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  • Server unreachable without www

    - by deamon
    My server is unreachable without "www." prefix, even when trying it with ping. The DNS entry looks like this: $TTL 86400 @ IN SOA ns1.first-ns.de. postmaster.robot.first-ns.de. ( 2011010600 ; serial 14400 ; refresh 1800 ; retry 604800 ; expire 86400 ) ; minimum @ IN NS robotns3.second-ns.com. @ IN NS robotns2.second-ns.de. @ IN NS ns1.first-ns.de. @ IN A 1.2.3.4 localhost IN A 127.0.0.1 mail IN A 1.2.3.4 www IN A 1.2.3.4 ftp IN CNAME www imap IN CNAME www loopback IN CNAME localhost pop IN CNAME www relay IN CNAME www smtp IN CNAME www @ A DNS record of the same type for another domain on the same server is working with and without "www". And the VirualHost config looks like this: <VirtualHost *:80> ServerName somewhere.com ServerAlias www.somewhere.com ServerSignature Off ... </VirtualHost> Any idea what could be wrong?

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  • Site resolves fine without "www", "www" creates database error

    - by PatrickS
    Working with BOA ( Barracuda / Octopus / Aegir ) , I've installed a few Drupal sites without any problems and following the same process for all. BOA is running on Nginx. All sites are going thru Cloudflare's network , where I set the same DNS settings. A example.com points to IPADDRESS A www points to IPADDRESS the nameservers of each domain are pointing to Cloudflare's respective nameservers. It all works , except for one site that works perfectly without "www" , but with "www" returns the typical database error if Drupal can't find the site's database. Site off-line The site is currently not available due to technical problems. Please try again later. Thank you for your understanding. If you are the maintainer of this site, please check your database settings in the settings.php file and ensure that your hosting provider's database server is running. For more help, see the handbook, or contact your hosting provider. In BOA, all sites have the same alias, basically a symlink, redirecting like this... www.example.com - example.com

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  • Laptop shuts down randomly without warning

    - by Robert P.
    My Asus Zenbook UX32V turns off randomly when I'm working on it. This happens both when the computer is recently turned on (5 minutes), and after being on for several days. I'm not running any heavy software The laptop is not heating The fan is not working on the maximum capacity (it's not heating) It happens when the laptop is lying still on the table It is no warning, it simply goes black It happens both when charging and on battery My guess is that it suddenly lose power somehow. What puzzles me is that I can flip the laptop upside down, sideways, shake it, etc. without it shutting off. This makes me think it's not something that's loose causing occasional short-circuits. I realize that the laptop probably doesn't like flipping and shaking, but it was the best way I could troubleshoot. I rarely turn the computer off, only have it in hibernate or sleep mode (most often hibernate). I've never experienced that the laptop is off when I wake it up from sleep mode. I've had the problem for a few months and it happens 2-8 times a week. Specs: Asus Zenbook UX32V Windows 8.1 (it happened in Windows 8.0 too) Intel i5-3317U CPU @ 1.70GHz The laptop is approx 1.5 years, but it has a small dent on one of the sides that probably voids the warranty. The dent has been there since week one and I don't think it's related to the problems I'm having now. Does anyone have a clue what might cause this, and how it might be fixed? I've read all other questions (some of which are listed below) that seem related to my issue, but none report the same behavior as I'm experiencing. Most report heavy games, heating etc. Asus N53J Laptop randomly shuts down Laptop is randomly shutting off Computer shuts down without warning My laptop acer aspire 5720 suddenly turn off randomly Computer randomly shutting down Windows 8.1 randomly shuts self down ASUS K55VM Laptop unexpectedly shuts down

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  • Give Access to a Subdirectory Without Giving Access to Parent Directories

    - by allquixotic
    I have a scenario involving a Windows file server where the "owner" wants to dole out permissions to a group of users of the following sort: \\server\dir1\dir2\dir3: Read & Execute and Write \\server\dir1\dir2: No permissions. \\server\dir1: No permissions. \\server: Read & Execute To my understanding, it is not possible to do this because Read & Execute permission must be granted to all the parent directories in a directory chain in order for the operating system to be able to "see" the child directories and get to them. Without this permission, you can't even obtain the security context token when trying to access the nested directory, even if you have full access to the subdirectory. We are looking for ways to get around this, without moving the data from \\server\dir1\dir2\dir3 to \\server\dir4. One workaround I thought of, but which I am not sure if it will work, is creating some sort of link or junction \\server\dir4 which is a reference to \\server\dir1\dir2\dir3. I am not sure which of the available options (if any) would work for this purpose if the user does not have Read & Execute permission on \\server\dir1\dir2 or \\server\dir1, but as far as I know, the options are these: NTFS Symbolic Link, Junction, Hard Link. So the questions: Are any of these methods suitable to accomplish my goal? Are there any other methods of linking or indirectly referencing a directory, which I haven't listed above, which might be suitable? Are there any direct solutions that don't involve granting Read & Execute to \\server\dir1 or \\server\dir2 but still allowing access to \\server\dir1\dir2\dir3?

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  • rdp allow client reconnect without password prompt after several hours

    - by Tom
    Let me describe the setup first: client PC with several rdp sessions to local servers, all opened from saved rdp sessions with stored passwords, using the standard windows rdp client. several windows servers on the LAN, with varying server OS: windows server 2003, 2008, and even 2012 now. When I log onto my PC I open up rdp sessions to all those servers, and keep them open all the time for various reasons. Overnight the client PC is put into sleep or hibernate mode, thereby braking the rdp connections. On the next day when I wake the client PC and login again, the rdp sessions automatically try to reconnect to the servers, and this leads to the question: starting with server 2008 something apparently changed in the rdp server config, as all servers with 2008, 2008r2 and 2012 will prompt for the password in the rdp session, whereas the 2003 server rdp connections will re-establish without the password prompt. Apparently there is a timeout setting on 2008+ that, when exceeded, requires a reauthentication. Is there any way to setup the 2008+ servers to behave like 2003 did? I'd like the rdp sessions to reconnect without a password prompt even after a several hour disconnect.

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  • How to install wordpress without a web browser

    - by bvandrunen
    What I am trying to do is to automate wordpress website creation for the company I am working on. We have lots of information in our database for our customers and we want to create a wordpress website for each customer. The process works great and we have no trouble with the creation of websites/transfer of data or anything like that. The problem we do have is when we buy a new domain (http://www.newdomain.com) our process breaks (we call a stored procedure which installs all the data after the URL is called to install wordpress) if the domain takes more than 15min to resolve. We have tried doing looping (where the process checks to see if the domain resolves and keeps trying - but eventually if fails). So what we are looking for is to see if there is a way to install an URL without actually having the domain resolve yet. I have seen where possibilities where you can change the wp-config file but this doesn't work since we have more than one domain and it changes the source URL for all the domains. What we really need is just a way for us to manually start the install script through a call either through a database or some other way that doesn't check to see if the domain is resolved or pointing at the server or not. Thank for any suggestions. EDIT: All we do to install wordpress is call this URL: http://"newdomain".com/wp-admin/install.php?step=2 - if you change settings in the backend calling this URL will install wordpress without having to go through the wp-admin/install.php form

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  • Rsync root files between systems without specifying password

    - by xpt
    This seems very tricky to me. I've set up my two systems so that I can rsync files between them as me, without specifying password. Now the the problem is to rsync files that belong to root. On both of my systems, there are no root passwords. The only way to become root is via sudo. So I can neither give a password for sudo rsyn local root@remote:, no use my ssh-agent to supply pass phrase. I don't want to set up a root password on any systems; and I do need the files to be owned by root on both systems. EDIT: Using the files that belong to root is just an example, I need a way for my unprivileged account to read/write system (including root-owned) files easily. One example is to copy my configured /root environment into the freshly-installed system. The two systems are actually two VMs under a single host, so it's not a big concern for me to copy root-owned files between them. EDIT 2: If I only want to copy my configured /root environment into the freshly-installed system, I can use tar: sudo tar cvzf - /root | ssh me@remote sudo tar xvzf - -C / But I do need rsync to update from time to time. Any easy way to make it happen? EDIT 3: Formally formulate the question Alright, it all began with the question, how to rsync files that belong to root between two systems as a normal unprivileged user, without specifying password, under the condition that, The root account is locked on both of systems. I.e., there are no root passwords. The only way to become root is via sudo (recommended security practice, see http://help.ubuntu.com/community/RootSudo) I don't want a completely passwordless sudo but don’t want to be typing passwords all the time either. The normal unprivileged user has entered their ssh pass phrase into the ssh agent. Thanks

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  • Disk (EXT4) suddenly empty without any sign of why

    - by Ohnomydisk
    I have a Ubuntu 10.04 server with several disks in it. The disks are setup with a union filesystem, which presents them all as one logical /home. A few days ago, one of the disks appears to have suddenly 'become empty', for lack of better explanation. The amount of data on the /home mount almost halved within minutes - the disk appears to have had just over 400 GB of data prior to 'becoming empty'. I have absolutely no idea what happened. I was not using the server at the other time, but there are half a dozen other users who may have been (without root access and without the ability to hose a whole disk). I've ran SMART tests on the disk and it comes back clean. The filesystem checks fine (it has 12 GB used now, as some user software continued downloading after the incident). All I know is that around around midnight on October 19, the disk usage changed dramatically: The data points are every 15 minutes, and the full loss occured between captures: 2012-10-18 23:58:03.399647 - has 953.97/2059.07 GB [46.33 percent] 2012-10-19 00:13:15.909010 - has 515.18/2059.07 GB [25.02 percent] Other than that, I have not much to go off :-( I know that: There's nothing interesting in log files at that time Nobody appeared to be logged in via SSH at the time it occured (most users do not even use SSH) The server was online through whatever occured (3 months uptime) None of the other disks were affected and everything else on the server looks completely normal I have tried using "extundelete" on the disk and it didn't really find anything (some temporary files, but they looked new anyway) I am completely at a loss to what could have caused this. I was initially thinking maybe root escalation exploit, but even if someone did maliciously "rm" the disk contents, it would take more than 15 minutes for 400 GB?

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  • BYOD (accessing files) on a domain without joining?

    - by Philip White
    I run a Samba 4 instance at a small private school. This makes a regular Linux server appear as a directory controller. There are two relevant benefits to this: I have a Samba share for people's documents, and I use the Redirected Folders feature to allow any employee to sit down at any PC, log in with their domain credentials, and their My Documents points to network storage. Everyone has a mapped drive (using Group Policy Preferences) to a share specific to their account type. Students can access one share (one share for all students), teachers have another, and office staff have another. However, I would like to allow BYOD (Bring Your Own Device). Some employees are already asking for it with their personal laptops, and I know eventually most everyone will want to. Is there any way to replicate the two features above without having to join PCs to the domain? Joining personal PCs is impractical if only because only professional editions of Windows support this. Ideally, any operating system (including mobile) could access the relevant shares, but of course Windows is key. Offline caching is optional. (I could set up OpenVPN for teachers who want to access their files from home.) The problem with simply giving SSH access to the relevant shares is primarily that Samba 4 relies on ext4 ACLs and ext4 extended attributes to maintain NTFS permissions. Writing files directly to the Linux server would bypass this and would (probably) not be interoperable with Samba4. Right now I am completely flexible. I am even fine with scrapping the whole domain and using some other software for the two features above. How can I allow school employees and students freedom to securely share files without requiring everyone to have specific editions of Windows?

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  • hand coding a parser

    - by John Leidegren
    For all you compiler gurus, I wanna write a recursive descent parser and I wanna do it with just code. No generating lexers and parsers from some other grammar and don't tell me to read the dragon book, i'll come around to that eventually. I wanna get into the gritty details about implementing a lexer and parser for a reasonable simple langauge, say CSS. And I wanna do this right. This will probably end up being a series of questions but right now I'm starting with a lexer. Tokenization rules for CSS can be found here. I find my self writing code like this (hopefully you can infer the rest from this snippet): public CssToken ReadNext() { int val; while ((val = _reader.Read()) != -1) { var c = (char)val; switch (_stack.Top) { case ParserState.Init: if (c == ' ') { continue; // ignore } else if (c == '.') { _stack.Transition(ParserState.SubIdent, ParserState.Init); } break; case ParserState.SubIdent: if (c == '-') { _token.Append(c); } _stack.Transition(ParserState.SubNMBegin); break; What is this called? and how far off am I from something reasonable well understood? I'm trying to balence something which is fair in terms of efficiency and easy to work with, using a stack to implement some kind of state machine is working quite well, but I'm unsure how to continue like this. What I have is an input stream, from which I can read 1 character at a time. I don't do any look a head right now, I just read the character then depending on the current state try to do something with that. I'd really like to get into the mind set of writing reusable snippets of code. This Transition method is currently means to do that, it will pop the current state of the stack and then push the arguments in reverse order. That way, when I write Transition(ParserState.SubIdent, ParserState.Init) it will "call" a sub routine SubIdent which will, when complete, return to the Init state. The parser will be implemented in much the same way, currently, having everyhing in a single big method like this allows me to easily return a token when I found one, but it also forces me to keep everything in one single big method. Is there a nice way to split these tokenization rules into seperate methods? Any input/advice on the matter would be greatly appriciated!

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  • Using a function with reference as a function with pointers?

    - by epatel
    Today I stumbled over a piece of code that looked horrifying to me. The pieces was chattered in different files, I have tried write the gist of it in a simple test case below. The code base is routinely scanned with FlexeLint on a daily basis, but this construct has been laying in the code since 2004. The thing is that a function implemented with a parameter passing using references is called as a function with a parameter passing using pointers...due to a function cast. The construct has worked since 2004 on Irix and now when porting it actually do work on Linux/gcc too. My question now. Is this a construct one can trust? I can understand if compiler constructors implement the reference passing as it was a pointer, but is it reliable? Are there hidden risks? Should I change the fref(..) to use pointers and risk braking anything in the process? What to you think? #include <iostream> using namespace std; // ---------------------------------------- // This will be passed as a reference in fref(..) struct string_struct { char str[256]; }; // ---------------------------------------- // Using pointer here! void fptr(const char *str) { cout << "fptr: " << str << endl; } // ---------------------------------------- // Using reference here! void fref(string_struct &str) { cout << "fref: " << str.str << endl; } // ---------------------------------------- // Cast to f(const char*) and call with pointer void ftest(void (*fin)()) { void (*fcall)(const char*) = (void(*)(const char*))fin; fcall("Hello!"); } // ---------------------------------------- // Let's go for a test int main() { ftest((void (*)())fptr); // test with fptr that's using pointer ftest((void (*)())fref); // test with fref that's using reference return 0; }

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  • How to Work Around Limitations in Generic Type Constraints in C#?

    - by Jose
    Okay I'm looking for some input, I'm pretty sure this is not currently supported in .NET 3.5 but here goes. I want to require a generic type passed into my class to have a constructor like this: new(IDictionary<string,object>) so the class would look like this public MyClass<T> where T : new(IDictionary<string,object>) { T CreateObject(IDictionary<string,object> values) { return new T(values); } } But the compiler doesn't support this, it doesn't really know what I'm asking. Some of you might ask, why do you want to do this? Well I'm working on a pet project of an ORM so I get values from the DB and then create the object and load the values. I thought it would be cleaner to allow the object just create itself with the values I give it. As far as I can tell I have two options: 1) Use reflection(which I'm trying to avoid) to grab the PropertyInfo[] array and then use that to load the values. 2) require T to support an interface like so: public interface ILoadValues { void LoadValues(IDictionary values); } and then do this public MyClass<T> where T:new(),ILoadValues { T CreateObject(IDictionary<string,object> values) { T obj = new T(); obj.LoadValues(values); return obj; } } The problem I have with the interface I guess is philosophical, I don't really want to expose a public method for people to load the values. Using the constructor the idea was that if I had an object like this namespace DataSource.Data { public class User { protected internal User(IDictionary<string,object> values) { //Initialize } } } As long as the MyClass<T> was in the same assembly the constructor would be available. I personally think that the Type constraint in my opinion should ask (Do I have access to this constructor? I do, great!) Anyways any input is welcome.

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  • Generic Type constraint in .net

    - by Jose
    Okay I'm looking for some input, I'm pretty sure this is not currently supported in .NET 3.5 but here goes. I want to require a generic type passed into my class to have a constructor like this: new(IDictionary<string,object>) so the class would look like this public MyClass<T> where T : new(IDictionary<string,object>) { T CreateObject(IDictionary<string,object> values) { return new T(values); } } But the compiler doesn't support this, it doesn't really know what I'm asking. Some of you might ask, why do you want to do this? Well I'm working on a pet project of an ORM so I get values from the DB and then create the object and load the values. I thought it would be cleaner to allow the object just create itself with the values I give it. As far as I can tell I have two options: 1) Use reflection(which I'm trying to avoid) to grab the PropertyInfo[] array and then use that to load the values. 2) require T to support an interface like so: public interface ILoadValues { void LoadValues(IDictionary values); } and then do this public MyClass<T> where T:new(),ILoadValues { T CreateObject(IDictionary<string,object> values) { T obj = new T(); obj.LoadValues(values); return obj; } } The problem I have with the interface I guess is philosophical, I don't really want to expose a public method for people to load the values. Using the constructor the idea was that if I had an object like this namespace DataSource.Data { public class User { protected internal User(IDictionary<string,object> values) { //Initialize } } } As long as the MyClass<T> was in the same assembly the constructor would be available. I personally think that the Type constraint in my opinion should ask (Do I have access to this constructor? I do, great!) Anyways any input is welcome.

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  • Is there a programming language with be semantics close to English ?

    - by ivo s
    Most languages allow to 'tweek' to certain extend parts of the syntax (C++,C#) and/or semantics that you will be using in your code (Katahdin, lua). But I have not heard of a language that can just completely define how your code will look like. So isn't there some language which already exists that has such capabilities to override all syntax & define semantics ? Example of what I want to do is basically from the C# code below: foreach(Fruit fruit in Fruits) { if(fruit is Apple) { fruit.Price = fruit.Price/2; } } I want do be able to to write the above code in my perfect language like this: Check if any fruits are Macintosh apples and discount the price by 50%. The advantages that come to my mind looking from a coder's perspective in this "imaginary" language are: It's very clear what is going on (self descriptive) - it's plain English after all even kid would understand my program Hides all complexities which I have to write in C#. But why should I care to learn that if statements, arithmetic operators etc since there are already implemented The disadvantages that I see for a coder who will maintain this program are: Maybe you would express this program differently from me so you may not get all the information that I've expressed in my sentence Programs can be quite verbose and hard to debug but if possible to even proximate this type of syntax above maybe more people would start programming right? That would be amazing I think. I can go to work and just write an essay to draw a square on a winform like this: Create a form called MyGreetingForm. Draw a square with in the middle of MyGreetingFormwith a side of 100 points. In the middle of the square write "Hello! Click here to continue" in Arial font. In the above code the parser must basically guess that I want to use the unnamed square from the previous sentence, it'd be hard to write such a smart parser I guess, yet it's so simple what I want to do. If the user clicks on square in the middle of MyGreetingForm show MyMainForm. In the above code 'basically' the compiler must: 1)generate an event handler 2) check if there is any square in the middle of the form and if there is - 3) hide the form and show another form It looks very hard to do but it doesn't look impossible IMO to me at least approximate this (I can personally generate a parser to perform the 3 steps above np & it's basically the same that it has to do any way when you add even in c# a.MyEvent=+handler; so I don't see a problem here) so I'm thinking maybe somebody already did something like this ? Or is there some practical burden of complexity to create such a 'essay style' programming language which I can't see ? I mean what's the worse that can happen if the parser is not that good? - your program will crash so you have to re-word it:)

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  • How can I upgrade Vista Home to Vista Ultimate without Anytime Upgrade DVD

    - by adriangrigore
    Hi, I'd like to upgrade Vista home to vista Ultimate on my desktop computer. I have a MSDN subscription, which means I can download just about every microsoft software there is. However, there doesn't seem to be any vista anytime upgrade DVD available in the MSDN downloads section. Is there any way to upgrade using the regular Vista Ultimate installation disc without performing a clean install?

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  • How to install SQL Server 2005 Configuration Manager without installing SQL Server Management Studio

    - by Arnold Zokas
    Hi, I need to configure SQL Server aliases on a public-facing production server. To do that, I need to install SQL Server Configuration Manager. I was not able to find a standalone installer for that, so I am having to install SQL Server 2005 Client Components. This approach is not ideal as we don't want to have SSMS on an public-facing production server. Is there a way to install SQL Server 2005 Configuration Manager without installing SQL Server Management Studio? Thanks, Arnold

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  • What does this mean: warning: converting from ‘void (ClassName::*)()’ to ‘void (*)()’

    - by Brendan Long
    I have a member function in a class that has a callback, but the callback isn't strictly neccessary, so it has a default callback, which is empty. It seems to work fine, but I get an annoying warning: warning: converting from ‘void (ClassName::*)()’ to ‘void (*)()’ I'm trying to figure out what it means and how to turn it off (or fix it if I really am doing something wrong). Here's some simple code: class ClassName{ public: void doSomething(void (*callbackFunction)() = (void(*)()) &ClassName::doNothing){ callbackFunction(); } void doNothing(){} }; int main(){ ClassName x; x.doSomething(); return 0; } Note: If I do this (without explicitly casting it as a void(*)()): void doSomething(void (*callbackFunction)() = &ClassName::doNothing) I get this: main.cpp:3: error: default argument for parameter of type ‘void (*)()’ has type ‘void (ClassName::*)()’

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  • Sysprep without audit mode?

    - by askvictor
    In preparing a (windows 7) machine for cloning, does one need to run it in audit mode before installing/customising? I have a customised machine I would like to sysprep and clone, without having to re-create in audit mode. And from where does one run sysprep? Is the command included in the windows distro, or do I need to run it from the AIK, or from a PE environment?

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  • Touch gestures in IE not working without explorer.exe being run once

    - by Michael
    Edit: Rephrasing my question: Upon further troubleshooting, I can conclude that: Touch gestures (dragging, pinch to zoom, touch-and-hold right click) in Internet Explorer start to work when: The system has been running for ~2 minutes. This coincides with the delayed start of services. Explorer.exe is being run, then killed. I assume Explorer.exe starts some services? The services with delayed start are as follows: Security Center Software Protection Windows Defender, Search and Update Windows Font Cache Service Microsoft .NET Framework NGEN v4.0.30319_X64 and X86 I see no connection between these services and touch gestures, but just in case, I manually tried starting these services, but without luck. What else happens delayed after system boot, which also happens when explorer is started? Old question: Details: Internet Explorer 9 and Windows 7 Professional, running on a HP TouchSmart (touch screen PC). It is going to be a kiosk PC (running a custom GUI for displaying websites). Scenario 1: When running Internet Explorer as a normal program in Windows 7, touch functions work perfectly. I can scroll the website by dragging it with my finger, I can pinch zoom and I can touch-and-hold right click. I now change the default shell in Windows to Internet Explorer (ie. IE starts instead of explorer.exe). Internet Explorer of course starts up when logging in. However, touch functions are reduced to basic clicking (no dragging, no pinch zooming, no touch-and-hold right click). Then I manually start explorer.exe, and the touch functions work again! And here is the weird part: When I kill explorer.exe, the touch functions keeps working - even if I close IE and start a new instance. Scenario 2: The exact same, but instead of changing the default shell to Internet Explorer, I change it to my own program, which uses an embedded Internet Explorer ("WebBrowser"). Same thing happens. What I've tried: Autorun programs: When explorer.exe launches, it launches all the autorun programs. There are no relevant programs being run by explorer, but just in case, I have manually started all the autorun programs, so that it is identical (but without explorer.exe) to a normal login. It still does not work (until I launch explorer.exe). Specifically TabTip.exe, TabTip32.exe and wisptis.exe are all running. All services are also started. To sum it up Running explorer.exe once changes something in the touch capabilities of Internet Explorer. It doesn't matter if explorer.exe is running - as long as it has been run once. Does anyone know what causes this behavior? Or how I can circumvent it neatly?

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  • Access IIS Admin without local administrator rights

    - by Carl
    We are running Microsoft Server 2003 with IIS. We would like to give our developers access to manage IIS (through IIS Admin) but do not want them to be administrators of the entire machine. Putting them in "Power Users" group does not seem to work. What permissions should we grant to our developers to allow them to manage IIS (e.g. add websites, modify app pools, etc.) without giving them full admin rights to the server?

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  • SMTP account without POP3/IMAP account in Thunderbird

    - by KP
    I'd like to set up Thunderbird to be able to send messages via an SMTP server, but I don't want to actually download any messages from a POP3 or IMAP account to Thunderbird's local storage. Is there any way to get Thunderbird to send messages without creating an incoming account? Currently, I'm unable to use the Write/Send features if I just have an outgoing server set up, but no incoming account.

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