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  • Is this a good way to do a game loop for an iPhone game?

    - by Danny Tuppeny
    Hi all, I'm new to iPhone dev, but trying to build a 2D game. I was following a book, but the game loop it created basically said: function gameLoop update() render() sleep(1/30th second) gameLoop The reasoning was that this would run at 30fps. However, this seemed a little mental, because if my frame took 1/30th second, then it would run at 15fps (since it'll spend as much time sleeping as updating). So, I did some digging and found the CADisplayLink class which would sync calls to my gameLoop function to the refresh rate (or a fraction of it). I can't find many samples of it, so I'm posting here for a code review :-) It seems to work as expected, and it includes passing the elapsed (frame) time into the Update method so my logic can be framerate-independant (however I can't actually find in the docs what CADisplayLink would do if my frame took more than its allowed time to run - I'm hoping it just does its best to catch up, and doesn't crash!). // // GameAppDelegate.m // // Created by Danny Tuppeny on 10/03/2010. // Copyright Danny Tuppeny 2010. All rights reserved. // #import "GameAppDelegate.h" #import "GameViewController.h" #import "GameStates/gsSplash.h" @implementation GameAppDelegate @synthesize window; @synthesize viewController; - (void) applicationDidFinishLaunching:(UIApplication *)application { // Create an instance of the first GameState (Splash Screen) [self doStateChange:[gsSplash class]]; // Set up the game loop displayLink = [CADisplayLink displayLinkWithTarget:self selector:@selector(gameLoop)]; [displayLink setFrameInterval:2]; [displayLink addToRunLoop:[NSRunLoop currentRunLoop] forMode:NSDefaultRunLoopMode]; } - (void) gameLoop { // Calculate how long has passed since the previous frame CFTimeInterval currentFrameTime = [displayLink timestamp]; CFTimeInterval elapsed = 0; // For the first frame, we want to pass 0 (since we haven't elapsed any time), so only // calculate this in the case where we're not the first frame if (lastFrameTime != 0) { elapsed = currentFrameTime - lastFrameTime; } // Keep track of this frames time (so we can calculate this next time) lastFrameTime = currentFrameTime; NSLog([NSString stringWithFormat:@"%f", elapsed]); // Call update, passing the elapsed time in [((GameState*)viewController.view) Update:elapsed]; } - (void) doStateChange:(Class)state { // Remove the previous GameState if (viewController.view != nil) { [viewController.view removeFromSuperview]; [viewController.view release]; } // Create the new GameState viewController.view = [[state alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectMake(0, 0, IPHONE_WIDTH, IPHONE_HEIGHT) andManager:self]; // Now set as visible [window addSubview:viewController.view]; [window makeKeyAndVisible]; } - (void) dealloc { [viewController release]; [window release]; [super dealloc]; } @end Any feedback would be appreciated :-) PS. Bonus points if you can tell me why all the books use "viewController.view" but for everything else seem to use "[object name]" format. Why not [viewController view]?

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  • Is there an algorithm for converting quaternion rotations to Euler angle rotations?

    - by Will Baker
    Is there an existing algorithm for converting a quaternion representation of a rotation to an Euler angle representation? The rotation order for the Euler representation is known and can be any of the six permutations (i.e. xyz, xzy, yxz, yzx, zxy, zyx). I've seen algorithms for a fixed rotation order (usually the NASA heading, bank, roll convention) but not for arbitrary rotation order. Furthermore, because there are multiple Euler angle representations of a single orientation, this result is going to be ambiguous. This is acceptable (because the orientation is still valid, it just may not be the one the user is expecting to see), however it would be even better if there was an algorithm which took rotation limits (i.e. the number of degrees of freedom and the limits on each degree of freedom) into account and yielded the 'most sensible' Euler representation given those constraints. I have a feeling this problem (or something similar) may exist in the IK or rigid body dynamics domains. Solved: I just realised that it might not be clear that I solved this problem by following Ken Shoemake's algorithms from Graphics Gems. I did answer my own question at the time, but it occurs to me it may not be clear that I did so. See the answer, below, for more detail. Just to clarify - I know how to convert from a quaternion to the so-called 'Tait-Bryan' representation - what I was calling the 'NASA' convention. This is a rotation order (assuming the convention that the 'Z' axis is up) of zxy. I need an algorithm for all rotation orders. Possibly the solution, then, is to take the zxy order conversion and derive from it five other conversions for the other rotation orders. I guess I was hoping there was a more 'overarching' solution. In any case, I am surprised that I haven't been able to find existing solutions out there. In addition, and this perhaps should be a separate question altogether, any conversion (assuming a known rotation order, of course) is going to select one Euler representation, but there are in fact many. For example, given a rotation order of yxz, the two representations (0,0,180) and (180,180,0) are equivalent (and would yield the same quaternion). Is there a way to constrain the solution using limits on the degrees of freedom? Like you do in IK and rigid body dynamics? i.e. in the example above if there were only one degree of freedom about the Z axis then the second representation can be disregarded. I have tracked down one paper which could be an algorithm in this pdf but I must confess I find the logic and math a little hard to follow. Surely there are other solutions out there? Is arbitrary rotation order really so rare? Surely every major 3D package that allows skeletal animation together with quaternion interpolation (i.e. Maya, Max, Blender, etc) must have solved exactly this problem?

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  • DataTable identity column not set after DataAdapter.Update/Refresh on table with "instead of"-trigge

    - by Arno
    Within our unit tests we use plain ADO.NET (DataTable, DataAdapter) for preparing the database resp. checking the results, while the tested components themselves run under NHibernate 2.1. .NET version is 3.5, SqlServer version is 2005. The database tables have identity columns as primary keys. Some tables apply instead-of-insert/update triggers (this is due to backward compatibility, nothing I can change). The triggers generally work like this: create trigger dbo.emp_insert on dbo.emp instead of insert as begin set nocount on insert into emp ... select @@identity end The insert statement issued by the ADO.NET DataAdapter (generated on-the-fly by a thin ADO.NET wrapper) tries to retrieve the identity value back into the DataRow: exec sp_executesql N' insert into emp (...) values (...); select id, ... from emp where id = @@identity ' But the DataRow's id-Column is still 0. When I remove the trigger temporarily, it works fine - the id-Column then holds the identity value set by the database. NHibernate on the other hand uses this kind of insert statement: exec sp_executesql N' insert into emp (...) values (...); select scope_identity() ' This works, the NHibernate POCO has its id property correctly set right after flushing. Which seems a little bit counter-intuitive to me, as I expected the trigger to run in a different scope, hence @@identity should be a better fit than scope_identity(). So I thought no problem, I will apply scope_identity() instead of @@identity under ADO.NET as well. But this has no effect, the DataRow value is still not updated accordingly. And now for the best part: When I copy and paste those two statements from SqlServer profiler into a Management Studio query (that is including "exec sp_executesql"), and run them there, the results seem to be inverse! There the ADO.NET version works, and the NHibernate version doesn't (select scope_identity() returns null). I tried several times to verify, but to no avail. Of course this just shows the resultset coming from the database, whatever happens inside NHibernate and ADO.NET is another topic. Also, several session properties defined by T-SQL SET are different in the two scenarios (Management Studio query vs. application at runtime) This is a real puzzle to me. I would be happy about any insights on that. Thank you!

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  • Streaming Video with Blackberry Simulator

    - by Jenny
    So, I wrote a quick little app for the iphone that takes in an http URL, and plays the .mp4 video located at that URL (it does more than that, of course, but that's the meat of it). Naturally, I wanted to have it on more than just a single mobile platform, so I decided to target Blackberry next. However, I'm running into a lot of problems with the Blackberry Environment. First of all, I learn that I can only download 256k files! I learn how to set that variable in my MDS simulator (and learn that this is NOT a production solution, because any end users will have to have their BES or MDS admin change the setting there). Then, I find a video less than 2 MB I can practice with. Going to the browser prompts me to save the video (rather than it playing in the browser like I expected). After saving the video, it refuses to play, saying it's the wrong format. So. I can't find a reference to IF Blackberry can stream with HTTP (i"ve heard it CAN use RTSP, though, and heard some rumors that it can't use HTTP, which would really suck). I also can't find a reference to what format blackberry uses (although I can find a million programs that will convert one file to the 'blackberry' format). Surely SOMEONE must have tried to stream video with the blackberry before. How did they go about doing so? Is it just a hopeless pipedream? Will I have to go with RTSP? Sorry for the lack of a concrete question...I'm just really lost, and I hate how so many tutorials or forum posts seem to assume I know the capabilities of the Blackberry... Edit: I finally found out that the .3gp (which I'd never heard of ) format is what Blackberry uses. Still have no idea how to stream videos off the web, though. I found a tutorial: http://www.blackberry.com/knowledgecenterpublic/livelink.exe/fetch/2000/348583/800332/1089414/How%5FTo%5F-%5FPlay%5Fvideo%5Fwithin%5Fa%5FBlackBerry%5Fsmartphone%5Fapplication.html?nodeid=1383173&vernum=0 That seemed to be useful, but the code doesn't work if you give it a URL (even though it claims it does).

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  • Tridion Installation

    - by Kevin Brydon
    I am currently upgrading an installation of Tridion from 5.3 to 2011 starting almost from scratch (aside from migrating the database), brand new virtual servers. I just want to ask for some advice on my current server setup... a sanity check. All servers are running Windows Server 2008. The pages on our website are all classic ASP. Database SQL Server cluster. The 5.3 database has been migrated using the DatabaseManager. This is pretty standard and works well (in test anyway). Content Manager A single server to run the Content Manager and the Publisher. There are around 10 people using it at any one time so not under a particularly heavy load. Content Data Store Filesystem located somewhere on the network. One directory for live and one for staging. Content Delivery Two servers (cd1 and cd2) each with the the following server roles installed. cd1 writes to a filesystem content data store for the live website, cd2 writes to the content data store for the staging website. Presentation Two public facing web servers (web1 and web2) serving both the live and staging websites. The web servers read directly from the content data store as its a filesystem. Each of the web servers have the Content Delivery Server installed so that I can use dynamic linking (and other features?). I've so far set up everything but the web servers. Any thoughts? edit Thanks to Ram S who linked me to a decent walkthrough, upvoted. I suppose I should have posed some questions as I didn't really ask a question. I guess I'm a little confused over the content deliver aspect. I have the Content Delivery split in two separate parts. cd1 and cd2 do the work of shifting information from the Content Manager to the Staging/Live web directories. web1 and web2 should do the work of serving the web pages to the outside world and will interact with the content data store (file system). Is this a correct setup? I need some parts of the Content Delivery on my web servers right? Theoretically I could get rid of the cd1 and cd2 servers and use web1 and web2 to do the deployment right? But I suspect this will put the web servers under unnecessary strain should there ever be a big publish. I've been reading the 2011 Installation Manual, Content Delivery section, and I'm finding it quite hard to get my head around!

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  • Lawler's Algorithm Implementation Assistance

    - by Richard Knop
    Here is my implemenation of Lawler's algorithm in PHP (I know... but I'm used to it): <?php $jobs = array(1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6); $jobsSubset = array(2, 5, 6); $n = count($jobs); $processingTimes = array(2, 3, 4, 3, 2, 1); $dueDates = array(3, 15, 9, 7, 11, 20); $optimalSchedule = array(); foreach ($jobs as $j) { $optimalSchedule[] = 0; } $dicreasedCardinality = array(); for ($i = $n; $i >= 1; $i--) { $x = 0; $max = 0; // loop through all jobs for ($j = 0; $j < $i; $j++) { // ignore if $j already is in the $dicreasedCardinality array if (false === in_array($j, $dicreasedCardinality)) { // if the job has no succesor in $jobsSubset if (false === isset($jobs[$j+1]) || false === in_array($jobs[$j+1], $jobsSubset)) { // here I find an array index of a job with the maximum due date // amongst jobs with no sucessor in $jobsSubset if ($x < $dueDates[$j]) { $x = $dueDates[$j]; $max = $j; } } } } // move the job at the end of $optimalSchedule $optimalSchedule[$i-1] = $jobs[$max]; // decrease the cardinality of $jobs $dicreasedCardinality[] = $max; } print_r($optimalSchedule); Now the above returns an optimal schedule like this: Array ( [0] => 1 [1] => 1 [2] => 1 [3] => 3 [4] => 2 [5] => 6 ) Which doesn't seem right to me. The problem might be with my implementation of the algorithm because I am not sure I understand it correctly. I used this source to implement it: http://www.google.com/books?id=aSiBs6PDm9AC&pg=PA166&dq=lawler%27s+algorithm+code&lr=&hl=sk&cd=4#v=onepage&q=&f=false The description there is a little confusing. For example, I didn't quite get how is the subset D defined (I guess it is arbitrary). Could anyone help me out with this? I have been trying to find some sources with simpler explanation of the algorithm but all sources I found were even more complicated (with math proofs and such) so I am stuck with the link above. Yes, this is a homework, if it wasn't obvious. I still have few weeks to crack this but I have spent few days already trying to get how exactly this algorithm works with no success so I don't think I will get any brighter during that time.

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  • Dojo Table not Rendering in IE6

    - by Mike Carey
    I'm trying to use Dojo (1.3) checkBoxes to make columns appear/hide in a Dojo Grid that's displayed below the checkBoxes. I got that functionality to work fine, but I wanted to organize my checkBoxes a little better. So I tried putting them in a table. My dojo.addOnLoad function looks like this: dojo.addOnLoad(function(){ var checkBoxes = []; var container = dojo.byId('checkBoxContainer'); var table = dojo.doc.createElement("table"); var row1= dojo.doc.createElement("tr"); var row2= dojo.doc.createElement("tr"); var row3= dojo.doc.createElement("tr"); dojo.forEach(grid.layout.cells, function(cell, index){ //Add a new "td" element to one of the three rows }); dojo.place(addRow, table); dojo.place(removeRow, table); dojo.place(findReplaceRow, table); dojo.place(table, container); }); What's frustrating is: 1) Using the Dojo debugger I can see that the HTML is being properly generated for the table. 2) I can take that HTML and put just the table in an empty HTML file and it renders the checkBoxes in the table just fine. 3) The page renders correctly in Firefox, just not IE6. The HTML that is being generated looks like so: <div id="checkBoxContainer"> <table> <tr> <td> <div class="dijitReset dijitInline dijitCheckBox" role="presentation" widgetid="dijit_form_CheckBox_0" wairole="presentation"> <input class="dijitReset dijitCheckBoxInput" id="dijit_form_CheckBox_0" tabindex="0" type="checkbox" name="" dojoattachevent= "onmouseover:_onMouse,onmouseout:_onMouse,onclick:_onClick" dojoattachpoint="focusNode" unselectable="on" aria-pressed="false"/> </div> <label for="dijit_form_CheckBox_0"> Column 1 </label> </td> <td> <div class="dijitReset dijitInline dijitCheckBox" role="presentation" widgetid="dijit_form_CheckBox_1" wairole="presentation"> <input class="dijitReset dijitCheckBoxInput" id="dijit_form_CheckBox_1" tabindex="0" type="checkbox" name="" dojoattachevent= "onmouseover:_onMouse,onmouseout:_onMouse,onclick:_onClick" dojoattachpoint="focusNode" unselectable="on" aria-pressed="false"/> </div> </td> </tr> <tr> ... </tr> </table> </div> I would have posted to the official DOJO forums, but it says they're deprecated and they're using a mailing list now. They said if a mailing list doesn't work for you, use stackoverflos.com. So, here I am! Thanks for any insight you can provide.

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  • How to avoid using duplicate savepoint names in nested transactions in nested stored procs?

    - by Gary McGill
    I have a pattern that I almost always follow, where if I need to wrap up an operation in a transaction, I do this: BEGIN TRANSACTION SAVE TRANSACTION TX -- Stuff IF @error <> 0 ROLLBACK TRANSACTION TX COMMIT TRANSACTION That's served me well enough in the past, but after years of using this pattern (and copy-pasting the above code), I've suddenly discovered a flaw which comes as a complete shock. Quite often, I'll have a stored procedure calling other stored procedures, all of which use this same pattern. What I've discovered (to my cost) is that because I'm using the same savepoint name everywhere, I can get into a situation where my outer transaction is partially committed - precisely the opposite of the atomicity that I'm trying to achieve. I've put together an example that exhibits the problem. This is a single batch (no nested stored procs), and so it looks a little odd in that you probably wouldn't use the same savepoint name twice in the same batch, but my real-world scenario would be too confusing to post. CREATE TABLE Test (test INTEGER NOT NULL) BEGIN TRAN SAVE TRAN TX BEGIN TRAN SAVE TRAN TX INSERT INTO Test(test) VALUES (1) COMMIT TRAN TX BEGIN TRAN SAVE TRAN TX INSERT INTO Test(test) VALUES (2) COMMIT TRAN TX DELETE FROM Test ROLLBACK TRAN TX COMMIT TRAN TX SELECT * FROM Test DROP TABLE Test When I execute this, it lists one record, with value "1". In other words, even though I rolled back my outer transaction, a record was added to the table. What's happening is that the ROLLBACK TRANSACTION TX at the outer level is rolling back as far as the last SAVE TRANSACTION TX at the inner level. Now that I write this all out, I can see the logic behind it: the server is looking back through the log file, treating it as a linear stream of transactions; it doesn't understand the nesting/hierarchy implied by either the nesting of the transactions (or, in my real-world scenario, by the calls to other stored procedures). So, clearly, I need to start using unique savepoint names instead of blindly using "TX" everywhere. But - and this is where I finally get to the point - is there a way to do this in a copy-pastable way so that I can still use the same code everywhere? Can I auto-generate the savepoint name on the fly somehow? Is there a convention or best-practice for doing this sort of thing? It's not exactly hard to come up with a unique name every time you start a transaction (could base it off the SP name, or somesuch), but I do worry that eventually there would be a conflict - and you wouldn't know about it because rather than causing an error it just silently destroys your data... :-(

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  • Asynchronous sockets in C#

    - by IVlad
    I'm confused about the correct way of using asynchronous socket methods in C#. I will refer to these two articles to explain things and ask my questions: MSDN article on asynchronous client sockets and devarticles.com article on socket programming. My question is about the BeginReceive() method. The MSDN article uses these two functions to handle receiving data: private static void Receive(Socket client) { try { // Create the state object. StateObject state = new StateObject(); state.workSocket = client; // Begin receiving the data from the remote device. client.BeginReceive( state.buffer, 0, StateObject.BufferSize, 0, new AsyncCallback(ReceiveCallback), state); } catch (Exception e) { Console.WriteLine(e.ToString()); } } private static void ReceiveCallback( IAsyncResult ar ) { try { // Retrieve the state object and the client socket // from the asynchronous state object. StateObject state = (StateObject) ar.AsyncState; Socket client = state.workSocket; // Read data from the remote device. int bytesRead = client.EndReceive(ar); if (bytesRead > 0) { // There might be more data, so store the data received so far. state.sb.Append(Encoding.ASCII.GetString(state.buffer,0,bytesRead)); // Get the rest of the data. client.BeginReceive(state.buffer,0,StateObject.BufferSize,0, new AsyncCallback(ReceiveCallback), state); } else { // All the data has arrived; put it in response. if (state.sb.Length > 1) { response = state.sb.ToString(); } // Signal that all bytes have been received. receiveDone.Set(); } } catch (Exception e) { Console.WriteLine(e.ToString()); } } While the devarticles.com tutorial passes null for the last parameter of the BeginReceive method, and goes on to explain that the last parameter is useful when we're dealing with multiple sockets. Now my questions are: What is the point of passing a state to the BeginReceive method if we're only working with a single socket? Is it to avoid using a class field? It seems like there's little point in doing it, but maybe I'm missing something. How can the state parameter help when dealing with multiple sockets? If I'm calling client.BeginReceive(...), won't all the data be read from the client socket? The devarticles.com tutorial makes it sound like in this call: m_asynResult = m_socClient.BeginReceive (theSocPkt.dataBuffer,0,theSocPkt.dataBuffer.Length, SocketFlags.None,pfnCallBack,theSocPkt); Data will be read from the theSocPkt.thisSocket socket, instead of from the m_socClient socket. In their example the two are one and the same, but what happens if that is not the case? I just don't really see where that last argument is useful or at least how it helps with multiple sockets. If I have multiple sockets, I still need to call BeginReceive on each of them, right?

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  • Problem adding subviews (UIButtons) to subclass of UIImageView

    - by samfu_1
    I'm adding a custom button/keypad to my application. Thus far, I have a UIImageView subclass that contains an animation that slides it from the bottom of the screen, and then back down when the user no longer needs it. I'm having trouble adding UIButtons to this UIImageView, however. Since this is a subclass of UIView, I'm attempting to add buttons to my view via the initWithFrame: method. (slideDown method is the added animation) in my UIImageView Subclass, I have a UIButton ivar object added: -(id)initWithFrame:(CGRect)frame { if (self = [super initWithFrame: frame]) { UIButton *button = [UIButton buttonWithType: UIButtonTypeRoundedRect]; button.frame = CGRectMake(16.0, 20.0, 50.0, 50.0); [button setTitle: @"Go" forState: UIControlStateNormal]; [button addTarget: self action: @selector(slideDown) forControlEvents: UIControlEventTouchUpInside]; self.button1 = button; [self addSubview: button1]; NSLog(@"Button added"); } return self; } In my view controller, I instantiate my UIIMageView Subclass in the -(void)viewDidLoad: method as follows: -(void)viewDidLoad { //other objects init'ed ButtonPad *customPad = [[ButtonPad alloc] initWithImage: [UIImage imageNamed: @"ButtonPad.png"]]; customPad.frame = CGRectMake(0.0, 480.0, 320.0, 300.0); self.buttonPad = customPad; [self.view addSubview: buttonPad]; [customPad release]; [super viewDidLoad]; } My current app allows the view to slide up and down off of the screen without any problems. However, the button never appears. I have also tried adding the button to my buttonPad object by instantiating & adding it as a subView to the buttonPad in my view controller file. This worked... but it didn't allow the button to function. I am wondering: A.) Is it appropriate to add buttons or any subview for that matter to the UIView initWithFrame: method or should I be adding these subviews as a subview to my buttonPad in the view Controller file? B.) Since I am creating a custom button/keypad, am i following a valid approach by using a normal UIViewController or should I be using something like a modal view Controller? ( I have little knowledge about these.)

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  • How to improve compare of item in sorted List<MyItem> with item before and after current item?

    - by Oliver
    Does anyone know about a good way to accomplish this task? Currently i'm doing it more ore less this way, but i'm feeling someway unhappy with this code, unable to say what i could immediately improve. So if anyone has a smarter way of doing this job i would be happy to know. private bool Check(List<MyItem> list) { bool result = true; //MyItem implements IComparable<MyItem> list.Sort(); for (int pos = 0; pos < list.Count - 1; pos++) { bool previousCheckOk = true; if (pos != 0) { if (!CheckCollisionWithPrevious(pos)) { MarkAsFailed(pos); result = false; previousCheckOk = false; } else { MarkAsGood(pos); } } if (previousCheckOk && pos != list.Count - 1) { if (!CheckCollisionWithFollowing(pos)) { MarkAsFailed(pos); result = false; } else { MarkAsGood(pos); } } } return result; } private bool CheckCollisionWithPrevious(int pos) { bool checkOk = false; var previousItem = _Item[pos - 1]; // Doing some checks ... return checkOk; } private bool CheckCollisionWithFollowing(int pos) { bool checkOk = false; var followingItem = _Item[pos + 1]; // Doing some checks ... return checkOk; } Update After reading the answer from Aaronaught and a little weekend to refill full mind power i came up with the following solution, that looks far better now (and nearly the same i got from Aaronaught): public bool Check(DataGridView dataGridView) { bool result = true; _Items.Sort(); for (int pos = 1; pos < _Items.Count; pos++) { var previousItem = _Items[pos - 1]; var currentItem = _Items[pos]; if (previousItem.CollidesWith(currentItem)) { dataGridView.Rows[pos].ErrorText = "Offset collides with item named " + previousItem.Label; result = false; sb.AppendLine("Line " + pos); } } dataGridView.Refresh(); return result; }

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  • XML: Process large data

    - by Atmocreations
    Hello What XML-parser do you recommend for the following purpose: The XML-file (formatted, containing whitespaces) is around 800 MB. It mostly contains three types of tag (let's call them n, w and r). They have an attribute called id which i'd have to search for, as fast as possible. Removing attributes I don't need could save around 30%, maybe a bit more. First part for optimizing the second part: Is there any good tool (command line linux and windows if possible) to easily remove unused attributes in certain tags? I know that XSLT could be used. Or are there any easy alternatives? Also, I could split it into three files, one for each tag to gain speed for later parsing... Speed is not too important for this preparation of the data, of course it would be nice when it took rather minutes than hours. Second part: Once I have the data prepared, be it shortened or not, I should be able to search for the ID-attribute I was mentioning, this being time-critical. Estimations using wc -l tell me that there are around 3M N-tags and around 418K W-tags. The latter ones can contain up to approximately 20 subtags each. W-Tags also contain some, but they would be stripped away. "All I have to do" is navigating between tags containing certain id-attributes. Some tags have references to other id's, therefore giving me a tree, maybe even a graph. The original data is big (as mentioned), but the resultset shouldn't be too big as I only have to pick out certain elements. Now the question: What XML parsing library should I use for this kind of processing? I would use Java 6 in a first instance, with having in mind to be porting it to BlackBerry. Might it be useful to just create a flat file indexing the id's and pointing to an offset in the file? Is it even necessary to do the optimizations mentioned in the upper part? Or are there parser known to be quite as fast with the original data? Little note: To test, I took the id being on the very last line on the file and searching for the id using grep. This took around a minute on a Core 2 Duo. What happens if the file grows even bigger, let's say 5 GB? I appreciate any notice or recommendation. Thank you all very much in advance and regards

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  • Slow performance when utilizing Interop.DSOFile to search files by Custom Document Property

    - by Gradatc
    I am new to the world of VB.NET and have been tasked to put together a little program to search a directory of about 2000 Excel spreadsheets and put together a list to display based on the value of a Custom Document Property within that spreadsheet file. Given that I am far from a computer programmer by education or trade, this has been an adventure. I've gotten it to work, the results are fine. The problem is, it takes well over a minute to run. It is being run over a LAN connection. When I run it locally (using a 'test' directory of about 300 files) it executes in about 4 seconds. I'm not sure even what to expect as a reasonable execution speed, so I thought I would ask here. The code is below, if anyone thinks changes there might be of use in speeding things up. Thank you in advance! Private Sub listByPt() Dim di As New IO.DirectoryInfo(dir_loc) Dim aryFiles As IO.FileInfo() = di.GetFiles("*" & ext_to_check) Dim fi As IO.FileInfo Dim dso As DSOFile.OleDocumentProperties Dim sfilename As String Dim sheetInfo As Object Dim sfileCount As String Dim ifilesDone As Integer Dim errorList As New ArrayList() Dim ErrorFile As Object Dim ErrorMessage As String 'Initialize progress bar values ifilesDone = 0 sfileCount = di.GetFiles("*" & ext_to_check).Length Me.lblHighProgress.Text = sfileCount Me.lblLowProgress.Text = 0 With Me.progressMain .Maximum = di.GetFiles("*" & ext_to_check).Length .Minimum = 0 .Value = 0 End With 'Loop through all files in the search directory For Each fi In aryFiles dso = New DSOFile.OleDocumentProperties sfilename = fi.FullName Try dso.Open(sfilename, True) 'grab the PT Initials off of the logsheet Catch excep As Runtime.InteropServices.COMException errorList.Add(sfilename) End Try Try sheetInfo = dso.CustomProperties("PTNameChecker").Value Catch ex As Runtime.InteropServices.COMException sheetInfo = "NONE" End Try 'Check to see if the initials on the log sheet 'match those we are searching for If sheetInfo = lstInitials.SelectedValue Then Dim logsheet As New LogSheet logsheet.PTInitials = sheetInfo logsheet.FileName = sfilename PTFiles.Add(logsheet) End If 'update progress bar Me.progressMain.Increment(1) ifilesDone = ifilesDone + 1 lblLowProgress.Text = ifilesDone dso.Close() Next lstResults.Items.Clear() 'loop through results in the PTFiles list 'add results to the listbox, removing the path info For Each showsheet As LogSheet In PTFiles lstResults.Items.Add(Path.GetFileNameWithoutExtension(showsheet.FileName)) Next 'build error message to display to user ErrorMessage = "" For Each ErrorFile In errorList ErrorMessage += ErrorFile & vbCrLf Next MsgBox("The following Log Sheets were unable to be checked" _ & vbCrLf & ErrorMessage) PTFiles.Clear() 'empty PTFiles for next use End Sub

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  • CSS Background-Images Loading after HTML Images (Involves Javascript)

    - by Kevin C.
    I threw together a quick little microsite that you can see at http://monterraauction.com. If you don't have a super-fast connection (and nothing's cached), the very last items to load are the background-images that are used for CSS image-text replacement (primarily, that h1#head at the top, with a 7kb background image). Nothing debilitating, but it looks slightly awkward. And I'm asking this question as a matter of curiosity more than anything else ;) Also, please note that this occurs in Firefox, but not Chrome. Now, underneath the h1#head I have a jquery.cycle.lite-powered slideshow in div#photo. In the HTML markup there are a total of 13, heavy image files that make up each of the slides. If I remove all but the first slide, then the problem goes away! So the CSS background-images are loading after...those HTML images are done? But here's what's confusing: I check it out in YSlow...the CSS background-images have a much lower response time than all of the slides in #photo. Right after all the JS files finish loading, in fact. So why aren't they showing up first? I tried $('#photo img:last-child').load(function() { alert('Locked and Loaded!')});, but the background-images pop up a while before the alert does, so I'm assuming it's not waiting until the last slide has loaded (admittedly I'm a bit of JS noob so maybe I'm just making a wrong assumption). I also tried commenting out all the jquery.cycle.lite stuff, so that I knew I didn't have any JS manipulating the DOM elements in #photo, but that wasn't the problem. I tried putting all the JS at the bottom of the document, right before </body>, but that didn't work. Lastly, I tried turning off javascript, and of course the css background-image loads way before the images in #photo, so it's definitely a JS thing (amirite?) I guess the obvious solution here is to mark the slides up as LINKS rather than IMGs, and have Javascript insert those 12 extra slideshow images after the DOM is ready--users without javascript shouldn't need to download the extra images anyways. But again, I'm curious: Why does removing the extra HTML images from within #photo solve the problem? And why are the CSS background-images showing up after the HTML images have loaded, even though YSlow says the css background-images loaded first? Seeing as how it happens in FF but not Chrome, is it simply a browser issue? I appreciate any insight you guys could give me!

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  • jQuery DatePicker - How to highlight certain days every month?

    - by Sergio
    Hi I have a jquery datepicker which is renders the current date by default as a full calendar. Before this is rendered I get a list of days from the server via ajax of days that need to be highlighted for the current month. The code for this is as follows: $.get("Note/GetActionDates/?orgID=" + orgID + "&month=" + month +"&year=" + year, null, function(result) { RenderCalendar(result); }, "json"); function RenderCalendar(dates) { $("#actionCal").datepicker({ dateFormat: 'dd/mm/yy', beforeShowDay: function(thedate) { var theday = thedate.getDate(); if ($.inArray(theday, dates) == -1) { return [true, "", ""]; } else { return [true, "specialDate", "Actions Today"]; } } }); } This is all good, but I would like the highlighted dates to update when the user clicks to a different month. I can modify the jquery datepicker initialise code with the following code: onChangeMonthYear: function(year, month, inst) { //get new array of dates for that month $.get("Note/GetActionDates/?orgID=" + orgID + "&month=" + month + "&year=" + year, null, function(result) { RenderCalendar(result); }, "json"); } But this doesn't seem to work. Could anyone show me what I'm doing wrong? Thanks! :) UPDATE - Working Code Thanks for the help! I have tweaked the code from petersendidit as follows and it now works. Gonna add a little more code to remove duplicate dates from the dates array but aside from that its all good. $("#actionCal").datepicker({ dateFormat: 'dd/mm/yyyy', beforeShowDay: function(thedate) { var theday = thedate.getDate() + "/" + (thedate.getMonth() + 1) + "/" + thedate.getFullYear(); if ($.inArray(theday, actionCalDates) == -1) { return [true, "", ""]; } else { return [true, "specialDate", "Actions Today"]; } }, onChangeMonthYear: function(year, month, inst) { dateCount = 0; getDates(orgID, month, year); } }); function getDates(orgID, month, year) { dateCount += 1; if (dateCount < 4) { $.ajax({ url: "Note/GetActionDates/", data: { 'orgID': orgID, 'month': month, 'year': year }, type: "GET", dataType: "json", success: function(result) { actionCalDates = actionCalDates.concat(result); getDates(orgID, month + 1, year); getDates(orgID, month - 1, year); } }); } }

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  • Galleria jQuery plugin briefly shows all images in IE 7 & 8

    - by hollyb
    I'm using the galleria jQuery plugin on a site. When the gallery first loads, all of the images appear briefly & vertically in ie 7 & 8. This doesn't happen when i isolate the gallery, only when i put it on a somewhat heavy page. This leads me to believe that it happens when the page is a little slow to load. Does anybody know a way to fix this? I feel like an overflow: hidden should fix this, but I've applied it along with a height in every container I could think of. Anybody have any ideas? Here is my css: .galleria{list-style:none;width:350px; overflow:hidden; height: 70px;} .galleria li{display:block;width:50px;height:50px;overflow:hidden;float:left;margin:4px 10px 20px 0;} .galleria li a{display:none;} .galleria li div{position:absolute;display:none;top:0;left:180px;} .galleria li div img{cursor:pointer;} .galleria li.active div img,.galleria li.active div{display:block;} .galleria li img.thumb{cursor:pointer;top:auto;left:auto;display:block;width:auto;height:auto} .galleria li .caption{display: inline;padding-top:.5em; width: 300px; } * html .galleria li div span{width:350px;} /* MSIE bug */ html: <ul class="gallery"> <li class="active"><img src="1.jpg" cap="A great veiw by so and so. This is a long block of info.<br /><span style=color:#666;>Photo by: Billy D. Williams</span>" alt="Image01"></li> <li><img src="2.jpg" cap="A mountain <span style=color:#666;>Photo by: Billy D. Williams</span>" alt="Image01"></li> <li><img src="3.jpg" cap="Another witty caption <span style=color:#666;>Photo by: Billy D. Williams</span>" alt="Image01"></li> <li><img src="4.jpg" cap="<span style=color:#666;>Photo by: Billy D. Williams</span>" alt="Image01"></li> </ul>

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  • Prevent command window showing when NAnt compiling windows forms application

    - by HollyStyles
    I have been playing with creating little windows forms apps without visual studio. I create my source in Notepad++ and compile with a NAnt build file. When I run the application a command window is also displayed as well as the application window. How can I prevent the command window showing up? using System; using System.Drawing; using System.Windows.Forms; using System.Media; using System.IO; namespace mynamespace { class MyForm : Form { public Button btnPlay; MyForm() { this.SuspendLayout(); this.Text = "My Application"; InitialiseForm(); this.ResumeLayout(false); } private void InitialiseForm() { btnPlay = new Button(); btnPlay.Location = new System.Drawing.Point(30,40); btnPlay.Text = "Play"; btnPlay.Click += new System.EventHandler(btnPlay_Click); this.Controls.Add(btnPlay); } protected void btnPlay_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { string wav = "testing123.wav"; Stream resourceStream = System.Reflection.Assembly.GetExecutingAssembly().GetManifestResourceStream(wav); SoundPlayer player = new SoundPlayer(resourceStream); player.Play(); } public static void Main() { Application.Run(new MyForm()); } } } Build file <?xml version="1.0"?> <project name="myform" default="build" basedir="."> <description>My Form app</description> <property name="debug" value="true" overwrite="false"/> <target name="clean" description="Remove all generated files"> <delete dir="build"/> </target> <target name="build" description="Compile the source" depends="clean"> <mkdir dir="build"/> <csc target="exe" output="build\MyForm.exe" debug="${debug}" verbose="true"> <resources> <include name="app\resources\*.wav" /> </resources> <sources> <include name="app\MyForm.cs"/> </sources> </csc> </target> </project>

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  • How Do I Prevent Rails From Treating Updated Nested Attributes Differently From New Nested Attribute

    - by James
    I am using rails3 beta3 and couchdb via couchrest. I am not using active record. I want to add multiple "Sections" to a "Guide" and add and remove sections dynamically via a little javascript. I have looked at all the screencasts by Ryan Bates and they have helped immensely. The only difference is that I want to save all the sections as an array of sections instead of individual sections. Basically like this: "sections" => [{"title" => "Foo1", "content" => "Bar1"}, {"title" => "Foo2", "content" => "Bar2"}] So, basically I need the params hash to look like that when the form is submitted. When I create my form I am doing the following: <%= form_for @guide, :url => { :action => "create" } do |f| %> <%= render :partial => 'section', :collection => @guide.sections %> <%= f.submit "Save" %> <% end %> And my section partial looks like this: <%= fields_for "sections[]", section do |guide_section_form| %> <%= guide_section_form.text_field :section_title %> <%= guide_section_form.text_area :content, :rows => 3 %> <% end %> Ok, so when I create the guide with sections, it is working perfectly as I would like. The params hash is giving me a sections array just like I would want. The problem comes when I want edit guide/sections and save them again because rails is inserting the id of the guide in the id and name of each form field, which is screwing up the params hash on form submission. Just to be clear, here is the raw form output for a new resource: <input type="text" size="30" name="sections[][section_title]" id="sections__section_title"> <textarea rows="3" name="sections[][content]" id="sections__content" cols="40"></textarea> And here is what it looks like when editing an existing resource: <input type="text" value="Foo1" size="30" name="sections[cd2f2759895b5ae6cb7946def0b321f1][section_title]" id="sections_cd2f2759895b5ae6cb7946def0b321f1_section_title"> <textarea rows="3" name="sections[cd2f2759895b5ae6cb7946def0b321f1][content]" id="sections_cd2f2759895b5ae6cb7946def0b321f1_content" cols="40">Bar1</textarea> How do I force rails to always use the new resource behavior and not automatically add the id to the name and value. Do I have to create a custom form builder? Is there some other trick I can do to prevent rails from putting the id of the guide in there? I have tried a bunch of stuff and nothing is working. Thanks in advance!

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  • Where does the version number come from?

    - by Robert Schneider
    I have a version control system (e.g. Subversion) and now I'd like to set up a build process. Now I have to create a version number and insert it into the system. But where does the version number come from and get into? Assume I want to use this common <major.<minor.<bugfix/revision scheme. Should I pass a number to the build script? Or should I pass arguments like increaseMajor, increaseMinor, increaseRevision? Or would you recommend to create a branch with the number which will be detected by the build script? I could imagine that the major and minor version number have to be put in manually somewhere. The revision number could be increased automaically. But still I don't know where I would place the major and minor number. In my case I have some php files that I would like to zip, but before I have to insert some version numbers into php file. I have edited this post to try to make my request clearer: I do not use Subversion, that was just an example. And I don't want to discuss the version number scheme. Imagine I want to create version 3.5.0 or 3.5.1. Would I pass this version number to a build script? Would the script create the branch in the repository with this number or would it expect that someone has already created this branch? Manually? Or would the build script look for name of the branch (e.g. '3.5.1) and use it for further things? And does the version number come from my brain or is it automatically created (I guess the major/minor number it comes from my little brain and revision number is created)? Or would you place the number into a file that may gets inserted into the repository? I guess if would use a release management tool I would insert the version number there. But I don't use one yet.

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  • Drawing performance with CGImageCreateWithJPEGDataProvider?

    - by Rnegi
    I've actually curious about this for the iPhone. I am getting an MJPEG stream from a server and trying to render it natively on the iphone (without the use of safari class). Reasons for this is because the safari class while CAN render MJPEG natively, does not do so at the framerate I would like. So I tried drawing it natively, but I've come up with performance issues, namely a syncing issue between what I'm getting from the server and what I am able to draw onto the screen of the phone. (There should be a little lag, but the drift gets really bad, which is what I want to avoid). So I have a connection set up to my server and I do get the JPEGS. It's just data I insert into a NSMutableArray buffer CFMutableDataRef _t_data_ref = (CFMutableDataRef)[_buffer_array objectAtIndex:0]; //CGDataProviderRef imgDataProvider = CGDataProviderCreateWithCFData (_cf_buffer_data); CGDataProviderRef imgDataProvider = CGDataProviderCreateWithCFData(_t_data_ref); CGImageRef image = CGImageCreateWithJPEGDataProvider(imgDataProvider, NULL, true, kCGRenderingIntentDefault); CGImageRef imgRef = image; CGContextDrawImage(context, CGRectMake(0, 17, 380, 285), imgRef); CGImageRelease(image); CGDataProviderRelease(imgDataProvider); please note this is the gist of my code, but it should summarize what I am trying to accomplish with regards to drawing. Also in order to get the framerate in sync, I had to detach a separate thread that sleeps X seconds and calls [self setNeedsDisplay]. NSAutoreleasePool *pool = [[NSAutoreleasePool alloc] init]; // Top-level pool while(1) { //[NSThread sleepForTimeInterval:TIMER_REFRESH_VALUE]; //sleep(unsigned int ); usleep(MICRO_REFRESH_VALUE); if ([_buffer_array count] > 10) { //NSLog(@"stuff %d", [_buffer_array count]); //[self setNeedsDisplay]; [self performSelectorOnMainThread:@selector(setNeedsDisplay) withObject:nil waitUntilDone:NO]; } } [pool release]; // Release the objects in the pool. My buffer of jpeg data actually fills up quite quick, but I can't seem to actually consume what i'm getting at the same rate, actually much slower. Are there any documents that can describe what kind of performance tuning I can do to make it go faster when rendering the JPEG to the screen? Or am I kind of stuck here? Thanks!

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  • NSXMLParser Memory Allocation Efficiency for the iPhone

    - by Staros
    Hello, I've recently been playing with code for an iPhone app to parse XML. Sticking to Cocoa, I decided to go with the NSXMLParser class. The app will be responsible for parsing 10,000+ "computers", all which contain 6 other strings of information. For my test, I've verified that the XML is around 900k-1MB in size. My data model is to keep each computer in an NSDictionary hashed by a unique identifier. Each computer is also represented by a NSDictionary with the information. So at the end of the day, I end up with a NSDictionary containing 10k other NSDictionaries. The problem I'm running into isn't about leaking memory or efficient data structure storage. When my parser is done, the total amount of allocated objects only does go up by about 1MB. The problem is that while the NSXMLParser is running, my object allocation is jumping up as much as 13MB. I could understand 2 (one for the object I'm creating and one for the raw NSData) plus a little room to work, but 13 seems a bit high. I can't imaging that NSXMLParser is that inefficient. Thoughts? Code... The code to start parsing... NSXMLParser *parser = [[NSXMLParser alloc] initWithData: data]; [parser setDelegate:dictParser]; [parser parse]; output = [[dictParser returnDictionary] retain]; [parser release]; [dictParser release]; And the parser's delegate code... -(void)parser:(NSXMLParser *)parser didStartElement:(NSString *)elementName namespaceURI:(NSString *)namespaceURI qualifiedName:(NSString *)qualifiedName attributes:(NSDictionary *)attributeDict { if(mutableString) { [mutableString release]; mutableString = nil; } mutableString = [[NSMutableString alloc] init]; } -(void)parser:(NSXMLParser *)parser foundCharacters:(NSString *)string { if(self.mutableString) { [self.mutableString appendString:string]; } } -(void)parser:(NSXMLParser *)parser didEndElement:(NSString *)elementName namespaceURI:(NSString *)namespaceURI qualifiedName:(NSString *)qName { if([elementName isEqualToString:@"size"]){ //The initial key, tells me how many computers returnDictionary = [[NSMutableDictionary alloc] initWithCapacity:[mutableString intValue]]; } if([elementName isEqualToString:hashBy]){ //The unique identifier if(mutableDictionary){ [mutableDictionary release]; mutableDictionary = nil; } mutableDictionary = [[NSMutableDictionary alloc] initWithCapacity:6]; [returnDictionary setObject:[NSDictionary dictionaryWithDictionary:mutableDictionary] forKey:[NSMutableString stringWithString:mutableString]]; } if([fields containsObject:elementName]){ //Any of the elements from a single computer that I am looking for [mutableDictionary setObject:mutableString forKey:elementName]; } } Everything initialized and released correctly. Again, I'm not getting errors or leaking. Just inefficient. Thanks for any thoughts!

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  • Java ExecutorService java heap space ptoblems

    - by Sergey Aganezov jr
    I have a little bit of a problem in a multitasking java department. I have a class, called public class ThreadWorker implements Runnable { //some code in here public void run(){ // invokes some recursion method in the ThreadWorker itself, // which will stop eventually { } all in all, pretty simple "worker" that can work on it's on. To work with threads I'm using public static int THREAD_NUMBER = 4; public static ExecutorServide es = Executors.newFixedThreadPool(THREAD_NUMBER); adding instances of ThreadWroker class happens here: public void recursiveMethod(Arraylist<Integers> elements, MyClass data){ if (elements.size() == 0 && data.qualifies()){ ThreadWorker tw = new ThreadWorker(data); es.execute(tw); return; } for (int i=0; i< elements.size(); i++){ // some code to prevent my problem MyClass data1 = new MyClass(data); MyClass data2 = new MyClass(data); ArrayList<Integer> newElements = (ArrayList<Integer>)elements.clone(); data1.update(elements.get(i)); data2.update(-1 * elements.get(i)); newElements.remove(i); recursiveMethod(newElements, data1); recursiveMethod(newElements, data2); { } and the problem is that the depth of the recursion tree is quite big, so as it's width, so a lot of ThreadWorkers are added to the ExecutorService, so after some time on the big input a get Exception in thread "pool-1-thread-2" java.lang.OutOfMemoryError: Java heap space which is caused, as I think because of a ginormous number of ThreadWorkers i'm adding to ExecutorSirvice to be executed, so it runs out of memory. Every ThreadWorker takes about 40 Mb of RAM for all it needs. Is there a method to get how many threads (instances of classes implementing runnable interface) have been added to ExecutorService? So I can add it in the shown above code (int the " // some code to prevent my problem"), as while ("number of threads in the ExecutorService" > 10){ Thread.sleep(10000); } so I won't go to deep or to broad with my recursion and prevent those exception-throwing situations. Sincerely, Sergey Aganezov jr.

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  • Eclipse: How to convert a web project into an AspectJ project and weave and run it using the AJDT pl

    - by Kent
    What I want to do: I want to use the @Configured annotation with Spring. It requires AspectJ to be enabled. I thought that using the AJDT plugin for compile time weaving would solve this problem. Before installing the plug in the dependencies which were supposed to be injected into my @Configured object remained null. What I have done: Installed the AJDT: AspectJ Development Tools plug in for Eclipse 3.4. Right clicked on my web project and converted it into a AspectJ project. Enabled compile time weaving. What doesn't work: When I start the Tomcat 6 server now, I get an exception*. Other information: I haven't configured anything in the AspectJ Build and AspectJ Compiler parts of the project properties. JDT Weaving under Preferences says weaving is enabled. I still have Java build path and Java Compiler under project properties. And they look like I previously configured them (while the above two new entries are not configured). The icon of my @Configured object file looks like any other file (i.e. no indication of any aspect or such, which I think there should be). The file name is MailNotification.java (and not .aj), but I guess it should still work as I'm using a Spring annotation for AspectJ? I haven't found any tutorial or similar which teaches: How to turn a Spring web application project into an AspectJ project and weave aspects into the files using the AJDT plugin, all within Eclipse 3.4. If there is anything like that out there I would be very interested in knowing about it. What I would like to know: Where to go from here? I just want to use the @Configured annotation of Spring. I'm also using @Transactional which I think also needs AspectJ. If it is possible I would like to study AspectJ as little as possible as long as my needs are met. The subject seems interesting, but huge, all I want to do is use the above two mentioned Spring annotations. *** Exception when Tomcat 6 is started: Caused by: java.lang.IllegalStateException: ClassLoader [org.apache.catalina.loader.WebappClassLoader] does NOT provide an 'addTransformer(ClassFileTransformer)' method. Specify a custom LoadTimeWeaver or start your Java virtual machine with Spring's agent: -javaagent:spring-agent.jar at org.springframework.context.weaving.DefaultContextLoadTimeWeaver.setBeanClassLoader(DefaultContextLoadTimeWeaver.java:82) at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.AbstractAutowireCapableBeanFactory.initializeBean(AbstractAutowireCapableBeanFactory.java:1322) at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.AbstractAutowireCapableBeanFactory.doCreateBean(AbstractAutowireCapableBeanFactory.java:473) ... 41 more

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  • Validate a string in a table in SQL Server - CLR function or T-SQL (Question updated)

    - by Ashish Gupta
    I need to check If a column value (string) in SQL server table starts with a small letter and can only contain '_', '-', numbers and alphabets. I know I can use a SQL server CLR function for that. However, I am trying to implement that validation using a scalar UDF and could make very little here...I can use 'NOT LIKE', but I am not sure how to make sure I validate the string irrespective of the order of characters or in other words write a pattern in SQL for this. Am I better off using a SQL CLR function? Any help will be appreciated.. Thanks in advance Thank you everyone for their comments. This morning, I chose to go CLR function way. For the purpose of what I was trying to achieve, I created one CLR function which does the validation of an input string and have that called from a SQL UDF and It works well. Just to measure the performance of t-SQL UDF using SQL CLR function vs t- SQL UDF, I created a SQL CLR function which will just check if the input string contains only small letters, it should return true else false and have that called from a UDF (IsLowerCaseCLR). After that I also created a regular t-SQL UDF(IsLowerCaseTSQL) which does the same thing using the 'NOT LIKE'. Then I created a table (Person) with columns Name(varchar) and IsValid(bit) columns and populate that with names to test. Data :- 1000 records with 'Ashish' as value for Name column 1000 records with 'ashish' as value for Name column then I ran the following :- UPDATE Person Set IsValid=1 WHERE dbo.IsLowerCaseTSQL (Name) Above updated 1000 records (with Isvalid=1) and took less than a second. I deleted all the data in the table and repopulated the same with same data. Then updated the same table using Sql CLR UDF (with Isvalid=1) and this took 3 seconds! If update happens for 5000 records, regular UDF takes 0 seconds compared to CLR UDF which takes 16 seconds! I am very less knowledgeable on t-SQL regular expression or I could have tested my actual more complex validation criteria. But I just wanted to know, even I could have written that, would that have been faster than the SQL CLR function considering the example above. Are we using SQL CLR because we can implement we can implement lot richer logic which would have been difficult otherwise If we write in regular SQL. Sorry for this long post. I just want to know from the experts. Please feel free to ask if you could not understand anything here. Thank you again for your time.

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  • Calling Save on a Configuration obj with a custom sectiongroup of type NameValueSectionHandler

    - by Allen
    I've got aConfiguration object that I can easily read and write settings from and call Save(ConfigurationSaveMode.Minimal, true) on and that typically works just fine. However, I now have a config file that has a custom sectionGroup defined of type System.Configuration.NameValueSectionHandler (I didn't write that part and I can't change it). Now when I call the Save method, it throws a TypeLoadException Message: Type System.Configuration.NameValueSectionHandler does not inherit from System.Configuration.ConfigurationSectionGroup. Callstack: at System.Configuration.TypeUtil.VerifyAssignableType (Type baseType, Type type, Boolean throwOnError) at System.Configuration.TypeUtil.GetConstructorWithReflectionPermission (Type type, Type baseType, Boolean throwOnError) at System.Configuration.MgmtConfigurationRecord.CreateSectionGroupFactory (FactoryRecord factoryRecord) at System.Configuration.MgmtConfigurationRecord.EnsureSectionGroupFactory (FactoryRecord factoryRecord) at System.Configuration.MgmtConfigurationRecord.GetSectionGroup (String configKey) at System.Configuration.ConfigurationSectionGroupCollection.Get (String name) at System.Configuration.ConfigurationSectionGroupCollection. <GetEnumerator>d__0.MoveNext() at System.Configuration.Configuration.ForceGroupsRecursive (ConfigurationSectionGroup group) at System.Configuration.Configuration.SaveAsImpl (String filename, ConfigurationSaveMode saveMode, Boolean forceSaveAll) at System.Configuration.Configuration.Save (ConfigurationSaveMode saveMode, Boolean forceSaveAll) at MyCompany.MyProduct.blah.blah.Save () in C:\\projects\\blah\\blah\\blah.cs:line blah For reference, the configuration goes like so <configuration> <configSections> ... normal sections here that work just fine, followed by ... <sectionGroup name="threadSettings" type="System.Configuration.NameValueSectionHandler"> <section name="T1" type="System.Configuration.DictionarySectionHandler"/> <section name="T2" type="System.Configuration.DictionarySectionHandler"/> <section name="T3" type="System.Configuration.DictionarySectionHandler"/> </sectionGroup> </configSections> <applicationSettings /> <threadSettings> <T1> <add key="key-here" value="value-here"/> </T1> ... T2 and T3 here as well, thats not interesting ... </threadSettings> </configuration> If I remove the actual sections and the definition for the custom section groups, I am able to read / write settings just fine and even call Save just fine. Obviously the custom section groups could be setup a little nicer but I can't fix that so I'm wondering: Is it possible to get the Configuration object to save if it has custom sectionGroups of the NameValueSectionHandler type

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