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• EMF ecore and xsd out of sync, how to resolve ?

  - by SeB

  Hi there, My application is using a model base on an xsd that have been converted to an ecore before generation of the java classes. One of my team member modified the .ecore metamodel in a previous version ,one attribute that used to be generated. He modified the attribute name but not the Extended MetaData specifying the element name used for xml persistance. <eStructuralFeatures xsi:type="ecore:EReference" name="javaDocsAndUserApi" upperBound="-1" eType="#//JavaDocsAndUserApi" containment="true" resolveProxies="false"> <eAnnotations source="http:///org/eclipse/emf/ecore/util/ExtendedMetaData"> <details key="kind" value="element"/> <details key="name" value="docsAndUserApi"/> </eAnnotations> </eStructuralFeatures> so we have an attribute name which is javaDocsAndUserApi and the persisted element named docsAndUserApi, and of course if I create change the attribute in the xsd to be named javaDocsAndUserApi, the ecore transformation will generate a metadata name javaDocsAndUserApi as well, which will break compatibility with previously persisted models. I have looked at xsd authoring guide to find an ecore:som_attribute that would allow me to specify which key to use in the xsd to force the metadata to be named docsAndUserApi during the xsd to ecore transformation but did not find anything. Does anybody have an idea to help me? Thank you.

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• NHibernate query against the key field of a dictionary (map)

  - by Carl Raymond

  I have an object model where a Calendar object has an IDictionary<MembershipUser, Perms> called UserPermissions, where MembershipUser is an object, and Perms is a simple enumeration. This is in the mapping file for Calendar as <map name="UserPermissions" table="CalendarUserPermissions" lazy="true" cascade="all"> <key column="CalendarID"/> <index-many-to-many class="MembershipUser" column="UserGUID" /> <element column="Permissions" type="CalendarPermission" not-null="true" /> </map> Now I want to execute a query to find all calendars for which a given user has some permission defined. The permission is irrelevant; I just want a list of the calendars where a given user is present as a key in the UserPermissions dictionary. I have the username property, not a MembershipUser object. How do I build that using QBC (or HQL)? Here's what I've tried: ISession session = SessionManager.CurrentSession; ICriteria calCrit = session.CreateCriteria<Calendar>(); ICriteria userCrit = calCrit.CreateCriteria("UserPermissions.indices"); userCrit.Add(Expression.Eq("Username", username)); return calCrit.List<Calendar>(); This constructed invalid SQL -- the WHERE clause contained WHERE membership1_.Username = @p0 as expected, but the FROM clause didn't include the MemberhipUsers table. Also, I really had to struggle to learn about the .indices notation. I found it by digging through the NHibernate source code, and saw that there's also .elements and some other dotted notations. Where's a reference to the allowed syntax of an association path? I feel like what's above is very close, and just missing something simple.

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• Codeigniter - accessing variables from an array passed into a page.

  - by Matt

  Hello, I have a controller with an index function as follows: function index() { $this->load->model('products_model'); $data['product'] = $this->products_model->get(3); // 3 = product id $data['product_no'] = 3; $data['main_content'] = 'product_view'; //print_r($data['products']); $this->load->view('includes/template', $data); } This is the get function in the products_model file function get($id) { $results = $this->db->get_where('products', array('id' => $id))->result(); //get the first item $result = $results[0]; return $result; } The products table contains fields such as name, price etc. Please can you tell me how to output variables from $data['product'] after it is passed into the view? I have tried so many things but nothing is working, even though the print_r (commented out) shows the data - it is not being passed into the view. I thought it may have been because the view calls a template file which references the main_content variable: Template file contents: <?php $this->load->view('includes/header'); ?> <?php $this->load->view($main_content); ?> <?php $this->load->view('includes/footer'); ?> but i tried creating a flat view file and still couldn't access the variables. Many thanks,

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• Rails - Help scoring an online quiz in RoR

  - by ChrisWesAllen

  I'm trying to grade a quiz application I would like to make. I have a questions model with and ask(the actual question), 4 choices(a-d), and a correct answer(string). In the view I have the 4 question being diplayed then the correct answer choice (This is just a test for functionality) and then I created a text_field to accept the users answer choice and a button to refresh the index action which has the scoring logic, for now.. --Do I need to put the text_field within a form_tag? <p>1. <%= h @question.q1 %></p> <p>2. <%= h @question.q2 %></p> <p>3. <%= h @question.q3 %></p> <p>4. <%= h @question.q4 %></p> <p>Answer: <%= h @question.correct %></p> <%= text_field_tag :choice, params[:choice] %> <%= button_to "Grade", {:controller => 'site', :action => "index"} %> <p> <%= @answer %></p> Heres the index controller action def index @question = Question.find(1) if @question.correct == params[:choice] @answer = 'right' else @answer = 'wrong' end end Its not really working. The textfield is supposed to take a letter choice like 'a' or 'c' and compare it with the correct answer in the database. I would love this to work by radiobuttons, but I'm a newbie to rails so I thought I'd take baby steps. So if anyone can help me with how to fix this by string, or preferably by radiobuttons, I'd really appreciate it.

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• Lost Array After Validation Error

  - by Georges Kmeid

  I'm working on a CakePHP project and I have User, Post and Location models among others. User hasMany Location and Post belongsTo User so Location is not directly related to Post. This is my code in the Post controller: public function add() { if ($this->request->is('get')) { $this->loadModel('Location'); $this->set('locations', $this->Location->find('all', array('conditions' => array('user_id' => $this->Auth->user('id'))))); } ... } And this is my code in the posts/add view: <?php $i = 0; $j = 0; foreach ($locations as $location): $location_names[$i] = $location['Location']['name']; $i++; endforeach; echo "<select name=\"location\" onchange=\"select(this.value)\">"; echo "<option value=\"\">Select a saved location</option>"; foreach ($locations as $location): echo "<option value=\"" . $location['Location']['latitude'] . "," . $location['Location']['longitude'] . "\">" . $location_names[$j] . "</option>"; $j++; endforeach; ?> </select> If I enter a wrong value in one of the post inputs that has a validation rule in Post model, it redirects to the current add view, shows what is the validation error, but then the $locations array passed from controller to view disappears and can't use it in view and I get this error: Notice (8): Undefined variable: locations [APP\View\Posts\add.ctp, line 68]

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• How to get a template tag to auto-check a checkbox in Django

  - by Daniel Quinn

  I'm using a ModelForm class to generate a bunch of checkboxes for a ManyToManyField but I've run into one problem: while the default behaviour automatically checks the appropriate boxes (when I'm editing an object), I can't figure out how to get that information in my own custom templatetag. Here's what I've got in my model: ... from django.forms import CheckboxSelectMultiple, ModelMultipleChoiceField interests = ModelMultipleChoiceField(widget=CheckboxSelectMultiple(), queryset=Interest.objects.all(), required=False) ... And here's my templatetag: @register.filter def alignboxes(boxes, cls): """ Details on how this works can be found here: http://docs.djangoproject.com/en/1.1/howto/custom-template-tags/ """ r = "" i = 0 for box in boxes.field.choices.queryset: r += "<label for=\"id_%s_%d\" class=\"%s\"><input type=\"checkbox\" name=\"%s\" value=\"%s\" id=\"id_%s_%d\" /> %s</label>\n" % ( boxes.name, i, cls, boxes.name, box.id, boxes.name, i, box.name ) i = i + 1 return mark_safe(r) The thing is, I'm only doing this so I can wrap some simpler markup around these boxes, so if someone knows how to make that happen in an easier way, I'm all ears. I'd be happy with knowing a way to access whether or not a box should be checked though.

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• SQL-Server: Is there an equivalent of a trigger for general stored procedure execution

  - by Arj

  Hi All, Hope you can help. Is there a way to reliably detect when a stored proc is being run on SQL Server without altering the SP itself? Here's the requirement. We need to track users running reports from our enterprise data warehouse as the core product we use doesn't allow for this. Both core product reports and a slew of in-house ones we've added all return their data from individual stored procs. We don't have a practical way of altering the parts of the product webpages where reports are called from. We also can't change the stored procs for the core product reports. (It would be trivial to add a logging line to the start/end of each of our inhouse ones). What I'm trying to find therefore, is whether there's a way in SQL Server (2005 / 2008) to execute a logging stored proc whenever any other stored procedure runs, without altering those stored procedures themselves. We have general control over the SQL Server instance itself as it's local, we just don't want to change the product stored procs themselves. Any one have any ideas? Is there a kind of "stored proc executing trigger"? Is there an event model for SQL Server that we can hook custom .Net code into? (Just to discount it from the start, we want to try and make a change to SQL Server rather than get into capturing the report being run from the products webpages etc) Thoughts appreciated Thanks

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• EF4 Code First - Many to many relationship issue

  - by Yngve B. Nilsen

  Hi! I'm having some trouble with my EF Code First model when saving a relation to a many to many relationship. My Models: public class Event { public int Id { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } public virtual ICollection<Tag> Tags { get; set; } } public class Tag { public int Id { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } public virtual ICollection<Event> Events { get; set; } } In my controller, I map one or many TagViewModels into type of Tag, and send it down to my servicelayer for persistence. At this time by inspecting the entities the Tag has both Id and Name (The Id is a hidden field, and the name is a textbox in my view) The problem occurs when I now try to add the Tag to the Event. Let's take the following scenario: The Event is already in my database, and let's say it already has the related tags C#, ASP.NET If I now send the following list of tags to the servicelayer: ID Name 1 C# 2 ASP.NET 3 EF4 and add them by first fetching the Event from the DB, so that I have an actual Event from my DbContext, then I simply do myEvent.Tags.Add to add the tags.. Problem is that after SaveChanges() my DB now contains this set of tags: ID Name 1 C# 2 ASP.NET 3 EF4 4 C# 5 ASP.NET This, even though my Tags that I save has it's ID set when I save it (although I didn't fetch it from the DB)

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• What is a fast way to set debugging code at a given line in a function?

  - by Josh O'Brien

  Preamble: R's trace() is a powerful debugging tool, allowing users to "insert debugging code at chosen places in any function". Unfortunately, using it from the command-line can be fairly laborious. As an artificial example, let's say I want to insert debugging code that will report the between-tick interval calculated by pretty.default(). I'd like to insert the code immediately after the value of delta is calculated, about four lines up from the bottom of the function definition. (Type pretty.default to see where I mean.) To indicate that line, I need to find which step in the code it corresponds to. The answer turns out to be step list(c(12, 3, 3)), which I zero in on by running through the following steps: as.list(body(pretty.default)) as.list(as.list(body(pretty.default))[[12]]) as.list(as.list(as.list(body(pretty.default))[[12]])[[3]]) as.list(as.list(as.list(body(pretty.default))[[12]])[[3]])[[3]] I can then insert debugging code like this: trace(what = 'pretty.default', tracer = quote(cat("\nThe value of delta is: ", delta, "\n\n")), at = list(c(12,3,3))) ## Try it a <- pretty(c(1, 7843)) b <- pretty(c(2, 23)) ## Clean up untrace('pretty.default') Questions: So here are my questions: Is there a way to print out a function (or a parsed version of it) with the lines nicely labeled by the steps to which they belong? Alternatively, is there another easier way, from the command line, to quickly set debugging code for a specific line within a function? Addendum: I used the pretty.default() example because it is reasonably tame, but with real/interesting functions, repeatedly using as.list() quickly gets tiresome and distracting. Here's an example: as.list(as.list(as.list(as.list(as.list(as.list(as.list(as.list(as.list(body(# model.frame.default))[[26]])[[3]])[[2]])[[4]])[[3]])[[4]])[[4]])[[4]])[[3]]

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• jeditable table cell

  - by user666262

  Hi all, I am having an issue when using jeditable to edit a cell in a table. The project is the MVC 2 web application and the table has been put on the standard about page. How do i tell the script to call a specific method in the controller ? because it is currently just loading the entire page into the cell. This is the javascript: $(document).ready(function () { $('.editable').editable('http://localhost:2196/Home/About', { type: 'text', cancel: 'Cancel', event: 'dblclick', submit: 'OK', tooltip: 'double Click to edit...' }); }); This is the table : <% foreach (DataTableEditable.Models.Company item in (IEnumerable<DataTableEditable.Models.Company>)Model) {%> <tr id="<%= Html.Encode(item.ID) %>"> <td class="editable"><%= Html.Encode(item.Name) %> </td> <td><%= Html.Encode(item.Address) %> </td> <td><%= Html.Encode(item.Town) %> </td> </tr> <% }%> Thanks lots John

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• Implicit Type Conversions in Reflection

  - by bradhe

  So I've written a quick bit of code to help quickly convert between business objects and view models. Not to pimp my own blog, but you can find the details here if you're interested or need to know. One issue I've run in to is that I have a custom collection type, ProductCollection, and I need to turn that in to a string[] in on my model. Obviously, since there is no default implicit cast, I'm getting an exception in my contract converter. So, I thought I would write the next little bit of code and that should solve the problem: public static implicit operator string[](ProductCollection collection) { var list = new List<string>(); foreach (var product in collection) { if (product.Id == null) { list.Add(null); } else { list.Add(product.Id.ToString()); } } return list.ToArray(); } However, it still fails with the same cast exception. I'm wondering if it has something to do with being in reflection? If so, is there anything that I can do here?? I'm open to architectural solutions, too!

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• Java Play Mustache NPE Error

  - by zanedev

  We are getting a mustache play error in production (amazon linux EC2 AMI) but not in development (MACs) and we have tried upgrading the jvm, using the jdk instead, and changing from a tomcat deploy model to match our development environments as much as possible but nothing is working. Please any help would be greatly appreciated. We have lots of shared code in java and javascript using mustache and it would be a big deal to rewrite everything if we had to ditch mustache on the java side. 20:48:52,403 ERROR ~ @6al2dd0po Internal Server Error (500) for request GET /mystuff/people Execution exception (In {module:mustache-0.2}/app/play/modules/mustache/MustacheTags.java around line 32) NullPointerException occured : null play.exceptions.JavaExecutionException at play.templates.BaseTemplate.throwException(BaseTemplate.java:90) at play.templates.GroovyTemplate.internalRender(GroovyTemplate.java:257) at play.templates.Template.render(Template.java:26) at play.templates.GroovyTemplate.render(GroovyTemplate.java:187) at play.mvc.results.RenderTemplate.<init>(RenderTemplate.java:24) at play.mvc.Controller.renderTemplate(Controller.java:660) at play.mvc.Controller.renderTemplate(Controller.java:640) at play.mvc.Controller.render(Controller.java:695) at controllers.MyStuff.people(MyStuff.java:183) at play.mvc.ActionInvoker.invokeWithContinuation(ActionInvoker.java:548) at play.mvc.ActionInvoker.invoke(ActionInvoker.java:502) at play.mvc.ActionInvoker.invokeControllerMethod(ActionInvoker.java:478) at play.mvc.ActionInvoker.invokeControllerMethod(ActionInvoker.java:473) at play.mvc.ActionInvoker.invoke(ActionInvoker.java:161) at Invocation.HTTP Request(Play!) Caused by: java.lang.NullPointerException at play.modules.mustache.MustacheTags._template(MustacheTags.java:32) at play.modules.mustache.MustacheTags$_template.call(Unknown Source) at /app/views/User/people.html.(line:22) at play.templates.GroovyTemplate.internalRender(GroovyTemplate.java:232) ... 13 more

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• Using the same code in different (partial) views

  - by Danny Chen

  Maybe this question is quite simple because I'm new to MVC2. I have a simple demo MVC project. (1) A weak-typed view: Index.aspx <% Html.RenderPartial("ArticalList", ViewData["AllArticals"] as List<Artical>); %> (2) A strong-typed partical view: ArticalList.ascx <%@ Control Language="C#" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewUserControl<List<Artical>>" %> <% foreach (Artical a in Model) { %> <%= Html.ActionLink(a.Title, "About", new { id = a.ID })%><br /> <%} %> (3) Here is the HomeController.cs public ActionResult Index() { ViewData["AllArticals"] = Artical.GetArticals(); return View(); } public ActionResult ArticalList() { return PartialView(Artical.GetArticals()); } Sorry I'm using a Web-Form "angle", because if I'm using a Web-Form, when I visit Index.aspx, rendering ArticalList.ascx will call public ActionResult ArticalList(). But here I need to write Artical.GetArticals() twice in two actions. How can I put them in one?

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• Circular Reference exception with JSON Serialisation with MVC3 and EF4 CTP5w

  - by nakchak

  Hi I'm having problems with a circular reference when i try and serialise an object returned via EF4 CTP5. Im using the code first approach and simple poco's for my model. I have added [ScriptIgnore] attributes to any properties that provide a back references to an object and annoyingly every seems to work fine if i manually instantiate the poco's, i.e. they serialise to JSON fine, and the scriptignore attribute is acknowledged. However when i try and serialise an object returned from the DAL i get the circular reference exception "A circular reference was detected while serializing an object of type 'System.Data.Entity.DynamicProxies.xxxx'" I have tried several ways of retreiving the data but they all get stuck with this error: public JsonResult GetTimeSlot(int id) { TimeSlotDao tsDao = new TimeSlotDao(); TimeSlot ts = tsDao.GetById(id); return Json(ts); } The method below works slightly better as rather than the timeslot dynamic proxied object causing the circular refference its the appointment object. public JsonResult GetTimeSlot(int id) { TimeSlotDao tsDao = new TimeSlotDao(); var ts = from t in tsDao.GetQueryable() where t.Id == id select new {t.Id, t.StartTime, t.Available, t.Appointment}; return Json(ts); } Any ideas or solutions to this problem? Update I would prefer to use the out of the box serialiser if possible although Json.Net via nuget is ok as an alternative i would hope its possible to use it as I intended as well...

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• Validations for a has_many/belongs_to relationship

  - by Craig Walker

  I have a Recipe model which has_many Ingredients (which in turn belongs_to Recipe). I want Ingredient to be existent dependent on Recipe; an Ingredient should never exist without a Recipe. I'm trying to enforce the presence of a valid Recipe ID in the Ingredient. I've been doing this with a validates :recipe, :presence => true (Rails 3) statement in Ingredient. This works fine if I save the Recipe before adding an Ingredient to it's ingredients collection. However, if I don't have explicit control over the saving (such as when I'm creating a Recipe and its Ingredients from a nested form) then I get an error: Ingredients recipe can't be blank I can get around this simply by dropping the presence validation on Ingredient.recipe. However, I don't particularly like this, as it means I'm working without a safety net. What is the best way to enforce existence-dependence in Rails? Things I'm considering (please comment on the wisdom of each): Adding a not-null constraint on the ingredients.recipe_id database column, and letting the database do the checking for me. A custom validation that somehow checks whether the Ingredient is in an unsaved recipe's ingredient collection (and thus can't have a recipe_id but is still considered valid).

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• How do I get Asp.net MVC BeginForm to add closing tag correctly?

  - by Matt

  I seem to be missing something obvious here, but cannot see what it is. My problem is that the closing form tag for BeginForm is not being added to my markup. I am looping through a collection and creating a form for each item, but the forms arent closing properly. Any suggestions please? Thanks <% foreach (var item in Model) { %> <% using (Html.BeginForm("EditUser","Users")) { %> <tr> <td> <input id="contactID" type="hidden" value="<%= item.ContactID %>" /> <%=item.Email %> </td> <td> <%=item.Market.MarketName%> </td> <td> <%=item.ContactType.ContactTypeName%> </td> <td> <input type="submit" value="Edit" /> </td> </tr> <%} %> <% } %>

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• Capture and handling the tab/Textchanged event in a textbox in asp.net MVC

  - by Icerman

  I have the following code th handle a user name validation on the server side. But the event seems not firing since break points in js or C# code didn't hit. Can anyone point out where I did wrong? Here is the user control which has a user name textbox: <%: Html.TextBox("UserName", Model.Username, new { maxlength = "40", size = "20", tabindex = "1", @onchange = "CheckAvailability()" })% CheckAvailability() is defined in the User.Validation.js and included in the above user control: $(document).ready(function () { function CheckAvailability() { $.post("/Home/Survey/CheckAvailability", { Username: $("#UserName").val() }, function (data) { var myObject = eval('(' + data + ')'); var newid = myObject; if (newid == 0) { $("#usernamelookupresult").html("<font color='green'>Available :-D</font>") } else { $("#usernamelookupresult").html("<font color='red'>Taken :-(</font>") } }); } }); Here is the survey controller function which will have server side validation: [HttpPost] public ActionResult CheckAvailability(string Username) { int Taken = 0; // This is where you add your database lookup if (Username == "abc") { Taken = 1; } return Json(Taken); }

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• A question about entities, roles and interfaces in Entity Framework 4.

  - by mvole

  Hi, I am an experienced .NET developer but new to EF - so please bear with me. I will use an example of a college application to illustrate my problem. I have these user roles: Lecturer, Student, Administrator. In my code I envisage working with these entities as distinct classes so e.g. a Lecturer teaches a collection of Students. And work with 'is Student' 'TypeOf' etc. Each of these entities share lots of common properties/methods e.g. they can all log onto the system and do stuff related to their role. In EF designer I can create a base entity Person (or User...) and have Lecturer, Student and Administrator all inherit from that. The difficulty I have is that a Lecturer can be an Administrator - and in fact on occasion a Student can be a Lecturer. If I were to add other entities such as Employee and Warden then this gets even more of an issue. I could presumably work with Interfaces so a person could implement ILecturer and IStudent, however I do not see how this fits within EF. I would like to work within the EF designer if possible and I'm working model-first (coding in C#). So any help and advice/samples would be very welcome and much appreciated. Thanks

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• Select ID in table ...

  - by Kris-I

  Hello, I have this code <% foreach (var item in Model.List) { %> <tr> <td><%: item.LastName %></td> <td><%: item.FirstName %></td> <td><%: item.IsEnable %></td> <td><a href="#" class="CustomerEdit">Edit</a></td> <td><a href="#" class="CustomerDetail">Detail</a></td> <td><a href="#" class="CustomerDelete">Delete</a></td> </tr> <% } %> <script language="javascript" type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function () { $(".CustomerEdit").click(function () { alert("blabla"); //need id here }); }); </script> It's not in the code but I have an "Item.Id", it's not place anywhere because I don't know where place it ;-). I'd like when I click on the "Edit" hyperlink get the id (item.Id) of the current line. Any idea ? Thanks,

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• What could cause a PHP error on an include statement?

  - by J Jones

  I've got a bug in my PHP code that's been terrorizing me for several days now. I'm trying to clasp in a new module to an existing Magento (v1.4) site, though I'm very new to the Magento framework. I think I am pretty close to getting to "Hello, World" on a block that I want displayed in the backend, but I'm getting a 500 error when the menu item is selected. I managed to track it down (using echo stmts) to a line in the Layout.php file (app\code\core\Mage\Core\Model\Layout.php, line 472ish): if (class_exists($block, false) || mageFindClassFile($block)) { $temp = $block; echo "<p>before constructor: $temp</p>"; $block = new $block($attributes); echo "<p>after constructor: $temp</p>"; } For my block, this yields only "before constructor...", so I know this is what is failing. A little more debugging reveals that the class in $block (the new block I am trying to show) does not exist. I would have expected the __autoload function to take care of this, but none of my echos in __autoload are displaying. As a last ditch effort, I tried an include statement in Mage.php to the absolute location of the block class, but similar before and after echos reveal that that include statement becomes the breaking line. I'm tempted to start thinking "permissions", but I'm not well versed in the server management side of all this, and I have limited access to the test server (the test server belongs to the client). To anticipate the question: there are no errors reported in the PHP log file. I am actually not convinced that this site is reporting errors to the log file (I haven't seen anything from this site), though the client is certain that everything is turned on. IIS 7. Integrated mode, I'm pretty sure. Anyone know what could be causing this?

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• Applying the Decorator Pattern to Forms

  - by devoured elysium

  I am trying to apply the Decorator Design Pattern to the following situation: I have 3 different kind of forms: Green, Yellow, Red. Now, each of those forms can have different set of attributes. They can have a minimize box disabled, a maximized box disabled and they can be always on top. I tried to model this the following way: Form <---------------------------------------FormDecorator /\ /\ |---------|-----------| |----------------------|-----------------| GreenForm YellowForm RedForm MinimizeButtonDisabled MaximizedButtonDisabled AlwaysOnTop Here is my GreenForm code: public class GreenForm : Form { public GreenForm() { this.BackColor = Color.GreenYellow; } public override sealed Color BackColor { get { return base.BackColor; } set { base.BackColor = value; } } } FormDecorator: public abstract class FormDecorator : Form { private Form _decoratorForm; protected FormDecorator(Form decoratorForm) { this._decoratorForm = decoratorForm; } } and finally NoMaximizeDecorator: public class NoMaximizeDecorator : FormDecorator { public NoMaximizeDecorator(Form decoratorForm) : base(decoratorForm) { this.MaximizeBox = false; } } So here is the running code: static void Main() { Application.EnableVisualStyles(); Application.SetCompatibleTextRenderingDefault(false); Application.Run(CreateForm()); } static Form CreateForm() { Form form = new GreenForm(); form = new NoMaximizeDecorator(form); form = new NoMinimizeDecorator(form); return form; } The problem is that I get a form that isn't green and that still allows me to maximize it. It is only taking in consideration the NoMinimizeDecorator form. I do comprehend why this happens but I'm having trouble understanding how to make this work with this Pattern. I know probably there are better ways of achieving what I want. I made this example as an attempt to apply the Decorator Pattern to something. Maybe this wasn't the best pattern I could have used(if one, at all) to this kind of scenario. Is there any other pattern more suitable than the Decorator to accomplish this? Am I doing something wrong when trying to implement the Decorator Pattern? Thanks

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• Generating URLs when not using an integer as an id?

  - by Synthesezia

  So I'm building a blog engine which has /articles/then-the-article-permalink as it's URL structure. I need to have prev and next links which will jump to the next article by pub_date, my code looks like this: In my articles#show @article = Article.find_by_permalink(params[:id]) @prev_article = Article.find(:first, :conditions => [ "pub_date < ?", @article.pub_date]) @next_picture = Article.find(:first, :conditions => [ "pub_date > ?", @article.pub_date]) And in my show.html.erb <%= link_to "Next", article_path(@next_article) %> <%= link_to 'Prev', article_path(@prev_article) %> In my articles model I have this: def to_param self.permalink end The specific error message I get is: article_url failed to generate from {:action=>"show", :controller=>"articles", :id=>nil}, expected: {:action=>"show", :controller=>"articles"}, diff: {:id=>nil} Without the prev and next everything is working fine but I'm out of ideas as to why this isn't working. Anyone want to helo?

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• How can I go through a Set in JSP? (Hibernate Associations)

  - by Parris

  Hi All, So I am pretty new to JSP. I have tried this a few ways. Ways that would make sense in PHP or automagicy frameworks... I am probably thinking too much in fact... I have a hibernate one to many association. That is class x has many of class y. In class x's view.jsp. I would like to grab all of class y, where the foreign key of y matches the primary key of x and display them. It seems that hibernate properly puts this stuff into a set. Now, the question is how can I iterate through this set and then output it's contents... I am kind of stumped here. I tried to write a scriptlet, <% java.util.Iterator iter = aBean.getYs().iter(); // aBeans is the bean name // getYs would return the set and iter would return an iterator for the set while(iter.hasNext) { model.X a = new iter.next() %> <h1><%=a.getTitle()%></h1> <% } %> It would seem that that sort of thing should work? Hmmmmmm

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• App crashes every second time a tableview row is selected in navigation controller setup

  - by Thaurin

  Disclaimer first: I'm pretty new to Objective-C and the retain model. I've been developing in a garbage collected .NET environment for the last five years, so I've been spoiled. I'm still learning. I'm having my iPhone app crash with EXC_BAD_ACCESS. It happens in a navigtation controller/tableview setup. When I select a row the first time, no problems. It switches in the child controller without problems. I go back and select the same row again. Program then proceeds to crash. Every other row works fine, but every second time a row is accessed, it's a crash. I've pinpointed the location where this happens. The child controller (which is a class that I reuse for every row of the same type) that's being switched into has an array of NSString's representing the rows that will be displayed. I set it before pushing the child viewcontroller. It's there where this apparently happens. I'm having a hard time debugging this problem, still wrestling with xcode and all. I fear there may be some vital information missing here, but maybe there is something you recognize here.

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• Going "behind Hibernate's back" to update foreign key values without an associated entity

  - by Alex Cruise

  Updated: I wound up "solving" the problem by doing the opposite! I now have the entity reference field set as read-only (insertable=false updatable=false), and the foreign key field read-write. This means I need to take special care when saving new entities, but on querying, the entity properties get resolved for me. I have a bidirectional one-to-many association in my domain model, where I'm using JPA annotations and Hibernate as the persistence provider. It's pretty much your bog-standard parent/child configuration, with one difference being that I want to expose the parent's foreign key as a separate property of the child alongside the reference to a parent instance, like so: @Entity public class Child { @Id @GeneratedValue Long id; @Column(name="parent_id", insertable=false, updatable=false) private Long parentId; @ManyToOne(cascade=CascadeType.ALL) @JoinColumn(name="parent_id") private Parent parent; private long timestamp; } @Entity public class Parent { @Id @GeneratedValue Long id; @OrderBy("timestamp") @OneToMany(mappedBy="parent", cascade=CascadeType.ALL, fetch=FetchType.LAZY) private List<Child> children; } This works just fine most of the time, but there are many (legacy) cases when I'd like to put an invalid value in the parent_id column without having to create a bogus Parent first. Unfortunately, Hibernate won't save values assigned to the parentId field due to insertable=false, updatable=false, which it requires when the same column is mapped to multiple properties. Is there any nice way to "go behind Hibernate's back" and sneak values into that field without having to drop down to JDBC or implement an interceptor? Thanks!

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