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• What are the reasons to store documents into DBMS when using Alfresco CMS

  - by Julia

  Hello guys! I have interview for an internship with company that wants to implement document management system and they are considering on the first place open source solutions, their top choice being Alfresco, but decision is still not final, part of my work there would be to investigate is Alfresco the best solution. What I have seen from project description, is that they would implement Alfresco with MySQL database, and not to use DBMS just for document metadata and indexing, but they actually want to store documents inside. By company profile, type of documents would be mostly PDF and .doc, not images. I have researched a bit, and I have read all the topics here related to storing files into the database, not to duplicate a question. So from what I understand, storing BLOBS is generally not recomendable, and by the profile of the company and their legal obligations with archiving, I see they will have to store larger amount of docs. I would like to be ready as much as I can for the interview and that is why I would like your opinion on these questions: What will be your reasons for deciding to store documents into the DBMS, (especially having in mind that you are installing Alfresco, which stores files in the FS)??? Do you have any experiences with storing documents into the MySQL database specifically??? All the help is very much appreciated, I am really excited about interview and really want this internship, so this is one of things i really want to understand before!! Thank you!!!!

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• Can I create template-based library objects in Dreamweaver CS5?

  - by Danjah

  At work we need two 'streams' of template. The first are general layout templates, like the ones already available in the MX through CS5 packages (except we'd have our own customised ones). The second are more granular objects, some of which are functional. In both cases, I don't want Jimmy to be able to wreak havoc inside anything other than the 'editable regions' which make up the templates. Now this is fine if I stick with the first scenario (layout templates) where there's simply a big chunk of editable region for good ole Jim to sprawl into, think of this as the 'body content' area. But I really do need these granular library (or snippet) objects to work in the same way. Unfortunately with my attempts so far they don't work as I'd have thought - perhaps for good reason? When I create a blank template and throw in my chunk of HTML (unobstrusive JS and external CSS use selectors in this HTML to provide style and function) and save it as a new library item or snippet, all looks well. Then I create a new document based on a layout template and save it as a plain html file (still all good so far). Next I drop in my custom library item... still all good... but then I go to save the document and it only allows me to save it as a new template! I expected it would just allow me to save it as HTML and have it simply respect the defined editable regions, as happens in the containing page 'body content' editable region. Apologies if that got specific and technical quite quickly, but it is quite particular. If you want some example files lemme know and I'll zip some up. Many thanks :) p.s It is not a requirement that library objects must somehow inject their dependency files into the newly created page - I already know what they'll be. Also, I know I must 'detatch from original' once I drop a library item into a document which then allows customisation of the library object.

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• How to open child forms positioned within MDI parent in VB.NET?

  - by user961627

  How do we arrange child forms in a parent MDI window? I'm able to call and display a child form from a menu on the parent, but the child pops up outside the parent - I want it to actually be inside the parent. I've checked in C# and VB.Net solutions but they all say pretty much the same, i.e. try to access LayoutMDI, such as here: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/x9fhk181.aspx The problem is, where do I access this? When I'm in the code of my MDI parent, Me.LayoutMdi is not recognized. In which part of the application do I put the Me.LayoutMDI code? Edit The Me.LayoutMDI code worked in the parent after all. I'd been trying for a while but don't know where I was going wrong. However, the child continues to pop up out of the parent. Here's an image of how that happens. The broader form in the back is the parent, and the one with the gridview and two buttons is the new child that popped up. I want it to pop up "Docked" within the parent.

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• Table borders don't display properly when converted from HTML page into MS Word 2003

  - by Daria

  Hello everyone, I've got a bit of a complicated set up. I specialise in XSLT which I write for 3rd party system. All CSS looks fine in the browser. Now that system provides a button that converts my generated HTML into MS Word 2003. However, table borders don't convert as they appear in a Browser. There are lots of tables and they have different borders setup. For example there is one that uses only outside border and no borders inside it. When converting to MS Word, a table appears with ALL the borders in between cells. Which I don't want. I've tried search the Internet, but didn't come across anything useful. Maybe there are tips or tricks on how to set up tables borders so it's understood properly by MS Word. The third party said the following: "The system just passes the HTML created through the converter it finds in the installed version of Word". I would really appreciate any tips and help! Dasha

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• NMock2.0 - how to stub a non interface call?

  - by dferraro

  Hello, I have a class API which has full code coverage and uses DI to mock out all the logic in the main class function (Job.Run) which does all the work. I found a bug in production where we werent doing some validation on one of the data input fields. So, I added a stub function called ValidateFoo()... Wrote a unit test against this function to Expect a JobFailedException, ran the test - it failed obviously because that function was empty. I added the validation logic, and now the test passes. Great, now we know the validation works. Problem is - how do I write the test to make sure that ValidateFoo() is actually called inside Job.Run()? ValidateFoo() is a private method of the Job class - so it's not an interface... Is there anyway to do this with NMock2.0? I know TypeMock supports fakes of non interface types. But changing mock libs right now is not an option. At this point if NMock can't support it, I will simply just add the ValidateFoo() call to the Run() method and test things manually - which obviously I'd prefer not to do considering my Job.Run() method has 100% coverage right now. Any Advice? Thanks very much it is appreciated. EDIT: the other option I have in mind is to just create an integration test for my Job.Run functionality (injecting to it true implementations of the composite objects instead of mocks). I will give it a bad input value for that field and then validate that the job failed. This works and covers my test - but it's not really a unit test but instead an integration test that tests one unit of functionality.... hmm.. EDIT2: IS there any way to do tihs? Anyone have ideas? Maybe TypeMock - or a better design?

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• jQuery ui Accordion degrades in IE6 or IE7, but is working in IE8

  - by cfree

  There are two accordions on my page, with custom accordion CSS in another file, differentiated by class and ID names so as not to conflict with each other. The accordions don't show up at all, they just degrade to showing all the content at once, as if all the accordion styling is gone. The accordions are both called around the middle of the page, and there's no difference if they are loaded with $(document).ready. What should I check for in the CSS files? There are no inline-block uses. I am using jQuery 1.3.2.min and jQuery ui 1.7.2, so I'm assuming the autoHeight set to false won't make a difference... This is being used inside a Symfony-based site. Works fine in FF, IE8, Chrome. Not so much in IE6, IE7/IE8 compatibility mode. $(function() { $("#accordion").accordion({ active: false, autoHeight: false, collapsible: true, icons: { 'header': 'ui-icon-carat-1-e', 'headerSelected': 'ui-icon-carat-1-s' }, }); $(".links").accordion({ active: false, autoHeight: false, collapsible: true }); });

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• Matlab and .net problem with character string function input

  - by Peter

  I have a MATLAB function that I've compiled into a .net library. The function is a simple one that takes a character array as an input and a numeric array as output: function insert = money(dateLimit) .. insert = [1 2]; The function works fine when no function arguments are specified (a default argument is provided inside the function) Dim sf As New SpreadFinder.SpreadFinder Dim output = sf.money() As soon as an argument is specified .net complains. I'm thinking this should be easy and has been done before but searching through MATLAB documentation doesn't offer much help. Here's what I've tried. The sf.money() overload for the function with arguments is (numArgsOut as Integer, argsOut as MWArray, argsIn as MWArray) and hence that's what I've tried. What am I missing? Dim sf As New SpreadFinder.SpreadFinder Dim inputArgs(1) As Arrays.MWCharArray Dim dateLimitString As String = "some string" inputArgs(0) = New Arrays.MWCharArray(dateLimitString) Dim outputArgs(1) As Arrays.MWNumericArray outputArgs(0) = New Arrays.MWNumericArray() sf.money(1, outputArgs, inputArgs) Gives System.NullReferenceException : Object reference not set to an instance of an object. at MathWorks.MATLAB.NET.Utility.MWMCR.EvaluateFunction(String functionName, Int32 numArgsOut, Int32 numArgsIn, MWArray[] argsIn) at MathWorks.MATLAB.NET.Utility.MWMCR.EvaluateFunction(String functionName, Int32 numArgsOut, MWArray[]& argsOut, MWArray[] argsIn) at SpreadFinder.SpreadFinder.money(Int32 numArgsOut, MWArray[]& argsOut, MWArray[] argsIn)

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• Sending solicited mass email

  - by Christian W

  Our company does work environment surveys, and these surveys are filled in online. All participants are sent a link to their survey in an email (personal code included). Some of our clients have employee counts in the hundreds and sometimes in the thousands. Our current solution is just using our SMTP-server to send this, without any form of throttling (VB6, CDO). (All recipients are usually "inside" the same domain, [email protected]) This is not a good solution, as you may imagine, this triggers every anti-spam/firewall/gatekeeper event in the clients environment. We are put in contact with their IT-department beforehand and get them to whitelist our sending server and sender-mail address. The most usual problems we run in to are: Receiving server only grabs the 20-50 first mails and rejects the rest (anti-spam measure). We sometimes can get by this by getting the it-company to whitelist us. Sometimes however, this does not work. It's getting more and more normal to disable bouncing of incorrect mail addresses. This gives us no indication of whether a mail has been delivered or not. And believe it or not, most clients gives us their email list from their HR-system, not their mailsystem. Does anyone have any suggestions for a better way to do this? We can't be the only company sending legitimate mass emails? :)

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• exception message getting lost in IIOP between glassfish domains

  - by Michael Borgwardt

  I'm running two glassfish v2 domains containing stateless session EJBs. In a few cases, an EJB in one domain has to call one in the other. My problem is that when the called EJB aborts with an exception, the caller does not receive the message of the exception and instead reports an internal error that is not helpful at all in diagnosing the problem. What happens seems to be this: At the transport layer, a org.omg.CORBA.portable.ApplicationException is created,which already loses all detail information about the exception except its class. Inside com.sun.jts.CosTransactions.TopCoordinator.get_txcontext(), the status of the transaction ass rolled back causes a org.omg.CosTransactions.Unavailable to be thrown, which gets wrapped and passed around a few times and eventually results into this error being displayed to the user: org.omg.CORBA.INVALID_TRANSACTION: vmcid: 0x0 minor code: 0 completed: No at com.sun.jts.CosTransactions.CurrentTransaction.sendingRequest(CurrentTransaction.java:807) at com.sun.jts.CosTransactions.SenderReceiver.sending_request(SenderReceiver.java:139) at com.sun.jts.pi.InterceptorImpl.send_request(InterceptorImpl.java:344) at com.sun.corba.ee.impl.interceptors.InterceptorInvoker.invokeClientInterceptorStartingPoint(InterceptorInvoker.java:271) at com.sun.corba.ee.impl.interceptors.PIHandlerImpl.invokeClientPIStartingPoint(PIHandlerImpl.java:348) at com.sun.corba.ee.impl.protocol.CorbaClientRequestDispatcherImpl.beginRequest(CorbaClientRequestDispatcherImpl.java:284) at com.sun.corba.ee.impl.protocol.CorbaClientDelegateImpl.request(CorbaClientDelegateImpl.java:184) at com.sun.corba.ee.impl.presentation.rmi.StubInvocationHandlerImpl.privateInvoke(StubInvocationHandlerImpl.java:186) at com.sun.corba.ee.impl.presentation.rmi.StubInvocationHandlerImpl.invoke(StubInvocationHandlerImpl.java:152) at com.sun.corba.ee.impl.presentation.rmi.bcel.BCELStubBase.invoke(BCELStubBase.java:225) Is there anything I can do here to preserve information about the actual cause of the problem?

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• DRY Authenticated Tasks in Cocoa (with distributed objects)

  - by arbales

  I'm kind of surprise/infuriated that the only way for me to run an authenticated task, like perhaps sudo gem install shi*t, is to make a tool with pre-written code. I'm writing a MacRuby application, which doesn't seem to expose the KAuthorization* constants/methods. So.. I learned Cocoa and Objective-C. My application creates a object, serves it and calls the a tool that elevates itself and then performs a selector on a distributed object (in the tool's thread). I hoped that the distributed object's methods would evaluated inside the tool, so I could use delegation to create "privileged" tasks. If this won't work, don't try to save it, I just want a DRY/cocoa solution. AuthHelper.m //AuthorizationExecuteWithPrivileges of this. AuthResponder* my_responder = [AuthResponder sharedResponder]; // Gets the proxy object (and it's delegate) NSString *selector = [NSString stringWithUTF8String:argv[3]]; NSLog(@"Performing selector: %@", selector); setuid(0); if ([[my_responder delegate] respondsToSelector:NSSelectorFromString(selector)]){ [[my_responder delegate] performSelectorOnMainThread:NSSelectorFromString(selector) withObject:nil waitUntilDone:YES]; } RandomController.m - (void)awakeFromNib { helperToolPath = [[[NSBundle mainBundle] resourcePath] stringByAppendingString:@"/AuthHelper"]; delegatePath = [[[NSBundle mainBundle] resourcePath] stringByAppendingString:@"/ABExtensions.rb"]; AuthResponder* my_responder = [AuthResponder initAsService]; [my_responder setDelegate:self]; } -(oneway void)install_gems{ NSArray *args = [NSArray arrayWithObjects: @"gem", @"install", @"sinatra", nil]; [NSTask launchedTaskWithLaunchPath:@"/usr/bin/sudo" arguments:args]; NSLog(@"Ran AuthResponder.delegate.install_gems"); // This prints. } ... other privileges tasks. "sudo gem update --system" for one. I'm guessing the proxy object is performing the selector in it's own thread, but I want the current (privileged thread) to do it so I can use sudo. Can I force the distributed object to evaluate the selector on the tool's thread? How else can I accomplish this dryly/cocoaly?

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• why this Javascript function doesn't work?

  - by udaya

  I use the following javascript function, function get_check_value(formId,checkboxId,TxtboxId) { alert(formId); var c_value = ""; for (var i=0; i < document.formId.checkboxId.length; i++) { if (document.formId.checkboxId[i].checked) { c_value = c_value + document.formId.checkboxId[i].value + "\n"; } } alert(c_value); document.getElementById(TxtboxId).value= c_value; // alert(c_value.value); } and my php page has this, <form name="orderform" id="orderform"> <input type="text" name="chId" id="chId" > <table align="center" border="0"> <tr> <td>Country</td> </tr> <? foreach($country as $row){ ?> <tr> <td><?= $row['dbCountry']; ?></td> <td><input type="checkbox" name="CountrycheckId" id="CountrycheckId" value="<?= $row['dbCountryId']; ?> " onClick="get_check_value('orderform','CountrycheckId','chId')"></td> <? } ?> </tr> </table> </form> I am getting formname,checkboxid,textid in alerts inside the javascript function... But the problem is with the line for (var i=0; i < document.formId.checkboxId.length; i++) Webdeveloper toolbar shows this error document.formId is undefined

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• OAuth secrets in mobile apps

  - by Felixyz

  When using the OAuth protocol, you need a secret string obtained from the service you want to delegate to. If you are doing this in a web app, you can simply store the secret in your data base or on the file system, but what is the best way to handle it in a mobile app (or a desktop app for that matter)? Storing the string in the app is obviously not good, as someone could easily find it and abuse it. Another approach would be to store it on you server, and have the app fetch it on every run, never storing it on the phone. This is almost as bad, because you have to include the URL in the app. I don't believe using https is any help. The only workable solution I can come up with is to first obtain the Access Token as normal (preferably using a web view inside the app), and then route all further communication through our server, where a script would append the secret to the request data and communicates with the provider. Then again, I'm a security noob, so I'd really like to hear some knowledgeable peoples' opinions on this. It doesn't seem to me that most apps are going to these lengths to guarantee security (for example, Facebook Connect seems to assume that you put the secret into a string right in your app). Another thing: I don't believe the secret is involved in initially requesting the Access Token, so that could be done without involving our own server. Am I correct?

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• What's the best way to develop a debugging window for an ajax ASP.Net MVC application

  - by KallDrexx

  While developing my ASP.NET MVC, I have started to see the need for a debugging console window to assist in figuring out what is going right and wrong in my code. I read the last few chapters of the Pro Asp.net MVC book, and the author details how to use http modules to show page load/creation times and linq to sql query logs, both of which I definitely want to be able to see. However, since I am loading a lot of small sections of my page individually with ajax I don't want the debug information right there in the middle of my screen. So the idea I came up with was to have a separate browser window (open-able by a link or some javascript) with a console log, that can contain logged entries both from javascript and from the asp.net mvc run. The former should be relatively easy, but I'm having trouble coming up with a way to log the asp.net information in ajax requests. The direction I have been thinking of going is to create an httpmodule (like the Pro MVC book does), and have that module contain some that append the javascript's log to console calls with the messages. The issue I see with this is finding a way to get the log messages from the controller's action methods to the httpmodule's methods. The only way I see to do this is with a singleton, but I'm not sure if singletons are bad practice for a stateless web application. Furthermore, it seems like if I return json with my ajax calls (instead of pure html) then that won't work at all anyways and unless there is a way to add data to an existing json structure inside the httpmodule. How does everyone else handle this type of debugging in heavily ajax applications? For reference, the javascript library I am using is jquery.

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• Ninject InThreadScope Binding

  - by e36M3

  I have a Windows service that contains a file watcher that raises events when a file arrives. When an event is raised I will be using Ninject to create business layer objects that inside of them have a reference to an Entity Framework context which is also injected via Ninject. In my web applications I always used InRequestScope for the context, that way within one request all business layer objects work with the same Entity Framework context. In my current Windows service scenario, would it be sufficient to switch the Entity Framework context binding to a InThreadScope binding? In theory when an event handler in the service triggers it's executed under some thread, then if another file arrives simultaneously it will be executing under a different thread. Therefore both events will not be sharing an Entity Framework context, in essence just like two different http requests on the web. One thing that bothers me is the destruction of these thread scoped objects, when you look at the Ninject wiki: .InThreadScope() - One instance of the type will be created per thread. .InRequestScope() - One instance of the type will be created per web request, and will be destroyed when the request ends. Based on this I understand that InRequestScope objects will be destroyed (garbage collected?) when (or at some point after) the request ends. This says nothing however on how InThreadScope objects are destroyed. To get back to my example, when the file watcher event handler method is completed, the thread goes away (back to the thread pool?) what happens to the InThreadScope-d objects that were injected? EDIT: One thing is clear now, that when using InThreadScope() it will not destroy your object when the handler for the filewatcher exits. I was able to reproduce this by dropping many files in the folder and eventually I got the same thread id which resulted in the same exact Entity Framework context as before, so it's definitely not sufficient for my applications. In this case a file that came in 5 minutes later could be using a stale context that was assigned to the same thread before.

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• dynamic check_box using field_for in rails

  - by Craig Whitley

  I have a many-to-many relationship with a link box, and I want to pull those models together into one form so I can update from the same page. I'm really struggling with getting the check_box to even show all the elements of my array - I've scoured the net and been working on this literally all day, and I'm finding it difficult to apply the information I'm reading to my problem. I'm also extremely new to RoR and I've been following a bit of an outdated video tutorial (pre 2.0) so apologies for my code. So far, I've got it to output only one key pair in the array (the last one) - although outside the form, the code used in the tutorial works exactly how it should. Thats of little use though! Host is the model for which the main form is for, and Billing is the outside model that I'm trying to add to the form. This is the code that works outside of the form from the tutorial: <% for billing in @billings -%> <%= check_box_tag('billing_title[]', billing.id, @host.billings.collect {|obj| obj.id}.include?(billing.id))%> <%= billing.title %><br /> <% end -%> I just need to know how to make it work inside the form. This is the aforementioned code that only retrieves the last array keypair after looping through them: <% f.fields_for :billings do |obj| %><br /> <%= check_box_tag('billing_title[]', billing.id, @billings.collect {|obj| obj.id}.include?(billing.id))%> <%= billing.title %><br /> <% end %> The debug(@billings) : --- - !ruby/object:Billing attributes: title: Every Month id: "1" attributes_cache: {} - !ruby/object:Billing attributes: title: 12 Months id: "2" attributes_cache: {} - !ruby/object:Billing attributes: title: 6 Months id: "5" attributes_cache: {} Any help really appreciated.

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• rs232 communication, general timing question

  - by Sunny Dee

  Hi, I have a piece of hardware which sends out a byte of data representing a voltage signal at a frequency of 100Hz over the serial port. I want to write a program that will read in the data so I can plot it. I know I need to open the serial port and open an inputstream. But this next part is confusing me and I'm having trouble understanding the process conceptually: I create a while loop that reads in the data from the inputstream 1 byte at a time. How do I get the while loop timing so that there is always a byte available to be read whenever it reaches the readbyte line? I'm guessing that I can't just put a sleep function inside the while loop to try and match it to the hardware sample rate. Is it just a matter of continuing reading the inputstream in the while loop, and if it's too fast then it won't do anything (since there's no new data), and if it's too slow then it will accumulate in the inputstream buffer? Like I said, i'm only trying to understand this conceptually so any guidance would be much appreciated! I'm guessing the idea is independent of which programming language I'm using, but if not, assume it is for use in Java. Thanks!

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• Linq to XML Document Traversal

  - by Perpetualcoder

  I have an xml document like this: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <demographics> <country id="1" value="USA"> <state id ="1" value="California"> <city>Long Beach</city> <city>Los Angeles</city> <city>San Diego</city> </state> <state id ="2" value="Arizona"> <city>Tucson</city> <city>Phoenix</city> <city>Tempe</city> </state> </country> <country id="2" value="Mexico"> <state id ="1" value="Baja California"> <city>Tijuana</city> <city>Rosarito</city> </state> </country> </demographics> How do I setup LINQ queries for doing things like: 1. Get All Countries 2. Get All States in a Country 3. Get All Cities inside a state of a paricular country ? I gave it a try and I am kind of confused when to use Elements["NodeName"] and Descendants etc. I know I am not the brightest XML guy around. Is the format of the XML file even correct for simple traversal?

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• IE 6 bug? width: 987

  - by William

  I'm having a very weird issue in IE6. If I set a div container do the width of 987px it adds a spacing between the container and an absolute positioned element inside. Any other width works fine, it's just 987. Is there something I'm not seeing? Code to reproduce: <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Strict//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-strict.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" xml:lang="en" lang="en"> <head> <title>IE6 Issue</title> <style type="text/css"> body { background-color: #000; } #c1 { width: 987px; background-color: #fff; } #c2 { border: #f00 1px solid; zoom: 1; position: relative; } #tl, #tr { background-color: #000; font-size: 0; line-height: 0; position: absolute; top: 0px; left: 0px; width: 4px; height: 6px; } #tr { left: auto; right: 0; } </style> </head> <body> <div id="c1"><div id="c2"><div id="tl"></div><div id="tr"></div>a</div> </div> </body> This is crazy.

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• How can I capture Rake output when invoked from with a Ruby script?

  - by Adrian O'Connor

  I am writing a web-based dev-console for Rails development. In one of my controller actions, I am calling Rake, but I am unable to capture any of the output that Rake generates. For example, here is some sample code, from the controller: require 'rake' require 'rake/rdoctask' require 'rake/testtask' require 'tasks/rails' require 'stringio' ... def show_routes @results = capture_stdout { Rake.tasks['routes'].invoke } # @results is nil -- the capture_stdout doesn't catpure anything that Rake generates end def capture_stdout s = StringIO.new $stdout = s yield s.string ensure $stdout = STDOUT end Does anybody know why I can't capture the Rake output? I've tried going through the Rake source, and I can't see where it fires a new process or anything, so I think I ought to be able to do this. Many thanks! Adrian I have since discovered the correct way to call Rake from inside Ruby that works much better: Rake.application['db:migrate:redo'].reenable Rake.application['db:migrate:redo'].invoke Strangely, some rake tasks work perfectly now (routes), some capture the output the first time the run and after that are always blank (db:migrate:redo) and some don't seem to ever capture output (test). Odd.

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• When onblur occurs, how can I find out which element focus went *to*?

  - by Michiel Borkent

  Suppose I attach an onblur function to an html input box like this: <input id="myInput" onblur="function() { ... }"></input> Is there a way to get the ID of the element which caused the onblur event to fire (the element which was clicked) inside the function? How? For example, suppose I have a span like this: <span id="mySpan">Hello World</span> If I click the span right after the input element has focus, the input element will lose its focus. How does the function know that it was mySpan that was clicked? PS: If the onclick event of the span would occur before the onblur event of the input element my problem would be solved, because I could set some status value indicating a specific element had been clicked. PPS: The background of this problem is that I want to trigger an Ajax.AutoCompleter control externally (from a clickable element) to show its suggestions, without the suggestions disappearing immediately because of the onblur event on the input element. So I want to check in the OnBlur function if one specific element has been clicked, and if so, ignore the blur event.

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• Modify Executing Jar file

  - by pinkynobrain

  Hello Stack Overflow friends. I have a simple problem which i fear doesnt have a simple solution and i need advice as to how to proceed. I am developing a java application packaged as and executable JAR but it requires to modify some of its JAR file contents during execution. At this stage i hit a problem because some OS lock the file preventing writes to it. It is essential that the user sees an updated version of the jar file by the time the application exits allthough i can be pretty flexible as to how to achieve this. A clean and efficient solution is obviously prefereable but portability is the only hard requirement. The following are three approaches i can see to solving the problem, feel free to comment on them or suggest others. Tell Java to unlock the JAR file for writing(this doesnt seem possible but it would be the easyest solution) Copy the executable class files to a tempory file on application startup, use a class loader to load these files and unload the ones from the initial JAR file.(Not had much experience with the classloaders but hopefully the JVM would then be smart enough to realize that the original JAR is nolonger in use and so unlock it) Put a Second executable JAR File inside the First, on startup extract the inner jar to e temporaryfile, invoke a new java process and pass it the location of the Outer JAR, first process exits, second process modifys the Outer jar unincumbered.(This will work but im not sure there is a platform independant way of one java app invoking another) I know this is a weird question but any help would be appreciated.

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• My Website was hacked using Statcounter! Does Statcounter keep a record of cookies?

  - by Cyril Gupta

  I had a rather interesting case of hacking on my ASP.Net MVC website. For this website I had implemented a rather uncomplicated authentication system for my admin area -- an encrypted cookie which had an identifying signature for the member. Whenever the admin visits the website the cookie would be decrypted and signature verified. If matching he wouldn't have to sign in. Couple of days ago a visitor on my site told me that he was able to sign into my website simply by clicking no a referral link on his Statcounter console which pointed to my admin area (I had visited his site from a link inside my admin view). He just clicked on a link in statcounter and he was signed in as the admin! The only way this could have happened was if statcounter somehow recorded my cookies and used those when he clicked on the link pointing to my admin! Is that logical or fathomable? I don't understand what's going on. Do you have any suggestions as to how I can protect my website against things like this?

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• C# Help with a basic pedagogic example of a BackGroundWorker process populating a DataGridView

  - by Roger

  Scenario: I have a windows form that holds a DataGridWiew with 3 pre-defined columns. I have 3 variables declared outside the function and assigned to inside the function. I have a function that enumerates stuff and puts it in the 3 columns, line by line: string VARIABLE1; string VARIABLE2; string VARIABLE3; private void FunctionEnumerateStuff() { foreach (StuffObject STUFF in StuffCollection) { VARIABLE1 = STUFF.SubStuff1.ToString(); VARIABLE2 = STUFF.SubStuff2.ToString(); VARIABLE3 = STUFF.SubStuff3.ToString(); DatagridWiew1.Rows.Add(VALUE1, VALUE2, VALUE3); } } What I want to do, is to execute this function from a BackGroundWorker process, so that the GUI of the application will be smooth and responsive. I have read up on backgroundworkers but I am having trouble relating, because all examples seems to be of entirely different scenarios and most of them are overwelmingly complex. San some helpful pedagogic soul help me and others with a very basic example of how to get this to work in the simplest way possible. Thanks.

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• Why use SQL database?

  - by martinthenext

  I'm not quite sure stackoverflow is a place for such a general question, but let's give it a try. Being exposed to the need of storing application data somewhere, I've always used MySQL or sqlite, just because it's always done like that. As it seems like the whole world is using these databases, most of all software products, frameworks, etc. It is rather hard for a beginning developer like me to ask a question - why? Ok, say we have some object-oriented logic in our application, and objects are related to each other somehow. We need to map this logic to the storage logic, so we need relations between database objects too. This leads us to using relational database and I'm ok with that - to put it simple, our database rows sometimes will need to have references to other tables' rows. But why do use SQL language for interaction with such a database? SQL query is a text message. I can understand this is cool for actually understanding what it does, but isn't it silly to use text table and column names for a part of application that no one ever seen after deploynment? If you had to write a data storage from scratch, you would have never used this kind of solution. Personally, I would have used some 'compiled db query' bytecode, that would be assembled once inside a client application and passed to the database. And it surely would name tables and colons by id numbers, not ascii-strings. In the case of changes in table structure those byte queries could be recompiled according to new db schema, stored in XML or something like that. What are the problems of my idea? Is there any reason for me not to write it myself and to use SQL database instead?

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• jQuery RJS inserting string vs dom.

  - by Dmitriy Likhten

  So I am trying to use jQuery to insert data from an ajax call. I actually use the jquery.form plugin, and have the ajax form submitted with a dataType: 'script'. The response is a jquery expression which contains a <%= javascript_escape(render ...) %> erb tag (similar to what the railscasts episode 136 instructs to do). However the end result is that the full text of the render is inserted as if that was the content to be inserted into the page, as text, not as dom elements. Could the fact that the render had some newlines at the beginning be the cause? Dom text: "\n \n &lt;li>....&lt;/li>" I also tried having jQuery just read the response as a script and execute it, and used the prototype-based rjs stuff, same effect, the text is inserted into the dom. Are there any reasons why such a behavior would be experienced? A bit of clarification: My response.js.erb is jQuery("#content").append("<%= escape_javascript(render(:partial => "widgets")) %>"); jQuery("#information").text("Finally, something happened!"); The full text inside the append() call is inserted as text into #content.

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