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  • Is it possible to change an "Unidentified Network" into a "Home" or "Work" network on Windows 7

    - by Rhys
    I have a problem with Windows 7 RC (7100). I frequently use a crossover network cable on WinXP with static IP addresses to connect to various industrial devices (e.g. robots, pumps, valves or even other Windows PCs) that have Ethernet network ports. When I do this on Windows 7, the network connection is classed as an "Unidentified Network" in Networks and Sharing Center and the public firewall profile is enforced by Windows. I do not want to change the public profile and would prefer to use the Home or Work profile instead. For other networks like Home and Work I'm able to click on them and change the classification. This is not available for unidentified networks. My questions are these:- Is there a way to manual override the "Unidentified Network" classification? What tests are performed on the network that fail, therefore classifying it as an "Unidentified Network" By googling (hitting mainly vista issues) it seems that you need to ensure that the default gateway is not 0.0.0.0. I've done this. I've also tried to remove IPv6 but this does not seem possible on Windows 7. UPDATE For those still having problems here is the answer to my issue and the possible reasons why:- Win7 keeps a list of the networks you visit by (I am assuming, but don’t know for sure) the MACID of the device pointed to by the Default Gateway. The default gateway is usually the constant device in a network (i.e. the NAT or router) so can be used to uniquely identify one network from another. The default gateway in the IPv4 properties panel must therefore point to an actual endpoint so windows can then keep track of it. If there is a device at the end of the Default Gateway windows will identify it and track it remembering its settings. The ways you can therefore fool Win7 is to either point the default gateway to your own IP address, or the IP address of the target device you’re communicating with. This will have the side effect of expecting that target device to start routing packets for IP destinations that are outside your subnet. So some applications on Win7 will try to communicate with the internet, these will be passed on to the default gateway (either back you the same IP address or a target device that is not a router) and thus will eventually timeout because neither can route packets. Which you can usually live with. This gets slightly complicated when you mix a this type of connection with a real connection to the internet via WIFI. The wired network card usually has priority when routing because of the “interface metric” so some applications might not connect correctly.

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  • Searching For a Desktop Security Software to harden Windows machines, anybody?

    - by MosheH
    I'm a network administrator of a small/medium network. I'm looking for a software (Free or Not) which can harden Windows Computers (XP And Win7) for the propose of hardening standalone desktop computers (not in domain network). Note: The computers are completely isolated (standalone), so i can't use active directory group policy. moreover, there are too many restriction that i need to apply, so it is not particle to set it up manual (one by one). Basically what I’m looking for is a software that can restrict and disable access for specific user accounts on the system. For Example: User john can only open one application and nothing else -- He don’t see no icon on the desktop or start menu, except for one or two applications which i want to allow. He can't Right click on the desktop, the task-bar icons are not shown, there is no folder options, etc... User marry can open a specific application and copy data to one folder on D drive. User Dan, have access to all drives but cannot install software, and so on... So far ,I've found only the following solutions, but they all seems to miss one or more feature: Desktop restriction Software 1. Faronics WINSelect The application seems to answer most of our needs except one feature which is very important to us but seems to be missing from WINSelect, which is "restriction per profile". WINSelect only allow to set up restrictions which are applied system-wide. If I have multiple user accounts on the system and want to apply different restrictions for each user, I cant. Deskman (No Restriction per user)- Same thing, no restriction per profile. Desktop Security Rx - not relevant, No Win7 Support. The only software that I've found which is offering a restriction per profile is " 1st Security Agent ". but its GUI is very complicated and not very intuitive. It's worth to mention that I'm not looking for "Internet Kiosk software" although they share some features with the one I need. All I need is a software (like http://www.faronics.com/standard/winselect/) that is offering a way to restrict Windows user interface. So if anybody know an Hardening software which allows to set-up user restrictions on Windows systems, It will be a big, big, big help for me! Thanks to you all

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  • mac + parallels and https site test = router restarts

    - by Erik
    Ok I have an interesting & very frustrating problem happening. I'm going to explain it the best I can. I work as a graphic designer & web designer on a mac and have a Comcast internet connection that comes through a Comcast branded router (SMC8014) which then ties into an Airport Extreme Base Station which runs my office network. I run OS 10.5.7 and also run Parallels 4.0.3 (running Windows XP) for testing websites in Internet Explorer and so on. Ok, so that the basic background. Here's my issue. I've been collaborating an ecommerce website with another designer/developer and when testing the site on the PC side we have started to run into some sort of network problem. The site is https if that matters at all I suspect it may. Basically when I run parallels for testing I am constantly having to restart the router in order to connect to the test site (it's hosted). Funny thing is I can access the rest of the internet fine, just not this site I'm working on until I restart the router (It's sorta like the site is timing out). This never happens when just running the Mac side of things. It only becomes an issue when Parallels is open and I am doing page refreshes while making css or HTML edits via something like Coda or CSS edit (connected to the hosting server via ftp). The real problem is that once the problem starts I only get about 2 or 3 page loads before I have to restart the router again. It's absolutely crippling. I cannot get any work done when I have to restart the router every couple of minutes. So, if you think this problem is isolated to me, the answer is no. The designer/developer I'm collaborating with has an office a couple miles away and experiences very similar problems under slightly different setup. He also has Comcast as his internet provider and connects his router to an Airport and primarily works on a mac. The main difference is that rather than using a visualizer like parallels to test the website on the PC he uses a real live PC that is on his network. Once he fire up the PC to do testing he runs into the same issue described above. After a couple of page refreshes in Internet Explorer or other browser on the PC the site becomes unresponsive and the router has to get restarted. Any thoughts on what is going on here would be greatly appreciated. Thanks in advance.

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  • libreadline history lines combine

    - by jettero
    This has been driving me crazy for about three years. I don't know how to fully describe the problem, but I think I can finally describe a way to recreate it. Your milage may vary. I have a mixture of ubuntu server and desktop machines of various versions and a few gentoo machines with various states of disrepair. They all seem to kindof do their own thing, although with similarities. Try this and let me know if you see the same thing. pop open two xterms (TERM=xterm) resize one so they're not the same issue screen -R test1 in one (TERM=screen) and screen -x test1 in the other hooray, typing in one shows up in the other; although notice that their different size produces artifacts and things issue a couple commands in your shell hit ^AF in the one that doesn't fit quite right, now it fits!! scroll back over the history a little goto 6 Eventually you'll notice a couple history lines combine. If you don't, then it's something unique to my setup, which spans various distributions and computers; so that's a confusing concept to me. If you see the thing I'm seeing then this: bash$ ls -al bash$ ps auxfw becomes this: bash$ ls -al; ps auxfw It doesn't happen every time. I have to really play with it — unless I don't want it to happen, then it always does. On some systems (or combinations), I get a line separator like the example above. On some systems, I do not. That I get the line separator on some systems seems to indicate to me that bash supports this behavior. Its history is entirely handled by libreadline and after perusing (ie, carefully reading) the man pages, I couldn't find a single readline setting for combining two history lines. Nor can I find anything in the bash manpage. So, how can I invoke this on purpose? Or, if I can't do that, how can I disable it completely? I would take either answer as a solution. Currently, I only see it when I don't want it.

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  • Internet Explorer cannot display page from apache with single SSL virtual host

    - by P.scheit
    I have a question that has come up somehow in different questions but I still can't find the solution, yet. My problem is that I'm hosting a site on apache 2.4 on debian with SSL and Internet Explorer 7 on windows xp shows Internet Explorer cannot display the webpage I have only ONE virtual host that uses ssl, but DIFFERENT virtual hosts that use http. Here is my config for the site with SSL enabled (etc/sites-avaible/default-ssl is NOT linked) <Virtualhost xx.yyy.86.193:443> ServerName www.my-certified-domain.de ServerAlias my-certified-domain.de DocumentRoot "/var/local/www/my-certified-domain.de/current/www" Alias /files "/var/local/www/my-certified-domain.de/current/files" CustomLog /var/log/apache2/access.my-certified-domain.de.log combined <Directory "/var/local/www/my-certified-domain.de/current/www"> AllowOverride All </Directory> SSLEngine on SSLCertificateFile /etc/ssl/certs/www.my-certified-domain.de.crt SSLCertificateKeyFile /etc/ssl/private/www.my-certified-domain.de.key SSLCipherSuite HIGH:MEDIUM:!aNULL:+SHA1:+MD5:+HIGH:+MEDIUM SSLCertificateChainFile /etc/apache2/ssl.crt/www.my-certified-domain.de.ca BrowserMatch "MSIE [2-8]" nokeepalive downgrade-1.0 force-response-1.0 </VirtualHost> <VirtualHost *:80> ServerName www.my-certified-domain.de ServerAlias my-certified-domain.de CustomLog /var/log/apache2/access.my-certified-domain.de.log combined Redirect permanent / https://www.my-certified-domain.de/ </VirtualHost> my ports.conf looks like this: NameVirtualHost *:80 Listen 80 <IfModule mod_ssl.c> # If you add NameVirtualHost *:443 here, you will also have to change # the VirtualHost statement in /etc/apache2/sites-available/default-ssl # to <VirtualHost *:443> # Server Name Indication for SSL named virtual hosts is currently not # supported by MSIE on Windows XP. Listen 443 </IfModule> <IfModule mod_gnutls.c> Listen 443 </IfModule> the output from apache2ctl -S is like this: xx.yyy.86.193:443 www.my-certified-domain.de (/etc/apache2/sites-enabled/020-my-certified-domain.de:1) wildcard NameVirtualHosts and _default_ servers: *:80 is a NameVirtualHost default server phpmyadmin.my-certified-domain.de (/etc/apache2/conf.d/phpmyadmin.conf:3) port 80 namevhost phpmyadmin.my-certified-domain.de (/etc/apache2/conf.d/phpmyadmin.conf:3) port 80 namevhost staging.my-certified-domain.de (/etc/apache2/sites-enabled/010-staging.my-certified-domain.de:1) port 80 namevhost testing.my-certified-domain.de (/etc/apache2/sites-enabled/015-testing.my-certified-domain.de:1) port 80 namevhost www.my-certified-domain.de (/etc/apache2/sites-enabled/020-my-certified-domain.de:31) I included the solution for this question: Internet explorer cannot display the page, other browsers can, possibly htaccess / server error And I understand the answer from this question: How to setup Apache NameVirtualHost on SSL? In fakt: I only have one ssl certificate for the domain. And I only want to run ONE virtual host with ssl. So I just want to use the one ip for the ssl virtual host. But still (after rebooting / restarting / testing) internet explorer will still not show the page. When I intepret the apachectl -S as well, I already have only one SSL host and this should response to the initial SSH handshake, shouldn't it? What is wrong in this setup? Thank you so much Philipp

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  • Raid1 with active and spare partition

    - by Daniel Baron
    I am having the following problem with a RAID1 software raid partition on my Ubuntu system (10.04 LTS, 2.6.32-24-server in case it matters). One of my disks (sdb5) reported I/O errors and was therefore marked faulty in the array. The array was then degraded with one active device. Hence, I replaced the harddisk, cloned the partition table and added all new partitions to my raid arrays. After syncing all partitions ended up fine, having 2 active devices - except one of them. The partition which reported the faulty disk before, however, did not include the new partition as an active device but as a spare disk: md3 : active raid1 sdb5[2] sda5[1] 4881344 blocks [2/1] [_U] A detailed look reveals: root@server:~# mdadm --detail /dev/md3 [...] Number Major Minor RaidDevice State 2 8 21 0 spare rebuilding /dev/sdb5 1 8 5 1 active sync /dev/sda5 So here is the question: How do I tell my raid to turn the spare disk into an active one? And why has it been added as a spare device? Recreating or reassembling the array is not an option, because it is my root partition. And I can not find any hints to that subject in the Software Raid HOWTO. Any help would be appreciated. Current Solution I found a solution to my problem, but I am not sure that this is the actual way to do it. Having a closer look at my raid I found that sdb5 was always listed as a spare device: mdadm --examine /dev/sdb5 [...] Number Major Minor RaidDevice State this 2 8 21 2 spare /dev/sdb5 0 0 0 0 0 removed 1 1 8 5 1 active sync /dev/sda5 2 2 8 21 2 spare /dev/sdb5 so readding the device sdb5 to the array md3 always ended up in adding the device as a spare. Finally I just recreated the array mdadm --create /dev/md3 --level=1 -n2 -x0 /dev/sda5 /dev/sdb5 which worked. But the question remains open for me: Is there a better way to manipulate the summaries in the superblock and to tell the array to turn sdb5 from a spare disk to an active disk? I am still curious for an answer.

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  • Switch flooding when bonding interfaces in Linux

    - by John Philips
    +--------+ | Host A | +----+---+ | eth0 (AA:AA:AA:AA:AA:AA) | | +----+-----+ | Switch 1 | (layer2/3) +----+-----+ | +----+-----+ | Switch 2 | +----+-----+ | +----------+----------+ +-------------------------+ Switch 3 +-------------------------+ | +----+-----------+----+ | | | | | | | | | | eth0 (B0:B0:B0:B0:B0:B0) | | eth4 (B4:B4:B4:B4:B4:B4) | | +----+-----------+----+ | | | Host B | | | +----+-----------+----+ | | eth1 (B1:B1:B1:B1:B1:B1) | | eth5 (B5:B5:B5:B5:B5:B5) | | | | | | | | | +------------------------------+ +------------------------------+ Topology overview Host A has a single NIC. Host B has four NICs which are bonded using the balance-alb mode. Both hosts run RHEL 6.0, and both are on the same IPv4 subnet. Traffic analysis Host A is sending data to Host B using some SQL database application. Traffic from Host A to Host B: The source int/MAC is eth0/AA:AA:AA:AA:AA:AA, the destination int/MAC is eth5/B5:B5:B5:B5:B5:B5. Traffic from Host B to Host A: The source int/MAC is eth0/B0:B0:B0:B0:B0:B0, the destination int/MAC is eth0/AA:AA:AA:AA:AA:AA. Once the TCP connection has been established, Host B sends no further frames out eth5. The MAC address of eth5 expires from the bridge tables of both Switch 1 & Switch 2. Switch 1 continues to receive frames from Host A which are destined for B5:B5:B5:B5:B5:B5. Because Switch 1 and Switch 2 no longer have bridge table entries for B5:B5:B5:B5:B5:B5, they flood the frames out all ports on the same VLAN (except for the one it came in on, of course). Reproduce If you ping Host B from a workstation which is connected to either Switch 1 or 2, B5:B5:B5:B5:B5:B5 re-enters the bridge tables and the flooding stops. After five minutes (the default bridge table timeout), flooding resumes. Question It is clear that on Host B, frames arrive on eth5 and exit out eth0. This seems ok as that's what the Linux bonding algorithm is designed to do - balance incoming and outgoing traffic. But since the switch stops receiving frames with the source MAC of eth5, it gets timed out of the bridge table, resulting in flooding. Is this normal? Why aren't any more frames originating from eth5? Is it because there is simply no other traffic going on (the only connection is a single large data transfer from Host A)? I've researched this for a long time and haven't found an answer. Documentation states that no switch changes are necessary when using mode 6 of the Linux interface bonding (balance-alb). Is this behavior occurring because Host B doesn't send any further packets out of eth5, whereas in normal circumstances it's expected that it would? One solution is to setup a cron job which pings Host B to keep the bridge table entries from timing out, but that seems like a dirty hack.

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  • Mysql Servers for Attendance System

    - by foo
    I'm building an attendance system. There are about 20 places where people will check in and check out using Mifare 1K Card. It will use MySQL as the database. The system will display something like "#ID IN: 800AM" when the first time the user checks in and "#ID OUT: 400PM" when the user checks out. For this to work, all the databases need to be synchronized with each other all the times. For an example, if user A went to location #1 to check in but by the time he wants to return home, the server at location #1 went down, he needs to go to location #2 or the nearest server to check out. The server at location #2 should display '#ID OUT: 400PM" and not "#ID IN: 400PM" since he's already checked in. So, what should I use to ensure this idea will work? My main concern is with the network (other department manages it) which is very unpredictable. It just love to go down anytime it wants to. Update LOL, didn't realize my question is not clear, just noticed it when you guys pointed it out, sorry about that. My real question is, how can I configure my MySQL to be synchronized with each other (20 servers)? MySQL cluster ? (tried reading about it, but I'm not sure if it's the right thing to do) My current setup (first phase): Local database for each server OS: Slackware A main server that keeps track which staff is at which server A web based front end for the user to see their history (which connects to the server based on their records) Main Pros No worries about network problems since it is a local database Main Cons A user can only check in and out at the same server. Databases/Servers are not connected with each others. Have to add the user to each server if the users want to check in at different locations. Which means, if he wants to go to location A, he must be checked out from location A first and then check in at location B. The server at location B didn't know that the user has checked in before at A. By the way, I've already centralized my NTP to a local server. About the network, let's just say, I don't have the authority to make changes so that the network will be better. The network won't effect all 20 servers at once, usually, just a few of them for several times a week. If there are anything else you would like me to answer, please just ask.

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  • Rebasing a branch which is public

    - by Dror
    I'm failing to understand how to use git-rebase, and I consider the following example. Let's start a repository in ~/tmp/repo: $ git init Then add a file foo $ echo "hello world" > foo which is then added and committed: $ git add foo $ git commit -m "Added foo" Next, I started a remote repository. In ~/tmp/bare.git I ran $ git init --bare In order to link repo to bare.git I ran $ git remote add origin ../bare.git/ $ git push --set-upstream origin master Next, lets branch, add a file and set an upstream for the new branch b1: $ git checkout -b b1 $ echo "bar" > foo2 $ git add foo2 $ git commit -m "add foo2 in b1" $ git push --set-upstream origin b1 Now it is time to switch back to master and change something there: $ echo "change foo" > foo $ git commit -a -m "changed foo in master" $ git push At this point in master the file foo contain changed foo, while in b1 it is still hello world. Finally, I want to sync b1 with the progress made in master. $ git checkout b1 $ git fetch origin $ git rebase origin/master At this point git st returns: # On branch b1 # Your branch and 'origin/b1' have diverged, # and have 2 and 1 different commit each, respectively. # (use "git pull" to merge the remote branch into yours) # nothing to commit, working directory clean At this point the content of foo in the branch b1 is change foo as well. So what does this warning mean? I expected I should do a git push, git suggests to do git pull... According to this answer, this is more or less it, and in his comment @FrerichRaabe explicitly say that I don't need to do a pull. What's going on here? What is the danger, how should one proceed? How should the history be kept consistent? What is the interplay between the case described above and the following citation: Do not rebase commits that you have pushed to a public repository. taken from pro git book. I guess it is somehow related, and if not I would love to know why. What's the relation between the above scenario and the procedure I described in this post.

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  • force unattended install php apt debian squeeze

    - by user1258619
    i am trying to do an unattended install via php for several packages but every time when the dependencies come up it aborts instead of forcing the answer to be yes. (i have broken apt a few times...) each time though i start off re-imaging my vps(testing server) so there isn't an issue of something still being hung or crashed.can someone tell me what i am doing wrong? keep in mind this is the 12th version of this script to get nowhere. fwrite(STDOUT, "Root Password:\n"); $root_pass = chop(fgets(STDIN)); $file_apt = '/etc/apt/apt.conf.d/70debconf'; // Open the file to get existing content $current_apt = file_get_contents($file_apt); // Append a new person to the file $current_apt .= "Dpkg::Options {\"--force-confold\";};\n"; // Write the contents back to the file file_put_contents($file_apt, $current_apt); $update = shell_exec('echo '.$root_pass.' | DEBIAN_FRONTEND=noninteractive sudo -S apt-get update'); echo $update; $update_upgrade = shell_exec('echo '.$root_pass.' | DEBIAN_FRONTEND=noninteractive sudo -s apt-get upgrade'); echo $update_upgrade; $install_unattended_mysql = shell_exec('echo '.$root_pass.' | DEBIAN_FRONTEND=noninteractive apt-get install --yes --force-yes mysql-server'); echo $install_unattended_mysql; $install_mysql_set_password = shell_exec('mysql -u root -e "UPDATE mysql.user SET password=PASSWORD("'.$root_pass.'") WHERE user="root"; FLUSH PRIVILEGES;'); echo $install_mysql_set_password; i have read a few places that i needed to edit the apt.conf file so i am doing so here and doing an update and an upgrade. also the upgrade does abort when it actually has to install something. The following packages will be upgraded: apache2 apache2-doc apache2-mpm-prefork apache2-utils apache2.2-bin apache2.2-common base-files bind9 bind9-host bind9utils debian-archive-keyring dpkg dselect libbind9-60 libc-bin libc6 libdns69 libisc62 libisccc60 libisccfg62 liblwres60 locales 22 upgraded, 0 newly installed, 0 to remove and 0 not upgraded. Need to get 18.4 MB of archives. After this operation, 8192 B of additional disk space will be used. Do you want to continue [Y/n]? Abort. I also should note that only a few pieces of software are going to be installed from the apt repo's as i will include some binaries to go along with it.

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  • lshw tells me my processor is a 64 bits but my motherboard has a 32 bits width

    - by bpetit
    Recently I noticed lshw tells me a strange thing. Here is the first part of my lshw output: bpetit-1025c description: Notebook product: 1025C (1025C) vendor: ASUSTeK COMPUTER INC. version: x.x serial: C3OAAS000774 width: 32 bits capabilities: smbios-2.7 dmi-2.7 smp-1.4 smp configuration: boot=normal chassis=notebook cpus=2 family=Eee PC... *-core description: Motherboard product: 1025C vendor: ASUSTeK COMPUTER INC. physical id: 0 version: x.xx serial: EeePC-0123456789 slot: To be filled by O.E.M. *-firmware description: BIOS vendor: American Megatrends Inc. physical id: 0 version: 1025C.0701 date: 01/06/2012 size: 64KiB capacity: 1984KiB capabilities: pci upgrade shadowing cdboot bootselect socketedrom edd... *-cpu:0 description: CPU product: Intel(R) Atom(TM) CPU N2800 @ 1.86GHz vendor: Intel Corp. physical id: 4 bus info: cpu@0 version: 6.6.1 serial: 0003-0661-0000-0000-0000-0000 slot: CPU 1 size: 798MHz capacity: 1865MHz width: 64 bits clock: 533MHz capabilities: x86-64 boot fpu fpu_exception wp vme de pse tsc ... configuration: cores=2 enabledcores=1 id=2 threads=2 *-cache:0 description: L1 cache physical id: 5 slot: L1-Cache size: 24KiB capacity: 24KiB capabilities: internal write-back unified *-cache:1 description: L2 cache physical id: 6 slot: L2-Cache size: 512KiB capacity: 512KiB capabilities: internal varies unified *-logicalcpu:0 description: Logical CPU physical id: 2.1 width: 64 bits capabilities: logical *-logicalcpu:1 description: Logical CPU physical id: 2.2 width: 64 bits capabilities: logical *-logicalcpu:2 description: Logical CPU physical id: 2.3 width: 64 bits capabilities: logical *-logicalcpu:3 description: Logical CPU physical id: 2.4 width: 64 bits capabilities: logical *-memory description: System Memory physical id: 13 slot: System board or motherboard size: 2GiB *-bank:0 description: SODIMM [empty] product: [Empty] vendor: [Empty] physical id: 0 serial: [Empty] slot: DIMM0 *-bank:1 description: SODIMM DDR3 Synchronous 1066 MHz (0.9 ns) product: SSZ3128M8-EAEEF vendor: Xicor physical id: 1 serial: 00000004 slot: DIMM1 size: 2GiB width: 64 bits clock: 1066MHz (0.9ns) *-cpu:1 physical id: 1 bus info: cpu@1 version: 6.6.1 serial: 0003-0661-0000-0000-0000-0000 size: 798MHz capacity: 798MHz capabilities: ht cpufreq configuration: id=2 *-logicalcpu:0 description: Logical CPU physical id: 2.1 capabilities: logical *-logicalcpu:1 description: Logical CPU physical id: 2.2 capabilities: logical *-logicalcpu:2 description: Logical CPU physical id: 2.3 capabilities: logical *-logicalcpu:3 description: Logical CPU physical id: 2.4 capabilities: logical So here I see my processor is effectively a 64 bits one. However, I'm wondering how my motherboard can have a "32 bits width". I've browsed the web to find an answer, without success. I imagine it's just a technical fact that I don't know about. Thanks.

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  • Installing and configuring Zend Framework 2 server-wide [Ubuntu] and test driving ZendSkeletonApplication

    - by kinologik
    I'm trying to have ZF2 installed for all my subdomains at once (Ubuntu 12.04). ZF2 just launched its first stable version, so I wanted to install it on my development server and finally get my hands dirty with it. I downloaded ZF2 and unzipped the files in /var/ZF2/ (which now contains Zend/[all components]). I then edited /etc/php5/apache2/php.ini and added the path to the ZF2 files: include_path = ".:/var/ZF2" I then downloaded the ZendSkeletonApplication and unzipped it in /var/www/skeleton. I know it is suggested to composer.phar to install ZF2 application, but: I don't want to make a local installation of ZF2... I want to make a server-wide installation be able to use my Zend components on all my domains/subdomains on my development server. Before using any automatic installation process, I'd really like to understand that process by doing it manually at first. Obviously, something goes wrong when I fire ZendSkeletonApplication, and I get the following when hit the following URL: http://www.myDevServer.com/skeleton/public/ Fatal error: Uncaught exception 'RuntimeException' with message 'Unable to load ZF2. Run `php composer.phar install` or define a ZF2_PATH environment variable.' in /var/www/skeleton/init_autoloader.php:48 Stack trace: #0 /var/www/skeleton/public/index.php(9): include() #1 {main} thrown in /var/www/skeleton/init_autoloader.php on line 48 I have skimmed through the docs, tutorials and the like, but there are no straight forward answer to this kind of configuration. In the official doc, in the (very short) installation chapter, I see a reference to adding an include path in PHP. But no example... http://zf2.readthedocs.org/en/latest/ref/installation.html Once you have a copy of Zend Framework available, your application needs to be able to access the framework classes found in the library folder. Though there are several ways to achieve this, your PHP include_path needs to contain the path to Zend Framework’s library. But then, when I get to the "Getting Started" chapter, it's all composer.phar and nothing else... http://zf2.readthedocs.org/en/latest/user-guide/skeleton-application.html I'm no sysAdmin, just a Zend enthusiast. I'm pretty sure this PEBKAC problem might be obvious for those who already got in ZF2 previous betas. Thanks for helping my out. EDIT: Problem was resolved, thanks to Daniel M. Just setting up ZF2_PATH in httpd.conf was all that was needed. SetEnv ZF2_PATH /var/ZF2 I also removed the include_path reference in php.ini and everything works just fine. So I have no idea why Zend suggested to include it there in their official docs.

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  • Why did Intel drop the Itanium?

    - by Cole Johnson
    I was reading up on the history of the computer and I came along the IA-64 (Itanium) processors. They sounded really interesting and I was confused as to why Intel would decide to drop them. The ability to choose explicitly what 2 instructions you wanted to run in that cycle is a great idea, especially when writing your program in assembly, for example, a faster bootloader. The hundreds of registers should be convincing for any assembly programmer. You could essentially store all the functions variables in the registers if it doesn't call any other ones. The ability to do instructions like this: (qp) xor r1 = r2, r3 ; r1 = r2 XOR r3 (qp) xor r1 = (imm8), r3 ; r1 = (imm8) XOR r3 versus having to do: ; eax = r1 ; ebx = r2 ; ecx = r3 mov eax, ebx ; first put r2 into r1 xor eax, ecx ; then set r1 equivalent to r2 XOR r3 or ; SAME mov eax, (imm32) ; first put (imm32) into r1 xor eax, ecx ; then set r1 equivalent to (imm32) XOR r3 I heard it was because of no backwards x86 comparability, but couldn't thy be fixed by just adding the Pentium circuitry to it and just add a processor flag that would switch it to Itanium mode (like switching to Protected or Long mode) All the great things about it would have surly put them a giant leap ahead of AMD. Any ideas? Sadly this means you will need a very advanced compiler to do this. Or even one per specific model of the CPU. (E.g. a newer version of the Itanium with an extra feature would require different compiler). When I was working on a WinForms (target only had .NET 2.0) project in Visual Studio 2010, I had a compile target of IA-64. That means that there is a .NET runtime that was able to be compiled for IA-64 and a .NET runtime means Windows. Plus, Hamilton's answer mentions Windows NT. Having a full blown OS like Windows NT means that there is a compiler capable of generating IA-64 machine code.

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  • Alienware m15x (older model) BSOD investigation

    - by Crishu
    A frined of mine asked me to help him with an Alienware m15x laptop that had a little service history. It was bought in june 2008, serviced in january 2009 for a random fps drop problem, Alienware returned it saying nothing was wrong. The laptop still had hiccups, but after juggling a few drivers and settings, the fps drops weren't as noticeable. Eventually it died in Sept. 2009. It would not boot up locking itself on a white/gray screen. (i think it was overheating .. clocking in 100 degrees Celsius). So back to Alienware it went. They replaced the GPU and all was fine. Up until these blue screens started showing up. One other thing that was updated was the HDD and a Windows 7 reinstall, in August. From then on it seems to have started its BSOD. Could this be the culprit? Why? 0_o The original Windows was Vista but it was upgraded with a digital download/purchase of Windows 7 Home Premium and activated after installing windows. No errors on the old HDD, just on the latest installation. LE:Due note that now the old HDD is used to see if issues re-occur. So please, I am in need of someone who can interpret these windows dump files: Minidump I may have come to some conflicting conclusions. So if someone can clarify each dump/date and the probable cause/error it had; and a final conclusion or solution, we would be very grateful. Also please consult report for other system info I omitted: same link,code: XRWIVLWG If I missed something or if you have any other questions I'll be happy to answer them. Thank you. Good day. Processor: Intel(R) Core(TM)2 Duo CPU T9300 @ 2.50GHz Network Adapter Properties: Broadcom NetLink (TM) Gigabit Ethernet Intel(R) Wireless WiFi Link 4965AGN Video Adapter Properties: Driver Description NVIDIA GeForce 8800M GTX Driver Date 19.08.2009 Driver Version 8.16.11.8681 Driver Provider NVIDIA INF File oem19.inf Hardware ID PCI\VEN_10DE&DEV_060C&SUBSYS_0770152D&REV_A2 Location Information @system32\DRIVERS\pci.sys,#65536;PCI bus %1, device %2, function %3;(1,0,0) PCI Device NVIDIA GeForce 8800M GTX [NoDB] BIOS String Version 62.92.34.0.8 Installed Drivers nvd3dum (8.16.11.8681), nvwgf2um, nvwgf2um Hard Dik Drive: Model ID ST9120823ASG (**older one 120gb**) Model ID WD32000BEKT (new 320gb with fresh OS)

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  • Managing hosts and iptables in scalable architecture

    - by hakunin
    Let's say I have a load balancer in front of 3 app servers. Let's say I also have these services available at certain IPs: Postgres server Redis server ElasticSearch server Memcached server 1 Memcached server 2 Memcached server 3 So that's 6 nodes at 6 different IP addresses. Naturally, every one of my 3 app servers needs to talk to these 6 servers above. Then, to make it a bit funkier, I also have 3 worker servers. And each worker also talks to the above 6 servers, but thankfully workers and apps never need to talk to each other. Now's the kicker. Everything is on Digital Ocean VPS. What that means is: you have no private network, no private IPs. You only have separate, random IP address on each machine. You can't mask them or anything. So in order to build a secure environment I would have to configure some iptables. For example: Open app servers be accessed by load balancer server Open redis, ES, PG, and each memcached servers to be accessed by each app's IP and each worker's IP This means that every time I add an app or worker I have to also reconfigure iptables in those above 6 servers to welcome the new app or worker. Is there a way to simplify this type of setup? I was thinking — what if there was a gateway machine between apps/workers and the above 6 machines. This way all the interaction would always happen via the gateway server, and when I add a new app or worker I wouldn't need to teach the 6 servers to let it in. If I went this route, then I'd hope a small 512mb server could handle that perhaps, and there wouldn't be almost any overhead. Or would there? Please help with best way to handle this situation. I would appreciate an answer as concrete as possible. I don't think this is too specific, because this general architecture is very common, and Digital Ocean is becoming increasingly popular. A concrete solution here would be much appreciated by many.

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  • How do you backup 40+ Centos5.5 servers?

    - by John Little
    We are embarrassed to ask this question. Apologies for our lack of UNIX expertise. We have inherited 40+ centos 5.5 servers, and don't know how to back them up. We need low level clone type images so that we could restore the servers from scratch if we had to replace the HDs etc. We have used the "dd" command, but we assume this only works if you want to back up one local disk to another, not 40 servers to one server with an external USB HD attached. All 40 servers have a pair of mirrored disks (dont know if its HW or SW raid). Most only have 100MB used. SErvers are running apache, zend, tomcat, mysql etc. Ideally we dont want to have to shut them down to backup (but could). We assume that standard unix commands like tar, cpio, rsync, scp etc. are of no use as they only copy files, not partitions, all attributes, groups etc. i.e. do not produce a result which can simply be re-imaged to a new HD to get the serer back from dead. We have a large SAN, a spare windows box and spare unix boxes, but these are only visible to one layer in the network. We have an unused Dell DL2000 monster tape unit, but no sw or documentation for it. WE have a copy of symantec backup exec, but we have no budget for unix client licenses. (The company has negative amounts of money). We need to be able to initiate the backup remotely, as we can only access the servers in person in an emergency (i.e. to restore) Googling returns some applications to do this, e.g. clonezilla - looks difficult to install and invasive. Mondo, only seems to support backup if you are local to the machine. Amanda might be an option, but looks like days/weeks of work to learn and setup? Is there anything built into Centos, or do we have to go the route of installing, learning and configuring a set of backup softwares? Any ideas? This must be a pretty standard problem which goggling doesnt give an obvious answer.

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  • turn off disable the performance cache

    - by jessie
    OK I run a streaming website and my CMS is giving me an error when uploading videos "Failed To Find Flength File" ok so I did some research. The answer I got from the coder was below. I did do all that, but the only thing I could not do is turn off what he refers to as performance cache, talked about in the last sentence... I am on a Cent OS Assuming the script is set up properly, you are probably dealing with some kind of write-caching. Some servers perform write-caching which prevents writing out the flength file or the entire CGITemp file during the upload. The flength file or the CGITemp file do not actually hit the disk until the upload is complete, making it worthless for reporting on progress during the upload. This may be fixed using a .htaccess file assuming your host supports them. Here is a link to an excellent tutorial on using .htaccess files. I strongly recommend giving it a quick read before attempting to install your own .htaccess file. 1. A mod_security module for Apache. To fix it just create a file called .htaccess (that's a period followed by "htaccess") and put the following lines in that file. Upload the file into the directory where the Uber-Uploader CGI ".pl" scripts resides, or in some directory above it (like your server's DOCUMENT_ROOT, i.e. the top-level of your webspace). htaccess files must be uploaded as ASCII mode, not BINARY. You may need to CHMOD the htaccess file to 644 or (RW-R--R--). # Turn off mod_security filtering. SecFilterEngine Off # The below probably isn't needed, # but better safe than sorry. SecFilterScanPOST Off If the above method does not work, try putting the following lines into the file SetEnvIfNoCase Content-Type \ "^multipart/form-data;" "MODSEC_NOPOSTBUFFERING=Do not buffer file uploads" mod_gzip_on No 2. "Performance Cache" enabled on OS X SERVER. If you're running OS X Server and the progress bar isn't working, it could be because of "performance caching." Apparently if ANY of your hosted sites are using performance caching, then by default, all sites (domains) will attempt to. The fix then is to disable the performance cache on all hosted sites.

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  • Windows Server 2008 R2 bare metal restore to different hardware

    - by S Falken
    Scenario: I have a Windows Server 2008 R2 x64 installation whose main disk drive is now 7 years old and showing signs of age. For the last couple of months it's been displaying increased errors and requirements to run checkdisk. I have successfully created a bare metal restore (BMR) image on a separate data drive on the server, which can be seen from the Windows Recovery console; I tested it by booting to and using the Windows Server installation DVD's recovery utilities. The BMR image includes the system drive with boot partition, system state, and the D:\ drive of the server, which is where I have followed the practice of installing any program that does not require a C:\ installation path. Therefore, the BMR includes both the C:\ and D:\ drives, system state and boot partition. The C:\ drive is a 7-year old Seagate 160GB. The D:\ drive is a rather newer 120GB Western Digital. I have purchased a 128GB solid state Samsung 830 that I want to restore these partitions to, using the BMR. Questions: In the above-referenced article, Microsoft seems to be indicating that I am only able to restore to like-kind hardware, which doesn't help at all and is difficult to believe. Is this really true? I've cleaned these drives up and minimized the size of partition they require. C:\ will need about a 70GB partition, and the data on D:\ will need about 50GB. Will Windows Server backup allow me to restore the BMR to newly-created partitions on the SSD, discarding extra space? I don't need a "how-to": I just need an "is it possible". Justification: Before posting this question, I checked ServerFault articles with the following titles, but none of them were about this exact scenario: Restore SBS 2008 Backup to Same Hardware but Different Disk Configuration Restoring Windows Server 2008 to different hardware - OEM License Restoring II6 server after a hardware failure windows 2008 r2 fail to restore Domain controller failed to restore using windows backup tools How does restore to dissimilar hardware work? Migrating Windows 2008 R2 from a PC to a different PC TFS 2005 Server restore from one hardware to another I also researched Microsoft but only received an oblique answer which was not precisely aimed at my question, at the following URL: http://support.microsoft.com/kb/249694#method3

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  • Cannot access boot menu with compaq 8510p

    - by pinouchon
    I have a problem with my HP compaq 8510p laptop: when I start it, the fan starts and the power light is on, but the screen displays nothing. When I insert a bootable hard drive, it activates the hard drive light (meaning that the CD is recognized) but it stops after a few seconds. Same thing with any hard drive: the drive is recognized but does not boot. What I've tried so far: Changing the hard drive or booting with no hard drive (same problem) Plugging anoher display via VGA : no display on the other screen Inserting a windows-7 CD (same problem) Booting only on battery, with battery and power cable, only with power cable (same problem) So it looks like something is preventing the laptop from booting and displaying the boot menu. Do you have experienced something similar with a laptop ? What could be wrong ? The laptop is out of warranty. The system used to be windows-7 x64. Edit: I went to the help desk of my university. A guy took a look (he also tried to plug an external screen) and said that the computer is dead: on the HP laptops eventually the GPU card dies and so does the motherboard because they are linked. He saw this many times, and even if I can fix the problem, the laptop would crash again after a while. Do you have similar experience with HP laptops ? (mine is 4 years old) Edit 2: Believe it or not, my laptop is magically working again. I have no clue about what is going on. Now it is like starting and old car: when you turn it on you secretly hope it will actually start... With that said, I expect my laptop to break again in the near future (its an HP after all) and I will accept an answer or add my own accordingly. Edit 3: As expected, the laptop is down again. This time, sometimes when I power it up, it shuts down automatically after 3 seconds, sometimes not at all. In addition, when it does not shut down on its own, the power button does not work : the only way to shut it down is by unplugging the battery. As before, the screen is black, and only the power and battery lights are on. (the other ones: hard drive and wifi are off). I have tried to plug in another power plug, removing the battery and removing the hard drive without success. I might buy another laptop. I've brought the laptop to a repair shop. The problem is indeed that the graphic card is down. It will be replaced by a new one.

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  • Why does Excel now give me already existing name range error on Copy Sheet?

    - by WilliamKF
    I've been working on a Microsoft Excel 2007 spreadsheet for several days. I'm working from a master template like sheet and copying it to a new sheet repeatedly. Up until today, this was happening with no issues. However, in the middle of today this suddenly changed and I do not know why. Now, whenever I try to copy a worksheet I get about ten dialogs, each one with a different name range object (shown below as 'XXXX') and I click yes for each one: A formula or sheet you want to move or copy contains the name 'XXXX', which already exists on the destination worksheet. Do you want to use this version of the name? To use the name as defined in destination sheet, click Yes. To rename the range referred to in the formula or worksheet, click No, and enter a new name in the Name Conflict dialog box. The name range objects refer to cells in the sheet. For example, E6 is called name range PRE on multiple sheets (and has been all along) and some of the formulas refer to PRE instead of $E$6. One of the 'XXXX' above is this PRE. These name ranges should only be resolved within the sheet within which they appear. This was not an issue before despite the same name range existing on multiple sheets before. I want to keep my name ranges. What could have changed in my spreadsheet to cause this change in behavior? I've gone back to prior sheets created this way and now they give the message too when copied. I tried a different computer and a different user and the same behavior is seen everywhere. I can only conclude something in the spreadsheet has changed. What could this be and how can I get back the old behavior whereby I can copy sheets with name ranges and not get any errors? Looking in the Name Manager I see that the name ranges being complained about show twice, once as scope Template and again as scope Workbook. If I delete the scope Template ones the error goes away on copy however, I get a bunch of #REF errors. If I delete the scope Workbook ones, all seems okay and the errors on copy go away too, so perhaps this is the answer, but I'm nervous about what effect this deletion will have and wonder how the Workbook ones came into existence in the first place. Will it be safe to just delete the Workbook name manager scoped entries and how might these have come into existence without my knowing it to begin with?

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  • What DNS server to use for dynamic load-balancing of website?

    - by Marki555
    I will have 2 servers in different datacenters (different countries) and I want to use DNS load-balancing mainly for High Availability of website hosted on those 2 servers. It is just ad tracking site, which records hit in local database and returns few lines on html code. I want to return 2 A records each time because of DNS pinning in browsers (if one server fails, browser will try second A record which it has already cached). Both servers will be acting also as DNS servers for redundancy. Now comes my proposed solution: I will use BIND and have both servers as a master for that zone. On each server there will be running script, which will periodically test availability (http) of both servers and remove IP from DNS in case of failure. Now the questions :) 1) Is BIND suitable for this solution? I think BIND performance is good and it is easy to manipulate the zone file via script. And as I will modify the zone only in case of failure/maintenance, the modifications (and thus bind reload) won't be often. 2) I plan to use TTL of 5 minutes. The website will have about 1000-3000 req/s but from distinct clients (each IP only 1-3 requests), so I think the DNS load won't be too much. I suppose their ISPs will cache the responses for those 5 mins. Is there any reason to lower the TTL even more? 3) Is my master-master approach good? Or should I make one of the servers master and the other one slave? Right now each server can monitor both itself and the other one. If only webservice fails, both DNS nodes will notice it. If the whole server fails, then the remaining DNS node will notice it and the failed node will not answer DNS queries anyway. 4) Is it a big issue when one NS server does not respond to queries? If yes, I can make a third DNS, so anytime at least 2 of them would accept queries... 5) Should I rewrite the zone file via script, or just use dynamic DNS update (for example via nsupdateutility)?

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  • ssh, "Last Login", `last` and OS X

    - by allentown
    I have hit the googles as much as I can on this, being specific to OS X, I am not finding an answer. Nothing is wrong, but curiosity levels are high. $ssh [email protected] Password: Last login: Wed Apr 7 21:28:03 2010 from my-laptop.local ^lonely tylenol^ Line 1 is my command line 2 is the shell asking for the password line 3 is where my question comes from line 4 comes out of /etc/motd I can find nothing in ~/ of an of the .bash* files that contains the string "Last Login", and would like to alter it. It performs some type of hostname lookup, which I can not determine. If I ssh to another host: $ssh [email protected] Last login: Wed Apr 7 21:14:51 2010 from 123-234-321-123-some.cal.isp.net.example hi there, you are on box 456 line 1 is my command line 2 is again, where my question comes from line 3 is from /etc/motd *The dash'd IP address is not reversed On this remote host, I have ~/.ssh and it's corresponding keys set up, so there was no password request Where is the "Last Login:" coming from, where does the date stamp come from, and most importantly, where does the hostname come from? While on [email protected] (box 456) $echo hostname remote.location.example456.com Or with dig, to make sure I have rDNS/PTR set up, for which I am not authoritative, but my ISP has correctly set... $dig -x 123.234.321.123 PTR remote.location.example456.com or $dig PTR 123.321.234.123.in-addr.arpa. +short remote.location.example456.com. my previous hostname used to be 123-234-321-123-some.cal.isp.net.example, which I set with hostname -s remote.location.example456.com, because it was obnoxious to see such a long name. That solves the value of $echo hostname which now returns remote.location.example456.com. Mac OS X, 10.6 is this case, does seem to honor: touch ~/.hushlogin If leave that file empty, I get nothing on the shell when I login. I want to know what controls the host resolution of the IP, and how it is all working. For example, running last reports a huge list of my logins, which have obtusely long hostnames, when they would be preferable to just be remote.location.example456.com. More confusing to me, reading the man page for wtmp and lastlog, it looks like lastlog is not used on OS X, /var/log/lastlog does not exist. Actually, none of these exist on 10.5 or 10.6: /var/run/utmp The utmp file. /var/log/wtmp The wtmp file. /var/log/lastlog The lastlog file. If I am to assume that the system is doing some kind of reverse lookup, I certainly do not know what it is, as it is not an accurate one.

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  • Troubleshooting Network Speeds -- The Age Old Inquiry

    - by John K
    I'm looking for help with what I'm sure is an age old question. I've found myself in a situation of yearning to understand network throughput more clearly, but I can't seem to find information that makes it "click" We have a few servers distributed geographically, running various versions of Windows. Assuming we always use one host (a desktop) as the source, when copying data from that host to other servers across the country, we see a high variance in speed. In some cases, we can copy data at 12MB/s consistently, in others, we're seeing 0.8 MB/s. It should be noted, after testing 8 destinations, we always seem to be at either 0.6-0.8MB/s or 11-12 MB/s. In the building we're primarily concerned with, we have an OC-3 connection to our ISP. I know there are a lot of variables at play, but I guess I was hoping the experts here could help answer a few basic questions to help bolster my understanding. 1.) For older machines, running Windows XP, server 2003, etc, with a 100Mbps Ethernet card and 72 ms typical latency, does 0.8 MB/s sound at all reasonable? Or do you think that slow enough to indicate a problem? 2.) The classic "mathematical fastest speed" of "throughput = TCP window / latency," is, in our case, calculated to 0.8 MB/s (64Kb / 72 ms). My understanding is that is an upper bounds; that you would never expect to reach (due to overhead) let alone surpass that speed. In some cases though, we're seeing speeds of 12.3 MB/s. There are Steelhead accelerators scattered around the network, could those account for such a higher transfer rate? 3.) It's been suggested that the use SMB vs. SMB2 could explain the differences in speed. Indeed, as expected, packet captures show both being used depending on the OS versions in play, as we would expect. I understand what determines SMB2 being used or not, but I'm curious to know what kind of performance gain you can expect with SMB2. My problem simply seems to be a lack of experience, and more importantly, perspective, in terms of what are and are not reasonable network speeds. Could anyone help impart come context/perspective?

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  • How to find the process(es) which are hogging the machine

    - by Aaron Digulla
    Scenario: All of a sudden, my computer feels sluggish. Mouse moves but windows take ages to open, etc. uptime says the load is 7.69 and raising. What is the fastest way to find out which process(es) are the cause of the load? Now, "top" and similar tools isn't the answer because they either show CPU or memory usage but not both at the same time. What I need is the single command which I might be able to type as it happens - something that will figure out any of System is trying to swap 8GB of RAM to disk because process X ... or process X seeks all over the disk or process X uses 400% CPU" So what I'm looking for is iostat, htop/atop and similar tools run into one with an output like this: 1235 cp - Disk trashing 87 chrome - Uses 2&nbsp;GB of RAM 137 nfs_bench - Uses 95% of the network bandwidth I don't want a tool that gives me some numbers which I can analyze but a tool that tells me exactly which process causes the current load. Assume that the user in front of the keyboard barely knows how to write "process", but the user is quickly overwhelmed when it comes to "resident size", "virtual memory" or "process life cycle". My argument goes like this: A user notices a problem. There can be thousands of reasons ... well, almost :-) The user wants to know the source of the problem. The current solutions give me lots of numbers, and I need to know what these numbers mean. What I'm looking for is a meta tool. 99% of the data is irrelevant to the problem. So what the tool should do is look for processes which hog some resource and list only those along with "this process needs a lot of CPU, this produces many IRQs, this process allocates a lot of RAM (and it's still growing)". This will be a relatively short list. It will be much more simple for someone new to this to locate the culprit from this list than from the output of, say, htop which gives me about 5000 numbers but requires me to fold multi-threaded processes myself (I have 50 lines which say VIRT 2750M but only 16 GB of RAM - the machine ought to swap itself to death but of course, this is a misinterpretation of the data that can happen quickly).

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  • Is the guideline: don't open email attachments or execute downloads or run plug-ins (Flash, Java) from untrusted sites enough to avert infection?

    - by therobyouknow
    I'd like to know if the following is enough to avert malware as I feel that the press and other advisory resources aren't always precisely clear on all the methods as to how PCs get infected. To my mind, the key step to getting infected is a conscious choice by the user to run an executable attachment from an email or download, but also viewing content that requires a plug-in (Flash, Java or something else). This conscious step breaks down into the following possibilities: don't open email attachments: certainly agree with this. But lets try to be clear: email comes in 2 parts -the text and the attachment. Just reading the email should not be risky, right? But opening (i.e. running) email attachments IS risky (malware can be present in the attachment) don't execute downloads (e.g. from sites linked from in suspect emails or otherwise): again certainly agree with this (malware can be present in the executable). Usually the user has to voluntary click to download, or at least click to run the executable. Question: has there ever been a case where a user has visited a site and a download has completed on its own and run on its own? don't run content requiring plug-ins: certainly agree: malware can be present in the executable. I vaguely recall cases with Flash but know of the Java-based vulnerabilities much better. Now, is the above enough? Note that I'm much more cautious than this. What I'm concerned about is that the media is not always very clear about how the malware infection occurs. They talk of "booby-trapped sites", "browser attacks" - HOW exactly? I'd presume the other threat would be malevolent use of Javascript to make an executable run on the user's machine. Would I be right and are there details I can read up on about this. Generally I like Javascript as a developer, please note. An accepted answer would fill in any holes I've missed here so we have a complete general view of what the threats are (even though the actual specific details of new threats vary, but the general vectors are known).

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