this so that the result of the "calculated_value" property is inserted into the foo table's "calculated_value" column?

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  • IE bug with TD's tables and whitespace?

    - by mark smith
    Hi there, I have a page that is using tables, in FF etc it works perfect, but in IE7 it causes issues, its basically where the four corners have a td and and img (its a rounded corner form) .. if i remove the whitespace from the document it fixes the issue.. What actually happens is that it messes up the tables.. it puts a thin white line between the upper tr that holds the 2 corners and the next tr I need to remove the the whitespace between the img and the TD, is there a better work around, as i have lots and not only that if i reformat the document the problem returns.. here is a simple example.. <table width="100%" height="418" border="0" cellpadding="0" cellspacing="0" bgcolor="#F04A23" style="margin: 0px; padding: 0px"> <tr> <td width="12" align="left" valign="top"> <img src="content/images/corner_left.gif" width="12" height="12" /> </td> as you can see there is white space between img and td... and i remove it so it looks like this <img src="content/images/corner_left.gif" width="12" height="12" /></td> the problem is gone, (notice the td and image are right next to each other) Any ideas, i tried setting all sorts of css, padding 0px, margins 0px etc ... Any ideas really appreciated

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  • What is the best way get and hold property reference by name in c#

    - by Jeff Weber
    I want to know if there is a better way (than what I'm currently doing) to obtain and hold a reference to a property in another object using only the object and property string names. Particularly, is there a better way to do this with the new dynamic functionality of .Net 4.0? Here is what I have right now. I have a "PropertyReference<T>" object that takes an object name and property name in the constructor. An Initialize() method uses reflection to find the object and property and stores the property Getter as an Action<T> and the property Setter as an Func<T>. When I want to actually call the property I do something like this: int x = _propertyReference.Get(); or _propertyReference.Set(2); Here is my PropertyReference<T> code. Please dissect and make suggestions for improvement. using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Text; using System.Reflection; using System.Xml; namespace WindowsFormsApplication2 { public class PropertyReference<T> : IPropertyReference { public string ComponentName { get; set; } public string PropertyName { get; set; } public bool IsInitialized { get { return (_action != null && _func != null); } } Action<T> _action; Func<T> _func; public PropertyReference() { } public PropertyReference(string componentName, string propertyName) { ComponentName = componentName; PropertyName = propertyName; } public void Initialize(IEntity e) { Object component = e.GetByName(ComponentName); if (component == null) return; Type t = e.GetByName(ComponentName).GetType(); PropertyInfo pi = t.GetProperty(PropertyName); _action = (T a) => pi.SetValue(component, a, null); _func = () => (T)pi.GetValue(component, null); } public void Reset() { _action = null; _func = null; } public void Set(T value) { _action.Invoke(value); } public T Get() { return _func(); } } } Note: I can't use the "Emit" functionality as I need this code to work on the new Windows Phone 7 and that does not support Emit.

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  • shielding #include within namespace { } block?

    - by Jeff
    Edit: I know that method 1 is essentially invalid and will probably use method 2, but I'm looking for the best hack or a better solution to mitigate rampant, mutable namespace proliferation. I have multiple class or method definitions in one namespace that have different dependencies, and would like to use the fewest namespace blocks or explicit scopings possible but while grouping #include directives with the definitions that require them as best as possible. I've never seen any indication that any preprocessor could be told to exclude namespace {} scoping from #include contents, but I'm here to ask if something similar to this is possible: (see bottom for explanation of why I want something dead simple) // NOTE: apple.h, etc., contents are *NOT* intended to be in namespace Foo! // would prefer something most this: namespace Foo { #include "apple.h" B *A::blah(B const *x) { /* ... */ } #include "banana.h" int B::whatever(C const &var) { /* ... */ } #include "blueberry.h" void B::something() { /* ... */ } } // namespace Foo ... // over this: #include "apple.h" #include "banana.h" #include "blueberry.h" namespace Foo { B *A::blah(B const *x) { /* ... */ } int B::whatever(C const &var) { /* ... */ } void B::something() { /* ... */ } } // namespace Foo ... // or over this: #include "apple.h" namespace Foo { B *A::blah(B const *x) { /* ... */ } } // namespace Foo #include "banana.h" namespace Foo { int B::whatever(C const &var) { /* ... */ } } // namespace Foo #include "blueberry.h" namespace Foo { void B::something() { /* ... */ } } // namespace Foo My real problem is that I have projects where a module may need to be branched but have coexisting components from the branches in the same program. I have classes like FooA, etc., that I've called Foo::A in the hopes being able to branch less painfully as Foo::v1_2::A, where some program may need both a Foo::A and a Foo::v1_2::A. I'd like "Foo" or "Foo::v1_2" to show up only really once per file, as a single namespace block, if possible. Moreover, I tend to prefer to locate blocks of #include directives immediately above the first definition in the file that requires them. What's my best choice, or alternatively, what should I be doing instead of hijacking the namespaces?

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  • Gtk+ vs Qt language bindings

    - by Adam Smith
    Put shortly: For those familiar with language bindings in Qt and Gtk+. E.g. python and ruby. Are there any quality or capability difference? More background: I know C++ and Qt very well. Minimal experience with Gtk+. I know C++ is not ideal for language bindings due to the lack of a well defined ABI (application binary interface). I also read that Gtk+ was designed to be bound to other languages. So I wonder how this manifets itself in practice. Are the Gtk+ bindings better maintained or work better in some way than their Qt counterparts? I am presently quite interested in the Go language, and they have started developing Gtk+ bindings. However C++ bindings is far away. It makes me wonder whether learning Gtk+ is worth it.

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  • What is the equivalent to IScriptControl for Web.UI.Page?

    - by Jeff Dege
    We've been using IScriptControl to tie javascript objects to our UserControls and ServerControls, and it's worked fine. The problem is that ASP.NET seems to provide no method to tie a javascript object to a Page. Up to now, we've been putting plain functions in the global namespace, but I am developing a serious allergy to that practice. It'd be easy enough to wrap our functions into a javascript class, and to include the javascript file on the page, but how to instantiate the object, how to reference it from callback events, and how to pass data to it from the code-behind, I haven't figured out. Or rather, the methods we've been using up to now (hidden fields, emitted javascript strings, etc.), really bug me. Anyone have better ideas?

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  • Eclipse and JavaFX? is it just me?

    - by jeff porter
    I'm looking at learning JavaFX. I've tried setting Eclipse to develop a small app and I've downloaded the Eclipse plugin. Eclipse JavaFX plugin BUT... it just seems, well, flakey. So I have 3 questions... 1: Is there a better plugin? 2: Or is there some great set of tutorials out there that I'm missing? 3: finally, is it meant to be easy to call Java code from FX? I'm stuggling, it there a good example somewhere? On questions 1 & 2, Eclipse underlines code in red that just shouln't be. For example.. see this image... Why does it underline bit of imports in red? I know this is little of an open ended question. So I guess my main question is this... Is my experiance of JavaFX and Eclipse the best I can hope for? Or am I missing something ? (and I'm not looking for a Yes/No response) :-) Just looking for a discussion on how best to learn/develop JavaFx.

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  • Can't find .Net 2.0 XML Schema

    - by Zach Smith
    I'm currently setting up an application config for a WPF application written in .Net 4.0. The connection string in the app.config is encrypted like so: <connectionStrings configProtectionProvider="DataProtectionConfigurationProvider"> <EncryptedData> <CipherData> <CipherValue>CypherValue</CipherValue> </CipherData> </EncryptedData> </connectionStrings> To use the EncryptedData element I need to include the XMLNS "http://schemas.microsoft.com/.NetConfiguration/v2.0". Attempting to include it produces an error as the schema cannot be found. Is there a way to include the schema or perhaps a different element I could use instead of EncryptedData?

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  • Intellisense for custom config section problem with namespaces

    - by Quick Joe Smith
    I have just rolled a custom configuration section, created an accompanying schema document for Intellisense and added it to the Web.config's Schemas property as per Michael Stum's answer to another similar question. Unfortunately, and possibly due to me creating the XSD by hand with limited knowledge, the Intellisense relies on an xmlns attribute pointing to my XSD file's namespace being present in the custom config element. However, when running the project I get an Unrecognized attribute 'xmlns'. Note that attribute names are case-sensitive error. I could probably just modify my XSD file to define the xmlns attribute for that element, however I am wondering if this is just a bandaid fix to a larger problem. I must confess I don't have a very good understanding of XML namespaces so this might be an oppportunity to set me straight on a few things. Here is the attributes for my XSD file's root xs:schema element: <xs:schema id="awesomeConfig" targetNamespace="http://awesome.com/schemas" xmlns="http://awesome.com/schemas" elementFormDefault="qualified" xmlns:xs="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema"> ... </xs:schema> And on creating the element in the Web.config file, Visual Studio 2008 automatically appends: <awesomeConfig xmlns="http://awesome.com/schemas"></awesomeConfig> So have I misunderstood the meaning of the xs:schema attributes at all, or is the proper solution as simple as it seems?

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