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  • Persistence scheme & state data for low memory situations (iphone)

    - by Robin Jamieson
    What happens to state information held by a class's variable after coming back from a low memory situation? I know that views will get unloaded and then reloaded later but what about some ancillary classes & data held in them that's used by the controller that launched the view? Sample scenario in question: @interface MyCustomController: UIViewController { ServiceAuthenticator *authenticator; } -(id)initWithAuthenticator:(ServiceAuthenticator *)auth; // the user may press a button that will cause the authenticator // to post some data to the service. -(IBAction)doStuffButtonPressed:(id)sender; @end @interface ServiceAuthenticator { BOOL hasValidCredentials; // YES if user's credentials have been validated NSString *username; NSString *password; // password is not stored in plain text } -(id)initWithUserCredentials:(NSString *)username password:(NSString *)aPassword; -(void)postData:(NSString *)data; @end The app delegate creates the ServiceAuthenticator class with some user data (read from plist file) and the class logs the user with the remote service. inside MyAppDelegate's applicationDidFinishLaunching: - (void)applicationDidFinishLaunching:(UIApplication *)application { ServiceAuthenticator *auth = [[ServiceAuthenticator alloc] initWithUserCredentials:username password:userPassword]; MyCustomController *controller = [[MyCustomController alloc] initWithNibName:...]; controller.authenticator = auth; // Configure and show the window [window addSubview:..]; // make everything visible [window makeKeyAndVisible]; } Then whenever the user presses a certain button, 'MyCustomController's doStuffButtonPressed' is invoked. -(IBAction)doStuffButtonPressed:(id)sender { [authenticator postData:someDataFromSender]; } The authenticator in-turn checks to if the user is logged in (BOOL variable indicates login state) and if so, exchanges data with the remote service. The ServiceAuthenticator is the kind of class that validates the user's credentials only once and all subsequent calls to the object will be to postData. Once a low memory scenario occurs and the associated nib & MyCustomController will get unloaded -- when it's reloaded, what's the process for resetting up the 'ServiceAuthenticator' class & its former state? I'm periodically persisting all of the data in my actual model classes. Should I consider also persisting the state data in these utility style classes? Is that the pattern to follow?

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  • Is typeid of type name always evaluated at compile time in c++ ?

    - by cyril42e
    I wanted to check that typeid is evaluated at compile time when used with a type name (ie typeid(int), typeid(std::string)...). To do so, I repeated in a loop the comparison of two typeid calls, and compiled it with optimizations enabled, in order to see if the compiler simplified the loop (by looking at the execution time which is 1us when it simplifies instead of 160ms when it does not). And I get strange results, because sometimes the compiler simplifies the code, and sometimes it does not. I use g++ (I tried different 4.x versions), and here is the program: #include <iostream> #include <typeinfo> #include <time.h> class DisplayData {}; class RobotDisplay: public DisplayData {}; class SensorDisplay: public DisplayData {}; class RobotQt {}; class SensorQt {}; timespec tp1, tp2; const int n = 1000000000; int main() { int avg = 0; clock_gettime(CLOCK_REALTIME, &tp1); for(int i = 0; i < n; ++i) { // if (typeid(RobotQt) == typeid(RobotDisplay)) // (1) compile time // if (typeid(SensorQt) == typeid(SensorDisplay)) // (2) compile time if (typeid(RobotQt) == typeid(RobotDisplay) || typeid(SensorQt) == typeid(SensorDisplay)) // (3) not compile time ???!!! avg++; else avg--; } clock_gettime(CLOCK_REALTIME, &tp2); std::cout << "time (" << avg << "): " << (tp2.tv_sec-tp1.tv_sec)*1000000000+(tp2.tv_nsec-tp1.tv_nsec) << " ns" << std::endl; } The conditions in which this problem appear are not clear, but: - if there is no inheritance involved, no problem (always compile time) - if I do only one comparison, no problem - the problem only appears only with a disjunction of comparisons if all the terms are false So is there something I didn't get with how typeid works (is it always supposed to be evaluated at compilation time when used with type names?) or may this be a gcc bug in evaluation or optimization? About the context, I tracked down the problem to this very simplified example, but my goal is to use typeid with template types (as partial function template specialization is not possible). Thanks for your help!

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  • -[CCScene setOffsetx:]: unrecognized selector sent to instance

    - by Alexander Sharunov
    please help me, i'm very new in objective-c i've got 2 simplest classes (bellow first, second) i would like to set the offsetx properties of self.rolypoly object in second class like a self.rolypoly.offsetx=1 or run use [self.rolypoly setOffx]; to do somethings, but i always have the errors: trying [self.rolypoly setOffx]; in second class -[CCScene setOffx:]: unrecognized selector sent to instance 0x91d0b70' or trying self.rolypoly.offsetx=1; in second class -[CCScene setOffsetx:]: unrecognized selector sent to instance 0x808bfc0' first class //************************************************************ #import <Foundation/Foundation.h> #import "cocos2d.h" @interface RolyPoly : CCLayer { CCAction *_walkAction; CCSprite *_rolypoly; int offsetx; int offsety; } @property (nonatomic, retain) CCSprite *rolypoly; @property (nonatomic, retain) CCAction *walkAction; @property (nonatomic, assign) int offsetx; @property (nonatomic, assign) int offsety; +(id) scene; -(void) setOffx; @end //************************************************************ #import "GameLayer.h" #import "RolyPoly.h" @implementation RolyPoly @synthesize rolypoly = _rolypoly; @synthesize walkAction = _walkAction; @synthesize offsetx = _offsetx; @synthesize offsety = _offsety; +(id) scene { CCScene *scene = [CCScene node]; RolyPoly *layer = [RolyPoly node]; [scene addChild: layer]; return scene; } -(id) init { if ((self = [super init])) { [self scheduleUpdate]; } return self; } -(void) setOffx { NSLog(@"setOffx"); } -(void) update:(ccTime)delta { } - (void) dealloc { self.rolypoly = nil; self.walkAction = nil; [super dealloc]; } @end second class //************************************************************ #import <Foundation/Foundation.h> #import "cocos2d.h" #import "RolyPoly.h" @interface GameLayer : CCLayer { RolyPoly *_rolypoly; } // returns a CCScene that contains the HelloWorldLayer as the only child +(CCScene *) scene; @property (nonatomic, assign) RolyPoly * rolypoly; @end //************************************************************ #import "GameLayer.h" #import "RolyPoly.h" // HelloWorldLayer implementation @implementation GameLayer @synthesize rolypoly = _rolypoly; +(CCScene *) scene { CCScene *scene = [CCScene node]; GameLayer *layer = [GameLayer node]; [scene addChild: layer]; return scene; } -(id) init { if( (self=[super init])) { CGSize screenSize = [[CCDirector sharedDirector] winSize]; self.rolypoly = [RolyPoly scene]; [self addChild:self.rolypoly z:1]; [self.rolypoly setOffx]; [self scheduleUpdate]; } return self; } - (void)update:(ccTime)dt { } - (void) dealloc { [super dealloc]; } @end

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  • Another Spring + Hibernate + JPA question

    - by Albinoswordfish
    I'm still struggling with changing my Spring Application to use Hibernate with JPA to do database activities. Well apparently from a previous post I need an persistence.xml file. However do I need to make changes to my current DAO class? public class JdbcProductDao extends Dao implements ProductDao { /** Logger for this class and subclasses */ protected final Log logger = LogFactory.getLog(getClass()); public List<Product> getProductList() { logger.info("Getting products!"); List<Product> products = getSimpleJdbcTemplate().query( "select id, description, price from products", new ProductMapper()); return products; } public void saveProduct(Product prod) { logger.info("Saving product: " + prod.getDescription()); int count = getSimpleJdbcTemplate().update( "update products set description = :description, price = :price where id = :id", new MapSqlParameterSource().addValue("description", prod.getDescription()) .addValue("price", prod.getPrice()) .addValue("id", prod.getId())); logger.info("Rows affected: " + count); } private static class ProductMapper implements ParameterizedRowMapper<Product> { public Product mapRow(ResultSet rs, int rowNum) throws SQLException { Product prod = new Product(); prod.setId(rs.getInt("id")); prod.setDescription(rs.getString("description")); prod.setPrice(new Double(rs.getDouble("price"))); return prod; } } } Also my Product.Java is below public class Product implements Serializable { private int id; private String description; private Double price; public void setId(int i) { id = i; } public int getId() { return id; } public String getDescription() { return description; } public void setDescription(String description) { this.description = description; } public Double getPrice() { return price; } public void setPrice(Double price) { this.price = price; } public String toString() { StringBuffer buffer = new StringBuffer(); buffer.append("Description: " + description + ";"); buffer.append("Price: " + price); return buffer.toString(); } } I guess my question would be, How would my current classes change after using Hibernate + JPA with an Entity Manager

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  • Force deletion of slot in boost::signals2

    - by villintehaspam
    Hi! I have found that boost::signals2 uses sort of a lazy deletion of connected slots, which makes it difficult to use connections as something that manages lifetimes of objects. I am looking for a way to force slots to be deleted directly when disconnected. Any ideas on how to work around the problem by designing my code differently are also appreciated! This is my scenario: I have a Command class responsible for doing something that takes time asynchronously, looking something like this (simplified): class ActualWorker { public: boost::signals2<void ()> OnWorkComplete; }; class Command : boost::enable_shared_from_this<Command> { public: ... void Execute() { m_WorkerConnection = m_MyWorker.OnWorkDone.connect(boost::bind(&Command::Handle_OnWorkComplete, shared_from_this()); // launch asynchronous work here and return } boost::signals2<void ()> OnComplete; private: void Handle_OnWorkComplete() { // get a shared_ptr to ourselves to make sure that we live through // this function but don't keep ourselves alive if an exception occurs. shared_ptr<Command> me = shared_from_this(); // Disconnect from the signal, ideally deleting the slot object m_WorkerConnection.disconnect(); OnComplete(); // the shared_ptr now goes out of scope, ideally deleting this } ActualWorker m_MyWorker; boost::signals2::connection m_WorkerConnection; }; The class is invoked about like this: ... boost::shared_ptr<Command> cmd(new Command); cmd->OnComplete.connect( foo ); cmd->Execute(); // now go do something else, forget all about the cmd variable etcetera. the Command class keeps itself alive by getting a shared_ptr to itself which is bound to the ActualWorker signal using boost::bind. When the worker completes, the handler in Command is invoked. Now, since I would like the Command object to be destroyed, I disconnect from the signal as can be seen in the code above. The problem is that the actual slot object is not deleted when disconnected, it is only marked as invalid and then deleted at a later time. This in turn appears to depend on the signal to fire again, which it doesn't do in my case, leading to the slot never expiring. The boost::bind object thus never goes out of scope, holding a shared_ptr to my object that will never get deleted. I can work around this by binding using the this pointer instead of a shared_ptr and then keeping my object alive using a member shared_ptr which I then release in the handler function, but it kind of makes the design feel a bit overcomplicated. Is there a way to force signals2 to delete the slot when disconnecting? Or is there something else I could do to simplify the design? Any comments are appreciated!

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  • Inheritance of jQuery's prototype partially fails

    - by user1065745
    I want to use Coffeescript to create an UIObject class. This class should inherit from jQuery, so that instances of UIObject can be used as if they where created with jQuery. class UIObject isObject: (val) -> typeof val is "object" constructor: (tag, attributes) -> @merge jQuery(tag, attributes), this @UIObjectProperties = {} merge: (source, destination) -> for key of source if destination[key] is undefined destination[key] = source[key] else if @isObject(source[key]) @merge(source[key], destination[key]) return It partially works. Consider the Foobar class below: class Foobar extends UIObject constructor: -> super("<h1/>", html: "Foobar") $("body").append(new Foobar) works fine. BUT: (new Foobar).appendTo("body") places the tag, but also raises RangeError: Maximum call stack size exceeded. Was it just a bad idea to inherit from jQuery? Or is there a solurion? For those who don't know CoffeeScript, the JavaScript source is: var Foobar, UIObject; var __hasProp = Object.prototype.hasOwnProperty, __extends = function(child, parent) { for (var key in parent) { if (__hasProp.call(parent, key)) child[key] = parent[key]; } function ctor() { this.constructor = child; } ctor.prototype = parent.prototype; child.prototype = new ctor; child.__super__ = parent.prototype; return child; }; UIObject = (function () { UIObject.prototype.isObject = function (val) { return typeof val === "object"; }; function UIObject(tag, attributes) { this.merge(jQuery(tag, attributes), this); this.UIObjectProperties = {}; } UIObject.prototype.merge = function (source, destination) { var key; for (key in source) { if (destination[key] === void 0) { destination[key] = source[key]; } else if (this.isObject(source[key])) { this.merge(source[key], destination[key]); } } }; return UIObject; })(); Foobar = (function () { __extends(Foobar, UIObject); function Foobar() { Foobar.__super__.constructor.call(this, "<h1/>", { html: "Foobar" }); } return Foobar; })();

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  • Wordpress post query php custom field conditional

    - by Andy
    Here's the situation: In wordpress I'm trying to reset a post WP_Query so that I can rewrite the post link based on whether or not a custom field exists in the post. I'm trying to give the post a NEW link in the custom field. All I've managed to do here is kill the link entirely. Any and all help is greatly appreciated, I'm pretty green to php. Here's my WP_Query: <?php $recentPosts = new WP_Query(); $recentPosts->query('showposts=3'); ?> <?php while ($recentPosts->have_posts()) : $recentPosts->the_post(); ?> <div <?php post_class() ?> id="post-<?php the_ID(); ?>"> <?php $attribute = the_title_attribute(); $title = the_title(); $key = 'NewPostLink'; $newLink = get_post_meta( $post->ID, $key, TRUE ); if ($newLink != '') { $theLink = get_permalink ($post->ID ); if (has_post_thumbnail()) { $image = get_the_post_thumbnail( $post->ID ); echo '<div class="thumbnailbox"><div class="thumbnail"><a href="'.$theLink.'">'.$image.'</a></div></div>'; echo '<h2><a href="'.$theLink.'" rel="bookmark" title="Permanent Link to '.$attribute.'">'.$title.'</a></h2>'; } else { echo '<h2><a href="'.$theLink.'" rel="bookmark" title="Permanent Link to '.$attribute.'">'.$title.'</a></h2>'; } } else { $theLink = $newLink; if (has_post_thumbnail()) { $image = get_the_post_thumbnail( $post->ID ); echo '<div class="thumbnailbox"><div class="thumbnail"><a href="'.$theLink.'">'.$image.'</a></div></div>'; echo '<h2><a href="'.$theLink.'" rel="bookmark" title="Permanent Link to '.$attribute.'">'.$title.'</a></h2>'; } else { echo '<h2><a href="'.$theLink.'" rel="bookmark" title="Permanent Link to '.$attribute.'">'.$title.'</a></h2>'; } } ?> <small><?php the_time('F jS, Y') ?></small> <div class="entry"> <?php the_excerpt(); ?> </div> </div> <?php endwhile; ?>

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  • IE7 and IE8: Float clearing without adding empty elements

    - by tk-421
    Hello, I'm having a problem similar to the one described here (without a resolution): http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2467745/ie7-float-and-clear-on-the-same-element The following HTML renders as intended in Firefox but not in (both) IE7 and IE8: <html> <head> <style> ul { list-style-type: none; } li { clear: both; padding: 5px; } .left { clear: left; float: left; } .middle { clear: none; float: left; } .right { clear: right; float: left; } </style> </head> <body> <ul> <li>1</li> <li class="left">2</li> <li class="right">3</li> <li class="left">4</li> <li class="middle">5</li> <li class="right">6</li> <li>7</li> </ul> </body> </html> This is a form layout, and in Firefox the results appear like: 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 That's what I'm going for. In IE7 and IE8 however, the results are: 1 2 3 5 6 4 7 [Note: I don't want to float anything to the right because I want the fields on my form to left-align correctly, without a giant space in-between the floated fields to account for the parent container's width.] Apparently I need a full clear, and can probably add an empty list-item element to the list to force clearing, but that seems like a dumb solution and sort of defeats the purpose. Any ideas? I've spent a few hours reading and trying different options without success.

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  • Use HTTP PUT to create new cache (ehCache) running on the same Tomcat?

    - by socal_javaguy
    I am trying to send a HTTP PUT (in order to create a new cache and populate it with my generated JSON) to ehCache using my webservice which is on the same local tomcat instance. Am new to RESTful Web Services and am using JDK 1.6, Tomcat 7, ehCache, and JSON. I have my POJOs defined like this: Person POJO: import javax.xml.bind.annotation.XmlRootElement; @XmlRootElement public class Person { private String firstName; private String lastName; private List<House> houses; // Getters & Setters } House POJO: import javax.xml.bind.annotation.XmlRootElement; @XmlRootElement public class House { private String address; private String city; private String state; // Getters & Setters } Using a PersonUtil class, I hardcoded the POJOs as follows: public class PersonUtil { public static Person getPerson() { Person person = new Person(); person.setFirstName("John"); person.setLastName("Doe"); List<House> houses = new ArrayList<House>(); House house = new House(); house.setAddress("1234 Elm Street"); house.setCity("Anytown"); house.setState("Maine"); houses.add(house); person.setHouses(houses); return person; } } Am able to create a JSON response per a GET request: @Path("") public class MyWebService{ @GET @Produces(MediaType.APPLICATION_JSON) public Person getPerson() { return PersonUtil.getPerson(); } } When deploying the war to tomcat and pointing the browser to http://localhost:8080/personservice/ Generated JSON: { "firstName" : "John", "lastName" : "Doe", "houses": [ { "address" : "1234 Elmstreet", "city" : "Anytown", "state" : "Maine" } ] } So far, so good, however, I have a different app which is running on the same tomcat instance (and has support for REST): http://localhost:8080/ehcache/rest/ While tomcat is running, I can issue a PUT like this: echo "Hello World" | curl -S -T - http://localhost:8080/ehcache/rest/hello/1 When I "GET" it like this: curl http://localhost:8080/ehcache/rest/hello/1 Will yield: Hello World What I need to do is create a POST which will put my entire Person generated JSON and create a new cache: http://localhost:8080/ehcache/rest/person And when I do a "GET" on this previous URL, it should look like this: { "firstName" : "John", "lastName" : "Doe", "houses": [ { "address" : "1234 Elmstreet", "city" : "Anytown", "state" : "Maine" } ] } So, far, this is what my PUT looks like: @PUT @Path("/ehcache/rest/person") @Produces(MediaType.APPLICATION_JSON) @Consumes(MediaType.APPLICATION_JSON) public Response createCache() { ResponseBuilder response = Response.ok(PersonUtil.getPerson(), MediaType.APPLICATION_JSON); return response.build(); } Question(s): (1) Is this the correct way to write the PUT? (2) What should I write inside the createCache() method to have it PUT my generated JSON into: http://localhost:8080/ehcache/rest/person (3) What would the command line CURL comment look like to use the PUT? Thanks for taking the time to read this...

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  • Hibernate Persistence problems with Bean Mapping (Dozer)

    - by BuffaloBuffalo
    I am using Hibernate 3, and having a particular issue when persisting a new Entity which has an association with an existing detached entity. Easiest way to explain this is via code samples. I have two entities, FooEntity and BarEntity, of which a BarEntity can be associated with many FooEntity: @Entity public class FooEntity implements Foo{ @Id private Long id; @ManyToOne(targetEntity = BarEntity.class) @JoinColumn(name = "bar_id", referencedColumnName = "id") @Cascade(value={CascadeType.ALL}) private Bar bar; } @Entity public class BarEntity implements Bar{ @Id private Long id; @OneToMany(mappedBy = "bar", targetEntity = FooEntity.class) private Set<Foo> foos; } Foo and Bar are interfaces that loosely define getters for the various fields. There are corresponding FooImpl and BarImpl classes that are essentially just the entity objects without the annotations. What I am trying to do is construct a new instance of FooImpl, and persist it after setting a number of fields. The new Foo instance will have its 'bar' member set to an existing Bar (runtime being a BarEntity) from the database (retrieved via session.get(..)). After the FooImpl has all of its properties set, Apache Dozer is used to map between the 'domain' object FooImpl and the Entity FooEntity. What Dozer is doing in the background is instantiating a new FooEntity and setting all of the matching fields. BarEntity is cloned as well via instantiation and set the FooEntity's 'bar' member. After this occurs, passing the new FooEntity object to persist. This throws the exception: org.hibernate.PersistentObjectException: detached entity passed to persist: com.company.entity.BarEntity Below is in code the steps that are occurring FooImpl foo = new FooImpl(); //returns at runtime a persistent BarEntity through session.get() Bar bar = BarService.getBar(1L); foo.setBar(bar); ... //This constructs a new instance of FooEntity, with a member 'bar' which itself is a new instance that is detached) FooEntity entityToPersist = dozerMapper.map(foo, FooEntity.class); ... session.persist(entityToPersist); I have been able to resolve this issue by either removing or changing the @Cascade annotation, but that limits future use for say adding a new Foo with a new Bar attached to it already. Is there some solution here I am missing? I would be surprised if this issue hasn't been solved somewhere before, either by altering how Dozer Maps the children of Foo or how Hibernate reacts to a detached Child Entity.

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  • Is there anything wrong with having a few private methods exposing IQueryable<T> and all public meth

    - by Nate Bross
    I'm wondering if there is a better way to approach this problem. The objective is to reuse code. Let’s say that I have a Linq-To-SQL datacontext and I've written a "repository style" class that wraps up a lot of the methods I need and exposes IQueryables. (so far, no problem). Now, I'm building a service layer to sit on top of this repository, many of the service methods will be 1<-1 with repository methods, but some will not. I think a code sample will illustrate this better than words. public class ServiceLayer { MyClassDataContext context; IMyRepository rpo; public ServiceLayer(MyClassDataContext ctx) { context = ctx; rpo = new MyRepository(context); } private IQueryable<MyClass> ReadAllMyClass() { // pretend there is some complex business logic here // and maybe some filtering of the current users access to "all" // that I don't want to repeat in all of the public methods that access // MyClass objects. return rpo.ReadAllMyClass(); } public IEnumerable<MyClass> GetAllMyClass() { // call private IQueryable so we can do attional "in-database" processing return this.ReadAllMyClass(); } public IEnumerable<MyClass> GetActiveMyClass() { // call private IQueryable so we can do attional "in-database" processing // in this case a .Where() clause return this.ReadAllMyClass().Where(mc => mc.IsActive.Equals(true)); } #region "Something my class MAY need to do in the future" private IQueryable<MyOtherTable> ReadAllMyOtherTable() { // there could be additional constrains which define // "all" for the current user return context.MyOtherTable; } public IEnumerable<MyOtherTable> GetAllMyOtherTable() { return this.ReadAllMyOtherTable(); } public IEnumerable<MyOtherTable> GetInactiveOtherTable() { return this.ReadAllMyOtherTable.Where(ot => ot.IsActive.Equals(false)); } #endregion } This particular case is not the best illustration, since I could just call the repository directly in the GetActiveMyClass method, but let’s presume that my private IQueryable does some extra processing and business logic that I don't want to replicate in both of my public methods. Is that a bad way to attack an issue like this? I don't see it being so complex that it really warrants building a third class to sit between the repository and the service class, but I'd like to get your thoughts. For the sake of argument, lets presume two additional things. This service is going to be exposed through WCF and that each of these public IEnumerable methods will be calling a .Select(m => m.ToViewModel()) on each returned collection which will convert it to a POCO for serialization. The service will eventually need to expose some context.SomeOtherTable which wont be wrapped into the repository.

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  • What is the proper way to wrap this php loop around the javascript

    - by zac
    Hi, I am mashing together the Google Maps 2 script with a Wordpress loop so there is a CMS platform for the map data. I have this working fine : var point = new GLatLng(48.5139,-123.150531); var marker = createMarker(point,"Lime Kiln State Park", '<?php $post_id = 182; $my_post = get_post($post_id); $mapTitle = $my_post->post_title; $mapIMG = get_post_meta($post_id, 'mapImage', true); $snip = get_post_meta($post_id, 'mapExcerpt', true); echo "<div class=\"span-12\">"; echo "<div class=\"mapTitle\">"; echo $mapTitle; echo "</div>"; echo "<img class=\"mapImage\" src=\""; echo bloginfo('url'); echo "/wp-content/files_mf/"; echo $mapIMG; echo "\" /> "; echo "<div class=\"mapContent\">"; echo $snip; echo "</div>"; echo "<div class=\"moreLink\">"; echo "<a href=\""; echo $permalink = get_permalink( $post_id ); echo "\">Find out more &raquo; </a>"; echo "</div>"; echo "</div>"; ?>') map.addOverlay(marker); However I am hoping to also be able to include the two variables at the start within the php loop so that both of those can also be generated by custom fields. Can someone please show me that the proper way to write this would be so that all of the data can be pulled in from fields within that post id? So the lat/long and title could also be set from within the post 182 fields.

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  • Yii file upload issue

    - by user1289853
    Couple of months ago,I developed a simple app using YII,one of the feature was to upload file. The feature was working well in my dev machine,couple of days ago client found the file upload feature is not working in his server since deployment. And after that I test my dev machine that was not working too. My controller looks: public function actionEntry() { if (!Yii::app()->user->isGuest) { $model = new TrackForm; if (isset($_POST['TrackForm'])) { $entry = new Track; try { $entry->product_image = $_POST['TrackForm']['product_image']; $entry->product_image = CUploadedFile::getInstance($model, 'product_image'); if ($entry->save()) { if ($entry->product_image) { $entry->product_image->saveAs($entry->product_image->name, '/trackshirt/uploads'); } } $this->render('success', array('model' => $model)); // redirect to success page } } catch (Exception $e) { echo 'Caught exception: ', $e->getMessage(), "\n"; } } else { $this->render('entry', array('model' => $model)); } } } Model is like below: <?php class Track extends CActiveRecord { public static function model($className=__CLASS__) { return parent::model($className); } public function tableName() { return 'product_details'; } } My view looks: <?php $form = $this->beginWidget('CActiveForm', array( 'id' => 'hide-form', 'enableClientValidation' => true, 'clientOptions' => array( 'validateOnSubmit' => true, ), 'htmlOptions' => array('enctype' => 'multipart/form-data'), )); ?> <p class="auto-style2"><strong>Administration - Add New Product</strong></p> <table align="center" style="width: 650px"><td class="auto-style3" style="width: 250px">Product Image</td> <td> <?php echo $form->activeFileField($model, 'product_image'); ?> </td> </tr> </table> <p class="auto-style1"> <div style="margin-leftL:-100px;"> <?php echo CHtml::submitButton('Submit New Product Form'); ?> </div> <?php $this->endWidget(); ?> Any idea where is the problem?I tried to debug it but every time it returns Null. Thanks.

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  • organizing unit test

    - by soulmerge
    I have found several conventions to housekeeping unit tests in a project and I'm not sure which approach would be suitable for our next PHP project. I am trying to find the best convention to encourage easy development and accessibility of the tests when reviewing the source code. I would be very interested in your experience/opinion regarding each: One folder for productive code, another for unit tests: This separates unit tests from the logic files of the project. This separation of concerns is as much a nuisance as it is an advantage: Someone looking into the source code of the project will - so I suppose - either browse the implementation or the unit tests (or more commonly: the implementation only). The advantage of unit tests being another viewpoint to your classes is lost - those two viewpoints are just too far apart IMO. Annotated test methods: Any modern unit testing framework I know allows developers to create dedicated test methods, annotating them (@test) and embedding them in the project code. The big drawback I see here is that the project files get cluttered. Even if these methods are separated using a comment header (like UNIT TESTS below this line) it just bloats the class unnecessarily. Test files within the same folders as the implementation files: Our file naming convention dictates that PHP files containing classes (one class per file) should end with .class.php. I could imagine that putting unit tests regarding a class file into another one ending on .test.php would render the tests much more present to other developers without tainting the class. Although it bloats the project folders, instead of the implementation files, this is my favorite so far, but I have my doubts: I would think others have come up with this already, and discarded this option for some reason (i.e. I have not seen a java project with the files Foo.java and FooTest.java within the same folder.) Maybe it's because java developers make heavier use of IDEs that allow them easier access to the tests, whereas in PHP no big editors have emerged (like eclipse for java) - many devs I know use vim/emacs or similar editors with little support for PHP development per se. What is your experience with any of these unit test placements? Do you have another convention I haven't listed here? Or am I just overrating unit test accessibility to reviewing developers?

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  • Performance - FunctionCall vs Event vs Action vs Delegate

    - by hwcverwe
    Currently I am using Microsoft Sync Framework to synchronize databases. I need to gather information per record which is inserted/updated/deleted by Microsoft Sync Framework and do something with this information. The sync speed can go over 50.000 records per minute. So that means my additional code need to be very lightweight otherwise it will be a huge performance penalty. Microsoft Sync Framework raises an SyncProgress event for each record. I am subscribed to that code like this: // Assembly1 SyncProvider.SyncProgress += OnSyncProgress; // .... private void OnSyncProgress(object sender, DbSyncProgressEventArgs e) { switch (args.Stage) { case DbSyncStage.ApplyingInserts: // MethodCall/Delegate/Action<>/EventHandler<> => HandleInsertedRecordInformation // Do something with inserted record info break; case DbSyncStage.ApplyingUpdates: // MethodCall/Delegate/Action<>/EventHandler<> => HandleUpdatedRecordInformation // Do something with updated record info break; case DbSyncStage.ApplyingDeletes: // MethodCall/Delegate/Action<>/EventHandler<> => HandleDeletedRecordInformation // Do something with deleted record info break; } } Somewhere else in another assembly I have three methods: // Assembly2 public class SyncInformation { public void HandleInsertedRecordInformation(...) {...} public void HandleUpdatedRecordInformation(...) {...} public void HandleInsertedRecordInformation(...) {...} } Assembly2 has a reference to Assembly1. So Assembly1 does not know anything about the existence of the SyncInformation class which need to handle the gathered information. So I have the following options to trigger this code: use events and subscribe on it in Assembly2 1.1. EventHandler< 1.2. Action< 1.3. Delegates using dependency injection: public class Assembly2.SyncInformation : Assembly1.ISyncInformation Other? I know the performance depends on: OnSyncProgress switch using a method call, delegate, Action< or EventHandler< Implementation of SyncInformation class I currently don't care about the implementation of the SyncInformation class. I am mainly focused on the OnSyncProgress method and how to call the SyncInformation methods. So my questions are: What is the most efficient approach? What is the most in-efficient approach? Is there a better way than using a switch in OnSyncProgress?

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  • Replacing div html() by echoing PHP - how to?

    - by Jared
    Hello, I have a multiple product elements that get their class and ID from PHP: $product1["codename"] = "product-1"; $product1["short"] = "Great Product 1"; $product2["codename"] = "product-2"; $product2["short"] = "Great Product 2"; <div class="leftMenuProductButton" id="'. $product1["codename"].'" >'. $product1["short"].'</div> <div class="leftMenuProductButton" id="'. $product2["codename"].'" >'. $product2["short"].'</div> These display as: <div class="leftMenuProductButton" id="product-1" > Great Product 1</div> <div class="leftMenuProductButton" id="product-2" > Great Product 2</div> In the page, I have an element that I want to replace the HTML: <div id="productPopupTop"> //Replace this content </div> Using jquery, I have tried the following: $( '.leftMenuProductButton' ).hover ( function () { var swapNAME = $(this).attr("id"); //gets the ID, #product-1, #product-2 etc. This works. $("#productPopupTop").html(' <? echo $' + swapNAME + '["short"] ?>'); //This is supposed to get something like <? echo $product-1["short"] ?> This doesn't appear to work. }, function () { //this is just here for later }); If I try to do an alert('<? echo $' + swapNAME + '["short"] ?>'); it will literally display something like <? echo $product-1["short"] ?> Please note that both the Javascript and the PHP are externally linked in a PHP file (index.php <<< (js.js, products.php) QUESTION: How do I replace the HTML() of #productPopupTop with the ["short"] of a product? If I should use Ajax, how would I code this?

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  • How to reference a particular JSON in a function call.

    - by Jane Wilkie
    Hi guys! I have two javascript routines.. the first one declares some JSON and it contains a function that takes two arguments, the first argument being the json object that needs traversing and the second argument is the tab that the rendering is done in. The second routine merely passes the name of the JSON that needs traversing and tab to render in. The code is below.... <script language="JavaScript1.2" type="text/javascript"> var arr = [ {"id":"10", "class":"child-of-9", "useless":"donotneed"}, {"id":"11", "class":"child-of-10", "useless":"donotneed"}]; var arrtwo = [ {"id":"12", "class":"child-of-12", "useless":"donotneed"}, {"id":"13", "class":"child-of-13", "useless":"donotneed"}]; function render_help(json,tab){ var html=''; for(var i=0;i<json.length;i++){ var obj = json[i]; for(var key in obj){ var attrName = key; var attrValue = obj[key]; if (attrName == "id"){ html = html +'<B>'+attrValue+'</B>'+'<BR><BR>'; }else if (attrName == "class"){ html = html + attrValue + '<BR><BR>'; } } } document.getElementById(tab).innerHTML=(html); } </script> <script language="JavaScript1.2" type="text/javascript"> render_help(arr,"helptab"); </script> Various testing and strategically placed alert boxes indicate that the tab parameter is being passed and interpreted correctly. I know this because when I change .... document.getElementById(tab).innerHTML=(html); to document.getElementById(tab).innerHTML=("Howdy"); and it renders "Howdy" just fine. Putting an alert box (alert(json)) in to check the value of json yields.... [object.Object],[object.Object] The JSON object remains elusive. For the purposes of this scripting I need the JSON "arr" to be iterated over. I feel like the answer is fairly obvious so far no luck. Admittedly I am new with Javascript and I am apparently missing something. Does anyone have a clue as to what I'm overlooking here? Happy New Year to you all! Janie

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  • Drag and drop game - why isn't it working now I've moved it to another domain?

    - by vward
    Earlier this year I did some work on a drag and drop game. It was the first thing I'd coded other than basic html. I got it working but then had to put it to one side for a while. I've now come back to work on it. The game I had created was put on the ftp of a domain I no longer have. I took the html and image files and put them on another domain expecting them to work. However now nothing drags! I don't know what could be different. I can barely remember how I coded this in the first place. Is there an additional file that should be on the ftp or something like that? Can anyone shed any light? Thanks Vic Game: http://www.vic-taylor.com/dolls/doll6.html Code: <!doctype html> <html lang="en"> <head> <script src="http://code.jquery.com/jquery.min.js"></script> <script src="http://code.jquery.com/ui/1.8.17/jquery-ui.min.js"></script> <script> $(function() { $( "#draggable" ).draggable() }); </script> <script> $(function() { $( "#draggable2" ).draggable(); }); </script> <script> $(function() { $( "#draggable3" ).draggable(); }); </script> <script> $(function() { $( "#draggable4" ).draggable(); }); </script> <script> $(function() { $( "#draggable5" ).draggable(); }); </script> </head> </body> <div id="bodies/palepd.gif"> <img src="bodies/palepd.gif" class="ui-widget-content" id="draggable"> <img src="bodies/trousers.gif" class="ui-widget-content" id="draggable2"> <img src="bodies/top.gif" class="ui-widget-content" id="draggable3"> <img src="bodies/dress.gif" class="ui-widget-content" id="draggable4"> <img src="bodies/coat.gif" class="ui-widget-content" id="draggable5"> </div> </body>

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  • Jquery question : maintain focus upon appending a row?

    - by PoppySeedsAndAppleJuice
    The function below checks whether the id entered is already in the database, and if it is, then it adds some html to the table. I'm not sure if it's directly related to my issue or not, but, essentially, a user will place the focus on the id input field and enters an id. Using ajax, it posts to a php script and returns data if rows are found and nothing if it doesn't. If the user then tabs over to the next input field (zipcode), or clicks in another input field, they essentially have to do so twice. The cursor "flashes" in the field briefly and then focuses out. I tried adding in a focus(), but the behavior didn't change. So, the html looks like this: <table id="tableSearchData" class="searchlist" style="width: 789px;"> <thead> <tr> <th>ID</th> <th>Zip Code</th> <th>Radius (in miles)</th> </tr> </thead> <tbody> <tr class="odd"> <!-- PROBLEM is described below --> <!-- User clicks in <input name="id[]"> and ID is checked --> <!-- User presses "tab" or clicks in <input name="zipcode[] (in the *same* row) and cursor flashes, then goes out of focus so that the user has to click in the field again --> <td class="center sorting_1"><input type="text" value="" name="id[]"></td> <td class="center"><input type="text" value="" name="zipcode[]"></td> <td class="center"><input type="text" value="" name="radius[]"></td> </tr> </tbody> </table> Here's the jquery function... Like I said, I'm not sure if it's directly related to the problem I'm having, but, thought I should include it because I suppose it's likely there is something happening there... $("#tableSearchData > tbody > tr > td > input[name=id[]]").focusout(function() { var row = $(this).closest("tr").get(0); var sData = $(this).serialize(); $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "checkid.php", data: sData, success: function(html) { $(row).replaceWith(html); $(".preset").each(function() { $(this).attr("disabled", true); }); $(row).closest("input[name=zipcode[]]").focus(); } }); });

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  • how to invoke an activity of a library project from an android apps

    - by Austin
    I have an open source android code that I need to use in my android apps. It has all the source code as well as resource files, manifest files and class path. It can be compiled as a separate android apps. I have constraints for using the open source. 1. I can't change a single line of code. 2. I can't use it as a separate apps. These constraints are non negotiable. What I have done is I have compiled the open source as class library(in Eclipse: Project Properties-Android- Tick check box Is Library). This has resulted in generation of .class files(in bin) for the java files and resource files. This open source has an android activity that i want to open from my application. So I have linked the directory of these sets of class files in the source section of my java build path( in .classpath). I have declared the activity in my manifest file with proper action intent filters. Now when I am trying to call activity from my code, its not working. Cleaning and rebuilding doesn't help. However, if I build the open source project and my apps in the same workspace of eclipse and link the open source in my apps in exact same manner it works fine. I am not able to identify the difference. All settings seems to be same(all files are identical in both the cases). But only in the second case it works. I have tried it as jar file also. I have build the open source as project library and exported it into a jar file(excluding manifest file). But in that case I am getting the following error UNEXPECTED TOP-LEVEL EXCEPTION: java.lang.IllegalArgumentException: already added: .... Conversion to Dalvik format failed with error 1 This I guess is coming because the android library(2.2) has been included twice in my apps( one for building my apps & another for building the open source). I dont know how to avoid this. Cleaning the project doesn't help. What i require is to use the open source and invoking it's activities in my apps without violating the constraints. If i can use the open source as bunch of .class files then great, or else any other way will do fine. Please look into it and let me know. Thanks

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  • Newbie jQuery question: Need slideshow to rotate automatically, not just when clicking navigation.

    - by Justin
    Hi everyone, This is my first post, so please forgive me if this question has been asked a million times. I'm a self professed jQuery hack and I need a little guidance on taking this script I found and adapting it to my needs. Anyway, what I'm making is an image slide show with navigation. The script I found does this, but does not automatically cycle through the images. I'm using jQuery 1.3.2 and would rather stick with that than using the newer library. I would also prefer to edit what is already here rather than start from scratch. Anywho, here's the html: <div id="myslide"> <div class="cover"> <div class="mystuff"> <img alt="&nbsp;" src="http://www.mfhc.com/wp/wp-content/uploads/2010/05/current_Denver-skyline.jpg" /> </div> <div class="mystuff"> <img alt="&nbsp;" src="http://www.mfhc.com/wp/wp-content/uploads/2010/05/pepsi_center-IS42RF-0D111C.jpg" /> </div> <div class="mystuff"> <img alt="&nbsp;" src="http://www.mfhc.com/wp/wp-content/uploads/2010/05/columbine-2689820469_D1104.jpg" /> </div> <div class="mystuff"> <img alt="&nbsp;" src="http://www.mfhc.com/wp/wp-content/uploads/2010/05/ist2_10460354-RedRocks.jpg" /> </div> </div> <!-- end of div cover --> </div> <!-- end of div myslide --> And here's the jQuery: <script type="text/javascript" src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.3.2/jquery.min.js"></script> <script type="text/JavaScript"> $(document).ready(function (){ $('#button a').click(function(){ var integer = $(this).attr('rel'); $('#myslide .cover').css({left:-820*(parseInt(integer)-1)}).hide().fadeIn(); /*----- Width of div #mystuff (here 820) ------ */ $('#button a').each(function(){ $(this).removeClass('active'); if($(this).hasClass('button'+integer)){ $(this).addClass('active')} }); }); }); </script> Here's where I got the script: http://www.webdeveloperjuice.com/2010/04/07/create-lightweight-jquery-fade-manual-slideshow/ Again, if this question is too basic for this site please let me know and possibly provide a reference link or two. Thanks a ton!

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  • Can first descendent be selected directly?

    - by Ben Huh
    I am currently using find() and first() method to select the first descendent element from each of the <div> elements that contains the parent class. But I find this quite cumbersome since find() method would produce a set of matched elements before the first element is being picked. The following is the skeleton of my code: HTML <div class=parent> <ul> <li>random characters</li> <li>random characters</li> <li>random characters</li> <li>random characters</li> </ul> </div> <div class=parent> <ul> <li>random characters</li> <li>random characters</li> <li>random characters</li> <li>random characters</li> </ul> </div> <div class=non-parent> <ul> <li>random characters</li> <li>random characters</li> <li>random characters</li> <li>random characters</li> </ul> </div> <div class=parent> <ul> <li>random characters</li> <li>random characters</li> <li>random characters</li> <li>random characters</li> </ul> </div> // .....the list continues Javascript $('.parent').each(function() { $(this).find('ul li').first().css('color', 'red'); // do other stuff within each loop }); I have seen people using $(".parent li:first") selector. But, because I am doing it in a loop, I am not sure how or whether if this could be done and would like some advice. Thanks.

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  • Returning different data types C#

    - by user1810659
    i have create a class library (DLL) with many different methods. and the return different types of data(string string[] double double[]). Therefore i have created one class i called CustomDataType for all the methods containing different data types so each method in the Library can return object of the custom class and this way be able to return multiple data types I have done it like this: public class CustomDataType { public double Value; public string Timestamp; public string Description; public string Unit; // special for GetparamterInfo public string OpcItemUrl; public string Source; public double Gain; public double Offset; public string ParameterName; public int ParameterID; public double[] arrayOfValue; public string[] arrayOfTimestamp; // public string[] arrayOfParameterName; public string[] arrayOfUnit; public string[] arrayOfDescription; public int[] arrayOfParameterID; public string[] arrayOfItemUrl; public string[] arrayOfSource; public string[] arrayOfModBusRegister; public string[] arrayOfGain; public string[] arrayOfOffset; } The Library contains methods like these: public CustomDataType GetDeviceParameters(string deviceName) { ...................... code getDeviceParametersObj.arrayOfParameterName; return getDeviceParametersObj; } public CustomDataType GetMaxMin(string parameterName, string period, string maxMin) { .....................................code getMaxMingObj.Value = (double)reader["MaxMinValue"]; getMaxMingObj.Timestamp = reader["MeasurementDateTime"].ToString(); getMaxMingObj.Unit = reader["Unit"].ToString(); getMaxMingObj.Description = reader["Description"].ToString(); return getMaxMingObj; } public CustomDataType GetSelectedMaxMinData(string[] parameterName, string period, string mode) {................................code selectedMaxMinObj.arrayOfValue = MaxMinvalueList.ToArray(); selectedMaxMinObj.arrayOfTimestamp = MaxMintimeStampList.ToArray(); selectedMaxMinObj.arrayOfDescription = MaxMindescriptionList.ToArray(); selectedMaxMinObj.arrayOfUnit = MaxMinunitList.ToArray(); return selectedMaxMinObj; } As illustrated thi different methods returns different data types,and it works fine for me but when i import the DLL and want to use the methods Visual studio shwos all the data types in the CustomDataType class as suggestion for all the methods even though the return different data.This is illusrtated in the picture below. As we can see from the picture with the suggestion of all the different return data the user can get confused and choose wrong return data for some of the methods. So my question is how can i improve this. so Visual studio suggest just the belonging return data type for each method.

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  • Unusual RJS error

    - by rrb
    Hi, I am getting the following error in my RoR application: RJS error: TypeError: element is null Element.update("notice", "Comment Posted"); Element.update("allcomments", "\n\n\n \n\n waht now?\n\n \n\n \n\n \n\n asdfasdfa\n \n\n \n\n asdfasdf\n \n\n\n\n\n"); But when I hit the refresh button, I can see my partial updated. Here's my code: show_comments View: <table> <% comments.each do |my_comment| %> <tr> <td><%=h my_comment.comment%></td> </tr> <% end %> </table> show View: <div class="wrapper"> <div class="rescale"> <div class="img-main"> <%= image_tag @deal.photo.url %> </div> </div> <div class="description"> <p class ="description_content"> <%=h @deal.description %> </p> </div> </div> <p> <b>Category:</b> <%=h @deal.category %> </p> <p> <b>Base price:</b> <%=h @deal.base_price %> </p> <%#*<p>%> <%#*<b>Discount:</b>%> <%#=h @deal.discount %> <%#*</p>%> <%= link_to 'Edit', edit_deal_path(@deal) %> | <%= link_to 'Back', deals_path %> <p> <%= render :partial=>'deal_comments', :locals=>{ :comments=>Comment.new(:deal_id=>@deal.id)} %> </p> <div id="allcomments"> <%= render :partial=>'show_comments', :locals=>{ :comments=>Comment.find(@deal.comments)} %> </div> Controller: def create @comment = Comment.new(params[:comment]) render :update do |page| if @comment.save page.replace_html 'notice', 'Comment Posted' else page.replace_html 'notice', 'Something went wrong' end page.replace_html 'allcomments', :partial=> 'deals/show_comments', :locals=>{:comments=> @comment.deal.comments} end end def show_comments @deal = Deal.find(params[:deal_id]) render :partial=> "deals/show_comments", :locals=>{:comments=>@deal.comments} end end

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  • How can I link two Java serialised objects back together?

    - by Kidburla
    Sometimes (quite a lot, actually) we get a situation in Java where two objects are pointing to the same thing. Now if we serialise these separately it is quite appropriate that the serialised forms have separate copies of the object as it should be possible to open one without the other. However if we now deserialise them both, we find that they are still separated. Is there any way to link them back together? Example follows. public class Example { private static class ContainerClass implements java.io.Serializable { private ReferencedClass obj; public ReferencedClass get() { return obj; } public void set(ReferencedClass obj) { this.obj = obj; } } private static class ReferencedClass implements java.io.Serializable { private int i = 0; public int get() { return i; } public void set(int i) { this.i = i; } } public static void main(String[] args) throws Exception { //Initialise the classes ContainerClass test1 = new ContainerClass(); ContainerClass test2 = new ContainerClass(); ReferencedClass ref = new ReferencedClass(); //Make both container class point to the same reference test1.set(ref); test2.set(ref); //This does what we expect: setting the integer in one (way of accessing the) referenced class sets it in the other one test1.get().set(1234); System.out.println(Integer.toString(test2.get().get())); //Now serialise the container classes java.io.ObjectOutputStream os = new java.io.ObjectOutputStream(new java.io.FileOutputStream("C:\\Users\\Public\\test1.ser")); os.writeObject(test1); os.close(); os = new java.io.ObjectOutputStream(new java.io.FileOutputStream("C:\\Users\\Public\\test2.ser")); os.writeObject(test2); os.close(); //And deserialise them java.io.ObjectInputStream is = new java.io.ObjectInputStream(new java.io.FileInputStream("C:\\Users\\Public\\test1.ser")); ContainerClass test3 = (ContainerClass)is.readObject(); is.close(); is = new java.io.ObjectInputStream(new java.io.FileInputStream("C:\\Users\\Public\\test2.ser")); ContainerClass test4 = (ContainerClass)is.readObject(); is.close(); //We expect the same thing as before, and would expect a result of 4321, but this doesn't happen as the referenced objects are now separate instances test3.get().set(4321); System.out.println(Integer.toString(test4.get().get())); } }

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