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  • C++ Recursion Issue

    - by stupidmonkey
    Hi guys, I feel a little dumb asking this, but here we go... When trying to follow the Recursion example at the following website http://www.cplusplus.com/doc/tutorial/functions2/, I ran into a road bump that has me perplexed. I altered the code slightly just to get my head around the code in the recursion example and I pretty much have my head around it, but I can't figure out why the variable 'n' increments in 'Pass B' when I have not told the program to increment 'n'. Could you please help explain this? #include <stdlib.h> #include <iostream> using namespace std; long factorial (long n) { if (n > 1) { long r(0); cout << "Pass A" << endl; cout << "n = " << n << endl; cout << "r = " << r << endl; r = n * factorial (n-1); cout << "Pass B" << endl; cout << "n = " << n << endl; cout << "r = " << r << endl; return (r); } else return (1); } int main () { long number; cout << "Please type a number: "; cin >> number; cout << number << "! = " << factorial (number) << endl; system ("pause"); return 0; }

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  • Database Schema Versioning Strategies

    - by Jack Ryan
    I work on a project that uses a reasonably large database, the live version weighing in at somewhere around 60-80GB. The live database is the only real definitive source of our schema, and because of its size duplicating this database is too slow to be done often. This means we have ended up developing our database schema in a pretty ad hoc way, using sql compare to migrate changes from dev dbs to the live system, and only wiping our dev dbs every month or two. I am hoping to get some pointers on how to improve our database development work flow so that we have a little more control. Some things to think about: Currently nobody is really in charge of the database schema, all developers can change it if they need to, though generally these decisions are talked about before they are done. There are stored procedures, functions, and views in the database. These should probably be dumped to files so they can be reloaded on every build. Schema changes should probably be checked in as scripts. We have started to do this recently. However all our scripts must then be numbered (because there may be dependencies between them), and must be re runnable (because our build script currently runs them all in order). This makes them hard to read because they are full of conditionals that check whether tables or columns already exist. This is a step that is often forgotten by developers. Getting a new database should be quick and easy. This is currently a big problem, it takes several hours to get a copy of last nights backup and restore it onto a dev machine. Some mechanism needs to be in place to allow developers to update static data. We have tables that contain data that is never updated through the application, but does potentially need to be changed when we do a new release (often this drives dropdowns). The whole thing needs to be runnable as part of a build script. Are there any tools that can be used to help to do this? Eventually I would like to be at a point where a new DB can be built from scratch without copying any data from the live system. I don't mind writing some scripts to glue all the steps together but each part should be easily editable so that we continue to use it rather than make changes directly on DBs.

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  • ocjective-c Obtain return value from public method

    - by Felix
    I'm pretty new to objective-C (and C in general) and iPhone development and am coming from the java island, so there are some fundamentals that are quite tough to learn for me. I'm diving right into iOS5 and want to use storyboards. For now I am trying to setup a list in a UITableViewController that will be filled with values returned by a web service in the future. For now, I just want to generate some mock objects and show their names in the list to be able to proceed. Coming from java, my first approach would be to create a new Class that provides a global accessible method to generate some objects for my list: #import <Foundation/Foundation.h> @interface MockObjectGenerator : NSObject +(NSMutableArray *) createAndGetMockProjects; @end Implementation is... #import "MockObjectGenerator.h" // Custom object with some fields #import "Project.h" @implementation MockObjectGenerator + (NSMutableArray *) createAndGetMockObjects { NSMutableArray *mockProjects = [NSMutableArray alloc]; Project *project1 = [Project alloc]; Project *project2 = [Project alloc]; Project *project3 = [Project alloc]; project1.name = @"Project 1"; project2.name = @"Project 2"; project3.name = @"Project 3"; [mockProjects addObject:project1]; [mockProjects addObject:project2]; [mockProjects addObject:project3]; } And here is my ProjectTable.h that is supposed to control my ListView #import <UIKit/UIKit.h> @interface ProjectsTable : UITableViewController @property (strong, nonatomic) NSMutableArray *projectsList; @end And finally ProjectTable.m #import "ProjectsTable.h" #import "Project.h" #import "MockObjectGenerator.h" @interface ProjectsTable { @synthesize projectsList = _projectsList; -(id)initWithStyle:(UITableViewStyle:style { self = [super initWithStyle:style]; if (self) { _projectsList = [[MockObjectGenerator createAndGetMockObjects] copy]; } return self; } - (NSInteger)numberOfSectionsInTableView:(UITableView *)tableView { // only one section for all return 1; - (NSInteger)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView numberOfRowsInSection:(NSInteger)section { NSLog(@"%d entries in list", _projectsList.count); return _projectsList.count; - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { // the identifier of the lists prototype cell is set to this string value static NSString *CellIdentifier = @"projectCell"; UITableViewCell *cell = [tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:CellIdentifier]; Project *project = [_projectsList objectAtIndex:indexPath.row]; cell.textLabel.text = project.name } So while I think everything is correctly set, I expect the tableView to show my three mock objects in its rows. But it stays empty and the NSLog method prints "0 entries in list" into the console. So what am I doing wrong? Any help is appreciated. Best regards Felix

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  • php parse error always on the last line

    - by is0lated
    I'm trying to read a comment that is stored in a mysql table. For some reason I always get a parse error on the last line of the file even if the last line is blank. I'm not sure if it's relevant but the connect.php works for putting the comment into the database. I'm using wampserver to host it and coding it by hand. I think that's it's something to do with the while loop, when I comment out the while(){ and the } near the end I just get a few missing variable errors as you would expect. I'm quite new to php coding so I'm pretty sure the problem will be something simple that I've either missed or not understood properly. Anyway, here's my code: <?php include "connect.php"; ?> <?php $sql = "SELECT * FROM main"; $result = mysql_query($sql) or die("Could not get posts from table"); while($rows=mysql_fetch_array($result)){ ?> <table bgcolor="green" align="center"> <tr> <td></td> </tr> <tr> <td><strong> <? echo $rows['name']; ?> </strong></td> </tr> <tr> <td> <? echo $rows['email']; ?> </td> </tr> <tr> <td> <? echo $rows['comment']; ?> </td> </tr> </table> <? } ?> Thanks for the help. :)

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  • I always get stuck here... Divs not behaving properly (alignment issues)

    - by user345501
    Hi, I don't know why, after encountering this problem dozens of times, the answer always seems different and I can't seem to work my way through the problem-solving process, but here I am again with misaligned divs. I've got 3rows encasing columns. each row is to have (at least) 3 columns (and probably some nested divs down the line, but I'm not even there yet). I'm trying to make a fluid chunk in the center ultimately, with pretty corners. However, my top row is already showing signs of misbehaving. .O Please help with my silly questions! Cheers and thanks in advance! <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8" /> <title>Untitled Document</title> </head> <style type="text/css"> #wrap { margin:auto; width:80%; height:75%; border: solid #066 1px;} #row1 { width:100%; height:10%; background:#F20; } #r1c1 { float:left; width:05%;} #r1c2 { float:left; width:80%} #r1c3 { clear:both; width:05%; } #row2 { float:none; width:100%; background:#0C6; } #r2c1 {} #r2c2 {} #r2c3 {} #row3 { width:100%; height:15%; background:#00F; clear:both; } #r3c1 {} #r3c2 {} #r3c3 {} </style> <body> <div id="wrap"> <div id="row1"> <div id="r1c1">LEFT</div> <div id="r1c2">CENT</div> <div id="r1c3">RIGHT</div> </div> <div id="row2"> MIDDLE </div> <div id="row3"> BOTTOM </div> </div> </body> </html>

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  • Is it possible to use .data() as a search criteria?

    - by Andrew
    I have a pretty complex chat application going on, and there are multiple chat panes, chat entries, chat submits, etc. going on in the same window. At first I was going to do something like.... <input type="text" class="chattext" id="chattext-42"> <input type="text" class="chattext" id="chattext-93"> <input type="button" class="chatsubmit" id="chatsubmit-42"> <input type="button" class="chatsubmit" id="chatsubmit-93"> ... etc. (of course this is vastly simplified, they'd be in separate divs, separate visibilities, etc) So, when they clicked on a .chatsubmit, it would then get the id of that and find the last two characters for the chat ID. This presents some problems, as it would require rewrites if IDs changed lengths, and seems just plain inelegant to me. I then remembered the .data() facility in jQuery... I thought, maybe I could do it more like this: <input type="text" class="chattext"> ... and add a .data("id", 42) to this one <input type="button" class="chatsubmit"> ... and add a .data("id", 42) So that when they click chatsubmit, it gets the ID, and then finds the chattext with that ID and processes it. But looking at the documentation, I don't see an easy way to search by this. For example, let's say the event target in this case is the chatsubmit with the data('id') of 42... var ID = $(event.target).data('id'); // Sets it to 42 var chattext = ... And here I run into the trouble. How do I find which DOM element matches a class of chattext and a data('id') of 42? Is there any easy method, or do I have to search every .chattext for the one with an id of 42? Or is there another easy way of doing this? I did consider the possibility of the container div having the ID, which would make it, I think,? slightly easier to get. But if this works, it could be dealing with things in other container divs as well, making that not a long-term solution. Edit: Literally seconds after posting this, I found this: http://james.padolsey.com/javascript/extending-jquerys-selector-capabilities/ which includes information on extending the selector to data. So I'll try that out, and in the meantime, is this a completely foolhardy way of handling this?

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  • MySQL search for user and their roles

    - by Jenkz
    I am re-writing the SQL which lets a user search for any other user on our site and also shows their roles. An an example, roles can be "Writer", "Editor", "Publisher". Each role links a User to a Publication. Users can take multiple roles within multiple publications. Example table setup: "users" : user_id, firstname, lastname "publications" : publication_id, name "link_writers" : user_id, publication_id "link_editors" : user_id, publication_id Current psuedo SQL: SELECT * FROM ( (SELECT user_id FROM users WHERE firstname LIKE '%Jenkz%') UNION (SELECT user_id FROM users WHERE lastname LIKE '%Jenkz%') ) AS dt JOIN (ROLES STATEMENT) AS roles ON roles.user_id = dt.user_id At the moment my roles statement is: SELECT dt2.user_id, dt2.publication_id, dt.role FROM ( (SELECT 'writer' AS role, link_writers.user_id, link_writers.publication_id FROM link_writers) UNION (SELECT 'editor' AS role, link_editors.user_id, link_editors.publication_id FROM link_editors) ) AS dt2 The reason for wrapping the roles statement in UNION clauses is that some roles are more complex and require a table join to find the publication_id and user_id. As an example "publishers" might be linked accross two tables "link_publishers": user_id, publisher_group_id "link_publisher_groups": publisher_group_id, publication_id So in that instance, the query forming part of my UNION would be: SELECT 'publisher' AS role, link_publishers.user_id, link_publisher_groups.publication_id FROM link_publishers JOIN link_publisher_groups ON lpg.group_id = lp.group_id I'm pretty confident that my table setup is good (I was warned off the one-table-for-all system when researching the layout). My problem is that there are now 100,000 rows in the users table and upto 70,000 rows in each of the link tables. Initial lookup in the users table is fast, but the joining really slows things down. How can I only join on the relevant roles? -------------------------- EDIT ---------------------------------- Explain above (open in a new window to see full resolution). The bottom bit in red, is the "WHERE firstname LIKE '%Jenkz%'" the third row searches WHERE CONCAT(firstname, ' ', lastname) LIKE '%Jenkz%'. Hence the large row count, but I think this is unavoidable, unless there is a way to put an index accross concatenated fields? The green bit at the top just shows the total rows scanned from the ROLES STATEMENT. You can then see each individual UNION clause (#6 - #12) which all show a large number of rows. Some of the indexes are normal, some are unique. It seems that MySQL isn't optimizing to use the dt.user_id as a comparison for the internal of the UNION statements. Is there any way to force this behaviour? Please note that my real setup is not publications and writers but "webmasters", "players", "teams" etc.

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  • NVIDIA graphics driver in Ubuntu 12.04

    - by user924501
    So my overall goal is that I want to be able to code with CUDA enabled applications. However, upon many days of searching, using installation walkthroughs, and reinstalling countless times after driver failure... I'm now here as a last resort. I cannot get Ubuntu 12.04 LTS to install the NVIDIA 295.59 driver for my GeForce GT 540M NVIDIA graphics card. My main system specs is as follows... (I believe having the Intel processor may be the problem) DELL Laptop XPS L502X Intel® Core™ i7-2620M CPU @ 2.70GHz × 4 Intel Integrated Graphics 64 bit NVIDIA GeForce GT 540M Ubuntu 12.04 LTS All other specs are irrelevant unless I forgot something? Methods Tried: aptitude install nvidia-current (all packages) Results: Nothing really happened. Nothing in the additional drivers menu appeared, nor was the NVIDIA X Server settings application allowing access because it thought there was no NVIDIA X Server installed. Downloaded driver from nvidia.com. Set nomodeset in the grub boot menu through /boot/grub/grub.cfg Went to console and turned off lightdm. Installed the driver, but it said the pre-install failed? (mean anything?) Started up lightdm again. Results: NVIDIA X Server settings still didn't notice it. Even tried to do nvidia-xconfig multiple times. I also went into the config file to make sure the driver setting said "nvidia". aptitude install nvidia-173 (all packages) Results: Couldn't find the xorg-video-abi-10 virtual package. It was nowhere to be found and the ubuntu forums everywhere had no answers. Lots of people were having this problem. This is easily done in windows, simply download the driver and debug in visual studio with no problems at all. I'd like clear step-by-step instructions on how I should go about this. I'm relatively new to linux but I can find my way around pretty well so you aren't talking to a straight-up beginner. Also, if you think another thread may have the answer please post because I was having a hard time looking for my specific type of problem. TL;DR I want to have access to my GPU so I can code with CUDA while in Ubuntu 12.04 on my 64 bit laptop that also has Intel integrated graphics on the processor. Solution: sudo apt-add-repository ppa:ubuntu-x-swat/x-updates && sudo apt-get update && sudo apt-get upgrade && sudo apt-get install nvidia-current

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  • making a password-only auth with bcrypt and mongoose

    - by user3081123
    I want to create service that let you login only with password. You type a password and if this password exists - you are logged in and if it's not - username is generated and password is encrypted. I'm having some misunderstandings and hope someone would help me to show where I'm mistaken. I guess, it would look somewhat like this in agularjs First we receive a password in login controller. $scope.signup = function() { var user = { password: $scope.password, }; $http.post('/auth/signup', user); }; Send it via http.post and get in in our node server file. We are provided with a compare password bcrypt function userSchema.methods.comparePassword = function(candidatePassword, cb) { bcrypt.compare(candidatePassword, this.password, function(err, isMatch) { if (err) return cb(err); cb(null, isMatch); }); }; So right now we are creating function to catch our http request app.post('/auth/signup', function(req, res, next) { Inside we use a compair password function to realize if such password exists or not yet. So we have to encrypt a password with bcrypt to make a comparison First we hash it same way as in .pre var encPass; bcrypt.genSalt(10, function(err, salt) { if (err) return next(err); bcrypt.hash(req.body.password, salt, function(err, hash) { if (err) return next(err); encPass=hash; )}; )}; We have encrypted password stored in encPass so now we follow to finding a user in database with this password User.findOne({ password: encPass }, function(err, user) { if (user) { //user exists, it means we should pass an ID of this user to a controller to display it in a view. I don't know how. res.send({user.name}) //like this? How should controller receive this? With $http.post? } else { and now if user doesn't exist - we should create it with user ID generated by my function var nUser = new User({ name: generId(), password: req.body.password }); nUser.save(function(err) { if (err) return next(err); )}; )}; )}; Am I doing anything right? I'm pretty new to js and angular. If so - how do I throw a username back at controller? If someone is interested - this service exists for 100+ symbol passphrases so possibility of entering same passphrase as someone else is miserable. And yeah, If someone logged in under 123 password - the other guy will log in as same user if he entered 123 password, but hey, you are warned to make a big passphrase. So I'm confident about the idea and I only need a help with understanding and realization.

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  • Is 4-5 years the “Midlife Crisis” for a programming career?

    - by Jeffrey
    I’ve been programming C# professionally for a bit over 4 years now. For the past 4 years I’ve worked for a few small/medium companies ranging from “web/ads agencies”, small industry specific software shops to a small startup. I've been mainly doing "business apps" that involves using high-level programming languages (garbage collected) and my overall experience was that all of the works I’ve done could have been more professional. A lot of the things were done incorrectly (in a rush) mainly due to cost factor that people always wanted something “now” and with the smallest amount of spendable money. I kept on thinking maybe if I could work for a bigger companies or a company that’s better suited for programmers, or somewhere that's got the money and time to really build something longer term and more maintainable I may have enjoyed more in my career. I’ve never had a “mentor” that guided me through my 4 years career. I am pretty much blog / google / self taught programmer other than my bachelor IT degree. I’ve also observed another issue that most so called “senior” programmer in “my working environment” are really not that senior skill wise. They are “senior” only because they’ve been a long time programmer, but the code they write or the decisions they make are absolutely rubbish! They don't want to learn, they don't want to be better they just want to get paid and do what they've told to do which make sense and most of us are like that. Maybe that’s why they are where they are now. But I don’t want to become like them I want to be better. I’ve run into a mental state that I no longer intend to be a programmer for my future career. I started to think maybe there are better things out there to work on. The more blogs I read, the more “best practices” I’ve tried the more I feel I am drifting away from “my reality”. But I am not a great programmer otherwise I don't think I am where I am now. I think 4-5 years is a stage that can be a step forward career wise or a step out of where you are. I just wanted to hear what other have to say about what I’ve mentioned above and whether you’ve experienced similar situation in your past programming career and how you dealt with it. Thanks.

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  • Object relationships

    - by Hammerstein
    This stems from a recent couple of posts I've made on events and memory management in general. I'm making a new question as I don't think the software I'm using has anything to do with the overall problem and I'm trying to understand a little more about how to properly manage things. This is ASP.NET. I've been trying to understand the needs for Dispose/Finalize over the past few days and believe that I've got to a stage where I'm pretty happy with when I should/shouldn't implement the Dispose/Finalize. 'If I have members that implement IDisposable, put explicit calls to their dispose in my dispose method' seems to be my understanding. So, now I'm thinking maybe my understanding of object lifetimes and what holds on to what is just wrong! Rather than come up with some sample code that I think will illustrate my point, I'm going to describe as best I can actual code and see if someone can talk me through it. So, I have a repository class, in it I have a DataContext that I create when the repository is created. I implement IDisposable, and when my calling object is done, I call Dispose on my repository and explicitly call DataContext.Dispose( ). Now, one of the methods of this class creates and returns a list of objects that's handed back to my front end. Front End - Controller - Repository - Controller - Front End. (Using Redgate Memory Profiler, I take a snapshot of my software when the page is first loaded). My front end creates a controller object on page load and then makes a request to the repository sending back a list of items. When the page is finished loading, I call Dispose on the controller which in turn calls dispose on the context. In my mind, that should mean that my connection is closed and that I have no instances of my controller class. If I then refresh the page, it jumps to two 'Live' instances of the controller class. If I look at the object retention graph, the objects I created in my call to the list are being held onto ultimately by what looks like Linq. The controller/repository aside, if I create a list of objects somewhere, or I create an object and return it somewhere, am I safe to just assume that .NET will eventually come and clean things up for me or is there a best practice? The 'Live' instances suggest to me that these are still in memory and active objects, the fact that RMP apparently forces GC doesn't mean anything?

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  • Udp server sending only 0 bytes of data

    - by mawia
    Hi all, This is a simple Udp server.I am trying to transmit data to some clients,but unfortunetly it is unable to transmit data.Though send is running quite successfully but it is returning with a return value meaning it has send nothing.On the client they are receiving but again obviously,zero bytes. void* UdpServerStreamToClients(void *fileToServe) { int sockfd,n=0,k; struct sockaddr_in servaddr,cliaddr; socklen_t len; char dataToSend[1000]; sockfd=socket(AF_INET,SOCK_DGRAM,0); bzero(&servaddr,sizeof(servaddr)); servaddr.sin_family = AF_INET; servaddr.sin_addr.s_addr=htonl(INADDR_ANY); servaddr.sin_port=htons(32000); bind(sockfd,(struct sockaddr *)&servaddr,sizeof(servaddr)); FILE *fp; if((fp=fopen((char*)fileToServe,"r"))==NULL) { printf("can not open file "); perror("fopen"); exit(1); } int dataRead=1; while(dataRead) { len = sizeof(cliaddr); if((dataRead=fread(dataToSend,1,500,fp))<0) { perror("fread"); exit(1); } //sleep(2); for(list<clientInfo>::iterator it=clients.begin();it!=clients.end();it++) { cliaddr.sin_family = AF_INET; inet_aton(inet_ntoa(it->addr.sin_addr),&cliaddr.sin_addr); cliaddr.sin_port = htons(it->udp_port); n=sendto(sockfd,dataToSend,sizeof(dataToSend),0,(struct sockaddr *)&cliaddr,len); cout<<"number of bytes send by udp: "<< n << endl; printf("SEND this message %d : %s to %s :%d \n",n,dataToSend,inet_ntoa(cliaddr.sin_addr), ntohs(cliaddr.sin_port)); } } } I am checking the value of sizeof(dataTosend) and it is pretty much as expected ie thousand ie the size of buffer. Are you people seeing some possible flaw in it. All of the help in this regard will be appreciated. Thanks!

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  • How can I remove rows with unique values? As in only keeping rows with duplicate values?

    - by user1456405
    Here's the conundrum, I'm a complete and utter noob when it comes to programming. I understand the basics, but am still learning javascript. I have a spreadsheet of surveys, in which I need to see how particular users have varied over time. As such, I need to disregard all rows with unique values in a particular column. The data looks like this: Response Date Response_ID Account_ID Q.1 10/20/2011 12:03:43 PM 23655956 1168161 8 10/20/2011 03:52:57 PM 23660161 1168152 0 10/21/2011 10:55:54 AM 23672903 1166121 7 10/23/2011 04:28:16 PM 23694471 1144756 9 10/25/2011 06:30:52 AM 23732674 1167449 7 10/25/2011 07:52:28 AM 23734597 1087618 5 I've found a way to do so in VBA, which sucks as I have to use excel, per below: Sub Del_Unique() Application.ScreenUpdating = False Columns("B:B").Insert Shift:=xlToRight Columns("A:A").Copy Destination:=Columns("B:B") i = Application.CountIf(Range("A:A"), "<>") + 50 If i > 65536 Then i = 65536 Do If Application.CountIf(Range("B:B"), Range("A" & i)) = 1 Then Rows(i).Delete End If i = i - 1 Loop Until i = 0 Columns("B:B").Delete Application.ScreenUpdating = True End Sub But that requires mucking about. I'd really like to do it in Google Spreadsheets with a script that won't have to be changed. Closest I can get is retrieving all duplicate user ids from the range, but can't associate that with the row. That code follows: function findDuplicatesInSelection() { var activeRange = SpreadsheetApp.getActiveRange(); var values = activeRange.getValues(); // values that appear at least once var once = {}; // values that appear at least twice var twice = {}; // values that appear at least twice, stored in a pretty fashion! var final = []; for (var i = 0; i < values.length; i++) { var inner = values[i]; for (var j = 0; j < inner.length; j++) { var cell = inner[j]; if (cell == "") continue; if (once.hasOwnProperty(cell)) { if (!twice.hasOwnProperty(cell)) { final.push(cell); } twice[cell] = 1; } else { once[cell] = 1; } } } if (final.length == 0) { Browser.msgBox("No duplicates found"); } else { Browser.msgBox("Duplicates are: " + final); } } Anyhow, sorry if this is the wrong place or format, but half of what I've found so far has been from stack, I thought it was a good place to start. Thanks!

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  • JPA - Can I create an Entity class, using an @DiscriminatorValue, that doesn't have its own table?

    - by DaveyDaveDave
    Hi - this is potentially a bit complex, so I'll do my best to describe my situation - it's also my first post here, so please forgive formatting mistakes, etc! I'm using JPA with joined inheritance and a database structure that looks like: ACTION --------- ACTION_ID ACTION_MAPPING_ID ACTION_TYPE DELIVERY_CHANNEL_ACTION -------------------------- ACTION_ID CHANNEL_ID OVERRIDE_ADDRESS_ACTION -------------------------- ACTION_ID (various fields specific to this action type) So, in plain English, I have multiple different types of action, all share an ACTION_MAPPING, which is referenced from the 'parent' ACTION table. DELIVERY_CHANNEL_ACTION and OVERRIDE_ADDRESS_ACTION both have extra, supplementary data of their own, and are mapped to ACTION with a FK. Real-world, I also have a 'suppress' action, but this doesn't have any supplementary data of its own, so it doesn't have a corresponding table - all it needs is an ACTION_MAPPING, which is stored in the ACTION table. Hopefully you're with me so far... I'm creating a new project from scratch, so am pretty flexible in what I can do, but obviously would like to get it right from the outset! My current implementation, which works, has three entities loosely defined as follows: @Entity @Table(name="ACTION") @Inheritance(strategy=InheritanceType.JOINED) @DiscriminatorValue("SUPPRESS") public class Action @Entity @Table(name="DELIVERY_CHANNEL_ACTION") @DiscriminatorValue("DELIVERY_CHANNEL") public class DeliveryChannelAction extends Action @Entity @Table(name="OVERRIDE_ADDRESS_ACTION") @DiscriminatorValue("OVERRIDE_ADDRESS") public class OverrideAddressAction extends Action That is - I have a concrete base class, Action, with a Joined inheritance strategy. DeliveryChannelAction and OverrideAddressAction both extend Action. What feels wrong here though, is that my Action class is the base class for these two actions, but also forms the concrete implementation for the suppress action. For the time being this works, but at some point more actions are likely to be added, and there's every chance that some of them will, like SUPPRESS, have no supplementary data, which will start to get difficult! So... what I would like to do, in the object model world, is to have Action be abstract, and create a SuppressAction class, which is empty apart from having a @DiscriminatorValue("SUPPRESS"). I've tried doing exactly what is described above, so, changing Action to: @Entity @Table(name="ACTION") @Inheritance(strategy=InheritanceType.JOINED) public abstract class Action and creating: @DiscriminatorValue("SUPPRESS") public class SuppressAction extends Action but no luck - it seems to work fine for DeliveryChannelAction and OverrideAddressAction, but when I try to create a SuppressAction and persist it, I get: java.lang.IllegalArgumentException: Object: com.mypackage.SuppressAction[actionId=null] is not a known entity type. at org.eclipse.persistence.internal.sessions.UnitOfWorkImpl.registerNewObjectForPersist(UnitOfWorkImpl.java:4147) at org.eclipse.persistence.internal.jpa.EntityManagerImpl.persist(EntityManagerImpl.java:368) at com.mypackage.test.util.EntityTestUtil.createSuppressAction(EntityTestUtil.java:672) at com.mypackage.entities.ActionTest.testCRUDAction(ActionTest.java:27) which I assume is down to the fact that SuppressAction isn't registered as an entity, but I don't know how I can do that, given that it doesn't have an associated table. Any pointers, either complete answers or hints for things to Google (I'm out of ideas!), most welcome :) EDIT: to correct my stacktrace.

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  • Authenticating users in iPhone app

    - by Myron
    I'm developing an HTTP api for our web application. Initially, the primary consumer of the API will be an iPhone app we're developing, but I'm designing this with future uses in mind (such as mobile apps for other platforms). I'm trying to decide on the best way to authenticate users so they can access their accounts from the iPhone. I've got a design that I think works well, but I'm no security expert, so I figured it would be good to ask for feedback here. The design of the user authentication has 3 primary goals: Good user experience: We want to allow users to enter their credentials once, and remain logged in indefinitely, until they explicitly log out. I would have considered OAuth if not for the fact that the experience from an iPhone app is pretty awful, from what I've heard (i.e. it launches the login form in Safari, then tells the user to return to the app when authentication succeeds). No need to store the user creds with the app: I always hate the idea of having the user's password stored in either plain text or symmetrically encrypted anywhere, so I don't want the app to have to store the password to pass it to the API for future API requests. Security: We definitely don't need the intense security of a banking app, but I'd obviously like this to be secure. Overall, the API is REST-inspired (i.e. treating URLs as resources, and using the HTTP methods and status codes semantically). Each request to the API must include two custom HTTP headers: an API Key (unique to each client app) and a unique device ID. The API requires all requests to be made using HTTPS, so that the headers and body are encrypted. My plan is to have an api_sessions table in my database. It has a unique constraint on the API key and unique device ID (so that a device may only be logged into a single user account through a given app) as well as a foreign key to the users table. The API will have a login endpoint, which receives the username/password and, if they match an account, logs the user in, creating an api_sessions record for the given API key and device id. Future API requests will look up the api_session using the API key and device id, and, if a record is found, treat the request as being logged in under the user account referenced by the api_session record. There will also be a logout API endpoint, which deletes the record from the api_sessions table. Does anyone see any obvious security holes in this?

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  • Adding a clustered index to a SQL table: what dangers exist for a live production system?

    - by MoSlo
    Right, keep in mind i need to describe this by abstracting all possible confidential info: I've been put in charge of a 10-year old transactional system of which the majority business logic is implemented at database level (triggers, stored procedures etc). Win2000 server, MSSQL 2000 Enterprise. No immediate plans for replacing/updating the system are being considered :( The core process is a program that executes transactions - specifically, it executes a stored procedure with various parameters, lets call it sp_ProcessTrans. The program executes the stored procedure at asynchronous intervals. By itself, things work fine. But there are 30 instances of this program on remotely located workstations, all of them asynchronously executing sp_ProcessTrans and then retrieving data from the SQL server (execution is pretty regular - ranging 0 to 60 times a minute, depending on what items the program instance is responsible for) . Performance of the system has dropped considerably with 10 yrs of data growth: the reason is the deadlocks and specifically deadlock wait times. The deadlock is on the Employee table. I have discovered: In sp_ProcessTrans' execution, it selects from an Employee table 7 times (dont ask) The select is done on a field that is NOT the primary key No index exists on this field. Thus a table scan is performed. 7 times. per transaction So the reason for deadlocks is clear. I created a non-unique ordered clustered index on the field (field looks good, almost unique, NUM(7), very rarely changes). Immediate improvement in the test environment. The problem is that i cannot simulate the deadlocks in a test environment (I'd need 30 workstations; i'd need to simulate 'realistic' activity on those stations, so visualization is out). I need to know if i must schedule downtime. Creating an index shouldn't be a risky operation for MSSQL, but is there any danger (data corruption in transactions/select statements/extra wait time etc) to create this field index on the production database while the transactions are still taking place? (although i can select a time when transactions are fairly quiet through the 30 stations) Are there any hidden dangers i'm not seeing (not looking forward to needing to restore the DB if something goes wrong, restoring would take a lot of time with 10yrs of data).

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  • Calling a JAVA method from C++ with JNI, no parameters

    - by PRNDL Development Studios
    Please bear with me, I am an iPhone developer and this whole android this confuses me a bit. I have some c++ methods that are called from a cocos2d-x CCMenuItem. Therefore I cannot send any parameters, according to the docs. I need to open a url with the android browser which will require me to call a JAVA function to start a new intent. I understand that I need to create a VM, however the below code gives me the error: jni/../../Classes/MyClass.cpp:184: error: 'JNI_CreateJavaVM' was not declared in this scope I was looking at this thread: Calling a java method from c++ in Android But he uses parameters, and I can't do that. And I don't see where those are in his code to just make them myself. I don't know what the string should be in the 'Find Class' method. Also, I assume it is pretty terrible to create a new VM instance in every method I need to call. How would I create one as a singleton to use across the board? This is my c++ code called by my menu item: #include <jni.h> ... JavaVM *vm; // Global ... void OptionsScene::website(){ JNIEnv *env; JavaVMInitArgs vm_args; vm_args.version = JNI_VERSION_1_2; vm_args.nOptions = 0; vm_args.ignoreUnrecognized = 1; jint result = JNI_CreateJavaVM(&vm, (void **)&env, &vm_args); // This line still errors jclass clazz = env->FindClass("com/prndl/project/WebExecute"); jmethodID method = env->GetMethodID(clazz, "website", "(Ljava/lang/String;)V"); env->CallVoidMethod(NULL,method); vm->DestroyJavaVM(); And this is the JAVA Method that I need to call: public class WebExecute extends Activity{ public void website(){ Intent browserIntent = new Intent(Intent.ACTION_VIEW, Uri.parse("http://www.google.com")); startActivity(browserIntent); } } Honestly, I am struggling with this, any help is appreciated. Thanks.

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  • Grid View Button Passing Data Via On Click

    - by flyersun
    Hi, I'm pretty new to C# and asp.net so aplogies if this is a really stupid question. I'm using a grid view to display a number of records from a database. Each row has an Edit Button. When the button is clicked I want an ID to be passed back to a funtion in my .cs file. How do I bind the rowID to the Button field? I've tired using a hyper link instead but this doens't seem to work because I'm posting back to the same page which already has a Permanter on the URL. asp.net <asp:GridView ID="gvAddresses" runat="server" onrowcommand="Edit_Row"> <Columns> <asp:ButtonField runat="server" ButtonType="Button" Text="Edit"> </Columns> </asp:GridView> c# int ImplantID = Convert.ToInt32(Request.QueryString["ImplantID"]); Session.Add("ImplantID", ImplantID); List<GetImplantDetails> DataObject = ImplantDetails(ImplantID); System.Data.DataSet DSImplant = new DataSet(); System.Data.DataTable DTImplant = new DataTable("Implant"); DSImplant.Tables.Add(DTImplant); DataColumn ColPostCode = new DataColumn(); ColPostCode.ColumnName = "PostCode"; ColPostCode.DataType = typeof(string); DTImplant.Columns.Add(ColPostCode); DataColumn ColConsigneeName = new DataColumn(); ColConsigneeName.ColumnName = "Consignee Name"; ColConsigneeName.DataType = typeof(string); DTImplant.Columns.Add(ColConsigneeName); DataColumn ColIsPrimaryAddress = new DataColumn(); ColIsPrimaryAddress.ColumnName = "Primary"; ColIsPrimaryAddress.DataType = typeof(int); DTImplant.Columns.Add(ColIsPrimaryAddress); DataColumn ColImplantCustomerDetailsID = new DataColumn(); ColImplantCustomerDetailsID.ColumnName = "Implant ID"; ColImplantCustomerDetailsID.DataType = typeof(int); DTImplant.Columns.Add(ColImplantCustomerDetailsID); foreach (GetImplantDetails Object in DataObject) { DataRow DRImplant = DTImplant.NewRow(); DRImplant["PostCode"] = Object.GetPostCode(); DRImplant["Consignee Name"] = Object.GetConsigneeName(); DRImplant["Primary"] = Object.GetIsPrimaryAddress(); DRImplant["Implant ID"] = Object.GeTImplantCustomerDetailsID(); DTImplant.Rows.Add(DRImplant); <--- this is what I need to be added to the button } gvAddresses.DataSource = DTImplant; gvAddresses.DataBind();

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  • Unusual Template Behavior with XSL

    - by bobber205
    Experiencing some very odd behavior with, what should be, a very simple use of XSL and XSLT. Here's a code sample. <xsl:template match="check"> <div class="check"> <xsl:apply-templates mode="check"> <xsl:with-param name="checkName">testVariable</xsl:with-param> </xsl:apple-templates> </div> </xsl:template> The template called above <xsl:template match="option" mode="check"> <xsl:param name="checkName" /> <div class="option"> <input type="checkbox"> </input> <label> testText </label> </div> </xsl:template> Pretty simple right? It should, for each instance of a instance in the XML create a checkbox in a with a hard coded label. However, what I'm getting is <div class="check"></div> <div class="option>Checkbox stuff here</div> <div class="option>Checkbox stuff here</div> <div class="option>Checkbox stuff here</div> <div class="option>Checkbox stuff here</div> <div class="check"></div> <div class="option>Checkbox stuff here</div> <div class="option>Checkbox stuff here</div> <div class="option>Checkbox stuff here</div> <div class="option>Checkbox stuff here</div> Here's some sample XML <check><option key="1"/><option key="0"/><option key="0"/><option key="0"/><option key="0"/></check> Anyone know what's going on? :D

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  • Ajax page.replace_html problems with partials in Rails

    - by Chris Power
    Hello, I am having a problem with a pretty simple AJAX call in rails. I have a blog-style application and each post has a "like" feature. I want to be able to increment the "like" on each post in the index using AJAX onclick. I got it to work; however, the DOM is a bit tricky here, because no matter what partial its looking at, it will only update the TOP partial. so if I click "like" on post #2, it will update and replace the "likes" on post #1 instead. Code for _post partial: <some code here...> <div id="postcontent"> Posted <%= post.created_at.strftime("%A, %b %d")%> <br /> </div> <div id="postlikes"> <%= link_to_remote 'Like', :url => {:controller => 'posts', :action => 'like_post', :id => post.id}%> <%= post.like %> </div> code for _postlikes partial: <div id="postlikes"> <%= link_to_remote 'Like', :url => {:controller => 'posts', :action => 'like_post', :id => @post.id}%> <%= @post.like %> </div> </div> like_post.rjs code: page.replace_html "postlikes", :partial => "postlikes", :object => @post page.visual_effect :highlight, "postlikes", :duration => 3 So this all works properly for the first "postcontent" div. But this is an index of posts, so if I wanted to updated the second "postcontent" div on the page, it will still replace the html of the first. I understand the problem, I just don't know how to fix it :) Thanks in advance!

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  • Problem intialising 2D array

    - by TeeJay
    Ok, so I have a 2D Array that is initialised with values from a file (format: x y z). My file reads in the values correctly but when adding the z value to the matrix/2DArray, I run into a segfault and I have no idea why. It is possibly incorrect use of pointers? I still don't quite have the hang of them yet. This is my intialiser, works fine, even intialises all "z" values to 0. int** make2DArray(int rows, int columns) { int** newArray; newArray = (int**)malloc(rows*sizeof(int*)); if (newArray == NULL) { printf("out of memory for newArray.\n"); } for (int i = 0; i < rows; i++) { newArray[i] = (int*)malloc(columns*sizeof(int)); if (newArray[i] == NULL) { printf("out of memory for newArray[%d].\n", i); } } //intialise all values to 0 for (int i = 0; i < rows; i++) { for (int j = 0; j < columns; j++) { newArray[i][j] = 0; } } return newArray; } This is how I call the initialiser (and problem function). int** map = make2DArray(rows, columns); fillMatrix(&map, mapFile); And this is the problem code. void fillMatrix(int*** inMatrix, FILE* inFile) { int x, y, z; char line[100]; while(fgets(line, sizeof(line), inFile) != NULL) { sscanf(line, "%d %d %d", &x, &y, &z); *inMatrix[x][y] = z; } } From what I can gather through the use of ddd, the problem comes when y gets to 47. The map file has a max "x" value of 47 and a max "y" value of 63, I'm pretty sure I haven't got the order mixed up, so I don't know why the program is segfault-ing? I'm sure it's some newbie mistake...

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  • jQuery .load(), don't show new content until images loaded

    - by Jarred
    Hi. I have been working on a jQuery photo slideshow. It scales the images to the browser size, and slides them left and right. There is no pre-determined size or aspect ratio, the script does everything on the fly. It requires that all images be fully loaded, so it can custom resize each individual image based on it's own aspect ratio ( width():height(), etc ), calculate the width of containing div, and calculate the slide distance from one image to another. As a stand-alone, it works pretty well (despite my lack of skills)! I simply hide the slideshow containing div at (document).ready, allow the images to load, then run the slideshow prep scripts at (window).load. Once this is done, it only then makes the slideshow divs, images, etc appear, properly sized, positioned and ready to roll. The ultimate goal is to be able to load in any number of slideshows without refreshing the page. The point of this is to be able to play uninterrupted background music. I know music on websites is annoying, but the target market likes it, a lot! I am using (target).load(page.php .element, function prepInsertNewShow() { //Prepare slideshow resizeImages(); slideArray(); //Show slideshow (target).fadeIn(); }); and it definitely works! The problem is that I cannot find a way to hold off on preparing and showing the new content until the images have finished loading. It is running the slideshow prep scripts (which are totally dependent on the images being fully loaded), before the images are loaded. This results in a completely jacked up show! What I want to do is this - (target).load(page.php .element, function prepInsertNewShow() { //Wait until images are loaded $('img').load( function() { //Prepare slideshow resizeImages(); slideArray(); //Show slideshow (target).fadeIn(); } }); But this doesn't seem to work, the new content is never shown. You can see a live version here. The initial gallery loads correctly, everything looks good. The only nav link that works is Galleries Engagement, which will load a new show (a containing div with multiple <img> tags). You will see that the images are not centered, the containing div and slide distances are much too small, as they were calculated using images that were not actually loaded. Is there any way I can delay handling and showing new content until it is fully loaded? Any suggestions would be most appreciated, thanks for your time! PS - It just occurred to me while typing this that a decent solution may be to insert "width=x" height="x" into the <img> tags, so the script can work from those values, even if the images have not loaded...hmm...

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  • Data Annotations validation Built into model

    - by Josh
    I want to build an object model that automatically wires in validation when I attempt to save an object. I am using DataAnnotations for my validation, and it all works well, but I think my inheritance is whacked. I am looking here for some guidance on a better way to wire in my validation. So, to build in validation I have this interface public interface IValidatable { bool IsValid { get; } ValidationResponse ValidationResults { get; } void Validate(); } Then, I have a base class that all my objects inherit from. I did a class because I wanted to wire in the validation calls automatically. The issue is that the validation has to know the type of the class is it validating. So I use Generics like so. public class CoreObjectBase<T> : IValidatable where T : CoreObjectBase<T> { #region IValidatable Members public virtual bool IsValid { get { // First, check rules that always apply to this type var result = new Validator<T>().Validate((T)this); // return false if any violations occurred return !result.HasViolations; } } public virtual ValidationResponse ValidationResults { get { var result = new Validator<T>().Validate((T)this); return result; } } public virtual void Validate() { // First, check rules that always apply to this type var result = new Validator<T>().Validate((T)this); // throw error if any violations were detected if (result.HasViolations) throw new RulesException(result.Errors); } #endregion } So, I have this circular inheritance statement. My classes look like this then: public class MyClass : CoreObjectBase<MyClass> { } But the problem occurs when I have a more complicated model. Because I can only inherit from one class, when I have a situation where inheritance makes sense I believe the child classes won't have validation on their properties. public class Parent : CoreObjectBase<Parent> { //properties validated } public class Child : Parent { //properties not validated? } I haven't really tested the validation in these cases yet, but I am pretty sure that anything in child with a data annotation on it will not be automatically validated when I call Child.Validate(); due to the way the inheritance is configured. Is there a better way to do this?

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  • PHP getting Twitter API JSON file contents without OAuth (Almost have it)

    - by DexCurl
    Hey guys, I have this script working fine with OAuth, but I accidentally nuked my 350 API hits with a stupid while statement :( I'm trying to get data from the Twitter API without OAuth, I can't figure it out (still pretty new), heres what I have <html> <body> <center> <hr /> <br /> <table border="1"> <tr><td>ScreenName</td><td>Followed back?</td></tr> <?php //twitter oauth deets $consumerKey = 'x'; $consumerSecret = 'x'; $oAuthToken = 'x'; $oAuthSecret = 'x'; // Create Twitter API objsect require_once("twitteroauth.php"); $oauth = new TwitterOAuth($consumerKey, $consumerSecret, $oAuthToken, $oAuthSecret); //get home timeline tweets and it is stored as an array $youfollow = $oauth->get('http://api.twitter.com/1/friends/ids.json?screen_name=lccountdown'); $i = 0; //start loop to print our results cutely in a table while ($i <= 20){ $youfollowid = $youfollow[$i]; $resolve = "http://api.twitter.com/1/friendships/exists.json?user_a=".$youfollow[$i]."&user_b=jwhelton"; $followbacktest = $oauth->get($resolve); //$homedate= $hometimeline[$i]->created_at; //$homescreenname = $hometimeline[$i]->user->screen_name; echo "<tr><td>".$youfollowid."</td><td>".$followbacktest."</td></tr>"; $i++; } ?> </table> </center> </body> </html> Neither of the two Twitter functions require authentication, so how can I get the same results? Thanks guys, Dex

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  • Can you call FB.login inside a callback from other FB methods (like FB.getLoginStatus) without triggering popup blockers?

    - by Erik Kallevig
    I'm trying to set up a pretty basic authentication logic flow with the FB JavaScript SDK to check a user's logged-in status and permissions before performing an action (and prompting the user to login with permissions if they are not)... User types a message into a textarea on my site to post to their Facebook feed and click's a 'post to facebook' button on my site. In response to the click, I check user's logged in status with FB.getLoginStatus In the callback to FB.getLoginStatus, if user is not logged in, prompt them to login (FB.login). In the callback to FB.login I then need to make sure they have the right permissions so I make a call to FB.api('/me/permissions') -- if they don't , I again prompt them to login (FB.login) The problem I'm running into is that anytime I try to call FB.login inside a callback to other FB methods, the browser seems to lose track of the origin of execution (the click) and thus will block the popup. I'm wondering if I'm missing some way to prompt the user to login after checking their status without the browser mistakenly thinking that it's not a user-initiated popup? I've currently fallen back to just calling FB.login() first regardless. The undesired side effect of this approach, however, is that if the user is already logged-in with permissions and I'm still calling FB.login, the auth popup will open and close immediately before continuing, which looks rather buggy despite being functional. It seems like checking a user's login status and permissions before doing something would be a common flow so I feel like I'm missing something. Here's some example code. <div onclick="onClickPostBtn()">Post to Facebook</div> <script> // Callback to click on Post button. function onClickPostBtn() { // Check if logged in, prompt to do so if not. FB.getLoginStatus(function(response) { if (response.status === 'connected') { checkPermissions(response.authResponse.accessToken); } else { FB.login(function(){}, {scope: 'publish_stream'}) } }); } // Logged in, check permissions. function checkPermissions(accessToken) { FB.api('/me/permissions', {'access_token': accessToken}, function(response){ // Logged in and authorized for this site. if (response.data && response.data.length) { // Parse response object to check for permission here... if (hasPermission) { // Logged in with permission, perform some action. } else { // Logged in without proper permission, request login with permissions. FB.login(function(){}, {scope: 'publish_stream'}) } // Logged in to FB but not authorized for this site. } else { FB.login(function(){}, {scope: 'publish_stream'}) } } ); } </script>

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