Search Results

Search found 33468 results on 1339 pages for 'behaviour change'.

Page 467/1339 | < Previous Page | 463 464 465 466 467 468 469 470 471 472 473 474  | Next Page >

  • Magento 1.4 - how to show html on product view?

    - by Sam
    Hi All The new version of Magento, 1.4, has it's own WYSIWYG editor, which can be enabled for any product attribute. However, if it is enabled, say for the additional info attribute, if you view the product page the html will be escaped, so you see all the tags (< p , < ul etc). If you change the following in template/catalog/product/view.phtml, you can get the "Quick Overview" and "Additional Information" sections to correctly show the html: <?php echo nl2br($this->htmlEscape($_product->getShortDescription())) ?> to <?php echo $_product->getShortDescription() ?> However, the additional info section is added via template/catalog/product/view/attributes.phtml using the following line, and I can't figure out how to get it to show the html correctly: <?php echo $_helper->productAttribute($_product, $_data['value'], $_data['code']) ?> This references Mage_Catalog_Block_Product_View_Attributes, and if I go to that file and change the following, it works: $value = $this->htmlEscape($value); to $value = value; But is there anyway to do this without overiding this core file with a local version?

    Read the article

  • Java Swing custom shapes (2D Graphics)

    - by juFo
    I need to draw custom shapes. Now when a user clicks on several points on the panel I create a shape using a polygon. public void mouseClicked(MouseEvent e) { polygon.addPoint(e.getX(), e.getY()); repaint(); } But I don't know if this is the best way to draw custom shapes. It should be possible to edit a drawn shape: resize change its fill color change the stroke color copy/paste it move a single point of the polygon ... I have seen people creating an own class implementing the Shape class and using a GeneralPath. But again I have no idea if this is a good way. Now I can create my own shape with a polygon (or with a GeneralPath) but I have no clue how to attach all the edit functions to my own shape (the edit functions I mean the resize, move, etc from above). I hope somebody could show me a way to do this or maybe write a little bit of code to demonstrate this. Thanks in advance!!

    Read the article

  • Should onSaveInstanceState save the "enabledness" of the views?

    - by neutrino
    Hi there, I have a preferences activity where I can change the language and the theme of my application. From there I return to the previous activity via the Back key, and I want to recreate the activity. I've managed to do that by reinitializing the layout in onResume and also calling onRestoreInstanceState from there. All the views are restored properly, with checkboxes checked if needed, edittexts filled with texts I left there previously. But I also have a button which is initially disabled, and becomes enabled only when a radiobutton is checked. The problem with it is the following: I check the radiobutton, the button becomes enabled. Then I go to settings, change the theme there, and return to the first activity. When I arrive there, the radiobutton is still checked, but the button is disabled. So it seems that the enabled/disabled state isn't being saved into the bundle, which seems counterintuitive. And I haven't found any code in the Android source that does this, too. Am I missing something, or do I have to write my own code for that?

    Read the article

  • MSSQL: Views that use SELECT * need to be recreated if the underlying table changes

    - by cbp
    Is there a way to make views that use SELECT * stay in sync with the underlying table. What I have discovered is that if changes are made to the underlying table, from which all columns are to be selected, the view needs to be 'recreated'. This can be achieved simly by running an ALTER VIEW statement. However this can lead to some pretty dangerous situations. If you forgot to recreate the view, it will not be returning the correct data. In fact it can be returning seriously messed up data - with the names of the columns all wrong and out of order. Nothing will pick up that the view is wrong unless you happened to have it covered by a test, or a data integrity check fails. For example, Red Gate SQL Compare doesn't pick up the fact that the view needs to be recreated. To replicate the problem, try these statements: CREATE TABLE Foobar (Bar varchar(20)) CREATE VIEW v_Foobar AS SELECT * FROM Foobar INSERT INTO Foobar (Bar) VALUES ('Hi there') SELECT * FROM v_Foobar ALTER TABLE Foobar ADD Baz varchar(20) SELECT * FROM v_Foobar DROP VIEW v_Foobar DROP TABLE Foobar I am tempted to stop using SELECT * in views, which will be a PITA. Is there a setting somewhere perhaps that could fix this behaviour?

    Read the article

  • Any useful suggestions to figure out where memory is being free'd in a Win32 process?

    - by LeopardSkinPillBoxHat
    An application I am working with is exhibiting the following behaviour: During a particular high-memory operation, the memory usage of the process under Task Manager (Mem Usage stat) reaches a peak of approximately 2.5GB (Note: A registry key has been set to allow this, as usually there is a maximum of 2GB for a process under 32-bit Windows) After the operation is complete, the process size slowly starts decreasing at a rate of 1MB per second. I am trying to figure out the easiest way to quickly determine who is freeing this memory, and where it is being free'd. I am having trouble attaching a memory profiler to my code, and I don't particularly want to override the new/delete operators to track the allocations/deallocations (IOW, I want to do this without re-compiling my code). Can anyone offer any useful suggestions of how I could do this via the Visual Studio debugger? Update I should also mention that it's a multi-threaded application, so pausing the application and analysing the call stack through the debugger is not the most desirable option. I considered freezing different threads one at a time to see if the memory stops reducing, but I'm fairly certain this will cause the application to crash.

    Read the article

  • How can I replace a UITableViewController with a UIViewController that contains a UITableView?

    - by Dr Dork
    I created a new SplitView iPad project in Xcode and setup the code to populate the TableView (in the RootView on the left) with data. Now I'd like to customize the RootView to contain a DatePicker view along with the TableView, but I'm unsure how to accomplish this. Since the default RootViewController is a subclass of a UITableViewController, I couldn't add a DatePicker view to it in IB (since you can't add a DatePicker to a UITableView). The only way I understand to accomplish my goal of adding a DatePicker to the "Left" RootView is to change the RootViewController from a subclass of a UITableViewController to a subclass of a UIViewController, then I'll be able to add a view to it that contains a DatePicker view and a TableView using IB. Questions... Is this the correct approach to add a DatePicker to the "Left" RootView? If so and I change the RootViewController to a subclass of a UIViewController (instead of a UITableViewController) and add to it a TableView (along with the DatePicker), how will that affect the code I currently have in place for populating my current TableView? Thanks so much for all your help! Below is my current interface code for my RootViewController, if it'll help any. @interface RootViewController : UITableViewController <NSFetchedResultsControllerDelegate> { DetailViewController *detailViewController; NSFetchedResultsController *fetchedResultsController; NSManagedObjectContext *managedObjectContext; } @property (nonatomic, retain) IBOutlet DetailViewController *detailViewController; @property (nonatomic, retain) NSFetchedResultsController *fetchedResultsController; @property (nonatomic, retain) NSManagedObjectContext *managedObjectContext; - (void)insertNewObject:(id)sender; @end

    Read the article

  • How to reduce the need for IISRESET for developing ASP.NET web app in IIS 5.1

    - by John Galt
    I have a web application project on my dev PC running WinXP and hence IIS 5.1. The changes I'm making to this site seem to "take effect" only after I do IISRESET. That is, I make a source change, Rebuild the project and then Start without Debugging (or with debugging). The newly changed code is not "visible" or in effect unless I intervene with an IISRESET. BTW, the "web" tab on the Properties display for the web app project is configured to use the Local IIS web server at project Url: http://localhost/myVirtualDirectory ... but I've noticed the same issue when using the VStudio Dev Server (i.e. I have to stop it by visiting the taskbar tray area in order to see my source changes take effect). Is this something I can change? EDIT UPDATE: Just wanting to clear this up if possible. Two answers diverge below; not sure how to move forward. One states this is to be expected (weakness of IIS 5.1 which in turn is the best WinXP can provide). Another states this is not expected behavior (and I tend to agree since this is the first I've encounted this on the same old WinXP dev platform I've had a long time). I suspect it may be something "deep inside" the Visual Studio 2008 web app which was upgraded to this new IDE from VStudio 2002 (ASP.NET 1.1). I've tried to add comment/questions down each answer path. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Can someone confirm how Microsoft Excel 2007 internally represents numbers?

    - by Jon
    I know the IEEE 754 floating point standard by heart as I had to learn it for an exam. I know exactly how floating point numbers are used and the problems that they can have. I can manually do any operation on the binary representation of floating point numbers. However, I have not found a single source which unambiguously states that excel uses 64 bit floating point numbers to internally represent every single cell "type" in excel except for text. I have no idea whether some of the types use signed or unsigned integers and some use 64 bit floating point. I have found literally trillions of articles which 1) describe floating point numbers and then 2) talk about being careful with excel because of floating point numbers. I have not found a single statement saying "all types are 64 bit floating point numbers except text". I have not found a single statement which says "changing the type of a cell only changes its visual representation and not its internal representation, unless you change the type from text to some other type which is not text or you change some other type which is not text to text". This is literally all I want to know, and it's so simple and axiomatic that I am amazed that I can find trillions of articles and pages which talk around these statements but do not state them directly.

    Read the article

  • Testing a method used from an abstract class

    - by Bas
    I have to Unit Test a method (runMethod()) that uses a method from an inhereted abstract class to create a boolean. The method in the abstract class uses XmlDocuments and nodes to retrieve information. The code looks somewhat like this (and this is extremely simplified, but it states my problem) namespace AbstractTestExample { public abstract class AbstractExample { public string propertyValues; protected XmlNode propertyValuesXML; protected string getProperty(string propertyName) { XmlDocument doc = new XmlDocument(); doc.Load(new System.IO.StringReader(propertyValues)); propertyValuesXML= doc.FirstChild; XmlNode node = propertyValuesXML.SelectSingleNode(String.Format("property[name='{0}']/value", propertyName)); return node.InnerText; } } public class AbstractInheret : AbstractExample { public void runMethod() { bool addIfContains = (getProperty("AddIfContains") == null || getProperty("AddIfContains") == "True"); //Do something with boolean } } } So, the code wants to get a property from a created XmlDocument and uses it to form the result to a boolean. Now my question is, what is the best solution to make sure I have control over the booleans result behaviour. I'm using Moq for possible mocking. I know this code example is probably a bit fuzzy, but it's the best I could show. Hope you guys can help.

    Read the article

  • Reverse geocode street name and city as text

    - by Taylor Satula
    Hello, I have been having some trouble finding a good way to output just the street name and city as text (Infinite Loop, Cupertino shown here) that can be displayed in my iPhone app. This needs to be able to dynamically change as you change streets and city. I don't have the slightest idea of how to do this, I hope someone can help. I have attached a very rough image of what I am trying to acheave. I have found this (http://code.google.com/apis/maps/documentation/javascript/services.html#Geocoding) for google maps about how to reverse geocode using javascript, but what I do not understand is how this would be done in a iPhone development setting. I work in web design and I see how it would be done in HTML but I am very new to iPhone development and don't have the slightest clue of how it would be done here. If someone could spell out how to do this I would be extremely grateful. I cannot seem to find what I am looking for by searching Google. Reference picture: http://www.threepixeldrift.com/images/deep-storage/reversegeocodeiphoneapp.jpg

    Read the article

  • java : how to handle the design when template methods throw exception when overrided method not throw

    - by jiafu
    when coding. try to solve the puzzle: how to design the class/methods when InputStreamDigestComputor throw IOException? It seems we can't use this degisn structure due to the template method throw exception but overrided method not throw it. but if change the overrided method to throw it, will cause other subclass both throw it. So can any good suggestion for this case? abstract class DigestComputor{ String compute(DigestAlgorithm algorithm){ MessageDigest instance; try { instance = MessageDigest.getInstance(algorithm.toString()); updateMessageDigest(instance); return hex(instance.digest()); } catch (NoSuchAlgorithmException e) { LOG.error(e.getMessage(), e); throw new UnsupportedOperationException(e.getMessage(), e); } } abstract void updateMessageDigest(MessageDigest instance); } class ByteBufferDigestComputor extends DigestComputor{ private final ByteBuffer byteBuffer; public ByteBufferDigestComputor(ByteBuffer byteBuffer) { super(); this.byteBuffer = byteBuffer; } @Override void updateMessageDigest(MessageDigest instance) { instance.update(byteBuffer); } } class InputStreamDigestComputor extends DigestComputor{ // this place has error. due to exception. if I change the overrided method to throw it. evey caller will handle the exception. but @Override void updateMessageDigest(MessageDigest instance) { throw new IOException(); } }

    Read the article

  • How to pair users? (Like Omegle.com)

    - by Carlos Dubus
    Hi, I'm trying to do an Omegle.com clone script, basically for learning purposes. I'm doing it in PHP/MySQL/AJAX. I'm having problems finding two users and connecting them. The purpose of omegle is connecting two users "randomly". What I'm doing right now is the following: When a user enters the website a session is assigned. There are 3 states for each session/user (Normal,Waiting,Chatting) At first the user has state Normal and a field "connected_to" = NULL If the users clicks the START button, a state of "Waiting" is assigned. Then it looks for another user with state Waiting, if doesn't find one then it keeps looping, waiting for the "connected_to" to change. The "connected_to" will change when other user click START and then find another user waiting and updates the sessions accordingly. Now this have several problems, like: A user only can be connected to one user at a time. In omegle you can open more than one chat simultaneously. I don't know if this is the best way. About the chat, each user is polling the events from the server with AJAX calls, I saw that omegle, instead of several HTTP requests each second (let's say), does ONE request and wait for an answer, that means that the PHP script is looping indefinitely until gets an answer.I did this using set_time_limit(30) each time the loop is started. Then when the Ajax call is done start over again. Is this approach correct? I will appreciate a LOT your answers, Thank you, Carlos

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET GridView "Client-Side Confirmation when Deleting" stopped working on ie - how come?

    - by tarnold
    A few months ago, I have programmed an ASP.NET GridView with a custom "Delete" LinkButton and Client-Side JavaScript Confirmation according to this msdn article: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb428868.aspx (published in April 2007) or e.g. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/218733/javascript-before-aspbuttonfield-click The code looks like this: <ItemTemplate> <asp:LinkButton ID="deleteLinkButton" runat="server" Text="Delete" OnCommand="deleteLinkButtonButton_Command" CommandName='<%# Eval("id") %>' OnClientClick='<%# Eval("id", "return confirm(\"Delete Id {0}?\")") %>' /> </ItemTemplate> Surprisingly, "Cancel" doesn't work no more with my ie (Version: 6.0.2900.2180.xpsp_sp2_qfe.080814-1242) - it always deletes the row. With Opera (Version 9.62) it still works as expeced and described in the msdn article. More surprisingly, on a fellow worker's machine with the same ie version, it still works ("Cancel" will not delete the row). The generated code looks like <a onclick="return confirm(...);" href="javascript:__doPostBack('...')"> As confirm(...) returns false on "Cancel", I expect the __doPostBack event in the href not to be fired. Are there any strange ie settings I accidentally might have changed? What else could be the cause of this weird behaviour? Or is this a "please reinstall WinXP" issue?

    Read the article

  • Dependent Dropdowns with single class element

    - by AJ
    I am trying to create multiple dependent dropdowns (selects) with a unique way. I want to restrict the use of selectors and want to achieve this by using a single class selectors on all SELECTs; by figuring out the SELECT that was changed by its index. Hence, the SELECT[i] that changed will change the SELECT[i+1] only (and not the previous ones like SELECT[i-1]). For html like this: <select class="someclass"> <option value="volvo">Volvo</option> <option value="saab">Saab</option> <option value="mercedes">Mercedes</option> <option value="audi">Audi</option> </select> <select class="someclass"> </select> <select class="someclass"> </select> where the SELECTs other than the first one will get something via AJAX. I see that the following Javascript gives me correct value of the correct SELECT and the value of i also corresponds to the correct SELECT. $(function() { $(".someclass").each(function(i) { $(this).change(function(x) { alert($(this).val() + i); }); }); }); Please note that I really want the minimum selector approach. I just cannot wrap my head around on how to approach this. Should I use Arrays? Like store all the SELECTS in an Array first and then select those? I believe that since the above code already passes the index i, there should be a way without Arrays also. Thanks a bunch. AJ

    Read the article

  • Oracle manually add an FK constraint

    - by Oxymoron
    Alright, since a client wants to automate a certain process, which includes creating a new key structure in a LIVE database, I need to create relations between tables.columns. Now I've found the tables ALL_CONS_COLS en USER_CONSTRAINTS to hold information about constraints. If I were to manually create constraints, by inserting into these tables, I should be able to recreate the original constraints. My question: are there any more tables I should look into? Do you have an alternate suggestions, as this sounds VERY dirty and error prone to begin with. Current modus operandi: Create a new column in each table for the PK; Generate a guid for this PK; Create a new column in each table for the FKs; Fetch the guid associated with the FK; ....... done sofar...... Add new constraint based on the old one; Remove old constraint; Rename new columns; This is kind of dodgy and I'd rather change my method, any ideas would be helpful. To put it different, client wants to change key structure from int to guid on a live database. What's the best way to approach this

    Read the article

  • maximum memory which malloc can allocate!

    - by Vikas
    I was trying to figure out how much memory I can malloc to maximum extent on my machine (1 Gb RAM 160 Gb HD Windows platform). I read that maximum memory malloc can allocate is limited to physical memory.(on heap) Also when a program exceeds consumption of memory to a certain level, the computer stops working because other applications do not get enough memory that they require. So to confirm,I wrote a small program in C, int main(){ int *p; while(1){ p=(int *)malloc(4); if(!p)break; } } Hoping that there would be a time when memory allocation will fail and loop will be breaked. But my computer hanged as It was an infinite loop. I waited for about an hour and finally I had to forcely shut down my computer. Some questions: Does malloc allocate memory from HD also? What was the reason for above behaviour? Why didn't loop breaked at any point of time.? Why wasn't there any allocation failure?

    Read the article

  • Loading Dimension Tables - Methodologies

    - by Nev_Rahd
    Hello, Recently I been working on project, where need to populated Dim Tables from EDW Tables. EDW Tables are of type II which does maintain historical data. When comes to load Dim Table, for which source may be multiple EDW Tables or would be single table with multi level pivoting (on attributes). Mean: There would be 10 records - one for each attribute which need to be pivoted on domain_code to make a single row in Dim. Out of these 10 records there would be some attributes with same domain_code but with different sub_domain_code, which needs further pivoting on subdomain code. Ex: if i got domain code: 01,02, 03 = which are straight pivot on domain code I would also have domain code: 10 with subdomain code / version as 2006,2007,2008,2009 That means I need to split my source table with above attributes into two = one for domain code and other for domain_code + version. so far so good. When it comes to load Dim Table: As per design specs for Dimensions (originally written by third party), what they want is: for every single change in EDW (attribute), it should assemble all the related records (for that NK) mean new one with other attribute values which are current = process them to create a new dim record and insert it. That mean if a single extract contains 100 records updated (one for each NK), it should assemble 100 + (100*9) records to insert / update dim table. How good is this approach. Other way I tried to do is just do a lookup into dim table for that NK get the value's of recent records (attributes which not changed) and insert it and update the current one. What would be the better approach assembling records at source side for one attribute change or looking into dim table's recent record and process it. If this doesn't make sense, would like to elaborate it further. Thanks

    Read the article

  • Seeking suggestions on redesigning the interface

    - by ratkok
    As a part of maintaining large piece of legacy code, we need to change part of the design mainly to make it more testable (unit testing). One of the issues we need to resolve is the existing interface between components. The interface between two components is a class that contains static methods only. Simplified example: class ABInterface { static methodA(); static methodB(); ... static methodZ(); }; The interface is used by component A so that different methods can use ABInterface::methodA() in order to prepare some input data and then invoke appropriate functions within component B. Now we are trying to redesign this interface for various reasons: Extending our unit test coverage - we need to resolve this dependency between the components and stubs/mocks are to be introduced The interface between these components diverged from the original design (ie. a lots of newer functions, used for the inter-component i/f are created outside this interface class). The code is old, changed a lot over the time and needs to be refactored. The change should not be disruptive for the rest of the system. We try to limit leaving many test-required artifacts in the production code. Performance is very important and should be no (or very minimal) degradation after the redesign. Code is OO in C++. I am looking for some ideas what approach to take. Any suggestions on how to do this efficiently?

    Read the article

  • Type errors when using same name

    - by lykimq
    I have 3 files: 1) cpf0.ml type string = char list type url = string type var = string type name = string type symbol = | Symbol_name of name 2) problem.ml: type symbol = | Ident of string 3) test.ml open Problem;; open Cpf0;; let symbol b = function | Symbol_name n -> Ident n When I combine test.ml: ocamlc -c test.ml. I received an error: This expression has type Cpf0.name = char list but an expression was expected of type string Could you please help me to correct it? Thank you very much EDIT: Thank you for your answer. I want to explain more about these 3 files: Because I am working with extraction in Coq to Ocaml type: cpf0.ml is generated from cpf.v : Require Import String. Definition string := string. Definition name := string. Inductive symbol := | Symbol_name : name -> symbol. The code extraction.v: Set Extraction Optimize. Extraction Language Ocaml. Require ExtrOcamlBasic ExtrOcamlString. Extraction Blacklist cpf list. where ExtrOcamlString I opened: open Cpf0;; in problem.ml, and I got a new problem because in problem.ml they have another definition for type string This expression has type Cpf0.string = char list but an expression was expected of type Util.StrSet.elt = string Here is a definition in util.ml defined type string: module Str = struct type t = string end;; module StrOrd = Ord.Make (Str);; module StrSet = Set.Make (StrOrd);; module StrMap = Map.Make (StrOrd);; let set_add_chk x s = if StrSet.mem x s then failwith (x ^ " already declared") else StrSet.add x s;; I was trying to change t = string to t = char list, but if I do that I have to change a lot of function it depend on (for example: set_add_chk above). Could you please give me a good idea? how I would do in this case.

    Read the article

  • PHP OOP: Avoid Singleton/Static Methods in Domain Model Pattern

    - by sunwukung
    I understand the importance of Dependency Injection and its role in Unit testing, which is why the following issue is giving me pause: One area where I struggle not to use the Singleton is the Identity Map/Unit of Work pattern (Which keeps tabs on Domain Object state). //Not actual code, but it should demonstrate the point class Monitor{//singleton construction omitted for brevity static $members = array();//keeps record of all objects static $dirty = array();//keeps record of all modified objects static $clean = array();//keeps record of all clean objects } class Mapper{//queries database, maps values to object fields public function find($id){ if(isset(Monitor::members[$id]){ return Monitor::members[$id]; } $values = $this->selectStmt($id); //field mapping process omitted for brevity $Object = new Object($values); Monitor::new[$id]=$Object return $Object; } $User = $UserMapper->find(1);//domain object is registered in Id Map $User->changePropertyX();//object is marked "dirty" in UoW // at this point, I can save by passing the Domain Object back to the Mapper $UserMapper->save($User);//object is marked clean in UoW //but a nicer API would be something like this $User->save(); //but if I want to do this - it has to make a call to the mapper/db somehow $User->getBlogPosts(); //or else have to generate specific collection/object graphing methods in the mapper $UserPosts = $UserMapper->getBlogPosts(); $User->setPosts($UserPosts); Any advice on how you might handle this situation? I would be loathe to pass/generate instances of the mapper/database access into the Domain Object itself to satisfy DI - At the same time, avoiding that results in lots of calls within the Domain Object to external static methods. Although I guess if I want "save" to be part of its behaviour then a facility to do so is required in its construction. Perhaps it's a problem with responsibility, the Domain Object shouldn't be burdened with saving. It's just quite a neat feature from the Active Record pattern - it would be nice to implement it in some way.

    Read the article

  • Launch a new page in Zend/php on button click

    - by BlueMonster
    PHP & Zend Noob here I've downloaded the skeleton project from here: https://github.com/zendframework/ZendSkeletonApplication Say i want to open a new page that simply displays "hello world" text if click on the "ZF2 Development Portal" button(bottom left green button) on the page that launches --- how do i do this? See image: I've read through this tutorial, but i'm not sure how the model, view, or controller are actually launched? See tutorial: http://blog.wilgucki.pl/2012/07/tworzenie-modulw-w-zend-framework-2.html From looking at the code, i know that i will have to change this line of code: <div class="span4"> <h2><?php echo $this->translate('Follow Development') ?></h2> <p><?php echo sprintf($this->translate('Zend Framework 2 is under active development. If you are interested in following the development of ZF2, there is a special ZF2 portal on the official Zend Framework website which provides links to the ZF2 %swiki%s, %sdev blog%s, %sissue tracker%s, and much more. This is a great resource for staying up to date with the latest developments!'), '<a href="http://framework.zend.com/wiki/display/ZFDEV2/Home">', '</a>', '<a href="http://framework.zend.com/zf2/blog">', '</a>', '<a href="http://framework.zend.com/issues/browse/ZF2">', '</a>') ?></p> <p><a class="btn btn-success" href="http://framework.zend.com/zf2" target="_blank"><?php echo $this->translate('ZF2 Development Portal') ?> &raquo;</a></p> </div> More specifically this line: <p><a class="btn btn-success" href="http://framework.zend.com/zf2" target="_blank"><?php echo $this->translate('ZF2 Development Portal') ?> &raquo;</a></p> but i'm really confused as to what i'm supposed to change it to in order to launch a new page. Any ideas? Thanks in advance!

    Read the article

  • How to get child nodes after store load

    - by Azincourt
    Version: ExtJs 4.1 To change the child items I use this function: TreeStore (Ext.data.TreeStore) storeId : 'treeStore', ... constructor: function( oConfig ) { ... this.on( 'expand', function( oObj ) { oObj.eachChild(function(oNode) { switch(oNode.data.type) { case "report": oNode.set('icon', strIconReport); break; case "view": oNode.set('icon', strIconView); break; } }); }); Reload After removing or adding items in the tree, I reload the tree somewhere else with: var oStore = Ext.getStore('treeStore'); oStore.load({ node : oNode, params : { newpath : oNode.data.path, overwrite : true } }); Although it is the same store treeStore, after loading and expanding to the correct path, the icons are not changed since the .on( 'expand') function is not called. Why? Question How can I change the icons of this newly loaded store before it expands to the node path? What I tried Before calling .load() I tried to edit the children with oNode.eachChild(function(oChild) {} but no success.

    Read the article

  • [IceFaces] Why are validators of unchanged components called?

    - by bitschnau
    I have a IceFaces-form and several input fields. Let's say I have this: <ice:selectOneMenu id="accountMenu" value="#{accountController.account.aId}" validator="#{accountController.validateAccount}"> <f:selectItems id="accountItems" value="#{accountController.accountItems}" /> </ice:selectOneMenu> and this: <ice:selectOneMenu id="costumerMenu" value="#{customerController.customer.cId}" validator="#{customerController.validateCustomer"> <f:selectItems id="customerItems" value="#{customerController.customerItems}" /> </ice:selectOneMenu> If I change one value, the respective validator is called, what is fine. But also the other validator is called, which is not fine, because the user get's an irritating message to insert a value to a field he maybe was just going to pay attention to. It's like poking the user with a stick to "Hurry up now!". BAD! I thought the attribute "partialSubmit" is controlling this behaviour, so only the one DOM-part is submitted, which is affected by the user interaction, but if I declare the both components to be partially submitted, nothing changes. Still both validators are called if one component value is changed. How can I prevent the whole form from being validated until it is submitted completely?

    Read the article

  • ExecutorSerrvice memory leak on exception

    - by TofuBeer
    I am having a hard time tracking this down since the profiler keeps crashing (hotspot error). Before I go too deep into figuring it out I'd like to know if I really have a problem or not :-) I have a few thread pools created via: Executors.newFixedThreadPool(10); The threads connect to different web sites and, on occasion, I get connection refused and wind up throwing an exception. When I later on call Future.get() to get the result it will then catch the ExecutionException that wraps the exception that was thrown when the connection could not be made. The program uses a fairly constant amount of memory up until the point in time that the exceptions get thrown (they tend to happen in batches when a particular site is overloaded). After that point the memory again remains constant but at a higher level. So my question is along the lines of is the memory behaviour (reported by "top" on Unix) expected because the exceptions just triggered something or do I probably have an actual leak that I'll need to track down? Additionally when Future.get() throws an exception is there anything else I need to do besides catch the exception (such as call Future.cancel() on it)?

    Read the article

  • Can't diagnose my MySQL root user problem

    - by George Crawford
    Hi all, I have a problem with the MySQL root user in My MySQL setup, and I just can't for the life of me work out how to fix it. It seems that I have somehow messed up the root user, and my access to databases is now very erratic. For reference, I'm using MAMP on OS X to provide the MySQL server. I'm not sure how much that matters though - I'd guess that whatever I've done will require a command-line fix to solve it. I can start MySQL using MAMP as usual, and access databases using the 'standard' users I have created for my PHP apps. However, the root user, which I use in my MySQL GUI client, and also in phpMyAdmin, can only access the "information_schema" database, as well as two I have created manually, and presumably (and mistakenly) left permissions wide open for. My 15 or so other databases cannot be accessed my the root user. When I load up phpMyAdmin, the home screen says: "Create new database: No Privileges". I certainly did at some stage change my root user's password using the MAMP dialog. But I don't remember if I did anything else which might have caused this problem. I've tried changing the password again, and there seems to be no change in the issue. I've also tried resetting root password using the command line, including starting mysql manually with --skip-grant-tables then flushing privs, but again, nothing seems to fix the issue. I've come to the end of my ideas, and would very much appreciate some step-by-step advice and diagnosis from one of the experts here! Many thanks for your help.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 463 464 465 466 467 468 469 470 471 472 473 474  | Next Page >