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  • Best way to replace mass emails sent from Entourage with a proper mailing list solution?

    - by aaandre
    I am helping a Los Angeles choreographer to transition away from sending her announcements via Entourage. Here's the situation: She has multiple conact groups, and sends classes and performance announcements several times a month, to different groups. She manages the contact groups manually. The group size is between 1500 and 2500 people. Recently verizon blocked her outgoing port 25, presumably for spam activity. Again, her contacts are interested in the content. She is aware of mailchimp, constantcontact etc. but would like to be able to send the email via her email software and not have to create a newsletter for every single mailing. Also, she's very short on $$. So, what would be the best way to set up a system allowing her to send announcements from Entourage, with attached images, to her lists, without having Entourage send every single email? I am thinking of setting up a set of mailing lists, each corresponding to one of her groups. I have never set up a mailing list before and am wondering if it's possible to have a list accept emails from only one person (Admin) and distribute them to the group? Recipients should be able to unsubscribe easily, and by default reply to her but not the list. She should be the only one able to use the list for distribution, and should be able to send messages (with attachments) directly from her email client without modification. Is this possible? Where can I find step-by-step instructions? What are best practices to avoid her domain being blacklisted? What's the easiest way to convert her contact groups to mailing list subscribers? I am helping her for free, so the simpler the better :) Thank you! UPDATE: She has a standard linux hosting account allowing her to run php etc. And, ideally, the emails would come from her personally or at least from her domain name.

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  • FLEX: the custom component is still a Null Object when I invoke its method

    - by Patrick
    Hi, I've created a custom component in Flex, and I've created it from the main application with actionscript. Successively I invoke its "setName" method to pass a String. I get the following run-time error (occurring only if I use the setName method): TypeError: Error #1009: Cannot access a property or method of a null object reference. I guess I get it because I'm calling to newUser.setName method from main application before the component is completely created. How can I ask actionscript to "wait" until when the component is created to call the method ? Should I create an event listener in the main application waiting for it ? I would prefer to avoid it if possible. Here is the code: Main app ... newUser = new userComp(); //newUser.setName("name"); Component: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <mx:VBox xmlns:mx="http://www.adobe.com/2006/mxml" width="100" height="200" > <mx:Script> <![CDATA[ public function setName(name:String):void { username.text = name; } public function setTags(Tags:String):void { } ]]> </mx:Script> <mx:HBox id="tagsPopup" visible="false"> <mx:LinkButton label="Tag1" /> <mx:LinkButton label="Tag2" /> <mx:LinkButton label="Tag3" /> </mx:HBox> <mx:Image source="@Embed(source='../icons/userIcon.png')"/> <mx:Label id="username" text="Nickname" visible="false"/> </mx:VBox> thanks

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  • How to feature-detect/test for specific jQuery (and Javascript) methods/functions used

    - by Zildjoms
    good day everyone, hope yer all doin awesome am very new to javascript and jquery, and i (think) i have come up with a simple fade-in/out implementation on a site am workin on (check out http://www.s5ent.com/expandjs.html - if you have the time to check it for inefficiency or what that'd be real sweet). i use the following functions/methods/collections and i would like to do a feature test before using them. uhm.. how? or is there a better way to go about this? jQuery $ .fadeIn([duration]) .fadeOut([duration]) .attr(attributeName,value) .append(content) .each(function(index,Element)) .css(propertyName,value) .hover(handlerIn(eventObject),handlerOut(eventObject)) .stop([clearQueue],[jumpToEnd]) .parent() .eq(index) JavaScript setInterval(expression,timeout) clearInterval(timeoutId) setTimeout(expression,timeout) clearTimeout(timeoutId) i tried looking into jquery.support for the jquery ones, but i find myself running into conceptual problems with it, i.e. for fadein/fadeout, i (think i) should test for $.support.opacity, but that would be false in ie whereas ie6+ could still fairly render the fades. also am using jquery 1.2.6 coz that's enough for what i need. the support object is in 1.3. so i'm hoping to avoid dragging-in more unnecessary code if i can. i also worked with browser sniffing, no matter how frowned-upon. but that's also a bigger problem for me because of non-standard ua strings and spoofing and everything else am not aware of. so how do you guys think i should go about this? or should i even? is there a better way to go about making sure that i don't run code that'll eventually break the page? i've set it up to degrade into a css hover when javascript ain't there.. expertise needed. much appreciated, thanks guyz!

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  • documenting class properties

    - by intuited
    I'm writing a lightweight class whose properties are intended to be publicly accessible, and only sometimes overridden in specific instantiations. There's no provision in the Python language for creating docstrings for class properties, or any sort of properties, for that matter. What is the accepted way, should there be one, to document these properties? Currently I'm doing this sort of thing: class Albatross(object): """A bird with a flight speed exceeding that of an unladen swallow. Properties: """ flight_speed = 691 __doc__ += """ flight_speed (691) The maximum speed that such a bird can attain """ nesting_grounds = "Throatwarbler Man Grove" __doc__ += """ nesting_grounds ("Throatwarbler Man Grove") The locale where these birds congregate to reproduce. """ def __init__(**keyargs): """Initialize the Albatross from the keyword arguments.""" self.__dict__.update(keyargs) Although this style doesn't seem to be expressly forbidden in the docstring style guidelines, it's also not mentioned as an option. The advantage here is that it provides a way to document properties alongside their definitions, while still creating a presentable class docstring, and avoiding having to write comments that reiterate the information from the docstring. I'm still kind of annoyed that I have to actually write the properties twice; I'm considering using the string representations of the values in the docstring to at least avoid duplication of the default values. Is this a heinous breach of the ad hoc community conventions? Is it okay? Is there a better way? For example, it's possible to create a dictionary containing values and docstrings for the properties and then add the contents to the class __dict__ and docstring towards the end of the class declaration; this would alleviate the need to type the property names and values twice. I'm pretty new to python and still working out the details of coding style, so unrelated critiques are also welcome.

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  • 301 Redirecting URLs based on GET variables in .htaccess

    - by technicalbloke
    I have a few messy old URLs like... http://www.example.com/bunch.of/unneeded/crap?opendocument&part=1 http://www.example.com/bunch.of/unneeded/crap?opendocument&part=2 ...that I want to redirect to the newer, cleaner form... http://www.example.com/page.php/welcome http://www.example.com/page.php/prices I understand I can redirect one page to another with a simple redirect i.e. Redirect 301 /bunch.of/unneeded/crap http://www.example.com/page.php But the source page doesn't change, only it's GET vars. I can't figure out how to base the redirect on the value of these GET variables. Can anybody help pls!? I'm fairly handy with the old regexes so I can have a pop at using mod-rewrite if I have to but I'm not clear on the syntax for rewriting GET vars and I'd prefer to avoid the performance hit and use the cleaner Redirect directive. Is there a way? and if not can anyone clue me in as to the right mod-rewrite syntax pls? Cheers, Roger.

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  • Django: Serving Media Behind Custom URL

    - by TheLizardKing
    So I of course know that serving static files through Django will send you straight to hell but I am confused on how to use a custom url to mask the true location of the file using Django. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2681338/django-serving-a-download-in-a-generic-view but the answer I accepted seems to be the "wrong" way of doing things. urls.py: url(r'^song/(?P<song_id>\d+)/download/$', song_download, name='song_download'), views.py: def song_download(request, song_id): song = Song.objects.get(id=song_id) fsock = open(os.path.join(song.path, song.filename)) response = HttpResponse(fsock, mimetype='audio/mpeg') response['Content-Disposition'] = "attachment; filename=%s - %s.mp3" % (song.artist, song.title) return response This solution works perfectly but not perfectly enough it turns out. How can I avoid having a direct link to the mp3 while still serving through nginx/apache? EDIT 1 - ADDITIONAL INFO Currently I can get my files by using an address such as: http://www.example.com/music/song/1692/download/ But the above mentioned method is the devil's work. How can I accomplished what I get above while still making nginx/apache serve the media? Is this something that should be done at the webserver level? Some crazy mod_rewrite? http://static.example.com/music/Aphex%20Twin%20-%20Richard%20D.%20James%20(V0)/10%20Logon-Rock%20Witch.mp3

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  • Variable Assignment and loops (Java)

    - by Raven Dreamer
    Greetings Stack Overflowers, A while back, I was working on a program that hashed values into a hashtable (I don't remember the specifics, and the specifics themselves are irrelevant to the question at hand). Anyway, I had the following code as part of a "recordInput" method. tempElement = new hashElement(someInt); while(in.hasNext() == true) { int firstVal = in.nextInt(); if (firstVal == -911) { break; } tempElement.setKeyValue(firstVal, 0); for(int i = 1; i<numKeyValues;i++) { tempElement.setKeyValue(in.nextInt(), i); } elementArray[placeValue] = tempElement; placeValue++; } // close while loop } // close method This part of the code was giving me a very nasty bug -- no matter how I finagled it, no matter what input I gave the program, it would always produce an array full of only a single value -- the last one. The problem, as I later determined it, was that because I had not created the tempElement variable within the loop, and because values were not being assigned to elementArray[] until after the loop had ended -- every term was defined rather as "tempElement" -- when the loop terminated, every slot in the array was filled with the last value tempElement had taken. I was able to fix this bug by moving the declaration of tempElement within the while loop. My question to you, Stackoverflow, is whether there is another (read: better) way to avoid this bug while keeping the variable declaration of tempElement outside the while loop. (suggestions for better title and tags also appreciated)

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  • deadlock because of foreign key?

    - by George2
    Hello everyone, I am using SQL Server 2008 Enterprise. I met with deadlock in the following store procedure, but because of my fault, I did not record the deadlock graph. But now I can not reproduce deadlock issue. I want to have a postmortem to find the root cause of deadlock to avoid deadlock in the future. The deadlock happens on delete statement. For the delete statement, Param1 is a column of table FooTable, Param1 is a foreign key of another table (refers to another primary key clustered index column of the other table). There is no index on Param1 itself for table FooTable. FooTable has another column which is used as clustered primary key, but not Param1 column. Here is my guess why there is deadlock, and I want to let people review whether my analysis is correct? Since Param1 column has no index, there will be a table scan, and will acquire table level lock, because of foreign key, the delete operation will also need to check master table (e.g. to acquire lock on master table); Some operation on master table acquires master table lock, but want to acquire lock on FooTable; (1) and (2) cause cycle lock which makes deadlock happen. My analysis correct? Any reproduce scenario? create PROCEDURE [dbo].[FooProc] ( @Param1 int ,@Param2 int ,@Param3 int ) AS DELETE FooTable WHERE Param1 = @Param1 INSERT INTO FooTable ( Param1 ,Param2 ,Param3 ) VALUES ( @Param1 ,@Param2 ,@Param3 ) DECLARE @ID bigint SET @ID = ISNULL(@@Identity,-1) IF @ID > 0 BEGIN SELECT IdentityStr FROM FooTable WHERE ID = @ID END thanks in advance, George

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  • Which articles I've should read before starting to make my custom drawn winforms app?

    - by Dmitriy Matveev
    Hello! I'm currently developing a windows forms application with a lot of user controls. Some of them are just custom drawn buttons or panels and some of them are a compositions of these buttons and panels inside of FlowLayoutPanels and TableLayoutPanels. And the window itself is also custom drawn. I don't have much experience in winforms development, but I've made a proper decomposition of proposed design into user controls and implementation is already almost finished. I've already solved many arisen problems during development by the help of the google, msdn, SO and several dirty hacks (when nothing were helping) and still experiencing some of them. There are a lot of gaps in my knowledge base, since I don't know answers to many questions like: When I should use things like double buffer, suspended layout, suspended redraw ? What should I do with the controls which shouldn't be visible at some moment ? Common performance pitfalls (I think I've fallen in in several ones) ? So I think there should be some great articles which can give some knowledge enough to avoid most common problems and improve performance and maintainability of my application. Maybe some of you can recommend a few?

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  • Android animation's first frame is applied too early on ImageView

    - by Robert
    I have the following View setup in one of my Activities: <LinearLayout xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" android:id="@+id/photoLayout" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="fill_parent"> <ImageView android:id="@+id/photoImageView" android:src="@drawable/backyardPhoto" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="fill_parent" android:gravity="center" android:scaleType="centerInside" android:padding="45dip" > </ImageView> </LinearLayout> Without an animation set, this displays just fine. However I want to display a very simple animation. So in my Activity's onStart override, I have the following: @Override public void onStart() { super.onStart(); mPhotoImageView = (ImageView) findViewById(R.id.photoImageView); float offset = -25; int top = mPhotoImageView.getTop(); TranslateAnimation anim1 = new TranslateAnimation( Animation.ABSOLUTE, 0, Animation.ABSOLUTE, 0, Animation.ABSOLUTE, top, Animation.ABSOLUTE, offset); anim1.setInterpolator(new AnticipateInterpolator()); anim1.setDuration(1500); anim1.setStartOffset(5000); TranslateAnimation anim2 = new TranslateAnimation( Animation.ABSOLUTE, 0, Animation.ABSOLUTE, 0, Animation.ABSOLUTE, offset, Animation.ABSOLUTE, top); anim2.setInterpolator(new BounceInterpolator()); anim2.setDuration(3500); anim2.setStartOffset(6500); mBouncingAnimation = new AnimationSet(false); mBouncingAnimation.addAnimation(anim1); mBouncingAnimation.addAnimation(anim2); mPhotoImageView.setAnimation(mBouncingAnimation); } The problem is that when the Activity displays for the first time, the initial position of the photo is not in the center of the screen with padding around. It seems like the first frame of the animation is loaded already. Only after the animation is completed, does the photoImageView "snap" back to the intended location. I've looked and looked and could not find how to avoid this problem. I want the photoImageView to start in the center of the screen, and then the animation to happen, and return it to the center of the screen. The animation should happen by itself without interaction from the user.

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  • Memory allocation in detached NSThread to load an NSDictionary in background?

    - by mobibob
    I am trying to launch a background thread to retrieve XML data from a web service. I developed it synchronously - without threads, so I know that part works. Now I am ready to have a non-blocking service by spawning a thread to wait for the response and parse. I created an NSAutoreleasePool inside the thread and release it at the end of the parsing. The code to spawn and the thread are as follows: Spawn from main-loop code: . . [NSThread detachNewThreadSelector:@selector(spawnRequestThread:) toTarget:self withObject:url]; . . Thread (inside 'self'): -(void) spawnRequestThread: (NSURL*) url { NSAutoreleasePool * pool = [[NSAutoreleasePool alloc] init]; parser = [[NSXMLParser alloc] initWithContentsOfURL:url]; [self parseContentsOfResponse]; [parser release]; [pool release]; } The method parseContentsOfResponse fills an NSMutableDictionary with the parsed document contents. I would like to avoid moving the data around a lot and allocate it back in the main-loop that spawned the thread rather than making a copy. First, is that possible, and if not, can I simply pass in an allocated pointer from the main thread and allocate with 'dictionaryWithDictionary' method? That just seems so inefficient. Are there perferred designs?

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  • Search book by title, and author

    - by Swoosh
    I got a table with columns: author firstname, author lastname, and booktitle Multiple users are inserting in the database, through an import, and I'd like to avoid duplicates. So I'm trying to do something like this: I have a record in the db: First Name: "Isaac" Last Name: "Assimov" Title: "I, Robot" If the user tries to add it again, it would be basically a non-split-text (would not be split up into author firstname, author lastname, and booktitle) So it would basically look like this: "Isaac Asimov - I Robot" or "Asimov, Isaac - I Robot" or "I Robot by Isaac Asimov" You see where I am getting at? (I cannot force the user to split up all the books into into author firstname, author lastname, and booktitle, and I don't even like the idea to force the user, because it's not too user-friendly) What is the best way (in SQL) to compare all this possible bookdata scenarios to what I have in the database, not to add the same book twice. I was thinking about a possibility of suggesting the user: "is THIS the book you are trying to add?" (imagine a list instead of the THIS word, just like on stackoverflow - ask question - Related Questions. I was thinking about soundex and maybe even the like operators, but so far i didn't get the results i was hoping.

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  • URL "fragment identifier" semantics for HTML documents

    - by Pointy
    I've been working with a new installation of the "MoinMoin" wiki software. As I was playing with it, typing in mostly random test pages, I created a link with a fragment blah blah see also [[SomeStuff#whatever|some other stuff about whatever]] Then I needed to figure out how to create the anchor for that "whatever" fragment identifier. I don't recall having to do that with MediaWiki, so I had to dig around, but finally I found that MoinMoin has an "Anchor" macro: == Whatever == <<Anchor(whatever)>> Looking at the generated HTML, I was surprised to see an empty <span> tag with an "id" value of "whatever". I expected that it'd be an <a> tag with a "name" attribute of "whatever". I dug around and found the source, and there's a comment that says they changed it from an <a> tag in order to avoid some IE problem with <pre> sections. This confused me — not because of the IE thing, but because it looked to me as if their "fix" had left the whole anchor mechanism completely broken. Much to my surprise, however, further testing indicated that it worked fine. I wrote a test page with 300 <span> tags all with "id" values, and I further shocked myself when Firefox behaved exactly as I would have expected it to had I used <a> tags. It also worked when I changed all the <span> tags to <em>. So by this time, you're either as surprised as I was, or else you're thinking "how can somebody that dumb have so many reputation points?" If you're in the second category, is it really the case that I've been typing in HTML for about 15 years now — a lot of HTML — and it's somehow escaped my notice that browsers use the HTML fragment to find any sort of element with a matching "id"? mind status: blown

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  • Creating spotlight in OpenGL scene

    - by Victor Oliveira
    Im studying OpenGL and trying to create a spot light at my application. The code that Im using for my #vertex-shader is below: #:vertex-shader #{ #version 150 core in vec3 in_pos; in vec2 in_tc; out vec2 tc; glLightf(GL_LIGHT0, GL_SPOT_CUTOFF, 20.0f); GLfloat spot_direction[] = { -1.0, -1.0, 0.0 }; glLightfv(GL_LIGHT0, GL_SPOT_DIRECTION, spot_direction); glEnable(GL_LIGHT0); void main() { vec4 pos= vec4(vec3(1.0)*in_pos - vec3(1.0), 1.0); pos.z=0.0; gl_Position = pos; tc = in_tc; } } The thing is, everytime Im trying to run the code an Error that says: Type: other, Source: api, ID: 131169, Severity: low Message: Framebuffer detailed info: The driver allocated storage for renderbuffer 1. len = 157, written = 0 failed to compile vertex shader of deferred: directional info log for shader deferred: directional vertex info log for shader deferred: directional: ERROR: Unbound variable: when Specifications: Renderer: GeForce GTX 580/PCIe/SSE2 Version: 3.3.0 NVIDIA 319.17 GLSL: 3.30 NVIDIA via Cg compiler Status: Using GLEW 1.9.0 1024 x 768 OS: Linux debian I guess to create this spotlight is pretty much simple, but since Im really new to OpenGL I dont have a clue how to do it until now, even reading sources like: http://www.glprogramming.com/red/chapter05.html#name3 Read also in some place that light spots can get really hard to understand, but I cant avoid this step right now since Im following my lecture schedule. Could anybody help me?

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  • How do you implement a good profanity filter?

    - by Ben Throop
    Many of us need to deal with user input, search queries, and situations where the input text can potentially contain profanity or undesirable language. Oftentimes this needs to be filtered out. Where can one find a good list of swear words in various languages and dialects? Are there APIs available to sources that contain good lists? Or maybe an API that simply says "yes this is clean" or "no this is dirty" with some parameters? What are some good methods for catching folks trying to trick the system, like a$$, azz, or a55? Bonus points if you offer solutions for PHP. :) Edit: Response to answers that say simply avoid the programmatic issue: I think there is a place for this kind of filter when, for instance, a user can use public image search to find pictures that get added to a sensitive community pool. If they can search for "penis", then they will likely get many pictures of, yep. If we don't want pictures of that, then preventing the word as a search term is a good gatekeeper, though admittedly not a foolproof method. Getting the list of words in the first place is the real question. So I'm really referring to a way to figure out of a single token is dirty or not and then simply disallow it. I'd not bother preventing a sentiment like the totally hilarious "long necked giraffe" reference. Nothing you can do there. :)

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  • How to TDD Asynchronous Events?

    - by Padu Merloti
    The fundamental question is how do I create a unit test that needs to call a method, wait for an event to happen on the tested class and then call another method (the one that we actually want to test)? Here's the scenario if you have time to read further: I'm developing an application that has to control a piece of hardware. In order to avoid dependency from hardware availability, when I create my object I specify that we are running in test mode. When that happens, the class that is being tested creates the appropriate driver hierarchy (in this case a thin mock layer of hardware drivers). Imagine that the class in question is an Elevator and I want to test the method that gives me the floor number that the elevator is. Here is how my fictitious test looks like right now: [TestMethod] public void TestGetCurrentFloor() { var elevator = new Elevator(Elevator.Environment.Offline); elevator.ElevatorArrivedOnFloor += TestElevatorArrived; elevator.GoToFloor(5); //Here's where I'm getting lost... I could block //until TestElevatorArrived gives me a signal, but //I'm not sure it's the best way int floor = elevator.GetCurrentFloor(); Assert.AreEqual(floor, 5); } Edit: Thanks for all the answers. This is how I ended up implementing it: [TestMethod] public void TestGetCurrentFloor() { var elevator = new Elevator(Elevator.Environment.Offline); elevator.ElevatorArrivedOnFloor += (s, e) => { Monitor.Pulse(this); }; lock (this) { elevator.GoToFloor(5); if (!Monitor.Wait(this, Timeout)) Assert.Fail("Elevator did not reach destination in time"); int floor = elevator.GetCurrentFloor(); Assert.AreEqual(floor, 5); } }

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  • Bioperl, equivalent of IO::ScalarArray for array of Seq objects?

    - by Ryan Thompson
    In perl, we have IO::ScalarArray for treating the elements of an array like the lines of a file. In BioPerl, we have Bio::SeqIO, which can produce a filehandle that reads and writes Bio::Seq objects instead of strings representing lines of text. I would like to do a combination of the two: I would like to obtain a handle that reads successive Bio::Seq objects from an array of such objects. Is there any way to do this? Would it be trivial for me to implement a module that does this? My reason for wanting this is that I would like to be able to write a subroutine that accepts either a Bio::SeqIO handle or an array of Bio::Seq objects, and I'd like to avoid writing separate loops based on what kind of input I get. Perhaps the following would be better than writing my own IO module? sub process_sequences { my $input = $_[0]; # read either from array of Bio::Seq or from Bio::SeqIO my $nextseq; if (ref $input eq 'ARRAY') { my $pos = 0 $nextseq = sub { return $input->[$pos++] if $pos < @$input}; } } else { $nextseq = sub { $input->getline(); } } while (my $seq = $nextseq->()) { do_cool_stuff_with($seq) } }

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  • jquery timeout function not working properly

    - by 3gwebtrain
    HI, i ma using the settimeout function to display block and append to 'li', once the mouseover. and i just want to remove the block and make it none. in my funcation works fine. but problem is even just my mouse cross the li, it self the block getting visibile. how to avoid this? my code is: var thisLi; var storedTimeoutID; $("ul.redwood-user li,ul.user-list li").live("mouseover", function(){ thisLi = $(this); var needShow = thisLi.children('a.copier-link'); if($(needShow).is(':hidden')){ storedTimeoutID = setTimeout(function(){ $(thisLi).children('a.copier-link').appendTo(thisLi).show(); },3000); } else { storedTimeoutID = setTimeout(function(){ $(thisLi).siblings().children('a.copier-link').appendTo(thisLi).show(); },3000); } }); $("ul.redwood-user li,ul.user-list li").live("mouseleave", function(){ clearTimeout(storedTimeoutID); //$('ul.redwood-user li').children('a.copier-link').hide(); $('ul.user-list li').children('a.copier-link').hide(); });

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  • Sql Serve - Cascade delete has multiple paths

    - by Anders Juul
    Hi all, I have two tables, Results and ComparedResults. ComparedResults has two columns which reference the primary key of the Results table. My problem is that if a record in Results is deleted, I wish to delete all records in ComparedResults which reference the deleted record, regardless of whether it's one column or the other (and the columns may reference the same Results row). A row in Results may deleted directly or through cascade delete caused by deleting in a third table. Googling this could indicate that I need to disable cascade delete and rewrite all cascade deletes to use triggers instead. Is that REALLY nessesary? I'd be prepared to do much restructuring of the database to avoid this, as my main area is OO programming, and databases should 'just work'. It is hard to see, however, how a restructuring could help as I would just move the problem around... Or am I missing something? I am also a bit at a loss as to why my initial construct should even be a problem for the Sql Server?! Any comments welcome and much appreciated! Anders, Denmark

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  • MVC2 Areas not Registering Correctly

    - by Geoffrey
    I believe I have my Areas setup correctly (they were working in MVC1 fine). I followed the guide here: http://odetocode.com/Blogs/scott/archive/2009/10/13/asp-net-mvc2-preview-2-areas-and-routes.aspx I've also used Haacked's Route Debugger. Which shows the correct Area/Controller registration when I run it. However when I try to go to my (AreaName)/(Controller) I get this error: "The resource cannot be found." I believe this indicates there's a problem with the routing, but I'm having trouble debugging this. Where should I set my breakpoints to catch routing errors in MVC2? I'm also using SparkViewEngine compiled against MVC2 references. Could this possibly be causing this error? I've set breakpoints on the controller in the area and it never fires off, I assumed the view engine doesn't kick in until after the controller has been initiated, but I could be wrong. The non-area landing page works fine, and I've stripped my project of all areas except one, to avoid any sort of naming conflicts. Any ideas where I can try to look next?

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  • sql query - how to apply limit within group by

    - by Raj
    hey guys assuming i have a table named t1 with following fields: ROWID, CID, PID, Score, SortKey it has the following data: 1, C1, P1, 10, 1 2, C1, P2, 20, 2 3, C1, P3, 30, 3 4, C2, P4, 20, 3 5, C2, P5, 30, 2 6, C3, P6, 10, 1 7, C3, P7, 20, 2 what query do i write so that it applies group by on CID, but instead of returning me 1 single result per group, it returns me a max of 2 results per group. also where condition is score = 20 and i want the results ordered by CID and SortKey. If I had to run my query on above data, i would expect the following result: RESULTS FOR C1 - note: ROWID 1 is not considered as its score < 20 C1, P2, 20, 2 C1, P3, 30, 3 RESULTS FOR C2 - note: ROWID 5 appears before ROWID 4 as ROWID 5 has lesser value SortKey C2, P5, 30, 2 C2, P4, 20, 3 RESULTS FOR C3 - note: ROWID 6 does not appear as its score is less than 20 so only 1 record returned here C3, P7, 20, 2 IN SHORT, I WANT A LIMIT WITHIN A GROUP BY. I want the simplest solution and want to avoid temp tables. sub queries are fine. also note i am using sqlite for this

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  • Password Confirmation Overlay

    - by Alasdair
    Hello, I'm creating a J2EE web application that uses jQuery and Ajax to help with some of the presentation for a user-friendly interface. I've done a lot of work ensuring security around persistant login cookies, and I've decided to request the password from any user that logged in using a persistant login cookie before being allowed to make any changes that could be malicious. This request would only happen once to confirm the user is who they say they are and will last throughout the session. At present, any requests that meet this criteria has their request information stored in session and then the user is forwarded to a page to confirm their password. Once confirmed, the user's original request is then performed and the requestion information removed from session. What I would like to do is avoid all this redirection and minimize what's held in session (even if it's just for a small time), thus improving usability and convenience for the user. I believe that a jQuery overlay could allow me to prompt the user for their password (if required) and then continue to submit the request if successful. I would of originally used ThickBox, but since that's now deprecated I don't see the benefit in implementing it in an application at this development stage. However, I have tried to create an overlay using jQuery but I've scrapped every attempt as I can't seem to make it all come together. My main problem is preventing the submission when the user incorrectly types a password or cancels the overlay. Desired Flow Persistant Login Sensitive Page Submit Password Confirmation Overlay [Continue Submit | (Cancel | Incorrect] I have already created JavaScript code to encrypt the password to be sent in a parameter, but all I need now is a method of controlling the overlay and how best to use Ajax for this purpose. Please ignore the fact that this is a J2EE web application when answering as it is irrelevant really. Thanks in advance, Alasdair

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  • Reasonable expectation to support new Operating Systems?

    - by Neil N
    My company has a desktop app originally developed for Windows XP. The original programmer has since been fired (fired with extreme prejudice I might add). I have fixed the app various times but overall try to avoid it, it is a mess and the only real way to fix it is to completely rewrite it, which could take a year. We have been trying to "forget" about this app, and instead steer clients towards our web version, which is more up to date, easier to maintain, easier to extend, and WAY easier to support. Most clients agree, the web version is just better all around. However we have one client that insists on using the desktop app. The app required a little duct tape to get working on Vista, but now completely breaks on Windows 7. I'm not even sure WHAT all the fixes are to get it working on Win7 (the current time estimate stands at "miracle") but after both installing the RELEASE build, and running the DEBUG build from Visual Studio, the app has errors on nearly every user action, and from what I can see from a high level test run, none of them are related. Since Windows 7 did not exist when this app was developed, is my company really expected to make all the required changes to make it function as "smoothly" as it did on XP?

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  • How to determine if a registry key is redirected by WOW64?

    - by Luke
    Is it possible to determine whether or not a given registry key is redirected? My problem is that I want to enumerate registry keys in both the 32-bit and 64-bit registry views in a generic manner from a 32-bit application. I could simply open each key twice, first with KEY_WOW64_64KEY and then with KEY_WOW64_32KEY. However, if the key is not redirected this gives you exactly the same key and you end up enumerating the exact same content twice; this is what I am trying to avoid. I did find some documentation on it, but it looks like the only way is to examine the hive and do a bunch of string comparisons on the key. Another possibility I thought of is to try to open Wow6432Node on each subkey; if it exists then the key must be redirected. I.e. if I am trying to open HKCU\Software\Microsoft\Windows I would try to open the following keys: HKCU\Wow6432Node, HKCU\Software\Wow6432Node, HKCU\Software\Microsoft\Wow6432Node, and HKCU\Software\Microsoft\Windows\Wow6432Node. Unfortunately, the documentation seems to imply that a child of a redirected key is not necessarily redirected so that route also has issues. So, what are my options here?

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  • Have an unprivileged non-account user ssh into another box?

    - by Daniel Quinn
    I know how to get a user to ssh into another box with a key: ssh -l targetuser -i path/to/key targethost But what about non-account users like apache? As this user doesn't have a home directory to which it can write a .ssh directory, the whole thing keeps failing with: $ sudo -u apache ssh -o StrictHostKeyChecking=no -l targetuser -i path/to/key targethost Could not create directory '/var/www/.ssh'. Warning: Permanently added '<hostname>' (RSA) to the list of known hosts. Permission denied (publickey). I've tried variations using -o UserKnownHostsFile=/dev/null and setting $HOME to /dev/null and none of these have done the trick. I understand that sudo could probably fix this for me, but I'm trying to avoid having to require a manual server config since this code will be deployed on a number of different environments. Any ideas? Here's a few examples of what I've tried that don't work: $ sudo -u apache export HOME=path/to/apache/writable/dir/ ssh -o StrictHostKeyChecking=no -o UserKnownHostsFile=path/to/apache/writable/dir/.ssh/known_hosts -l deploy -i path/to/key targethost $ sudo -u apache ssh -o StrictHostKeyChecking=no -o UserKnownHostsFile=path/to/apache/writable/dir/.ssh/known_hosts -l deploy -i path/to/key targethost $ sudo -u apache ssh -o StrictHostKeyChecking=no -o UserKnownHostsFile=/dev/null -l deploy -i path/to/key targethost Eventually, I'll be using this solution to run rsync as the apache user.

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