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• Strange FileNotFoundException occuring on production server in console application

  - by thmsn

  Hi I have an application that works fine in my dev enviroment, but throws weird errors in the production enviroment, I checked the version of .net on my dev machine aswell as the production server , they both run 3.5.30729.01. The exception I get is a System.IO.FileNotFoundException. StackTrace: at System.Diagnostics.FileVersionInfo.GetVersionInfo(String fileName) at System.Configuration.ClientConfigPaths.SetNamesAndVersion(String applicationFilename, Assembly exeAssembly, Boolean isHttp) at System.Configuration.ClientConfigPaths..ctor(String exePath, Boolean includeUserConfig) at System.Configuration.ClientConfigPaths.GetPaths(String exePath, Boolean includeUserConfig) at System.Configuration.ClientConfigurationHost.get_ConfigPaths() at System.Configuration.ClientConfigurationHost.RequireCompleteInit(IInternalConfigRecord record) at System.Configuration.BaseConfigurationRecord.GetSectionRecursive(String configKey, Boolean getLkg, Boolean checkPermission, Boolean getRuntimeObject, Boolean requestIsHere, Object& result, Object& resultRuntimeObject) at System.Configuration.BaseConfigurationRecord.GetSection(String configKey) at System.Configuration.ClientConfigurationSystem.System.Configuration.Internal.IInternalConfigSystem.GetSection(String sectionName) at System.Configuration.ConfigurationManager.GetSection(String sectionName) at System.Configuration.PrivilegedConfigurationManager.GetSection(String sectionName) at System.DirectoryServices.SearchResultCollection.ResultsEnumerator..ctor(SearchResultCollection results, String parentUserName, String parentPassword, AuthenticationTypes parentAuthenticationType) at System.DirectoryServices.SearchResultCollection.GetEnumerator() at System.DirectoryServices.DirectorySearcher.FindOne() Yesterday the error just went away, and today the error is occuring again. I tried using reflector and it appears to have something to do with config files or user config files. any ideas?

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• CompositeDataBoundControl - databound values overwritten before event is fired due to DummyDataSourc

  - by Vidar Langberget

  I have a custom servercontrol that inherits from CompositeDataBoundControl. I have three templates: one header template, one footer template and one item template. The item template can contain a checkbox that I use to decide if I should delete the item. In the footer and/or header templates I have a button with a CommandName of "DeleteItem". When that button is clicked, I handle the event in OnBubbleEvent: if (cea.CommandName == "DeleteItem") { //loop through the item list and get the selected rows List<int> itemsToDelete = new List<int>(); foreach(Control c in this.Controls){ if (c is ItemData) { ItemData oid = (ItemData)c; CheckBox chkSel = (CheckBox)oid.FindControl("chkSelected"); if (chkSel.Checked) { itemsToDelete.Add(oid.Item.Id); } } } foreach (int id in itemsToDelete) { DeleteItem(id); } } } The problem is that Item is null since the CreateChildControls method already has been run as asp.net needs to recreate the control hierarchy before the event fire. It uses the DummyDataSource and a list of null objects to recreate the control hierarchy: IEnumerator e = dataSource.GetEnumerator(); if (e != null) { while (e.MoveNext()) { ItemData container = new ItemData (e.Current as OrderItem); ITemplate itemTemplate = this.ItemTemplate; if (itemTemplate == null) { itemTemplate = new DefaultItemTemplate(); } itemTemplate.InstantiateIn(container); Controls.Add(container); if (dataBinding) { container.DataBind(); } counter++; } } The problem is this line: ItemData container = new ItemData (e.Current as OrderItem); When the control hierarchy is rebuilt before the event is fired, the e.Current is null, so when I try to find out which item was marked for deletion, I get 0 since the original value has been overwritten. Any suggestions on how to fix this?

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• git crlf configuration in mixed environment

  - by Jonas Byström

  I'm running a mixed environment, and keep a central, bare repository where I pull and push most of my stuff. This centralized repository runs on Linux, and I check out to Windows XP/7, Mac and Linux. In all repositories I put the following line in my .git/config: [core] autocrlf = true I don't have the flag safecrlf=true anywhere. First time when I modify stuff on my one Windows machine (XP) there is no problem and when I look at the diff, it looks fine. But when I do the same on the other Windows machine (7), all lines are shown as changed but local line endings are \r\n as expected (when checked in a hex editor). The same applies to a MacOSX can. Sometimes I get the feeling that the different systems wrestle on line endings, but I can't be sure (I'm loosing track of all the times I change specific files). I didn't use to have the autocrlf set, but set the flag many months back. Could that be causing my current problems? Do I need to clone everything again to loose some old baggage? Or are there other things that needs configuring too? I tried git checkout -- . about a million times, but with no success.

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• How to get resultset with stored procedure calls over two linked servers?

  - by räph

  I have problems filling a temporary table with the resultset from a procedure call on a linked server, in which again a procedure on another server is called. I have a Stored Procedure sproc1 with the following code, which calls another procedure sproc2 on a linked server. SET @sqlCommand = 'INSERT INTO #tblTemp ( ModuleID, ParamID) ' + '( SELECT * FROM OPENQUERY(' + @targetServer + ', ' + '''SET FMTONLY OFF; EXEC ' + @targetDB + '.usr.sproc2 ' + @param + ''' ) )' exec ( @sqlCommand ) Now in the called sproc2 I again call a third procedure sproc3 on another linked server, which returns my resultset. SET @sqlCommand = 'EXEC ' + @targetServer +'.database.usr.sproc3 ' + @param exec ( @sqlCommand ) The whole thing doen't work, as I get an SQL error 7391 The operation could not be performed because OLE DB provider "%ls" for linked server "%ls" was unable to begin a distributed transaction. I already checked the hints at this microsoft article, but without success. But maybe, I can change the code in sproc1. Would there be some alternative to the temp table and the open query? Just calling stored procedures from server A to B to C and returning the resultset is working (I do this often in the application). But this special case with the temp table and openquery doesn't work! Or is it just not possible what I am trying to do? The microsft article states: Check the object you refer on the destination server. If it is a view or a stored procedure, or causes an execution of a trigger, check whether it implicitly references another server. If so, the third server is the source of the problem. Run the query directly on the third server. If you cannot run the query directly on the third server, the problem is not actually with the linked server query. Resolve the underlying problem first. Is this my case? PS: I can't avoid the architecture with the three servers.

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• ObjectDisposedException when .Show()'ing a form that shouldn't be disposed.

  - by user320781

  ive checked out some of the other questions and obviously the best solution is to prevent the behavior that causes this issue in the first place, but the problem is very intermittent, and very un-reproduceable. I basically have a main form, with sub forms. The sub forms are shown from menus and/or buttons from the main form like so: private void myToolStripMenuItem_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { try { xDataForm.Show(); xDataForm.Activate(); } catch (ObjectDisposedException) { MessageBox.Show("ERROR 10103"); ErrorLogging newLogger = new ErrorLogging("10103"); Thread errorThread = new Thread(ErrorLogging.writeErrorToLog); errorThread.Start(); } } and the sub forms are actually in the main form(for better or worse. i would actually like to change this but would be a considerable amount of time to do so): public partial class FormMainScreen : Form { Form xDataForm = new xData(); ...(lots more here) public FormMainScreen(int pCount, string pName) { InitializeComponent(); ... } ... } The Dispose function for the sub form is modified so that, the 'close' and 'X' buttons actually hide the form so we dont have to re-create it every time. When the main screen closes, it sets a "flag" to 2, so the other forms know that it is actually ok to close; protected override void Dispose(bool disposing) { if (FormMainScreen.isExiting == 2) { if (disposing && (components != null)) { components.Dispose(); } base.Dispose(disposing); } else { if (xData.ActiveForm != null) { xData.ActiveForm.Hide(); } } } So, the question is, why would this work over and over and over again flawlessly, but, literally, about every 1/1000 of the time, cause an exception, or rather, why is my form being disposed? I had a suspicion that the garbage collector was getting confused, because it occurs slightly more frequently after it has been running for many hours.

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• Django caching seems to be causing problems

  - by Issy

  Hey guys, i have just implemented the Django Cache Local Memory back end in some my code, however it seems to be causing a problem. I get the following error when trying to view the site (With Debug On): Traceback (most recent call last): File "/usr/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/django/core/servers/basehttp.py", line 279, in run self.result = application(self.environ, self.start_response) File "/usr/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/django/core/servers/basehttp.py", line 651, in __call__ return self.application(environ, start_response) File "/usr/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/django/core/handlers/wsgi.py", line 245, in __call__ response = middleware_method(request, response) File "/usr/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/django/middleware/cache.py", line 91, in process_response patch_response_headers(response, timeout) File "/usr/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/django/utils/cache.py", line 112, in patch_response_headers response['Expires'] = http_date(time.time() + cache_timeout) TypeError: unsupported operand type(s) for +: 'float' and 'str' I have checked my code, for caching everything seems to be ok. For example, i have the following in my middleware. MIDDLEWARE_CLASSES = ( 'django.contrib.sessions.middleware.SessionMiddleware', 'django.contrib.auth.middleware.AuthenticationMiddleware', 'django.middleware.cache.UpdateCacheMiddleware', 'django.middleware.common.CommonMiddleware', 'django.middleware.cache.FetchFromCacheMiddleware', 'django.contrib.flatpages.middleware.FlatpageFallbackMiddleware', ) My settings for Cache: CACHE_BACKEND = 'locmem://' CACHE_MIDDLEWARE_SECONDS = '3600' CACHE_MIDDLEWARE_KEY_PREFIX = 'za' CACHE_MIDDLEWARE_ANONYMOUS_ONLY = True And some of my code (template tag): def get_featured_images(): """ provides featured images """ cache_key = 'featured_images' images = cache.get(cache_key) if images is None: images = FeaturedImage.objects.all().filter(enabled=True)[:5] cache.set(cache_key, images) return {'images': images} Any idea what could be the problem, from the error message below it looks like there's an issue in django's cache.py?

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• Checking for nil in view in Ruby on Rails

  - by seaneshbaugh

  I've been working with Rails for a while now and one thing I find myself constantly doing is checking to see if some attribute or object is nil in my view code before I display it. I'm starting to wonder if this is always the best idea. My rationale so far has been that since my application(s) rely on user input unexpected things can occur. If I've learned one thing from programming in general it's that users inputting things the programmer didn't think of is one of the biggest sources of run-time errors. By checking for nil values I'm hoping to sidestep that and have my views gracefully handle the problem. The thing is though I typically for various reasons have similar nil or invalid value checks in either my model or controller code. I wouldn't call it code duplication in the strictest sense, but it just doesn't seem very DRY. If I've already checked for nil objects in my controller is it okay if my view just assumes the object truly isn't nil? For attributes that can be nil that are displayed it makes sense to me to check every time, but for the objects themselves I'm not sure what is the best practice. Here's a simplified, but typical example of what I'm talking about: controller code def show @item = Item.find_by_id(params[:id]) @folders = Folder.find(:all, :order => 'display_order') if @item == nil or @item.folder == nil redirect_to(root_url) and return end end view code <% if @item != nil %> display the item's attributes here <% if @item.folder != nil %> <%= link_to @item.folder.name, folder_path(@item.folder) %> <% end %> <% else %> Oops! Looks like something went horribly wrong! <% end %> Is this a good idea or is it just silly?

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• How to tell what account my webservice is running under in Visual Studio 2005

  - by John Galt

  I'm going a little nuts trying to understand the doc on impersonation and delegation and the question has come up what account my webservice is running under. I am logged as myDomainName\johna on my development workstation called JOHNXP. From Vstudio2005 I start my webservice via Debug and the wsdl page comes up in my browser. From Task Manager, I see the following while sitting at a breakpoint in my .asmx code: aspnet_wp.exe pid=1316 UserName=ASPNET devenv.exe pid=3304 UserName=johna The IIS Directory Security tab for the Virtual Directory that hosts my ws.asmx code has "Enable Anonymous access" UNCHECKED and has "Integrated Windows Authentication" CHECKED. So when the MSDN people state "you must configure the user account under which the server process runs", what would they be refering to in the case of my little webservice described above? I am quoting from: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/aa302400.aspx Ultimately, I want this webservice of mine to impersonate whatever authenticated domain user browses through to an invoke of my webservice. My webservice in turn consumes another ASMX webservice on a different server (but same domain). I need this remote webservice to use the impersonated domain user credentials (not those of my webservice on JOHNXP). So its getting a little snarly for me to understand this and I see I am unclear about the account my web service uses. I think it is ASPNET in IIS 5.1 on WinXP but not sure.

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• Arrow keys and changing control's focus hang the application

  - by sthay

  I have a usercontrol that contains a FlowLayoutPanel (topdown flow) with a bunch of radiobuttons. The control exposes a CheckedChanged event that fires whenever one of the radiobuttons's check changed. My form contains the usercontrol and a textbox. I subscribe the usercontrol's CheckedChanged event and depending on which radiobutton gets checked, I either disable the textbox or put a focus inside the textbox. All this works fine with mouseclick when changing the radiobutton's check state. However, this will hang indefinitely when using the arrow keys. I don't understand why the difference. The following are steps to reproduce the behavior I'm seeing: Create a usercontrol and drop a FlowLayoutPanel control and set its FlowDirection = TopDown. Then add two radiobuttons to the FlowLayoutPanel. Provide an event handler in the usercontrol public event EventHandler CheckedChanged { add { radioButton2.CheckedChanged += value; } remove { radioButton2.CheckedChanged -= value; } } Create a windows form and drop the above user control. Add a textbox and set Enabled to False. Subscribe to the usercontrol's CheckedChanged event as follows private void userControl11_CheckedChanged(object sender, EventArgs e) { textBox1.Select(); } Run. Notice that if you use the mouse to click between the radiobuttons, thing works fine; but it will crash if you use the up/down arrow keys.

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• submitting the form even if the form is in invalid state

  - by Abu Hamzah

  i am using asp.net web forms and i am using bassistance.de jquery validation.. i have bunch of fields in the form and its validatating how it suppose to but its still executing my code behind code, why is it doing that? here is my code: form: <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $("#aspnetForm").validate({ rules: { <%=txtVisitName.UniqueID %>: { maxlength:1, //minlength: 12, required: true } ................. }, messages: { <%=txtVisitName.UniqueID %>: { required: "Enter visit name", minlength: jQuery.format("Enter at least {0} characters.") } ............ }, success: function(label) { label.html("&nbsp;").addClass("checked"); } }); $("#aspnetForm").validate(); }); </script> <div > <h1> Page</h1> <asp:Label runat="server" ID='Label1'>Visit Name:</asp:Label> <asp:TextBox ID="txtVisitName" runat='server'></asp:TextBox> ............ ............... <button id="btnSubmit" name="btnSubmit" type="submit"> Submit</button> </div> and i have a external .js file referencing to my web form page. $(document).ready(function() { $("#btnSubmit").click(function() { SavePage(); }); }); i have a WebMethod .cs and i have bookmark and it does hitting that line of code even thoug my page is in invalid state. how would i fix this? thanks.

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• How do I configure multiple Ubuntu Python installations to avoid App Engine's SSL error?

  - by Linc

  I have Karmic Koala which has Python 2.6 installed by default. However I can't run any Python App Engine projects because they require Python 2.5 and python ssl. To install ssl I installed python2.5-dev first while following some instructions I found elsewhere. sudo apt-get install libssl-dev sudo apt-get install python-setuptools sudo apt-get install python2.5-dev sudo easy_install-2.5 pyopenssl However, I am afraid this is not good for my Ubuntu installation since Ubuntu expects to see version 2.6 of Python when you type 'python' on the command line. Instead, it says '2.5.5'. I tried to revert to the original default version of Python by doing this: sudo apt-get remove python2.5-dev But that didn't seem to do anything either - when I type 'python' on the command line it still say 2.5.5. And App Engine still doesn't work after all this. I continue to get an SSL-related error whenever I try to run my Python app: AttributeError: 'module' object has no attribute 'HTTPSHandler' UPDATE: Just checked whether SSL actually installed as a result of those commands by typing this: $ python2.5 Python 2.5.5 (r255:77872, Apr 29 2010, 23:59:20) [GCC 4.4.1] on linux2 Type "help", "copyright", "credits" or "license" for more information. >>> import ssl Traceback (most recent call last): File "<stdin>", line 1, in <module> ImportError: No module named ssl >>> As you can see, SSL is still not installed, which explains the continuing App Engine error. If anyone knows how I can dig myself out of this hole, I would appreciate it.

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• Python virtualenv questions

  - by orokusaki

  I'm using VirtualEnv on Windows XP. I'm wondering if I have my brain wrapped around it correctly. I ran virtualenv ENV and it created C:\WINDOWS\system32\ENV. I then changed my PATH variable to include C:\WINDOWS\system32\ENV\Scripts instead of C:\Python27\Scripts. Then, I checked out Django into C:\WINDOWS\system32\ENV\Lib\site-packages\django-trunk, updated my PYTHON_PATH variable to point the new Django directory, and continued to easy_install other things (which of course go into my new C:\WINDOWS\system32\ENV\Lib\site-packages directory). I understand why I should use VirtualEnv so I can run multiple versions of Django, and other libraries on the same machine, but does this mean that to switch between environments I have to basically change my PATH and PYTHON_PATH variable? So, I go from developing one Django project which uses Django 1.2 in an environment called ENV and then change my PATH and such so that I can use an environment called ENV2 which has the dev version of Django? Is that basically it, or is there some better way to automatically do all this (I could update my path in Python code, but that would require me to write machine-specific code in my application)? Also, how does this process compare to using VirtualEnv on Linux (I'm quite the beginner at Linux).

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• jQuery update not replacing js files in Drupal 6.16.

  - by vr3690

  Hi, I am using jquery update in drupal 6.16 along with a lot of other modules. I am trying to use jquery ui 1.7.2 to render tabs. But unfortunately they don't work properly since jquery update is not replacing the jquery file (jquery 1.3.2). I checked the version using $.fn.jquery (in firebug) and got 1.2.6 (not 1.3.2 as required) as the result - and as expected the aggregated js file was using the 1.2.6 version of jquery (see source). earlier I had just replaced the core script files in /misc with the js files in sites/default/modules/jquery_update/replace folder (like you'd do in 5.x) and got the necessary result (i also renamed jquery.min.js to jquery.js ). now suddenly that stopped working after i upgraded to 6.x-2.0-alpha1 and also installed the mollom module. disabling/uninstalling mollom or down-grading jQuery update does not seem to help. the problem only occurs on the front page though. other content pages have jQuery 1.3.2 the problem can be seen here. So, basically, for some reason, jquery update is not replacing the jquery files (as it is supposed to) on the front page. and i cannot figure out why that happens. any ideas?

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• Should java try blocks be scoped as tightly as possible?

  - by isme

  I've been told that there is some overhead in using the Java try-catch mechanism. So, while it is necessary to put methods that throw checked exception within a try block to handle the possible exception, it is good practice performance-wise to limit the size of the try block to contain only those operations that could throw exceptions. I'm not so sure that this is a sensible conclusion. Consider the two implementations below of a function that processes a specified text file. Even if it is true that the first one incurs some unnecessary overhead, I find it much easier to follow. It is less clear where exactly the exceptions come from just from looking at statements, but the comments clearly show which statements are responsible. The second one is much longer and complicated than the first. In particular, the nice line-reading idiom of the first has to be mangled to fit the readLine call into a try block. What is the best practice for handling exceptions in a funcion where multiple exceptions could be thrown in its definition? This one contains all the processing code within the try block: void processFile(File f) { try { // construction of FileReader can throw FileNotFoundException BufferedReader in = new BufferedReader(new FileReader(f)); // call of readLine can throw IOException String line; while ((line = in.readLine()) != null) { process(line); } } catch (FileNotFoundException ex) { handle(ex); } catch (IOException ex) { handle(ex); } } This one contains only the methods that throw exceptions within try blocks: void processFile(File f) { FileReader reader; try { reader = new FileReader(f); } catch (FileNotFoundException ex) { handle(ex); return; } BufferedReader in = new BufferedReader(reader); String line; while (true) { try { line = in.readLine(); } catch (IOException ex) { handle(ex); break; } if (line == null) { break; } process(line); } }

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• JQuery methods and DOM properties

  - by Bob Smith

  I am confused as to when I can use the DOM properties and when I could use the Jquery methods on a Jquery object. Say, I use a selector var $elemSel = $('#myDiv').find('[id *= \'select\']') At this point, $elemSel is a jquery object which I understand to be a wrapper around the array of DOM elements. I could get a reference to the DOM elements by iterating through the $elemSel object/array (Correct?) My questions: 1. Is there a way to convert this $elemSel into a non JQuery regular array of DOM elements? 2. Can I combine DOM properties and JQuery methods at the same time (something like this) $elemSel.children('td').nodeName (nodeName is DOM related, children is JQuery related) EDIT: What's wrong with this? $elemSel.get(0).is(':checked') EDIT 2: Thanks for the responses. I understand now that I can use the get(0) to get a DOM element. Additional questions: How would I convert a DOM element to a JQuery object? If I assign "this" to a variable, is that new var DOM or JQuery? If it's JQuery, how can I convert this to a DOM element? (Since I can't use get(0)) var $elemTd = $(this); When I do a assignment like the one above, I have seen some code samples not include the $ sign for the variable name. Why? And as for my original question, can I combine the DOM properties and JQuery functions at the same time on a JQuery object? $elemSel.children('td').nodeName

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• Converting Generic Type into reference type after checking its type using GetType(). How ?

  - by Shantanu Gupta

  i am trying to call a function that is defined in a class RFIDeas_Wrapper(dll being used). But when i checked for type of reader and after that i used it to call function it shows me error Cannot convert type T to RFIDeas_Wrapper. EDIT private List<string> GetTagCollection<T>(T Reader) { TagCollection = new List<string>(); if (Reader.GetType() == typeof(RFIDeas_Wrapper)) { ((RFIDeas_Wrapper)Reader).OpenDevice(); // here Reader is of type RFIDeas_Wrapper //, but i m not able to convert Reader into its datatype. string Tag_Id = ((RFIDeas_Wrapper)Reader).TagID(); //Adds Valid Tag Ids into the collection if(Tag_Id!="0") TagCollection.Add(Tag_Id); } else if (Reader.GetType() == typeof(AlienReader)) TagCollection = ((AlienReader)Reader).TagCollection; return TagCollection; } ((RFIDeas_Wrapper)Reader).OpenDevice(); , ((AlienReader)Reader).TagCollection; I want this line to be executed without any issue. As Reader will always be of the type i m specifying. How to make compiler understand the same thing.

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• Asp.net Web Site Administration Tool with SqlCeMembership

  - by Riderman de Sousa Barbosa

  I am developing an application in MVC 3. I installed this provider via Nuget . Basically, it allows to use any part of memberships, rules and profiles with a .sdf (compact) database. I need the "Web Site Administration Tool" use this provider. But I can not use it. Already checked the web.config and everything is ok. When I open the "Web Site Administration Tool" on the Security I click test (any provider) and the error happens. The following images. Error when clicking test "Could not establish a connection to the database. If you have not yet created the SQL Server database, exit the Web Site Administration tool, use the aspnet_regsql command-line utility to create and configure the database, and then return to this tool to set the provider." Here part of my web.config <authentication mode="Forms" /> <membership> <providers> <add connectionStringName="SqlCeServices" applicationName="/" enablePasswordRetrieval="false" enablePasswordReset="true" requiresQuestionAndAnswer="false" requiresUniqueEmail="true" passwordFormat="Hashed" writeExceptionsToEventLog="false" name="SqlCeMembershipProvider" type="ErikEJ.SqlCeMembershipProvider, ErikEJ.SqlCeMembership" /> </providers> </membership> <profile enabled="false"> <providers> <clear /> <add name="SqlCeProfileProvider" type="ErikEJ.SqlCeProfileProvider" connectionStringName="SqlCeServices" applicationName="/" /> </providers> </profile> <roleManager> <providers> <add connectionStringName="SqlCeServices" applicationName="/" writeExceptionsToEventLog="false" name="SqlCeRoleProvider" type="ErikEJ.SqlCeRoleProvider, ErikEJ.SqlCeMembership" /> </providers> </roleManager> <connectionStrings> <add name="SqlCeServices" connectionString="data source=|DataDirectory|\SqlCeAspnetdb.sdf" /> </connectionStrings>

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• why doesn't IE8 refresh textbox right away?(Jquery)

  - by AndrewSmith

  I have 3 radio buttons and one textbox in my page. These 3 radio controls represent corresponding choice and among them, the third one enables textbox that is disabled by default. If user clicks any one from the first twos after clicking the third, the textbox will be emptied(if user input any) and disabled again. The problem is, in IE, the textbox isn't emptied not until I click back once again on the said textbox. I've used jquery val methods as well as attr but nothing seems to work. You can see my code as follows. The very same code works just fine in Mozilla. I'm not sure why IE is having problem. m.bind_eventform = function(){ $('input[name=poster]').change(function(){ if($('input[name=poster]:checked').val()==2) $('#poster_other').removeAttr('disabled'); else if(!($('#poster_other').is(':disabled'))) { $('#poster_other').attr('disabled','disabled'); $('#poster_other').attr('value',''); //this one doesn't work $('#poster_other').val(''); //as well as this one } }); }; $(document).ready(m.bind_eventform);

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• java GC periodically enters into several full GC cycles

  - by Peter

  Environment: sun JDK 1.6.0_16 vm settings: -XX:+DisableExplicitGC -XX:+UseConcMarkSweepGC -Xms1024 -Xmx1024M -XX:MaxNewSize=448m -XX:NewSize=448m -XX:SurvivorRatio=4(6 also checked) -XX:MaxPermSize=128M OS: windows server 2003 processor: 4 cores of INTEL XEON 5130, 2000 Hz my application description: high intensity of concurrent(java 5 concurrency used) operations completed each time by commit to oracle. it's about 20-30 threads run non stop, doing tasks. application runs in JBOSS web container. My GC starts work normally, I see a lot of small GCs and all that time CPU shows good load, like all 4 cores loaded to 40-50%, CPU graph is stable. Then , after 1 min of good work, CPU starts drop to 0% on 2 cores from 4, it's graph becomes unstable, goes up and down("teeth"). I see, that my threads work slower(I have monitoring), I see that GC starts produce a lot of FULL GC during that time and next 4-5 minutes this situation remains as is, then for short period of time, like 1 minute, it gets back to normal situation, but shortly after that all bad thing repeats. Question: Why I have so frequent full GC??? How to prevent that? I played with SurvivorRatio - does not help. I noticed, that application behaves normally until first FULL GC occurs, while I have enough memory. Then it runs badly. my GC LOG: starts good then long period of FULL GCs(many of them) 1027.861: [GC 942200K-623526K(991232K), 0.0887588 secs] 1029.333: [GC 803279K(991232K), 0.0927470 secs] 1030.551: [GC 967485K-625549K(991232K), 0.0823024 secs] 1030.634: [GC 625957K(991232K), 0.0763656 secs] 1033.126: [GC 969613K-632963K(991232K), 0.0850611 secs] 1033.281: [GC 649899K(991232K), 0.0378358 secs] 1035.910: [GC 813948K(991232K), 0.3540375 secs] 1037.994: [GC 967729K-637198K(991232K), 0.0826042 secs] 1038.435: [GC 710309K(991232K), 0.1370703 secs] 1039.665: [GC 980494K-972462K(991232K), 0.6398589 secs] 1040.306: [Full GC 972462K-619643K(991232K), 3.7780597 secs] 1044.093: [GC 620103K(991232K), 0.0695221 secs] 1047.870: [Full GC 991231K-626514K(991232K), 3.8732457 secs] 1053.739: [GC 942140K(991232K), 0.5410483 secs] 1056.343: [Full GC 991232K-634157K(991232K), 3.9071443 secs] 1061.257: [GC 786274K(991232K), 0.3106603 secs] 1065.229: [Full GC 991232K-641617K(991232K), 3.9565638 secs] 1071.192: [GC 945999K(991232K), 0.5401515 secs] 1073.793: [Full GC 991231K-648045K(991232K), 3.9627814 secs] 1079.754: [GC 936641K(991232K), 0.5321197 secs]

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• Can't send smtp email from network using C#, asp.net website

  - by Kaysar

  Hi, I have my code here, it works fine from my home, where my user is administrator, and I am connected to internet via a cable network. But, problem is when I try this code from my work place, it does not work. Shows error: "unable to connect to the remote server" From a different machine in the same network: "A socket operation was attempted to an unreachable network 209.xxx.xx.52:25" I checked with our network admin, and he assured me that all the mail ports are open [25,110, and other ports for gmail]. Then, I logged in with administrative privilege, there was a little improvement, it did not show any error, but the actual email was never received. Please note that, the code was tested from development environment, visual studio 2005 and 2008. Any suggestion will be much appreciated. Thanks in advance try { MailMessage mail_message = new MailMessage("[email protected]", txtToEmail.Text, txtSubject.Text, txtBody.Text); SmtpClient mail_client = new SmtpClient("SMTP.y7mail.com"); NetworkCredential Authentic = new NetworkCredential("[email protected]", "xxxxx"); mail_client.UseDefaultCredentials = true; mail_client.Credentials = Authentic; mail_message.IsBodyHtml = true; mail_message.Priority = MailPriority.High; try { mail_client.Send(mail_message); lblStatus.Text = "Mail Sent Successfully"; } catch (Exception ex) { System.Diagnostics.Debug.WriteLine(ex.Message); lblStatus.Text = "Mail Sending Failed\r\n" + ex.Message; } } catch (Exception ex) { lblStatus.Text = "Mail Sending Failed\r\n" + ex.Message; }

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• Webforms vs. MVC. Once you start using MVC.. Do you ever go back to webforms?

  - by punkouter

  I checked out MVC months ago and didn't really get it.. but recently as I have become a better programmer I think it is making sense.. Here is my theory.. tell me if I got it Right In the 90s for Microsoft Devs we had Classic ASP. This mixed VBscript and HTML on the same page. So you needed to create all the HTML yourself and mix HTML and VBScript. This was not considered Ideal. Then .NET came along and everyone liked it because it was similiar to event driven VB 6 style programming. It created this abstraction of binding data to ASP Servier controls. It made getting Enumerated data easy to get on the screen with one line. Then recently Jquery and SOA concepts are mixed together.. Now people think.. Why create this extra layer of abstraction when I can just directly use .NET as a data provider and use jquery AJAX calls to get the data and create the HTML with it directly .. no need for the Webforms abstraction layer.. Sowe are back to creating HTML directly like we did in 1999. So MVC is all about saying Stop pretending like WEb programming is a VB6 app! Generate HTML directly! Am I missing anything? So I wonder.. for you people out there using MVC... is it the sort of things that once you get used to it you never want to go back to webforms??

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• Casting to specify unknown object type?

  - by fuzzygoat

  In the following code I have a view object that is an instance of UIScrollView, if I run the code below I get warnings saying that "UIView might not respond to -setContentSize etc." UIImage *image = [UIImage imageNamed:@"Snowy_UK.jpg"]; imageView = [[UIImageView alloc] initWithImage:image]; [[self view] addSubview:imageView]; [[self view] setContentSize:[image size]]; [[self view] setMaximumZoomScale:2.0]; [[self view] setMinimumZoomScale: [[self view] bounds].size.width / [image size].width]; I have checked the type of the object and [self view] is indeed a UIScrollView. I am guessing that this is just the compiler making a bad guess as to the type and the solution is simply to cast the object to the correct type manually, am I getting this right? UIScrollView *scrollView = (UIScrollView *)[self view]; UIImage *image = [UIImage imageNamed:@"Snowy_UK.jpg"]; imageView = [[UIImageView alloc] initWithImage:image]; [[self view] addSubview:imageView]; [scrollView setContentSize:[image size]]; [scrollView setMaximumZoomScale:2.0]; [scrollView setMinimumZoomScale: [scrollView bounds].size.width / [image size].width]; cheers Gary.

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• Prevent two users from editing the same data

  - by Industrial

  Hi everyone, I have seen a feature in different web applications including Wordpress (not sure?) that warns a user if he/she opens an article/post/page/whatever from the database, while someone else is editing the same data simultaneously. I would like to implement the same feature in my own application and I have given this a bit of thought. Is the following example a good practice on how to do this? It goes a little something like this: 1) User A enters a the editing page for the mysterious article X. The database tableEvents is queried to make sure that no one else is editing the same page for the moment, which no one is by then. A token is then randomly being generated and is inserted into a database table called Events. 1) User B also want's to make updates to the article X. Now since our User A already is editing the article, the Events table is queried and looks like this: | timestamp | owner | Origin | token | ------------------------------------------------------------ | 1273226321 | User A | article-x | uniqueid## | 2) The timestamp is being checked. If it's valid and less than say 100 seconds old, a message appears and the user cannot make any changes to the requested article X: Warning: User A is currently working with this article. In the meantime, editing cannot be done. Please do something else with your life. 3) If User A decides to go on and save his changes, the token is posted along with all other data to update the database, and toggles a query to delete the row with token uniqueid##. If he decides to do something else instead of committing his changes, the article X will still be available for editing in 100 seconds for User B Let me know what you think about this approach! Wish everyone a great weekend!

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• New projects not built when target platform is set explicitly

  - by stiank81

  I create a new solution with one project, and then change the target platform from "Any CPU" to "x86". After this new projects added doesn't get built by default, and their target platform doesn't follow the global settings. Why?! Looking at the configuration manager new projects added are not checked to "Build", and they get target platform "Any CPU" instead of the globally set x86. Why is this happening? I expect new projects too to get the globally set and defined x86 target platform.. Some things I've tried: Toggle global platform back to Any CPU, and then to x86 again. No change.. Choosing platform explicitly for the new project. x86 is not available in the list, and when I say <New..> and try adding it I'm not allowed as ".. a solution platform with the same name already exists.". On the build properties for the new project I can't change the platform in the Configuration section, but I can set "Platform target" to x86 in the General section. It is however not clear whether this actually makes a difference, and it wouldn't respond if I change the target platform globally later. Initially I thought this was a problem from converting my solution from VS2008 to VS2010, but the problem applies both places. I.e. when I create a solution in VS2008 and just stay in VS2008 I still get the problem.

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• How to build a Django form which requires a delay to be re-submitted ?

  - by pierre-guillaume-degans

  Hey, In order to avoid spamming, I would like to add a waiting time to re-submit a form (i.e. the user should wait a few seconds to submit the form, except the first time that this form is submitted). To do that, I added a timestamp to my form (and a security_hash field containing the timestamp plus the settings.SECRET_KEY which ensures that the timestamp is not fiddled with). This look like: class MyForm(forms.Form): timestamp = forms.IntegerField(widget=forms.HiddenInput) security_hash = forms.CharField(min_length=40, max_length=40, widget=forms.HiddenInput) # + some other fields.. # + methods to build the hash and to clean the timestamp... # (it is based on django.contrib.comments.forms.CommentSecurityForm) def clean_timestamp(self): """Make sure the delay is over (5 seconds).""" ts = self.cleaned_data["timestamp"] if not time.time() - ts > 5: raise forms.ValidationError("Timestamp check failed") return ts # etc... This works fine. However there is still an issue: the timestamp is checked the first time the form is submitted by the user, and I need to avoid this. Any idea to fix it ? Thank you ! :-)

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