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  • PostgreSQL, Foreign Keys, Insert speed & Django

    - by Miles
    A few days ago, I ran into an unexpected performance problem with a pretty standard Django setup. For an upcoming feature, we have to regenerate a table hourly, containing about 100k rows of data, 9M on the disk, 10M indexes according to pgAdmin. The problem is that inserting them by whatever method literally takes ages, up to 3 minutes of 100% disk busy time. That's not something you want on a production site. It doesn't matter if the inserts were in a transaction, issued via plain insert, multi-row insert, COPY FROM or even INSERT INTO t1 SELECT * FROM t2. After noticing this isn't Django's fault, I followed a trial and error route, and hey, the problem disappeared after dropping all foreign keys! Instead of 3 minutes, the INSERT INTO SELECT FROM took less than a second to execute, which isn't too surprising for a table <= 20M on the disk. What is weird is that PostgreSQL manages to slow down inserts by 180x just by using 3 foreign keys. Oh, disk activity was pure writing, as everything is cached in RAM; only writes go to the disks. It looks like PostgreSQL is working very hard to touch every row in the referred tables, as 3MB/sec * 180s is way more data than the 20MB this new table takes on disk. No WAL for the 180s case, I was testing in psql directly, in Django, add ~50% overhead for WAL logging. Tried @commit_on_success, same slowness, I had even implemented multi row insert and COPY FROM with psycopg2. That's another weird thing, how can 10M worth of inserts generate 10x 16M log segments? Table layout: id serial primary, a bunch of int32, 3 foreign keys to small table, 198 rows, 16k on disk large table, 1.2M rows, 59 data + 89 index MB on disk large table, 2.2M rows, 198 + 210MB So, am I doomed to either drop the foreign keys manually or use the table in a very un-Django way by defining saving bla_id x3 and skip using models.ForeignKey? I'd love to hear about some magical antidote / pg setting to fix this.

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  • Dataflow Pipeline holding on to memory

    - by Jesse Carter
    I've created a Dataflow pipeline consisting of 4 blocks (which includes one optional block) which is responsible for receiving a query object from my application across HTTP and retrieving information from a database, doing an optional transform on that data, and then writing the information back in the HTTP response. In some testing I've done I've been pulling down a significant amount of data from the database (570 thousand rows) which are stored in a List object and passed between the different blocks and it seems like even after the final block has been completed the memory isn't being released. Ram usage in Task Manager will spike up to over 2 GB and I can observe several large spikes as the List hits each block. The signatures for my blocks look like this: private TransformBlock<HttpListenerContext, Tuple<HttpListenerContext, QueryObject>> m_ParseHttpRequest; private TransformBlock<Tuple<HttpListenerContext, QueryObject>, Tuple<HttpListenerContext, QueryObject, List<string>>> m_RetrieveDatabaseResults; private TransformBlock<Tuple<HttpListenerContext, QueryObject, List<string>>, Tuple<HttpListenerContext, QueryObject, List<string>>> m_ConvertResults; private ActionBlock<Tuple<HttpListenerContext, QueryObject, List<string>>> m_ReturnHttpResponse; They are linked as follows: m_ParseHttpRequest.LinkTo(m_RetrieveDatabaseResults); m_RetrieveDatabaseResults.LinkTo(m_ConvertResults, tuple => tuple.Item2 is QueryObjectA); m_RetrieveDatabaseResults.LinkTo(m_ReturnHttpResponse, tuple => tuple.Item2 is QueryObjectB); m_ConvertResults.LinkTo(m_ReturnHttpResponse); Is it possible that I can set up the pipeline such that once each block is done with the list they no longer need to hold on to it as well as once the entire pipeline is completed that the memory is released?

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  • JUnit confusion: use 'extend Testcase' or '@Test' ?

    - by Rabarberski
    I've found the proper use (or at least the documentation) of JUnit very confusing. This question serves both as a future reference and as a real question. If I've understood correctly, there are two main approaches to create and run a JUnit test: Approach A: create a class that extends TestCase, and start test methods with the word test. When running the class as a JUnit Test (in Eclipse), all methods starting with the word test are automatically run. import junit.framework.TestCase; public class DummyTestA extends TestCase { public void testSum() { int a = 5; int b = 10; int result = a + b; assertEquals(15, result); } } Approach B: create a 'normal' class and prepend a @Test annotation to the method. Note that you do NOT have to start the method with the word test. import org.junit.*; import static org.junit.Assert.*; public class DummyTestB { @Test public void Sum() { int a = 5; int b = 10; int result = a + b; assertEquals(15, result); } } Mixing the two seems not to be a good idea, see e.g. this stackoverflow question: Now, my questions(s): What is the preferred approach, or when would you use one instead of the other? Approach B allows for testing for exceptions by extending the @Test annotation like in @Test(expected = ArithmeticException.class). But how do you test for exceptions when using approach A? When using approach A, you can group a number of test classes in a test suite. TestSuite suite = new TestSuite("All tests");<br/> suite.addTestSuite(DummyTestA.class); suite.addTestSuite(DummyTestAbis.class);` But this can't be used with approach B (since each testclass should subclass TestCase). What is the proper way to group tests for approach B?

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  • POST xml to php with apache2

    - by Berry
    I'm working on an application that receives XML data via POST, processes it with a PHP script, and returns an XML response. I'm getting the XML with this PHP code: $requestStr = file_get_contents('php://input'); $requests = simplexml_load_string($requestStr); which works fine on the Linux-based product hardware using nginx as the server. However, for testing I'd like to be able to run it on my MacBook Pro, so I can avoid the "build image, install on product, reboot product, wait, test change" loop while I do targeted development on this XML processor. I enabled "web sharing" which starts up Apache, added a rewrite rule to point a convenient URI at my development source directory and used curl to send a request to my PHP script thus: curl -H "Content-Type:text/xml" -d @request.xml http://localhost/test/path/testscript "testscript" is handled by the PHP script fine, but when it goes to read "php:://input" I get nothing -- the empty string. Anyone have a clue why this would work under Linux with nginx and not under MacOS with Apache? I've googled and searched stackoverlow.com to no avail. Thanks for any answers. UPDATE: I've discovered that at least in this configuration, reading from php://stdin will work fine, while php://input will not. Who knew?

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  • Calculate posterior distribution of unknown mis-classification with PRTools in MATLAB

    - by Samuel Lampa
    I'm using the PRTools MATLAB library to train some classifiers, generating test data and testing the classifiers. I have the following details: N: Total # of test examples k: # of mis-classification for each classifier and class I want to do: Calculate and plot Bayesian posterior distributions of the unknown probabilities of mis-classification (denoted q), that is, as probability density functions over q itself (so, P(q) will be plotted over q, from 0 to 1). I have that (math formulae, not matlab code!): P(q|k,N) = Posterior * Prior / Normalization constant = P(k|q,N) * P(q|N) / P(k|N) The prior is set to 1, so I only need to calculate the posterior and normalization constant. I know that the posterior can be expressed as (where B(N,k) is the binomial coefficient): P(k|q,N) = B(N,k) * q^k * (1-q)^(N-k) ... so the Normalization constant is simply an integral of the posterior above, from 0 to 1: P(k|N) = B(N,k) * integralFromZeroToOne( q^k * (1-q)^(N-k) ) (The Binomial coefficient ( B(N,k) ) can be omitted thoughappears in both the posterior and normalization constant, so it can be omitted.) Now, I've heard that the integral for the normalization constant should be able to be calculated as a series ... something like: k!(N-k)! / (N+1)! Is that correct? (I have some lecture notes from with this series, but can't figure out if it is for the normalization constant integral, or for the posterior distribution of mis-classification (q)) Also, hints are welcome as how to practically calculate this? (factorials are easily creating truncation errors right?) ... AND, how to practically calculate the final plot (the posterior distribution over q, from 0 to 1).

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  • How can I create a properly sizing QWebView?

    - by chacham15
    I want to make a QWebView appear expanding to the width and height so that ideally it will have no scroll bars. Some websites may have fixed widths that wont allow this, but I am not concerned with those. In any case, I cannot do as I wish because QWebView implements sizeHint as follows: QSize QWebView::sizeHint() const { return QSize(800, 600); // ####... } This is incorrect on a number of levels. 1. It doesnt at all take into account the size of the actual web page. 2. It doesnt take into account that the height and width are related to each other. (To prove #2 think about text in web pages that wraps to the next line.) As a simple fix I tried to do (where QResizingWebView extends QWebView): QSize QResizingWebView::sizeHint() const{ return this-page()-mainFrame()-contentsSize(); } While this is closer to the result, it also has 2 flaws. 1. It doesnt take into account the relation between the displayed width/height. 2. this->page()->mainFrame()->contentsSize() is inaccurate from what I can tell from my preliminary testing (it has returned heights larger than it should under many cases, although this may be related to #1). Does anyone have any tips to fix this?

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  • Button Onclick event (which is in codbehind) doesn't get triggered in MVC 2

    - by rksprst
    I had an MVC 1.0 web application that was in VS 2008; I just upgraded the project to VS 2010 which automatically upgraded MVC to 2.0. I have a bunch of viewpages have codebehind files that were manually added. The project worked fine before the upgrade, but now the onclick even't don't get triggered. I.e. I have an asp:button with an onclick event that points to a method in the codebehind. When you click the button, the onclick event doesn't get triggered. In fact, when you look at the Page variable, IsPostBack is false. This is really bizarre and I'm wondering if anyone know what happened and how to fix it. I'm thinking it has something to do with the changes in MVC 2.0; but I'm not sure. Any help is really appreciated, I've been trying to figure this out for a while. (deleting the codebehinds and moving that to the controller is not really an option since there is so many pages, moving back to vs 2008 is a last resort as I want to make use of some of the VS 2010 features like performance testing.)

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  • Verify an event was raised by mocked object

    - by joblot
    In my unit test how can I verify that an event is raised by the mocked object. I have a View(UI) -- ViewModel -- DataProvider -- ServiceProxy. ServiceProxy makes async call to serivce operation. When async operation is complete a method on DataProvider is called (callback method is passed as a method parameter). The callback method then raise and event which ViewModel is listening to. For ViewModel test I mock DataProvider and verify that handler exists for event raised by DataProvider. When testing DataProvider I mock ServiceProxy, but how can I test that callback method is called and event is raised. I am using RhinoMock 3.5 and AAA syntax Thanks -- DataProvider -- public partial class DataProvider { public event EventHandler<EntityEventArgs<ProductDefinition>> GetProductDefinitionCompleted; public void GetProductDefinition() { var service = IoC.Resolve<IServiceProxy>(); service.GetProductDefinitionAsync(GetProductDefinitionAsyncCallback); } private void GetProductDefinitionAsyncCallback(ProductDefinition productDefinition, ServiceError error) { OnGetProductDefinitionCompleted(this, new EntityEventArgs<ProductDefinition>(productDefinition, error)); } protected void OnGetProductDefinitionCompleted(object sender, EntityEventArgs<ProductDefinition> e) { if (GetProductDefinitionCompleted != null) GetProductDefinitionCompleted(sender, e); } } -- ServiceProxy -- public class ServiceProxy : ClientBase<IService>, IServiceProxy { public void GetProductDefinitionAsync(Action<ProductDefinition, ServiceError> callback) { Channel.BeginGetProductDefinition(EndGetProductDefinition, callback); } private void EndGetProductDefinition(IAsyncResult result) { Action<ProductDefinition, ServiceError> callback = result.AsyncState as Action<ProductDefinition, ServiceError>; ServiceError error; ProductDefinition results = Channel.EndGetProductDefinition(out error, result); if (callback != null) callback(results, error); } }

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  • jQuery modal dialog on ajaxStart event

    - by bdl
    I'm trying to use a jQuery UI modal dialog as a loading indicator via the ajaxStart, ajaxStop / ajaxComplete events. When the page fires, an Ajax handler loads some data, and the modal dialog shows just fine. However, it never hides or closes the dialog when the Ajax event is complete. It's a very small bit of code from the local server that is returned, so the actual Ajax event is very quick. Here's my actual code for the modal div: $("#modalwindow").dialog({ modal: true, height: 50, width: 200, zIndex: 999, resizable: false, title: "Please wait..." }) .bind("ajaxStart", function(){ $(this).show(); }) .bind("ajaxStop", function(){ $(this).hide(); }); The Ajax event is just a plain vanilla $.ajax({}) GET method call. Based on some searching here and Google, I've tried altering the ajaxStop handler to use $("#modalwindow").close(), $("#modalwindow").destroy(), etc. (#modalwindow referred to here as to give explicit context). I've also tried using the standard $("#modalwindow").dialog({}).ajaxStart(... as well. Should I be binding the events to a different object? Or calling them from within the $.ajax() complete event? I should mention, I'm testing on the latest IE8, FF 3.6 and Chrome. All have the same / effect.

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  • Windows 7 Aero Theme Progress Bar Bug?

    - by jmatthias
    I have ran into what I consider to be a progress bar bug on Windows 7. To demonstrate the bug I created a WinForm application with a button and a progress bar. In the button's 'on-click' handle I have the following code. private void buttonGo_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { this.progressBar.Minimum = 0; this.progressBar.Maximum = 100; this.buttonGo.Text = "Busy"; this.buttonGo.Update(); for (int i = 0; i <= 100; ++i) { this.progressBar.Value = i; this.Update(); System.Threading.Thread.Sleep(10); } this.buttonGo.Text = "Ready"; } The expected behavior is for the progress bar to advance to 100% and then the button text to change to 'Ready'. However, when developing this code on Windows 7, I noticed that the progress bar would rise to about 75% and then the button text would change to 'Ready'. Assuming the code is synchronous, this should not happen! On further testing I found that the exact same code running on Windows Server 2003 produced the expected results. Furthermore, choosing a non aero theme on Windows 7 produces the expected results. In my mind, this seems like a bug. Often it is very hard to make a progress bar accurate when the long operation involves complex code but in my particular case it was very straight forward and so I was little disappointed when I found the progress control did not accurately represent the progress. Has anybody else noticed this behavior? Has anybody found a workaround?

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  • Timer Service in ejb 3.1 - schedule calling timeout problem

    - by Greg
    Hi Guys, I have created simple example with @Singleton, @Schedule and @Timeout annotations to try if they would solve my problem. The scenario is this: EJB calls 'check' function every 5 secconds, and if certain conditions are met it will create single action timer that would invoke some long running process in asynchronous fashion. (it's sort of queue implementation type of thing). It then continues to check, but as long as long running process is there it won't start another one. Below is the code I came up with, but this solution does not work, because it looks like asynchronous call I'm making is in fact blocking my @Schedule method. @Singleton @Startup public class GenerationQueue { private Logger logger = Logger.getLogger(GenerationQueue.class.getName()); private List<String> queue = new ArrayList<String>(); private boolean available = true; @Resource TimerService timerService; @Schedule(persistent=true, minute="*", second="*/5", hour="*") public void checkQueueState() { logger.log(Level.INFO,"Queue state check: "+available+" size: "+queue.size()+", "+new Date()); if (available) { timerService.createSingleActionTimer(new Date(), new TimerConfig(null, false)); } } @Timeout private void generateReport(Timer timer) { logger.info("!!--timeout invoked here "+new Date()); available = false; try { Thread.sleep(1000*60*2); // something that lasts for a bit } catch (Exception e) {} available = true; logger.info("New report generation complete"); } What am I missing here or should I try different aproach? Any ideas most welcome :) Testing with Glassfish 3.0.1 latest build - forgot to mention

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  • Efficient Clojure workflow?

    - by Alex B
    I am developing a pet project with Clojure, but wonder if I can speed up my workflow a bit. My current workflow (with Compojure) is: Start Swank with lein swank. Go to Emacs, connect with M-x slime-connect. Load all existing source files one by one. This also starts a Jetty server and an application. Write some code in REPL. When satisfied with experiments, write a full version of a construct I had in mind. Eval (C-c C-c) it. Switch REPL to namespace where this construct resides and test it. Switch to browser and reload browser tab with the affected page. Tweak the code, eval it, check in the browser. Repeat any of the above. There are a number of annoyances with it: I have to switch between Emacs and the browser (or browsers if I am testing things like templating with multiple browsers) all the time. Is there a common idiom to automate this? I used to have a JavaScript bit that reloads the page continuously, but it's of limited utility, obviously, when I have to interact with the page for more than a few seconds. My JVM instance becomes "dirty" when I experiment and write test functions. Basically namespaces become polluted, especially if I'm refactoring and moving the functions between namespaces. This can lead to symbol collisions and I need to restart Swank. Can I undef a symbol? I load all source files one by one (C-c C-k) upon restarting Swank. I suspect I'm doing it all wrong. Switching between the REPL and the file editor can be a bit irritating, especially when I have a lot of Emacs tabs open, alongside the browser(s). I'm looking for ways to improve the above points and the entire workflow in general, so I'd appreciate if you'd share yours. P. S. I have also used Vimclojure before, so Vimclojure-based workflows are welcome too.

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  • Payment gateways and XSS

    - by Rowan Parker
    Hi all, I'm working on a website which takes payment from a customer. I'm using Kohana 2.3.4 and have created a library to handle the payment gateway I use (www.eway.com.au). Basically I'm just using their sample code, copied into it's own class. Anyway, the code works fine and I can make payments, etc. The issue I have is when the payment gateway is returning the user to my site. The payment gateway uses HTTPS so that is secure, and it is sending the user back to a HTTPS page on my site. However I have the NoScript plugin installed in Firefox, and when I get sent back to the page on my website (which also handles storing the transaction data) I get an error message saying that NoScript has blocked a potential XSS attack. Now I understand why it's unsecure (POST data being sent across two different domains) but what should I be doing instead? Obviously during my testing here I temporarily disable NoScript and it all works fine, but I can't rely on that for the end users. What's the best practice here?

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  • Null reference exceptions in .net

    - by Carlo
    Hello, we're having this big problem with our application. It's a rather large application with several modules, and thousands and thousands lines of code. A lot of parts of the application are designed to exist only with a reference to another object, for example a Person object can never exists without a House object, so if you at any point in the app say: bool check = App.Person.House == null; check should always be false (by design), so, to keep using that example, while creating modules, testing, debugging, App.Person.House is never null, but once we shipped the application to our client, they started getting a bunch of NullReferenceException with the objects that by design, should never have a null reference. They tell us the bug, we try to reproduce it here, but 90% of the times we can't, because here it works fine. The app is being developed with C# and WPF, and by design, it only runs on Windows XP SP 3, and the .net framework v3.5, so we KNOW the user has the same operative system, service pack, and .net framework version as we do here, but they still get this weird NullReferenceExceptions that we can't reproduce. So, I'm just wondering if anyone has seen this before and how you fixed it, we have the app running here at least 8 hours a day in 5 different computers, and we never see those exceptions, this only happens to the client for some reason. ANY thought, any clue, any solution that could get us closer to fixing this problem will be greatly appreciated. Thanks!

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  • Blackberry app stuck trying to access a server.

    - by Tejaswi Yerukalapudi
    Hi, I've built a ASP.NET webservice and I'm trying to access it from a Blackberry. I've been testing it out with multiple devices and the simulator and it works fine, but there's just the one Blackberry 9000 (It's not the model, I've tried it out with another Blackberry 9000), and it's stuck waiting for a response from the server. Relevant section of the code that accesses this - System.out.println("IN ntwk access thread, start point"); HttpConnection connection = (HttpConnection)Connector.open(serviceURL + WSNAME); connection.setRequestMethod(HttpConnection.POST); connection.setRequestProperty("Content-type", "application/x-www-form-urlencoded"); connection.setRequestProperty("Content-length", Integer.toString(postData1.length)); OutputStream requestOutput = connection.openOutputStream(); requestOutput.write(postData1); requestOutput.close(); final int responseCode = connection.getResponseCode(); if(responseCode!= HttpConnection.HTTP_OK) { //Process the error condition } // Request succeeded process the data. It seems to be getting stuck after connection.getResponseCode(). Is there some way I can verify what's going wrong with this particular device? Thanks, Teja

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  • Jquery dynamic button : how to bind to exisitng click event by class

    - by omer bach
    I have a click event triggered by the class selector inside the jquery ready scope: $(".testBtn").click(function() { alert("This Works"); }); This works fine for static buttons how ever this doesn't work for dynamic buttons which are added upon clicking the button with "addRowBtn" id. I'm guessing that it has something to do with that the button is created after the event is registered but still the new button has the 'testBtn' class so it makes sense it should work. Any idea what am i doing wrong and how to make the dynamic buttons registered to the class selector click event? Here is the whole code, you can copy and paste into an html, click the 'add button' and try to click the added buttons. you'll see nothing happens. <html> <head> <script src='http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1/jquery.min.js'></script> <script src='http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jqueryui/1/jquery-ui.min.js'></script> <script> $(function() { $(".addRowBtn").click(function() { $("#mainTable tr:last").after("<tr><td><button class='testBtn'>NotWorking</button></td></tr>"); }); $(".testBtn").click(function() { alert("This Works"); }); }); </script> </head> <body> <table id="mainTable"> <button class="addRowBtn">Add button</button> <tr><th>Testing</th></tr> <tr><td><button class='testBtn'>Working</button></td></tr> </table> </body> </html>

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  • Is XMLReader a SAX parser, a DOM parser, or neither?

    - by Renesis
    I am testing various methods to read (possibly large, and very often) XML configuration files in PHP. No writing is ever needed. I have two successful implementations, one using SimpleXML (which I know is a DOM parser) and one using XMLReader. I know that a DOM reader must read the whole tree and therefore uses more memory. My tests reflect that. I also know that A SAX parser is an "event-based" parser that uses less memory because it reads each node from the stream without checking what is next. XMLReader also reads from a stream with the cursor providing data about the node it is currently at. So, it definitely sounds like XMLReader (http://us2.php.net/xmlreader) is not a DOM parser, but my question is, is it a SAX parser, or something else? It seems like XMLReader behaves the way a SAX parser does but does not throw the events themselves (in other words, can you construct a SAX parser with XMLReader?) If it is something else, does the classification it's in have a name?

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  • Jquery problem - cant expand the row above in a table

    - by apg1985
    Hi People, What I cant figure out is how I would toggle a row in a table using the one below it. So say I have a table with 2 rows the first contains content and the one below contains a button, when the page loads the content row is hidden and when you click the button it toggles the content row on and off. In the example the first table works but the second does not, I need the second one to work. <!DOCTYPE HTML> <html> <head> <title>Testing Horizontal Accordion</title> <script type="text/javascript" src="jquery.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $(".sectionhead").toggle( function() { $(this).next("tr").hide(); }, function() { $(this).next("tr").show(); } ) }); </script> </head> <body> <table> <tr class="sectionhead"><td></td></tr> <tr class="child"><td>child</td></tr> </table> <br> <table> <tr class="child"><td>child</td></tr> <tr class="sectionhead"><td></td></tr> </table> </body> </html>

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  • Is there a useDirtyFlag option for Tomcat 6 cluster configuration?

    - by kevinjansz
    In Tomcat 5.0.x you had the ability to set useDirtyFlag="false" to force replication of the session after every request rather than checking for set/removeAttribute calls. <Cluster className="org.apache.catalina.cluster.tcp.SimpleTcpCluster" managerClassName="org.apache.catalina.cluster.session.SimpleTcpReplicationManager" expireSessionsOnShutdown="false" **useDirtyFlag="false"** doClusterLog="true" clusterLogName="clusterLog"> ... The comments in the server.xml stated this may be used to make the following work: <% HashMap map = (HashMap)session.getAttribute("map"); map.put("key","value"); %> i.e. change the state of an object that has already been put in the session and you can be sure that this object still be replicated to the other nodes in the cluster. According to the Tomcat 6 documentation you only have two "Manager" options - DeltaManager & BackupManager ... neither of these seem to allow this option or anything like it. In my testing the default setup: <Cluster className="org.apache.catalina.ha.tcp.SimpleTcpCluster"/> where you get the DeltaManager by default, it's definitely behaving as useDirtyFlag="true" (as I'd expect). So my question is - is there an equivalent in Tomcat 6? Looking at the source I can see a manager implementation "org.apache.catalina.ha.session.SimpleTcpReplicationManager" which does have the useDirtyFlag but the javadoc comments in this state it's "Tomcat Session Replication for Tomcat 4.0" ... I don't know if this is ok to use - I'm guessing not as it's not mentioned in the main cluster configuration documentation.

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  • Cannot launch 16-bit application anymore

    - by Nick Bedford
    I'm trying to debug and resolve some issues with a Win32 macro application written C++ however I'm having the strangest issue. I have to launch a 16-bit program and then simulate entering data into and have been using ShellExecute for over two years now. I haven't touched this actual code at all, but now it doesn't work. I'm doing ShellExecute(NULL, "open", exe_path.c_str(), NULL, "", SW_SHOWDEFAULT);. This has worked flawlessly for years but all of sudden, it stopped working. It gives me an ACCESS_DENIED error code. I've Googled and apparently this is a pretty common issue with launching 16-bit apps. The workstation XP SP2 environment hasn't changed at all, and it was actually working until I rebuilt a little while ago (I've rebuilt it before many times). The code is inside a window procedure function and when I take it out and launch the program in the WinMain function it works, but the code has to be in the window procedure... I've tried numerous alternatives but they all give the same issue. The biggest issue with this is it was working then all of a sudden decided it wasn't going to with no change to both code and environment! In fact, it was about half way through testing changes that it thought it'd stop working. Please help as I cannot do anything without the program launching. It's the first step in the code that I'm debugging!

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  • C# KeyEvent doesn't log the enter/return key

    - by Pieter888
    Hey all, I've been making this login form in C# and I wanted to 'submit' all the data as soon as the user either clicks on submit or presses the enter/return key. I've been testing a bit with KeyEvents but nothing so far worked. void tbPassword_KeyPress(object sender, KeyPressEventArgs e) { MessageBox.Show(e.KeyChar.ToString()); } The above code was to test if the event even worked in the first place. It works perfectly, when I press 'd' it shows me 'd' when I press '8' it shows me '8' but pressing enter doesn't do anything. So I though this was because enter isn't really bound to a character but it did show backspace, it worked just fine so it got me confused about why it didn't register my enter key. So the question is: How do I log the enter/return key? and why doesn't it log the key press right right now like it should? note: I've put the event in a textbox tbPassword.KeyPress += new KeyPressEventHandler(tbPassword_KeyPress); So it fires when the enter button is pressed WHILE the textbox is selected (which is was the whole time of course) maybe that has something to do with the execution of the code.

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  • QueryHistory against a codeplex project hangs indefinitely

    - by Robaticus
    I'm working on a TFS utility that gets the changesets for a particular project in TFS. I've got a home TFS 2010 server which I primarily use for testing, but I decided to give it a try against a codeplex project to which I contribute. That way, I can test functionality against a larger number of changesets than I have locally. While it works fine in my environment, heading out over the wire to codeplex has left me stumped. My application queries the history, but then, when trying to iterate through the history (which is when it lazy-loads the IEnumerable), my application hangs. Looking at Intellitrace, I see a couple of "first chance" exceptions that the "item doesn't exist at the specified version"-- which is patently not true, as I'm trying to get history for "$/" at VersionSpec.Latest. I also see two or three consecutive server 500 errors being returned to me after forcing debugging to pause. Other operations (like GetItems() ) work fine, so I'm pretty sure authentication isn't an issue. Any thoughts? Here's the code: IEnumerable items = vcs.QueryHistory("$/", VersionSpec.Latest, 1, RecursionType.None, null, null, null, 5, true, false); List<ChangesetItem> returnList = new List<ChangesetItem>(); foreach (Changeset cs in items) //hangs here on first iteraiton { ChangesetItem newItem = new ChangesetItem() { ChangesetId = cs.ChangesetId, //ChangesetNote = cs.CheckinNote.Values[0].Value, Comment = cs.Comment, Committer = cs.Committer, CreationDate = cs.CreationDate }; returnList.Add(newItem); }

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  • Bidirectional/Loopback UDP in .net

    - by Jason Williams
    I've got an app that needs to transmit and receive on the same port. This can happen in two cases: Where the PC is talking to a piece of remote hardware. It "replies to sender", so the datagrams come back in to my PC via the sending port. Where the PC is talking to itself (loopback mode) for testing and demoing (a test app feeds fake data into our main app via UDP). This only seems to fail when trying to achieve loopback. The only way I can get it working is to ensure that the receiver is set up first - something I cannot guarantee. Can anyone help narrow down my search by suggesting a "correct" way to implement the UdpClient(s) to handle the above situations reliably? (The only solution that I've found to work reliably with the remote hardware is to use a single UdpClient in a bidirectional manner, although I'm working with legacy code that may be influencing that finding. I've tried using two UdpClients, but they step on each others toes - In some cases, once one client is started up, the other client cannot connect. With ExclusiveAddressUse/ReuseAddress set up to allow port sharing, I can almost get it to work, apart from the receiver having to start first)

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  • Recommended approach to port to ASP.NET MVC

    - by tshao
    I think many of us used to face the same question, what's the best practices to port existing web forms App to MVC. The situation for me is that we'll support both web forms and MVC at the same time. It means, we create new features in MVC, while maintaining legacy pages in web forms, and they're all in a same project. The point is: we want to keep the DRY (do not repeat yourself) principle and reduce duplicate code as much as possible. The ASPX page is not a problem as we only create new features in MVC, but there're still some shared components we want to re-use the both new / legacy pages: Master page UserControl The question here is: Is that possible to create a common master page / usercontrol that could be used in both web forms and MVC? I know that ViewMasterPage inherits from MasterPage and ViewUserControl inherits from UserControl, so it's maybe OK to let both web forms and MVC ASPX page refer to the MVC version. I did some testing and found sometimes it generates errors during the rendering of usercontrols. Any idea / experience you can share with me? Very appreciate to it.

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  • How do I use IIS6 style metabase paths in IIS7 AppCmd tool?

    - by Mike Atlas
    I'm currently in the process of upgrading old II6 automation scripts that use the IISVdir tool to create/modify/update apps and virtual directories, and replacing them with AppCmd for IIS7. The IIS6, "IISVDir" commands reference paths in that are from the metabase, eg, "/W3SVC/1/ROOT/MyApp" - where 1 is ID of the "Default Web Site" site. The command doesn't actually require the display name of the site to make changes to it. This works well, since on a different language OS, the "Default Web Site" site name could be named, for example, "??? Web ???" or anything else for that matter. But this flexibility is lost if AppCmd can only reference "Default Web Site" via its name, and not a language-neutral identifier. So, how can I script AppCmd to refer to sites, vdirs and apps using language neutral identifiers to reference the "Default App Site"? Perhaps I need to start creating my own site instead, from the start, and name it something else specific, and stop using "Default Web Site" as the root? (Disclosure: I only have a IIS7-English machine that I am working on currently, but I have both IIS6-English and IIS6-Japanese machines for testing my old scripts - so perhaps it really is just "Default Web Site" still on Win2k8-Japanese?)

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