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  • jQuery code not executing when DOM is ready

    - by Ben
    I have written a simple jQuery script that changes the hash tag of a link. I do this because I am using IntenseDebate comments in Wordpress but the comment link still links replaced id of the old comments. I'm using jQuery so that if javascript is enabled, the user can click on the comments link and it will take them to the IntenseDebate comments. If its not enabled it will take them to the traditional comments (because IntenseDebate requires javascript to function). The issue I'm having lies in this script to change the hash tag at the end of the link. Currently the URL "someurl.com/#respond" but I need the script to change it to "someurl.com/#comments". What is happening is that the script doesn't work, however I believe my syntax is correct so I decided to try copying and pasting the code into Firebug's console and the code executed perfectly. I could see that the link I was trying to change was now correct, and I could click on it and it worked as I desired. So what I don't understand is why the code is not executing when it is supposed to. I am using $(document).ready() and I have other jQuery on the page that executes just fine. I even tested it on a simple HTML page away from all the problems that might be caused by Wordpress and I received the same result. Does anyone know why this might be happening? Here is my code (I am using noConflict because Wordpress makes use of other frameworks): jQuery.noConflict(); jQuery(document).ready(function($) { $("a[href$='respond']").each(function() { this.href = this.href.replace("respond", "comments"); }); })(jQuery); Thanks very much for your help!

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  • codeigniter populate form from database

    - by Delirium tremens
    In the controller, I have... function update($id = null) { $this->load->database(); // more code $data = array(); $data = $this->db->get_where( 'users', array( 'id' => $id ) ); $data = $data->result_array(); $data = $data[0]; // more code $this->load->view('update', $data); } In the view, I have... <h5>Username</h5> <input type="text" name="username" value="<?php echo set_value('username'); ?>" size="50" /> <h5>Email</h5> <input type="text" name="email" value="<?php echo set_value('email'); ?>" size="50" /> <h5>Email Confirmation</h5> <input type="text" name="emailconf" value="<?php echo set_value('emailconf'); ?>" size="50" /> <h5>Password</h5> <input type="text" name="password" value="<?php echo set_value('password'); ?>" size="50" /> <h5>Password Confirmation</h5> <input type="text" name="passconf" value="<?php echo set_value('passconf'); ?>" size="50" /> set_value() isn't reading $data search for value="" at http://codeigniter.com/forums/viewthread/103837/ The poster uses only the set_value() function between "" in value="". I'm wondering how to do the same, but I can't get it to work. Help?

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  • Redirect in codeigniter after login

    - by edelweiss
    Trying to do a redirect after a successful login. The login info is sent using ajax to the controller. My controller code as below public function login_controller_function() { $this->load->model('login_model'); if ($this->input->is_ajax_request()) { $user_name=$this->input->post('username'); $user_password = $this->input->post('password'); $this->load->helper('url'); $result = $this->login_model->verify_user($user_name,$user_password); // echo 'user_logged_in'; if(strcmp($result,'user_logged_in')==0) { redirect('welcome'); } } } But it is not working at all. Anyone knows whats wrong? Hi my html as requested. i am using twitter bootstrap as well <li class="divider-vertical"></li> <li><a href="#" id="login_btn">Login</a></li> <li><a href="<?php echo base_url('register'); ?>">Register</a></li> for the buttons so when i click the login button, a modal window will appear and ask for login info. so when i click on the login button, my js code will send an ajax request my js code as below /*Attempt register user jquery ajax*/ $('#login').click(function(){ var user_name = $('#loginHere').find('#user_name').val(); var user_password = $('#loginHere').find('#login_pwd').val(); if(user_name==""||user_password=="") return; var login_data = { username:user_name, password:user_password}; $.ajax({ type: "POST", dataType: "json", async: false, url:"login_register/login_controller_function", data: login_data, success: function(data) { if(data.login) { alert(data.redirect); window.location.replace(data.redirect); } else if(!data.login) { alert('data login not true'); } }, error:function(data){ alert('ajax error'); } }); }); });

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  • jquery mobile - loading content into a div

    - by Robbiegod
    Jquery Mobile works by “hijacking” a page and loading content and injecting it into the page. It seems that this creates a problem when i try to inject other content into the page. I have my index.html and then a page2.html file. I'm setting up jquery mobile in the normal fashion wrapping the contents of each page in a div like so: <div id="container" data-role="page"> // my content <a href="page2.html">go to page 2</a> </div> when the user taps go to page 2, it does the nice slide effect. The url in the location bar looks like this: index.html#page2.html jquery mobile inject the content of the page using the anchors and applies the transition. nice so everthing works great up to the next part. On page2.html, i have a section that is loading some external data and injecting it into a div. <a href="http://www.somedomain.com/myata.php" class="ajaxtrigger" data-role="none">mydata</a> <div id="target"></div> <script src="js/code.js"></script> <script src="js/loader.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function(){ $('.ajaxtrigger').trigger('click'); }); </script> The problem i am having is that when i enable the transitions in jquery mobile this script doesn't work. It won't load the data into the div. bummer. Anyone know what i need to do to get it to trigger and load the content into that div?

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  • My fade in goes to all opaque for it goes to transparent

    - by DerNalia
    So, I'm trying to fade in a transparent div, kinda like hulu does when you click dim lights... here is what i have: //show the bg new Effect.Appear('darkBackgroundLayer', {duration: 0.3}); then when my pop up is initialized // create the div for background dimming if($('darkBackgroundLayer')){ Element.remove('darkBackgroundLayer') } var transparentBG = document.createElement('div'); transparentBG.className = 'darkenBackground'; transparentBG.id = "darkBackgroundLayer" transparentBG.style.display = "none"; document.body.appendChild(transparentBG); and the CSS for the new div .darkenBackground { background-color: rgb(0, 0, 0); opacity: 0.7; /* Safari, Opera */ -moz-opacity:0.70; /* FireFox */ filter: alpha(opacity=70); /* IE */ z-index: 20; height: 100%; width: 100%; background-repeat:repeat; position:fixed; top: 0px; left: 0px; } but, currently, it fades in... all the way to a solid back, then jumps to the .7 opacity... ideas?

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  • jQuery ajax only works first time

    - by Michael Itzoe
    I have a table of data that on a button click certain values are saved to the database, while other values are retrieved. I need the process to be continuous, but I can only get it to work the first time. At first I was using .ajax() and .replaceWith() to rewrite the entire table, but because this overwrites the DOM it was losing events associated with the table. I cannot use .live() because I'm using stopPropagation() and .live() doesn't support it due to event bubbling. I was able to essentially re-bind the click event onto the table within the .ajax() callback, but a second call to the button click event did nothing. I changed the code to use .get() for the ajax and .html() to put the results in the table (the server-side code now returns the complete table sans the <table> tags). I no longer have to rebind the click event to the table, but subsequent clicks to the button still do nothing. Finally, I changed it to .load(), but with the same (non-) results. By "do nothing" I mean while the ajax call is returning the new HTML as expected, it's not being applied to the table. I'm sure it has something to do with altering the DOM, but I thought since I'm only overwriting the table contents and not the table object itself, it should work. Obviously I'm missing something; what is it? Edit: HTML: <table id="table1" class="mytable"> <tr> <td><span id="item1" class="myitem"></span> <td><span id="item2" class="myitem"></span> </tr> </table> <input id="Button1" type="button" value="Submit" /> jQuery: $( "Button1" ).click( function() { $( "table1" ).load( "data.aspx", function( data ) { //... } ); } );

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  • Firefox handles xxx.submit(), Safari doesn't ... what can be done?

    - by Prairiedogg
    I'm trying to make a pull down menu post a form when the user selects (releases the mouse) on one of the options from the menu. This code works fine in FF but Safari, for some reason, doesn't submit the form. I re-wrote the code using jquery to see if jquery's .submit() implementation handled the browser quirks better. Same result, works in FF doesn't work in safari. The following snippets are from the same page, which has some django template language mixed in. Here's the vanilla js attempt: function formSubmit(lang) { if (lang != '{{ LANGUAGE_CODE }}') { document.getElementById("setlang_form").submit(); } } Here's the jquery attempt: $(document).ready(function() { $('#lang_submit').hide() $('#setlang_form option').mouseup(function () { if ($(this).attr('value') != '{{ LANGUAGE_CODE }}') { $('#setlang_form').submit() } }); }); and here's the form: <form id="setlang_form" method="post" action="{% url django.views.i18n.set_language %}"> <fieldset> <select name="language"> {% for lang in interface_languages %} <option value="{{ lang.code }}" onmouseup="formSubmit('{{ lang.name }}')" {% ifequal lang.code LANGUAGE_CODE %}selected="selected"{% endifequal %}>{{ lang.name }}</option> {% endfor %} </select> </fieldset> </form> My question is, how can I get this working in Safari?

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  • Constant isolate of hovered elements

    - by nailer
    I'm trying to make an element isolation tool, where: All elements are shaded Selected elements, while hovered, are not shaded Originally, looking at the image lightbox implementations, I thought of appending an overlay to the document, then raising the z-index of elements upon hover. However this technique does not work in this case, as the overlay blocks additional mouse hovers: $(function() { window.alert('started'); $('<div id="overlay" />').hide().appendTo('body').fadeIn('slow'); $("p").hover( function () { $(this).css( {"z-index":5} ); }, function () { $(this).css( {"z-index":0} ); } ); Alternatively, JQueryTools has an 'expose' and 'mask' tool, which I have tried with the code below: $(function() { $("a").click(function() { alert("Hello world!"); }); // Mask whole page $(document).mask("#222"); // Mask and expose on however / unhover $("p").hover( function () { $(this).expose(); }, function () { $(this).mask(); } ); }); Hovering does not work unless I disable the initial page masking. Any thoughts of how best to achieve this, with plain JQuery, JQuery tools expose, or some other technique? Thankyou!

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  • Is there a way to capture a bitmap from a WPF window using native C++?

    - by Mike Caron
    Imagine a document window in a MDI application which contains a child WPF window, say a sidebar for example. How can one get a bitmap containing both the WPF pixels AND the GDI (non-wpf) pixels? I've discovered that when making my thumbnail preview for the Win7 taskbar app icon hover, I get black in the parts of the preview where the WPF pixels should be. My current method simply grabs a bitmap capture of the document window. Then I get a DC for the preview, make a memory DC from it and select my bitmap into it. Then I do some size adjustments and bitblt the memory dc to the real dc. I'm guessing that the BitBlt operation doesn't take into account the fact that the WPF pixels are hardware accelerated and therefore need to be grabbed from the graphics hardware. All the stuff in GDI is managed just fine, though and when there's no WPF child windows, the preview image looks fine. I'm wondering if it's at all possible to grab a bitmap of the WPF window from native C++. Then I can blt that onto the black area of the previous preview.

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  • How to call JS function within .js file into .jsp file?

    - by Simple-Solution
    I am trying to call a javaScript function that's in .../js/index.js file to .../index.jsp file. Any suggestion would be helpful. Here is code within both file: index.js function testing() { if ("c" + "a" + "t" === "cat") { document.writeln("Same"); } else { document.writeln("Not same"); }; }; index.jsp <%@ page language="java" contentType="text/html; charset=ISO-8859-1" pageEncoding="ISO-8859-1"%> <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD HTML 4.01 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/html4/loose.dtd"> <html> <head> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=ISO-8859-1"> <title>Insert title here</title> </head> <body> <script type="text/javascript" src="js/index.js"> <!-- I want to call testing(); function here --> </script> </body> </html>

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  • XML digital signature interface

    - by yeekang
    I am trying to call a WebService and it requires me to prepare an XML digital signature interface. I came across this website and it shows how to sign an XML document. My problem now is that I do not create the XML document myself. My code is as follows: string myResult; GenericWS.ServicesService a = new GenericWS.ServicesService(); GenericWS.Service2 b = new GenericWS.Service2(); b.Something = "3"; X509Certificate cert = X509Certificate.CreateFromCertFile("C:\\somepath\\somecert.cer"); a.ClientCertificates.Add(cert); ServicePointManager.ServerCertificateValidationCallback = delegate (object s, X509Certificate certificate, X509Chain chain, SslPolicyErrors sslPolicyErrors) { return true; }; myResult= a.WSRequest(b).WSReturnValue.ToString(); Label1.Text = myResult; Basically, the WSRequest() will generate the body of the SOAP message. However, in order to sign the SOAP message, I need to pass in the XML file that needs to be signed. I tried to serialize the object and cast it as XML and pass it into the signature interface but I do not have another method that I can invoke to call the webmethod. Is there any other solution?

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  • CodeIgniter -- unable to use an object

    - by Smandoli
    THE SUMMARY: When I call .../index.php/product, I receive: Fatal error: Call to a member function get_prod_single() on a non-object in /var/www/sparts/main/controllers/product.php on line 16 The offending Line 16 is: $data['pn_oem'] = $this->product_model->get_prod_single($product_id); Looks like I don't know how to make this a working object. Can you help me? THE CODE: In my /Models folder I have product_model.php: <?php class Product_model extends Model { function Product_model() { parent::Model(); } function get_prod_single($product_id) { //This will be a DB lookup ... return 'foo'; //stub to get going } } ?> In my /controllers folder I have product.php: <?php class Product extends Controller { function Product() { parent::Controller(); } function index() { $this->load->model('Product_model'); $product_id = 113; // will get this dynamically $data['product_id'] = $product_id; $data['pn_oem'] = $this->product_model->get_prod_single($product_id); $this->load->view('prod_single', $data); } } ?>

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  • Same Origin issue with web service call

    - by Wjdavis5
    My web server runs at http://mypc.com:80 ` Given the following snip: $(window).load(function () { var myURL = "http://mypc.com:8000/PSOCharts/service/HighChart_ColumnChart/i"; $.getJSON(myURL) .done(function(data) {alert(data);}); }); I am running to this error: XMLHttpRequest cannot load http://mypc.com:8000/PSOCharts/service/HighChart_ColumnChart/i. Origin http://mypc.com is not allowed by Access-Control-Allow-Origin. I understand why (I think) b/c my webservice runs at port 8000 which is different from what IIS is running on (port 80). I thought I could get around by using jsonp (according to the jQuery documentation here So I copied the example of making a call to the flickr api, but it isnt working. Any thoughts/sugggestions? UPDATE Ok so my request is being made now: var myURL = "http://192.168.1.104:8000/PSOCharts/service/HighChart_ColumnChart/i?jsoncallback=?"; $.ajax({ url :myURL, dataType: "jsonp", success: function(data) {a(data)} , error: function(){alert("err");}, }); But I am continually hitting the error function, here is what's being returned: [1.4,54.43,49.39,93.23] Now I'm assuming this is b/c the response text doesnt contain any type of callback here is the part of the interface I'm calling: [WebInvoke(Method = "GET", RequestFormat = WebMessageFormat.Json, ResponseFormat = WebMessageFormat.Json, UriTemplate = "HighChart_ColumnChart/{id}?callback={cb}")] List<double> HighChart_ColumnChart(string id,string cb); Here is the actual function being called: public List<double> HighChart_ColumnChart(string id,string cb) { var z = new List<double>(); z.Add(1.4); z.Add(54.43); z.Add(49.39); z.Add(93.23); return z; } when I debug, the CB param is something like : "jQuery19108121746340766549_1372630643878". How do I modify the code to wrap it correctly? Thanks for the help thus far!

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  • $ is not defined

    - by coffeeaddict
    I cannot figure out why it's still not recognizing jQuery syntax when I clearly have included the jQuery library right before my $(document).ready <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" > <head id="Head1"><title> </title></head> <body> <form name="form1" method="post" action="jQueryDialogTest.aspx" id="form1"> <div> <input type="hidden" name="__VIEWSTATE" id="__VIEWSTATE" value="/wEPDwULLTE2MTY2ODcyMjlkZA==" /> </div> <script src="content/js/jquery-1.3.2.min.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="content/js/popup.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <div id="testDialog" winWidth="400" winHeight="500" winResizable="true"> Some test mark-up, should show inside the dialog </div> <div><input type="button" id="invokeDialog" value="Click Me!" /></div> </form> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $("input.invokeDialog").click.showDialog("#testDialog"); }); </script> </body> </html>

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  • C++ class derivation and superconstructor confusion

    - by LukeN
    Hey, in a tutorial C++ code, I found this particular piece of confusion: PlasmaTutorial1::PlasmaTutorial1(QObject *parent, const QVariantList &args) : Plasma::Applet(parent, args), // <- Okay, Plasma = namespace, Applet = class m_svg(this), // <- A member function of class "Applet"? m_icon("document") // <- ditto? { m_svg.setImagePath("widgets/background"); // this will get us the standard applet background, for free! setBackgroundHints(DefaultBackground); resize(200, 200); } I'm not new to object oriented programming, so class derivation and super-classes are nothing complicated, but this syntax here got me confused. The header file defines the class like this: class PlasmaTutorial1 : public Plasma::Applet { Similar to above, namespace Plasma and class Applet. But what's the public doing there? I fear that I already know the concept but don't grasp the C++ syntax/way of doing it. In this question I picked up that these are called "superconstructors", at least that's what stuck in my memory, but I don't get this to the full extend. If we glance back at the first snippet, we see Constructor::Class(...) : NS::SuperClass(...), all fine 'till here. But what are m_svg(this), m_icon("document") doing there? Is this some kind of method to make these particular functions known to the derivated class? Is this part of C++ basics or more immediate? While I'm not completly lost in C++, I feel much more at home in C :) Most of the OOP I have done so far was done in D, Ruby or Python. For example in D I would just define class MyClass : MySuperClass, override what I needed to and call the super class' constructor if I'd need to.

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  • Loading a Win32 control in C# (specifically WPF)

    - by Mmarquee
    I have written a set of Win32 dlls that encapsulate a Delphi Frame (see Snippet 1 below), and can load them into another Delphi program by loading the dll and assigning the right variables (Snippet 2). I now want to be able to do the same thing in C# (I can load the DLL in pinvoke, but am unsure how to connect up the control to the basic WPF 'form'. Snippet 1 var frame : TFrame1; function CreateFrame(hParent:TWinControl):Integer; stdcall; export; begin try frame := TFrame1.Create(hParent); frame.Parent := hParent; frame.Align := alClient; finally result := 1; end; end; exports CreateFrame name 'CreateFrame'; Snippet 2 DLLHandle := LoadLibrary('Library/Demo.Frame.dll'); If DLLHandle > 32 then begin ReturnValue := GetProcAddress(DLLHandle, 'CreateFrame'); end; ts1 := TTabSheet.Create(PageControl1); with ts1 do begin PageControl := PageControl1; Name := 'tsExternal'; Caption := 'External'; Align := alClient; ReturnValue (ts1); end; Any help would be greatly appreciated.

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  • why this simple javascript doesnt work on friefox and chrome?

    - by user1647406
    why this simple code i have written wont work on fire fon and chrome but it works carefully on IE ? whats wrong whit this javascript code ? i just want to find a way too get selected checkbox text ( or label) and use it by $_post on another page . sorry for my bad english . <meta content="text/html; charset=utf-8" http-equiv="Content-Type" /> <script type="text/javascript" language="javascript"> function ReadCheckbox() { var temp = ''; var radio; var popupTag ; for (var i=1 ; i<5 ; i++) { radio = document.getElementById('chk'+i); if(radio.checked == true){temp += radio.value} } document.getElementById('aaaa').value = temp; } </script> </head> <body> <label>What is your Site Address ?</label><br/> <label>NetNic.ir</label><input id="chk1" type="checkbox" value="NetNic.ir" /> <label>SarirWeb.Com</label><input id="chk2" type="checkbox" value="SarirWeb.Com"/> <label>LearnCD.ir</label><input id="chk3" type="checkbox" value="LearnCD.ir"/> <label>AnimLand.ir</label><input id="chk4" type="checkbox" value="AnimLand.ir"/> <br /> <br/> <textarea rows="2" name="aaaa" cols="20"></textarea> <input type="button" onclick="ReadCheckbox()" value="???" style="height:32px; width:83px;"/>

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  • ctypes DLL with optional dependencies

    - by pisswillis
    Disclaimer: I'm new to windows programming so some of my assumptions may be wrong. Please correct me if so. I am developing a python wrapper for a C API using ctypes. The API ships with both 64 and 32 DLLs/LIBs. I can succesfully load the DLL using ctypes.WinDLL('TheLibName') and call functions etc etc. However some functions were not doing what they should. Upon further investigation it appears that the 32bit DLL is being used, which is what is causing the unexpected behaviour. I have tried using ctypes.WinDLL('TheLibName64') but the module is not found. I have tried registering the DLL with regsrv32, but it reports there is no entry point (it also reports no entry point when I try and register TheLibName, which is found by WinDLL(). The DLL came with a sample project in Visual Studio (I have 0 experience with VS so again please correct me here) which builds both 32 and 64 bit versions of the sample project. In the .vcsproj file the configurations for the 64 bit version include: AdditionalDependencies="TheLibName64.lib" in the VCLinkerTool section. In windows/system32 there are both TheLibName.dll/.lib, and TheLibName64.dll/.lib. So it seems to me that my problem is now to make the python ctypes DLL loader load these optional dependencies when the DLL is loaded. However I can't find any information on this (perhaps because, as a doze noob, I do not know the correct terminology) in the ctypes documentation. Is there a way to do this in ctypes? Am I going about this in completely the wrong way? Any help or general information about optional DLL dependencies and how they are loaded in windows would be much appreciated. Thanks

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  • Copy Word format into Outlook message

    - by Jaster
    Hi, I have an outlook automation. I would like to use a Word document as template for the message content. Lets say i have some formatted text containing tables, colors, sizes, etc. Now I'd like to copy/paste this content into an Outlook message object.I'm used to the interop stuff, i just have no idea how to copy/paste this correctly. Here is some Sample Code (no cleanup): String path = @"file.docx"; String savePath = @"file.msg"; Word.Application wordApp = new Word.Application(); Word.Document currentDoc = wordApp.Documents.Open(path); Word.Range range = currentDoc.Range(0, m_CurrentDoc.Characters.Count); String wordText = range.Text; oApp = new Outlook.Application(); Outlook.NameSpace ns = oApp.GetNamespace("MAPI"); ns.Logon("MailBox"); Outlook._MailItem oMsg = oApp.CreateItem(Outlook.OlItemType.olMailItem); oMsg.To = "[email protected]"; oMsg.Body = wordtext; oMsg.SaveAs(savePath); Using Outlook/Word 2007, however the word files still mayb in 2000/2003 format (.doc). Visual Studio 2010 with .net 4.0 (should obvious due to the samplecode). Any suggestions?

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  • Alert and if changes behaviour dom copying

    - by lowkey
    Hi guys! Tried to make a little old school ajax (iframe-javascript) script. A bit of mootools is used for DOM navigation Description: HTML: 1 iframe called "buffer" 1 div called "display" JAVASCRIPT: (short: copy iframe content into a div on the page) 1) onLoad on iframe triggers handler(), a counter makes sure it only run once (this is because otherwise firefox will go into feedback loop. What i think happens: iframe on load handler() copyBuffer change src of iframe , and firefox takes that as an onload again) 2) copybuffer() is called, it sets src of iframe then copies iframe content into div, then erases iframe content THE CODE: count=0; function handler(){ if (count==0){ copyBuffer(); count++; } } function copyBuffer(){ $('buffer').set('src','http://www.somelink.com/'); if (window.frames['buffer'] && $('display') ) { $('display').innerHTML = window.frames['buffer'].document.body.innerHTML; window.frames['buffer'].document.body.innerHTML=""; } } problems: QUESTION 1) nothing happens, the content is not loaded into the div. But if i either: A) remove the counter and let the script run in a feedback loop: the content is suddenly copied into the div, but off course there is a feedback loop going on, you can see it keeps loading in the status bar. OR B) insert an alert in the copyBuffer function. The content is copied, without the feedback loop. why does this happen? QUESTION 2) The If wrapped around the copying code i got from a source on the internet. I am not sure what it does? If i remove it the code does not work in: Safari and Chrome. Many thanks in advance!

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  • How to close and open access to SQL Server 2008 in Windows application?

    - by hgulyan
    Hi, I have a MS Access 97 application (but the question is general) working directly with SQL Server 2008 (without application server or anything). Numbers of users can be up to 1000. Windows Authentication is used. The question is: How to handle modes, so some users will be allowed to work in read-only mode some users won't have access to db for some time My versions: Using a table with a mode id for every group of users, that will work the same way. On Form Load application will query that table for mode id. Using trigger on the tables, that must work according to that mode. The trigger will query mode value and doesn't work if access is closed or it's in read-only mode I know these are not the best solutions, that's why I'm asking for your advice. There's one more point. If the mode is changed to "access-is-closed" for a group of users, that group must not be able to query to DB starting that moment. With first solution I wrote it won't work, because user can be in application at that moment and no form load event will work. How can I do this? Is there any optimal solution? Thank you. Any help would be appreciated.

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  • How to further improve error messages in Scala parser-combinator based parsers?

    - by rse
    I've coded a parser based on Scala parser combinators: class SxmlParser extends RegexParsers with ImplicitConversions with PackratParsers { [...] lazy val document: PackratParser[AstNodeDocument] = ((procinst | element | comment | cdata | whitespace | text)*) ^^ { AstNodeDocument(_) } [...] } object SxmlParser { def parse(text: String): AstNodeDocument = { var ast = AstNodeDocument() val parser = new SxmlParser() val result = parser.parseAll(parser.document, new CharArrayReader(text.toArray)) result match { case parser.Success(x, _) => ast = x case parser.NoSuccess(err, next) => { tool.die("failed to parse SXML input " + "(line " + next.pos.line + ", column " + next.pos.column + "):\n" + err + "\n" + next.pos.longString) } } ast } } Usually the resulting parsing error messages are rather nice. But sometimes it becomes just sxml: ERROR: failed to parse SXML input (line 32, column 1): `"' expected but `' found ^ This happens if a quote characters is not closed and the parser reaches the EOT. What I would like to see here is (1) what production the parser was in when it expected the '"' (I've multiple ones) and (2) where in the input this production started parsing (which is an indicator where the opening quote is in the input). Does anybody know how I can improve the error messages and include more information about the actual internal parsing state when the error happens (perhaps something like a production rule stacktrace or whatever can be given reasonably here to better identify the error location). BTW, the above "line 32, column 1" is actually the EOT position and hence of no use here, of course.

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  • jQuery relative positioned hover

    - by danixd
    I want a link to the next or previous image to appear when hovering over the main image, only I want the next link to appear when hovered over the right hand side, and previous on the left. I have looked at jQuery's .position() and I don't think I am understanding it very well. At the moment all I have is general mouseenter/mouseleave events, which show both links when the image is hovered. jQuery(document).ready(function($) { $('.nav-controls a').hide(); $('#slideshow').mouseenter(function() { $('.nav-controls a').fadeIn(500); }); $('#slideshow').mouseleave(function() { $('.nav-controls a').fadeOut(500); }); }); I'd image it to be something like: jQuery(document).ready(function($) { $('.nav-controls a').hide(); var image = $('#slideshow'); var left = image.position().left(0); var right = image.position().left(50%); left.mouseenter(function() { $('.nav-controls a.previous').fadeIn(500); }); left.mouseleave(function() { $('.nav-controls a.previous').fadeOut(500); }); right.mouseenter(function() { $('.nav-controls a.next').fadeIn(500); }); right.mouseleave(function() { $('.nav-controls a.next').fadeOut(500); }); }); Not sure if I should be using position, if I am using it correctly. Any tips would be great. Edit: I do not want to add unnecessary markup in the form of divs, for the left/right selectors.

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  • Run script after Jquery finish

    - by Felipe Fernández
    First let's explain the hack that I was trying to implement. When using Total Validator Tool through my web page and I get following error: [WCAG v1 6.3 (A), US-508-l] Consider providing a alternative after each tag As my page relies heavily on javascript I can't provide a real alternative, so I decided to add an empty noscript tag after every script appearence. Let's say I need to provide a clean report about accesibility about my web page even the hack is senseless. (I know the hack is unethical and silly, let's use it as example material, but the point of my post are the final questions) I tried the following approach: $(document).ready(function(){ $("script").each(function() { $(this).after("<noscript></noscript>"); }); }); The problem raises because I have a jQueryUI DatePicker component on my page. jQuery adds a script section after the DOM is ready so my hack fails as miss this section. So the questions are: How handles jQuery library to be executed after document is ready? How can I run my code after jQuery finish its labours?

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  • VSTO Outlook - Contact iteration is SO SLOW!

    - by DustinDavis
    I'm working on an outlook add-in and I have a dialog window that allows the user to select contacts. I havent been able to find a way to use the outlook contact window so I am looping through the ContactFolder.Items and doing my work that way. The problem is that I have to handle up to 70K contacts. I tried multi-threading and many other things but it is just so slow. It takes 15 seconds to load 30k contacts. I can load and bind 500k POCO objects in milliseconds but when I need to get the contact items from outlook it just takes forever. The problem seems to be when you actually need to get a property from the contactitem it has to fetch it from the database or something. Is there a contact cache I can pull from? I only need Display and Email, nothing else. An ID would be nice but I don't need it. Can someone please tell me a better way of getting contacts from outlook or at least tell me how to open the outlook contact selection window? I was able to find code to open it but it wont let me because I'm showing a modal dialog and it wont open if there is a modal open.

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