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  • Optimizing Vector elements swaps using CUDA

    - by Orion Nebula
    Hi all, Since I am new to cuda .. I need your kind help I have this long vector, for each group of 24 elements, I need to do the following: for the first 12 elements, the even numbered elements are multiplied by -1, for the second 12 elements, the odd numbered elements are multiplied by -1 then the following swap takes place: Graph: because I don't yet have enough points, I couldn't post the image so here it is: http://www.freeimagehosting.net/image.php?e4b88fb666.png I have written this piece of code, and wonder if you could help me further optimize it to solve for divergence or bank conflicts .. //subvector is a multiple of 24, Mds and Nds are shared memory _shared_ double Mds[subVector]; _shared_ double Nds[subVector]; int tx = threadIdx.x; int tx_mod = tx ^ 0x0001; int basex = __umul24(blockDim.x, blockIdx.x); Mds[tx] = M.elements[basex + tx]; __syncthreads(); // flip the signs if (tx < (tx/24)*24 + 12) { //if < 12 and even if ((tx & 0x0001)==0) Mds[tx] = -Mds[tx]; } else if (tx < (tx/24)*24 + 24) { //if >12 and < 24 and odd if ((tx & 0x0001)==1) Mds[tx] = -Mds[tx]; } __syncthreads(); if (tx < (tx/24)*24 + 6) { //for the first 6 elements .. swap with last six in the 24elements group (see graph) Nds[tx] = Mds[tx_mod + 18]; Mds [tx_mod + 18] = Mds [tx]; Mds[tx] = Nds[tx]; } else if (tx < (tx/24)*24 + 12) { // for the second 6 elements .. swp with next adjacent group (see graph) Nds[tx] = Mds[tx_mod + 6]; Mds [tx_mod + 6] = Mds [tx]; Mds[tx] = Nds[tx]; } __syncthreads(); Thanks in advance ..

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  • gcc optimization? bug? and its practial implication to project

    - by kumar_m_kiran
    Hi All, My questions are divided into three parts Question 1 Consider the below code, #include <iostream> using namespace std; int main( int argc, char *argv[]) { const int v = 50; int i = 0X7FFFFFFF; cout<<(i + v)<<endl; if ( i + v < i ) { cout<<"Number is negative"<<endl; } else { cout<<"Number is positive"<<endl; } return 0; } No specific compiler optimisation options are used or the O's flag is used. It is basic compilation command g++ -o test main.cpp is used to form the executable. The seemingly very simple code, has odd behaviour in SUSE 64 bit OS, gcc version 4.1.2. The expected output is "Number is negative", instead only in SUSE 64 bit OS, the output would be "Number is positive". After some amount of analysis and doing a 'disass' of the code, I find that the compiler optimises in the below format - Since i is same on both sides of comparison, it cannot be changed in the same expression, remove 'i' from the equation. Now, the comparison leads to if ( v < 0 ), where v is a constant positive, So during compilation itself, the else part cout function address is added to the register. No cmp/jmp instructions can be found. I see that the behaviour is only in gcc 4.1.2 SUSE 10. When tried in AIX 5.1/5.3 and HP IA64, the result is as expected. Is the above optimisation valid? Or, is using the overflow mechanism for int not a valid use case? Question 2 Now when I change the conditional statement from if (i + v < i) to if ( (i + v) < i ) even then, the behaviour is same, this atleast I would personally disagree, since additional braces are provided, I expect the compiler to create a temporary built-in type variable and them compare, thus nullify the optimisation. Question 3 Suppose I have a huge code base, an I migrate my compiler version, such bug/optimisation can cause havoc in my system behaviour. Ofcourse from business perspective, it is very ineffective to test all lines of code again just because of compiler upgradation. I think for all practical purpose, these kinds of error are very difficult to catch (during upgradation) and invariably will be leaked to production site. Can anyone suggest any possible way to ensure to ensure that these kind of bug/optimization does not have any impact on my existing system/code base? PS : When the const for v is removed from the code, then optimization is not done by the compiler. I believe, it is perfectly fine to use overflow mechanism to find if the variable is from MAX - 50 value (in my case).

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  • mysql: can't set max_allowed_package to anything grater than 16MB

    - by sas
    I'm not sure if this is the right place to post these kind of questions, if it's not so, please (politely) let me know... :-) I need to save files greater than 16MB on a mysql database from a php site... I've already changed the c:\xampp\mysql\bin\my.cnf and set max_allowed_packet to 16 MB, and everything worked fine then I set it to 32 MB but there´s no way I can handle a file bigger than 16 MB I get the following error: 'MySQL server has gone away' (the same error I had when max_allowed_packet was set to 1MB) there must be some other setting that doesn´t allow me to handle files bigger than 16MB maybe the php client, I guess, but I don't know where to edit it this is the code I'm running when file.txt is smaller than 16.776.192 bytes long, it works fine, but if file.txt has 16.777.216 bytes i get the aforementioned error oh, and the field download.content is a longblob... $file = 'file.txt'; $file_handle = fopen( $file, 'r' ); $content = fread( $file_handle, filesize( $file ) ); fclose( $file_handle ); db_execute( 'truncate table download', true ); $sql = "insert into download( code, title, name, description, original_name, mime_type, size, content, user_insert_id, date_insert, user_update_id, date_update ) values ( 'new file', 'new file', 'sas.jpg', 'new file', '$file', 'mime', " . filesize( $file ) . ", '" . addslashes( $content ) . "', 0, " . db_char_to_sql( now_char(), 'datetime' ) . ", 0, " . db_char_to_sql( now_char(), 'datetime' ) . " )"; db_execute( $sql, true ); (the db_execute funcion just opens the connections and executes the sql stuff) running on windows XP sp2 server version: 5.0.67-community PHP Version 4.4.9 mysql client API version: 3.23.49 using: ApacheFriends XAMPP (Basispaket) version 1.6.8 that comes with + Apache 2.2.9 + MySQL 5.0.67 (Community Server) + PHP 5.2.6 + PHP 4.4.9 + PEAR + phpMyAdmin 2.11.9.2 ... this is part of the content of c:\xampp\mysql\bin\my.cnf # The MySQL server [mysqld] port= 3306 socket= "C:/xampp/mysql/mysql.sock" basedir="C:/xampp/mysql" tmpdir="C:/xampp/tmp" datadir="C:/xampp/mysql/data" skip-locking key_buffer = 16M # max_allowed_packet = 1M max_allowed_packet = 32M table_cache = 128 sort_buffer_size = 512K net_buffer_length = 8K read_buffer_size = 256K read_rnd_buffer_size = 512K myisam_sort_buffer_size = 8M

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  • printf anomaly after "fork()"

    - by pechenie
    OS: Linux, Language: pure C I'm moving forward in learning C progpramming in general, and C programming under UNIX in a special case :D So, I detected a strange (as for me) behaviour of the printf() function after using a fork() call. Let's take a look at simple test program: #include <stdio.h> #include <system.h> int main() { int pid; printf( "Hello, my pid is %d", getpid() ); pid = fork(); if( pid == 0 ) { printf( "\nI was forked! :D" ); sleep( 3 ); } else { waitpid( pid, NULL, 0 ); printf( "\n%d was forked!", pid ); } return 0; } In this case the output looks like: Hello, my pid is 1111 I was forked! :DHello, my pid is 1111 2222 was forked! Why the second "Hello" string occured in the child's output? Yes, it is exactly what the parent printed on it's start, with the parent's pid. But! If we place '\n' character in the end of each string we got the expected output: #include <stdio.h> #include <system.h> int main() { int pid; printf( "Hello, my pid is %d\n", getpid() ); // SIC!! pid = fork(); if( pid == 0 ) { printf( "I was forked! :D" ); //removed the '\n', no matter sleep( 3 ); } else { waitpid( pid, NULL, 0 ); printf( "\n%d was forked!", pid ); } return 0; } And the output looks like: Hello, my pid is 1111 I was forked! :D 2222 was forked! Why does it happen? Is it ... ummm ... correct behaviour? Or it's a kind of the 'bug'?

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  • Supporting multiple instances of a plugin DLL with global data

    - by Bruno De Fraine
    Context: I converted a legacy standalone engine into a plugin component for a composition tool. Technically, this means that I compiled the engine code base to a C DLL which I invoke from a .NET wrapper using P/Invoke; the wrapper implements an interface defined by the composition tool. This works quite well, but now I receive the request to load multiple instances of the engine, for different projects. Since the engine keeps the project data in a set of global variables, and since the DLL with the engine code base is loaded only once, loading multiple projects means that the project data is overwritten. I can see a number of solutions, but they all have some disadvantages: You can create multiple DLLs with the same code, which are seen as different DLLs by Windows, so their code is not shared. Probably this already works if you have multiple copies of the engine DLL with different names. However, the engine is invoked from the wrapper using DllImport attributes and I think the name of the engine DLL needs to be known when compiling the wrapper. Obviously, if I have to compile different versions of the wrapper for each project, this is quite cumbersome. The engine could run as a separate process. This means that the wrapper would launch a separate process for the engine when it loads a project, and it would use some form of IPC to communicate with this process. While this is a relatively clean solution, it requires some effort to get working, I don't now which IPC technology would be best to set-up this kind of construction. There may also be a significant overhead of the communication: the engine needs to frequently exchange arrays of floating-point numbers. The engine could be adapted to support multiple projects. This means that the global variables should be put into a project structure, and every reference to the globals should be converted to a corresponding reference that is relative to a particular project. There are about 20-30 global variables, but as you can imagine, these global variables are referenced from all over the code base, so this conversion would need to be done in some automatic manner. A related problem is that you should be able to reference the "current" project structure in all places, but passing this along as an extra argument in each and every function signature is also cumbersome. Does there exist a technique (in C) to consider the current call stack and find the nearest enclosing instance of a relevant data value there? Can the stackoverflow community give some advice on these (or other) solutions?

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  • Spring 3 MVC - Form Failure Causes Exception When Reloading JSP

    - by jboyd
    Using Spring 3 MVC, please bear with the long code example, it's quite simple, but I want to make sure all relevant information is posted. Basically here is the use case: There is a registration page, a user can login, OR fill out a registration form. The login form is a simple HTML form, the registration form is a more complicated, Spring bound form that uses a RegistrationFormData bean. Here is the relevant code: UserController.java ... @RequestMapping(value = "/login", method = RequestMethod.GET) public String login(Model model) { model.addAttribute("registrationInfo", new ProfileAdminFormData()); return "login"; } ... @RequestMapping(value = "/login.do", method = RequestMethod.POST) public String doLogin( @RequestParam(value = "userName") String userName, @RequestParam(value = "password") String password, Model model) { logger.info("login.do : userName=" + userName + ", password=" + password); try { getUser().login(userName, password); } catch (UserNotFoundException ex) { logger.error(ex); model.addAttribute("loginError", ex.getWebViewableErrorMessage()); return "login"; } return "redirect:/"; } ... @RequestMapping(value = "/register.do") public String register( @ModelAttribute(value = "registrationInfo") ProfileAdminFormData profileAdminFormData, BindingResult result, Model model) { //todo: redirect if (new RegistrationValidator(profileAdminFormData, result).validate()) { try { User().register(profileAdminFormData); return "index"; } catch (UserException ex) { logger.error(ex); model.addAttribute("registrationErrorMessage", ex.getWebViewableErrorMessage()); return "login"; } } return "login"; } and the JSP: ... <form:form commandName="registrationInfo" action="register.do"> ... So the problem here is that when login fails I get an exception because there is no bean "registrationInfo" in the model attributes. What I need is that regardless of the path through this controller that the "registrationInfo" bean is not null, that way if login fails, as opposed to registration, that bean is still in the model. As you can see I create the registrationInfo object explicitly in my controller in the method bound to "/login", which is what I thought was going to be kind of a setup method" Something doesn't feel right about the "/login" method which sets up the page, but I needed to that in order to get the page to render at all without throwing an exception because there is no "registrationInfo" model attribute, as needed by the form in the JSP

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  • IOC/Autofac problem

    - by Krazzy
    I am currently using Autofac, but am open to commentary regarding other IOC containers as well. I would prefer a solution using Autofac if possible. I am also somewhat new to IOC so I may be grossly misunderstanding what I should be using an IOC container for. Basically, the situation is as follows: I have a topmost IOC container for my app. I have a tree of child containers/scopes where I would like the same "service" (IWhatever) to resolve differently depending on which level in the tree it is resolved. Furthermore if a service is not registered at some level in the tree I would like the tree to be transversed upward until a suitable implementation is found. Furthermore, when constructing a given component, it is quite possible that I will need access to the parent container/scope. In many cases the component that I'm registering will have a dependency on the same or a different service in a parent scope. Is there any way to express this dependency with Autofac? Something like: builder.Register(c=> { var parentComponent = ?.Resolve<ISomeService>(); var childComponent = new ConcreteService(parentComponent, args...); return childComponent; }).As<ISomeService>(); I can't get anything similar to the above pseudocode to work for serveral reasons: A) It seems that all levels in the scope tree share a common set of registrations. I can't seem to find a way to make a given registration confined a certain "scope". B) I can't seem to find a way to get a hold of the parent scope of a given scope. I CAN resolve ILifetimeScope in the container and then case it to a concrete LifetimeScope instance which provides its parent scope, but I'm guessing it is probably note meant to be used this way. Is this safe? C) I'm not sure how to tell Autofac which container owns the resolved object. For many components I would like component to be "owned" by the scope in which it is constructed. Could tagged contexts help me here? Would I have to tag every level of the tree with a unique tag? This would be difficult because the tree depth is determined at runtime. Sorry for the extremely lengthy question. In summary: 1) Is there any way to do what I want to do using Autofac? 2) Is there another container more suited to this kind of dependency structure? 3) Is IOC the wrong tool for this altogether?

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  • Abnormally disconnected TCP sockets and write timeout

    - by James
    Hello I will try to explain the problem in shortest possible words. I am using c++ builder 2010. I am using TIdTCPServer and sending voice packets to a list of connected clients. Everything works ok untill any client is disconnected abnormally, For example power failure etc. I can reproduce similar disconnect by cutting the ethernet connection of a connected client. So now we have a disconnected socket but as you know it is not yet detected at server side so server will continue to try to send data to that client too. But when server try to write data to that disconnected client ...... Write() or WriteLn() HANGS there in trying to write, It is like it is wating for somekind of Write timeout. This hangs the hole packet distribution process as a result creating a lag in data transmission to all other clients. After few seconds "Socket Connection Closed" Exception is raised and data flow continues. Here is the code try { EnterCriticalSection(&SlotListenersCriticalSection); for(int i=0;i<SlotListeners->Count;i++) { try { //Here the process will HANG for several seconds on a disconnected socket ((TIdContext*) SlotListeners->Objects[i])->Connection->IOHandler->WriteLn("Some DATA"); }catch(Exception &e) { SlotListeners->Delete(i); } } }__finally { LeaveCriticalSection(&SlotListenersCriticalSection); } Ok i already have a keep alive mechanism which disconnect the socket after n seconds of inactivity. But as you can imagine, still this mechnism cant sync exactly with this braodcasting loop because this braodcasting loop is running almost all the time. So is there any Write timeouts i can specify may be through iohandler or something ? I have seen many many threads about "Detecting disconnected tcp socket" but my problem is little different, i need to avoid that hangup for few seconds during the write attempt. So is there any solution ? Or should i consider using some different mechanism for such data broadcasting for example the broadcasting loop put the data packet in some kind of FIFO buffer and client threads continuously check for available data and pick and deliver it to themselves ? This way if one thread hangs it will not stop/delay the over all distribution thread. Any ideas please ? Thanks for your time and help. Regards Jams

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  • C++ - Breaking code implementation into different parts

    - by Kotti
    Hi! The question plot (a bit abstract, but answering this question will help me in my real app): So, I have some abstract superclass for objects that can be rendered on the screen. Let's call it IRenderable. struct IRenderable { // (...) virtual void Render(RenderingInterface& ri) = 0; virtual ~IRenderable() { } }; And suppose I also have some other objects that derive from IRenderable, e.g. Cat and Dog. So far so good. I add some Cat and Dog specific methods, like SeekForWhiskas(...) and Bark(...). After that I add specific Render(...) method for them, so my code looks this way: class Cat : public IRenderable { public: void SeekForWhiskas(...) { // Implementation could be here or moved // to a source file (depends on me wanting // to inline it or not) } virtual void Render(...) { // Here comes the rendering routine, that // is specific for cats SomehowDrawAppropriateCat(...); } }; class Dog : public IRenderable { public: void Bark(...) { // Same as for 'SeekForWhiskas(...)' } virtual void Render(...) { // Here comes the rendering routine, that // is specific for dogs DrawMadDog(...); } }; And then somewhere else I can do drawing the way that an appropriate rendering routine is called: IRenderable* dog = new Dog(); dog->Render(...); My question is about logical wrapping of such kind of code. I want to break apart the code, that corresponds to rendering of the current object and it's own methods (Render and Bark in this example), so that my class implementation doesn't turn into a mess (imagine that I have 10 methods like Bark and of course my Render method doesn't fit in their company and would be hard to find). Two ways of making what I want to (as far as I know) are: Making appropriate routines that look like RenderCat(Cat& cat, RenderInterface* ri), joining them to render namespace and then the functions inside a class would look like virtual void Render(...) { RenderCat(*this, ...); }, but this is plain stupid, because I'll lose access to Cat's private members and friending these functions looks like a total design disaster. Using visitor pattern, but this would also mean I have to rebuild my app's design and looks like an inadequate way to make my code complicated from the very beginning. Any brilliant ideas? :)

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  • how to animate 2 surfaces in Matlab?

    - by Kate
    Hi everyone, I've written this code which makes an animation of 2 ellipsoids. Parameter k1 of these ellipsoids must depend on time (so they'd move asynchronously), but I need to animate them in one figure. Can I use loop for it or is it better to use timer & some kind of callback functions? The second problem - I need to move inner ellipsoid so they would have one common side. How can I do this? a=5; b=a; c=10; u = (0:0.05*pi:2*pi)'; v = [0:0.05*pi:2*pi]; X = a*sin(u)*cos(v); Y = a*sin(u)*sin(v); Z = c*cos(u)*ones(size(v)); Z(Z0)=0; % cut upper V1=4/3*pi*a*b*c; d=1/2; e=2^d; a2=a/e; b2=a/e; c2=c; V2=4/3*pi*a2*b2*c2; X2 = a2*sin(u)*cos(v);%-2.5; Y2 = b2*sin(u)*sin(v); Z2 = c2*cos(u)*ones(size(v));%+0.25; Z2(Z20)=0; % cut h=1/3; for j = 1:20 k1=(sin(pi*j/20)+0.5)^h; a=a*k1; c=c*k1; X = a*sin(u)*cos(v); Y = a*sin(u)*sin(v); Z = c*cos(u)*ones(size(v)); Z(Z0)=0; a2=a2*k1; b2=a2*k1; c2=c2*k1; X2 = a2*sin(u)*cos(v)+5;%-2.5; Y2 = b2*sin(u)*sin(v); Z2 = c2*cos(u)*ones(size(v));%+0.25; Z2(Z20)=0; hS1=surf(X,Y,Z); alpha(.11) hold on hS2=surf(X2,Y2,Z2); hold off axis([-20 20 -20 20 -20 20]); F(j) = getframe; end movie(F,4)

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  • PHP 5.3: Late static binding doesn't work for properties when defined in parent class while missing in child class

    - by DavidPesta
    Take a look at this example, and notice the outputs indicated. <?php class Mommy { protected static $_data = "Mommy Data"; public static function init( $data ) { static::$_data = $data; } public static function showData() { echo static::$_data . "<br>"; } } class Brother extends Mommy { } class Sister extends Mommy { } Brother::init( "Brother Data" ); Sister::init( "Sister Data" ); Brother::showData(); // Outputs: Sister Data Sister::showData(); // Outputs: Sister Data ?> My understanding was that using the static keyword would refer to the child class, but apparently it magically applies to the parent class whenever it is missing from the child class. (This is kind of a dangerous behavior for PHP, more on that explained below.) I have the following two things in mind for why I want to do this: I don't want the redundancy of defining all of the properties in all of the child classes. I want properties to be defined as defaults in the parent class and I want the child class definition to be able to override these properties wherever needed. The child class needs to exclude properties whenever the defaults are intended, which is why I don't define the properties in the child classes in the above example. However, if we are wanting to override a property at runtime (via the init method), it will override it for the parent class! From that point forward, child classes initialized earlier (as in the case of Brother) unexpectedly change on you. Apparently this is a result of child classes not having their own copy of the static property whenever it isn't explicitly defined inside of the child class--but instead of throwing an error it switches behavior of static to access the parent. Therefore, is there some way that the parent class could dynamically create a property that belongs to the child class without it appearing inside of the child class definition? That way the child class could have its own copy of the static property and the static keyword can refer to it properly, and it can be written to take into account parent property defaults. Or is there some other solution, good, bad, or ugly?

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  • how to send parameters to a web Services via SOAP?

    - by Alejandra Meraz
    Before I start: I'm programming for Iphone, using objective C. I have already implemented a call to a web service function using NSURLRequest and NSURLConnection and SOAP. The function then returns a XML with the info I need. The code is as follows: NSString *soapMessage = [NSString stringWithFormat: @"<?xml version=\"1.0\" encoding=\"utf-8\"?>\n" "<soap:Envelope xmlns:xsi=\"http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance\" xmlns:xsd=\"http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema\" xmlns:soap=\"http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/envelope/\">\n" "<soap:Body>\n" "<function xmlns=\"http://tempuri.org/\" />\n" "</soap:Body>\n" "</soap:Envelope>\n"]; NSURL *url = [NSURL URLWithString:@"http://myHost.com/myWebService/service.asmx"]; //the url to the WSDL NsMutableURLRequest theRequest = [[NSMutableURLRequest alloc] initWithURL:url]; NSString *msgLength = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%d",[soapMessage length]]; [theRequest addValue:@"text/xml; charset=utf-8" forHTTPHeaderField:@"Content-Type"]; [theRequest addValue:msgLength forHTTPHeaderField:@"Content-Lenght"]; [theRequest setHTTPMethod:@"POST"]; [theRequest addValue:@"myhost.com" forHTTPHeaderField:@"Host"]; [theRequest addValue:@"http://tempuri.org/function" forHTTPHeaderField:@"SOAPAction"]; [theRequest setHTTPBody:[soapMessage dataUsingEncoding:NSUTF8StringEncoding]]; theConnection = [[NSURLConnection alloc] initWithRequest:theRequest delegate:self]; I basically copy and modified the soap request the web service gave as an example. i also implemented the methods didRecieveResponse didRecieveAuthenticationChallenge didRecievedData didFailWithError connectionDidFinishLoading. And it works perfectly. Now I need to send 2 parameters to the function: "location" and "module". I tried modifying the soapMessage like this: NSString *soapMessage = [NSString stringWithFormat: @"<?xml version=\"1.0\" encoding=\"utf-8\"?>\n" "<soap:Envelope xmlns:xsi=\"http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance\" xmlns:xsd=\"http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema\" xmlns:soap=\"http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/envelope/\">\n" "<soap:Body xmlns=\"http://tempuri.org/\" />\n" "<m:GetMonitorList>\n" "<m:location>USA</m:location>\n" "<m:module>DEVELOPMENT</m:module>\n" "</m:GetMonitorList>\n" "</soap:Body>\n" "</soap:Envelope>\n"]; But is not working...any thoughts how should I modify it? Extra info: it seems to be working... kind of. But the webservice return nothing. During the connection, the method didReceiveResponse execute once and the didFinishLoading method executes as well. But not even once the method didReceiveData. I wonder if, even though there is no USA locations, it will still send at least something? is there a way to know which are the parameters the function is waiting for? I don't have access to the source of the webservice but i can access the WSDL.

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  • Is it possible to create a service like Feed My Inbox on my own server?

    - by Mark Bowen
    I was just wondering if it's at all possible to create a service like Feed My Inbox on my own server using PHP? Basically I have a site which has RSS feeds which are dynamic in nature and can search from thousands of posts based on many different criteria. I have the RSS feed working fine and bringing back data dynamically for whatever criteria I want so that bits fine. I am using the ExpressionEngine CMS to handle the site and there will be thousands of users on the site (currently there are around 2,0000) but that number is exponentially growing every single day. What I want to be able to do is allow the users to choose from certain criteria which will then build a dynamic RSS URL which will then be stored in a database table (one row for each user). This bit I will be able to do myself but then I want to be able to send out new RSS feed items via e-mail to each user. This is the part I'm a little stuck on. I'm guessing I would somehow need to run a cron job to hit a page which would check each users RSS feed and then if there are new items to send them to the user via e-mail. That's where I am totally stuck though and I'm just wondering what the best way to go about it would be? That or any software in PHP that already does this sort of thing would be great. I tried out phpList but it has severe problems working with RSS and I only ever got it to work once and now never again and I've read that lots of people have had this same problem so unfortunately it's not just me :-( I know there are services such as Feed My Inbox which I could easily set up so that users click a link and their RSS feed URL is added to go and use that service but I want to keep users from seeing the dynamic nature of the feed or they will easily be able to modify it to get at other items in the feed. I need this so that I can charge for access to the feeds but if people can see the URL of the feed then I will be totally unstuck as they will be able to get at whatever they want very easily. Therefore I'd like to be able to send the items out to them. Would really love to hear if anyone knows if this kind of thing is possible at all and what would be involved?

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  • Asp.net Mvc - Kigg: Maintain User object in HttpContext.Items between requests.

    - by Pickels
    Hallo, first I want to say that I hope this doesn't look like I am lazy but I have some trouble understanding a piece of code from the following project. http://kigg.codeplex.com/ I was going through the source code and I noticed something that would be usefull for my own little project I am making. In their BaseController they have the following code: private static readonly Type CurrentUserKey = typeof(IUser); public IUser CurrentUser { get { if (!string.IsNullOrEmpty(CurrentUserName)) { IUser user = HttpContext.Items[CurrentUserKey] as IUser; if (user == null) { user = AccountRepository.FindByClaim(CurrentUserName); if (user != null) { HttpContext.Items[CurrentUserKey] = user; } } return user; } return null; } } This isn't an exact copy of the code I adjusted it a little to my needs. This part of the code I still understand. They store their IUser in HttpContext.Items. I guess they do it so that they don't have to call the database eachtime they need the User object. The part that I don't understand is how they maintain this object in between requests. If I understand correctly the HttpContext.Items is a per request cache storage. So after some more digging I found the following code. internal static IDictionary<UnityPerWebRequestLifetimeManager, object> GetInstances(HttpContextBase httpContext) { IDictionary<UnityPerWebRequestLifetimeManager, object> instances; if (httpContext.Items.Contains(Key)) { instances = (IDictionary<UnityPerWebRequestLifetimeManager, object>) httpContext.Items[Key]; } else { lock (httpContext.Items) { if (httpContext.Items.Contains(Key)) { instances = (IDictionary<UnityPerWebRequestLifetimeManager, object>) httpContext.Items[Key]; } else { instances = new Dictionary<UnityPerWebRequestLifetimeManager, object>(); httpContext.Items.Add(Key, instances); } } } return instances; } This is the part where some magic happens that I don't understand. I think they use Unity to do some dependency injection on each request? In my project I am using Ninject and I am wondering how I can get the same result. I guess InRequestScope in Ninject is the same as UnityPerWebRequestLifetimeManager? I am also wondering which class/method they are binding to which interface? Since the HttpContext.Items get destroyed each request how do they prevent losing their user object? Anyway it's kinda a long question so I am gradefull for any push in the right direction. Kind regards, Pickels

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  • What database table structure should I use for versions, codebases, deployables?

    - by Zac Thompson
    I'm having doubts about my table structure, and I wonder if there is a better approach. I've got a little database for version control repositories (e.g. SVN), the packages (e.g. Linux RPMs) built therefrom, and the versions (e.g. 1.2.3-4) thereof. A given repository might produce no packages, or several, but if there are more than one for a given repository then a particular version for that repository will indicate a single "tag" of the codebase. A particular version "string" might be used to tag a version of the source code in more than one repository, but there may be no relationship between "1.0" for two different repos. So if packages P and Q both come from repo R, then P 1.0 and Q 1.0 are both built from the 1.0 tag of repo R. But if package X comes from repo Y, then X 1.0 has no relationship to P 1.0. In my (simplified) model, I have the following tables (the x_id columns are auto-incrementing surrogate keys; you can pretend I'm using a different primary key if you wish, it's not really important): repository - repository_id - repository_name (unique) ... version - version_id - version_string (unique for a particular repository) - repository_id ... package - package_id - package_name (unique) - repository_id ... This makes it easy for me to see, for example, what are valid versions of a given package: I can join with the version table using the repository_id. However, suppose I would like to add some information to this database, e.g., to indicate which package versions have been approved for release. I certainly need a new table: package_version - version_id - package_id - package_version_released ... Again, the nature of the keys that I use are not really important to my problem, and you can imagine that the data column is "promotion_level" or something if that helps. My doubts arise when I realize that there's really a very close relationship between the version_id and the package_id in my new table ... they must share the same repository_id. Only a small subset of package/version combinations are valid. So I should have some kind of constraint on those columns, enforcing that ... ... I don't know, it just feels off, somehow. Like I'm including somehow more information than I really need? I don't know how to explain my hesitance here. I can't figure out which (if any) normal form I'm violating, but I also can't find an example of a schema with this sort of structure ... not being a DBA by profession I'm not sure where to look. So I'm asking: am I just being overly sensitive?

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  • C++ game designing & polymorphism question

    - by Kotti
    Hi! I'm trying to implement some sort of 'just-for-me' game engine and the problem's plot goes the following way: Suppose I have some abstract interface for a renderable entity, e.g. IRenderable. And it's declared the following way: interface IRenderable { // (...) // Suppose that Backend is some abstract backend used // for rendering, and it's implementation is not important virtual void Render(Backend& backend) = 0; }; What I'm doing right now is something like declaring different classes like class Ball : public IRenderable { virtual void Render(Backend& backend) { // Rendering implementation, that is specific for // the Ball object // (...) } }; And then everything looks fine. I can easily do something like std::vector<IRenderable*> items, push some items like new Ball() in this vector and then make a call similiar to foreach (IRenderable* in items) { item->Render(backend); } Ok, I guess it is the 'polymorphic' way, but what if I want to have different types of objects in my game and an ability to manipulate their state, where every object can be manipulated via it's own interface? I could do something like struct GameState { Ball ball; Bonus bonus; // (...) }; and then easily change objects state via their own methods, like ball.Move(...) or bonus.Activate(...), where Move(...) is specific for only Ball and Activate(...) - for only Bonus instances. But in this case I lose the opportunity to write foreach IRenderable* simply because I store these balls and bonuses as instances of their derived, not base classes. And in this case the rendering procedure turns into a mess like ball.Render(backend); bonus.Render(backend); // (...) and it is bad because we actually lose our polymorphism this way (no actual need for making Render function virtual, etc. The other approach means invoking downcasting via dynamic_cast or something with typeid to determine the type of object you want to manipulate and this looks even worse to me and this also breaks this 'polymorphic' idea. So, my question is - is there some kind of (probably) alternative approach to what I want to do or can my current pattern be somehow modified so that I would actually store IRenderable* for my game objects (so that I can invoke virtual Render method on each of them) while preserving the ability to easily change the state of these objects? Maybe I'm doing something absolutely wrong from the beginning, if so, please point it out :) Thanks in advance!

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  • Keep hover state applied until user mouses over another element.

    - by Thomas
    First let me state that I'm a jquery noob, so this may not make a lot of sense. So I have a series of list items that expand to show a hidden div inside if the user mouses over a link inside the item (not the whole list item itself) The problem is that if the users mouse leaves the link the li closes up again. I need this to work in a way so that the li only closes if you mouse over a link in another li. (sorry this is kind of hard to put into words) Heres my code. $(document).ready(function(){ $(".home_upcoming_title").hoverIntent({ over: makeTall, timeout: 500, out: makeShort }); }); // close document.ready function makeTall(){$(this).parents("li").animate({"height":200},200);} function makeShort(){$(this).parents("li").animate({"height":32},200);} and the HTML <li class="p1"> <ul class="home_upcoming_list2" id="fade"> <li class="home_upcoming_date">Sat.Sept.23rd.2010</li> <li><a href="./." class="home_upcoming_title" >Event Title</a></li> <li class="home_upcoming_city">Los Angeles</li> <li class="home_upcoming_type">Festival</li> <li class="home_upcoming_venue">Venue</li> <li class="home_upcoming_age">18+</li> <li><a href="./." title="Buy Tickets" class="home_upcoming_tix">Buy Tickets</a></li> <li><a href="./." class="upcoming_info" title="View Details"></a></li> </ul> <div style="height:150px; background-color:#FF0000; display:block;" class="sl0w"></div> </li> so the link with the class "home_upcoming_title" expands li to show the div inside but when I mouse over the div itself the list closes. I also need it so only the class "home_upcoming_title" expands the div. but it needs to stay open until you mouse over another link with the same class. sorry if that doesn't make much sense :)

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  • How do I solve "405 Method Not Allowed" for our subversion setup?

    - by macke
    We're serving our source code using VisualSVN running on Windows Server 2003. Recently, we split a portion of a project into a new project in it's own repository, and then linked it back to the original project using svn:externals. Since then, we've been having issues when we try to commit files with Subclipse. The error we're getting is: svn: Commit failed (details follow): svn: PROPFIND of '/svn': 405 Method Not Allowed (https://svn.ourserver.com) Googling for a while didn't really help, our config seems to be correct. It should also be noted that we've been running this server for a while no without these problems and apart from splitting the project into two repositories, no changes have been made to the server (ie, config files are the same). It should also be noted that these errors only appear when we try to check in multiple files at once. If we check in one file at a time there are no errors. Also, it only appears in Subclipse as far as we know right now, Versions.app (OS X) seems to work fine so that is our current workaround. So, the questions is how do I analyze the error to find the cause and subsequently fix it? I'm by no means a svn guru and right now I'm clueless. EDIT: It seems we can check in multiple files in the same package, but not files from multiple packages. Also, when I "split" the project into two repositories, I imported the original repository with a new name. I did not do a dump and then import that dump. Could that be the source of our issues, and if so, how would I solve that? EDIT: After some jerking around it seems as though it is indeed related to when checking in files in different repositories. If I try to do a single commit in both Repo A and Repo B (referenced by svn:externals) at the same time, I get the error. Versions.app handles this correctly, but I guess it might just be doing two commits, not a single one. Subclipse fails miserably. For now, we simply do multiple commits, one for Repo A and one for Repo B, that works just fine. If anyone smarter than me could fill in the details why this is happening, whether or not this kind of setup is stupid etc, please go right ahead.

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  • Permanent mutex locking causing deadlock?

    - by Daniel
    I am having a problem with mutexes (pthread_mutex on Linux) where if a thread locks a mutex right again after unlocking it, another thread is not very successful getting a lock. I've attached test code where one mutex is created, along with two threads that in an endless loop lock the mutex, sleep for a while and unlock it again. The output I expect to see is "alive" messages from both threads, one from each (e.g. 121212121212. However what I get is that one threads gets the majority of locks (e.g. 111111222222222111111111 or just 1111111111111...). If I add a usleep(1) after the unlocking, everything works as expected. Apparently when the thread goes to SLEEP the other thread gets its lock - however this is not the way I was expecting it, as the other thread has already called pthread_mutex_lock. I suspect this is the way this is implemented, in that the actice thread has priority, however it causes certain problem in this particular testcase. Is there any way to prevent it (short of adding a deliberately large enough delay or some kind of signaling) or where is my error in understanding? #include <pthread.h> #include <stdio.h> #include <string.h> #include <sys/time.h> #include <unistd.h> pthread_mutex_t mutex; void* threadFunction(void *id) { int count=0; while(true) { pthread_mutex_lock(&mutex); usleep(50*1000); pthread_mutex_unlock(&mutex); // usleep(1); ++count; if (count % 10 == 0) { printf("Thread %d alive\n", *(int*)id); count = 0; } } return 0; } int main() { // create one mutex pthread_mutexattr_t attr; pthread_mutexattr_init(&attr); pthread_mutex_init(&mutex, &attr); // create two threads pthread_t thread1; pthread_t thread2; pthread_attr_t attributes; pthread_attr_init(&attributes); int id1 = 1, id2 = 2; pthread_create(&thread1, &attributes, &threadFunction, &id1); pthread_create(&thread2, &attributes, &threadFunction, &id2); pthread_attr_destroy(&attributes); sleep(1000); return 0; }

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  • TimeOuts with HttpWebRequest when running Selenium concurrently in .NET

    - by domsom
    I have a download worker that uses ThreadPool-threads to download files. After enhancing these to apply some Selenium tests to the downloaded files, I am constantly experiencing TimeOut-exceptions with the file downloaders and delays running the Selenium tests. More precisely: When the program starts, the download threads start downloading and a couple of pages are seamlessly processed via Selenium Shortly after, the first download threads start throwing TimeOut exceptions from HttpWebRequest. At the same time, commands stop flowing to Selenium (as observed in the SeleniumRC log), but the thread running Selenium is not getting any exception This situation holds as long as there are entries in the download list: new download threads are being started and terminate after receiving TimeOuts (without trying to lock Selenium) As soon as no more download threads are being started, Selenium starts receiving commands again and the threads waiting for the lock are processed sequentially as designed Now here's the download code: HttpWebRequest request = null; WebResponse response = null; Stream stream = null; StreamReader sr = null; try { request = (HttpWebRequest) WebRequest.Create(uri); request.ServicePoint.ConnectionLimit = MAX_CONNECTIONS_PER_HOST; response = request.GetResponse(); stream = response.GetResponseStream(); // Read the stream... } finally { if (request != null) request.Abort(); if (response != null) response.Close(); if (stream != null) { stream.Close(); stream.Dispose(); } if (sr != null) { sr.Close(); sr.Dispose(); } } And this is how Selenium is used afterwards in the same thread: lock(SeleniumLock) { selenium.Open(url); // Run some Selenium commands, but no selenium.stop() } Where selenium is a static variable that is initialized in the static constructor of the class (via selenium.start()). I assume I am running into the CLR connection limit, so I added these lines during initalization: ThreadPool.GetMaxThreads (out maxWorkerThreads, out maxCompletionPortThreads); HttpUtility.MAX_CONNECTIONS_PER_HOST = maxWorkerThreads; System.Net.ServicePointManager.DefaultConnectionLimit = maxWorkerThreads + 1; The + 1 is for the connection to the SeleniumRC, due to my guess that the Selenium client code also uses HttpWebRequest. It seems like I'm still running into some kind of deadlock - although the threads waiting for the Selenium lock do not hold any resources. Any ideas on how to get this working?

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  • GHC.Generics and Type Families

    - by jberryman
    This is a question related to my module here, and is simplified a bit. It's also related to this previous question, in which I oversimplified my problem and didn't get the answer I was looking for. I hope this isn't too specific, and please change the title if you can think if a better one. Background My module uses a concurrent chan, split into a read side and write side. I use a special class with an associated type synonym to support polymorphic channel "joins": {-# LANGUAGE TypeFamilies #-} class Sources s where type Joined s newJoinedChan :: IO (s, Messages (Joined s)) -- NOT EXPORTED --output and input sides of channel: data Messages a -- NOT EXPORTED data Mailbox a instance Sources (Mailbox a) where type Joined (Mailbox a) = a newJoinedChan = undefined instance (Sources a, Sources b)=> Sources (a,b) where type Joined (a,b) = (Joined a, Joined b) newJoinedChan = undefined -- and so on for tuples of 3,4,5... The code above allows us to do this kind of thing: example = do (mb , msgsA) <- newJoinedChan ((mb1, mb2), msgsB) <- newJoinedChan --say that: msgsA, msgsB :: Messages (Int,Int) --and: mb :: Mailbox (Int,Int) -- mb1,mb2 :: Mailbox Int We have a recursive action called a Behavior that we can run on the messages we pull out of the "read" end of the channel: newtype Behavior a = Behavior (a -> IO (Behavior a)) runBehaviorOn :: Behavior a -> Messages a -> IO () -- NOT EXPORTED This would allow us to run a Behavior (Int,Int) on either of msgsA or msgsB, where in the second case both Ints in the tuple it receives actually came through separate Mailboxes. This is all tied together for the user in the exposed spawn function spawn :: (Sources s) => Behavior (Joined s) -> IO s ...which calls newJoinedChan and runBehaviorOn, and returns the input Sources. What I'd like to do I'd like users to be able to create a Behavior of arbitrary product type (not just tuples) , so for instance we could run a Behavior (Pair Int Int) on the example Messages above. I'd like to do this with GHC.Generics while still having a polymorphic Sources, but can't manage to make it work. spawn :: (Sources s, Generic (Joined s), Rep (Joined s) ~ ??) => Behavior (Joined s) -> IO s The parts of the above example that are actually exposed in the API are the fst of the newJoinedChan action, and Behaviors, so an acceptable solution can modify one or all of runBehaviorOn or the snd of newJoinedChan. I'll also be extending the API above to support sums (not implemented yet) like Behavior (Either a b) so I hoped GHC.Generics would work for me. Questions Is there a way I can extend the API above to support arbitrary Generic a=> Behavior a? If not using GHC's Generics, are there other ways I can get the API I want with minimal end-user pain (i.e. they just have to add a deriving clause to their type)?

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  • 2nd Year College - Learning - Microsoft Server Products

    - by Ryan
    As the title says, I just finished my first year of college (majoring in Software Engineering). Fortunately my school likes Microsoft enough, and I can get pretty much anything I want that Microsoft sells. I also can get IBM Websphere and the like for free as well. Earlier this year, I set up an oldish computer (2.6 Pentium D, x64) to run ubuntu server headless. I'm predominately a Java developer, so Apache, Maven, Nexus, Sonar, SVN, etc made it onto the machine. It worked really well for personal and school projects, especially team projects (quick ramp up). Anyways, I started to pick up C# to complement my Java knowledge (don't judge me :P), and am interested in working with some of the associated Microsoft equivalents. The machine currently has the Ubuntu install, as well as Windows 7 Ultimate. I do all of my actual development work off my laptop, also running Windows 7 Ultimate. I was wondering what software you would recommend putting on the machine. I’m not actually serving anything off the machine itself, but in Ubuntu I had it doing integration tests with Hudson on every commit, and profiling my applications, etc, etc. The machine would be running headless, and I would remote into it. Here is what I am currently leaning towards / wondering about: Windows 7 Ultimate vs Windows Server 2008 (R2) (no one is really clear why I should go with one over the other) Windows Team Foundation Sharepoint (Never used it before, kind of meh about it) IBM Websphere or Glassfish (Some Java EE web server) SQL Server 2008 A DVCS In order to better control product conflicts / limit resource use, I’m wondering if I should install things into virtual machines (I can get VmWare or Microsoft Virtualization Products) I also plan on installing everything I had running under Linux (it’s almost entirely Java based development software, so it’ll run on both, only reason I went with ubuntu during the year was because the apache build seemed better). I’m primarily looking to become familiar with enterprise software development tools, as well as get something functional that will help my development process. (IE, I’ll still use project and assign tasks even though I might be the only one to assign tasks to, just to practice doing so). Is there any other software / configuration details I should explore? Opinions on my current list? I primarily use C#, Java, and PHP. I'm familiar with ruby, and python as well. Thanks!

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  • PHP running as a FastCGI application (php-cgi) - how to issue concurrent requests?

    - by Sbm007
    Some background information: I'm writing my own webserver in Java and a couple of days ago I asked on SO how exactly Apache interfaces with PHP, so I can implement PHP support. I learnt that FastCGI is the best approach (since mod_php is not an option). So I have looked at the FastCGI protocol specification and have managed to write a working FastCGI wrapper for my server. I have tested phpinfo() and it works, in fact all PHP functions seem to work just fine (posting data, sessions, date/time, etc etc). My webserver is able to serve requests concurrently (ie user1 can retrieve file1.html at the same time as user2 requesting some_large_binary_file.zip), it does this by spawning a new Java thread for each user request (terminating when completed or user connection with client is cancelled). However, it cannot deal with 2 (or more) FastCGI requests at the same time. What it does is, it queues them up, so when request 1 is completed immediately thereafter it starts processing request 2. I tested this with 2 PHP pages, one contains sleep(10) and the other phpinfo(). How would I go about dealing with multiple requests as I know it can be done (PHP under IIS runs as FastCGI and it can deal with multiple requests just fine). Some more info: I am coding under windows and my batch file used to execute php-cgi.exe contains: set PHP_FCGI_CHILDREN=8 set PHP_FCGI_MAX_REQUESTS=500 php-cgi.exe -b 9000 But it does not spawn 8 children, the service simply terminates after 500 requests. I have done research and from Wikipedia: Processing of multiple requests simultaneously is achieved either by using a single connection with internal multiplexing (ie. multiple requests over a single connection) and/or by using multiple connections Now clearly the multiple connections isn't working for me, as everytime a client requests something that involves FastCGI it creates a new socket to the FastCGI application, but it does not work concurrently (it queues them up instead). I know that internal multiplexing of FastCGI requests under the same connection is accomplished by issuing each unique FastCGI request with a different request ID. (also see the last 3 paragraphs of 'The Communication Protocol' heading in this article). I have not tested this, but how would I go about implementing that? I take it I need some kind of FastCGI Java thread which contains a Map of some sort and a static function which I can use to add requests to. Then in the Thread's run() function it would have a while loop and for every cycle it would check whether the Map contains new requests, if so it would assign them a request ID and write them to the FastCGI stream. And then wait for input etc etc, As you can see this becomes too complicated. Does anyone know the correct way of doing this? Or any thoughts at all? Thanks very much. Note, if required I can supply the code for my FastCGI wrapper.

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  • Methodology to understanding JQuery plugin & API's developed by third parties

    - by Taoist
    I have a question about third party created JQuery plug ins and API's and the methodology for understanding them. Recently I downloaded the JQuery Masonry/Infinite scroll plug in and I couldn't figure out how to configure it based on the instructions. So I downloaded a fully developed demo, then manually deleted everything that wouldn't break the functionality. The code that was left allowed me to understand the plug in much greater detail than the documentation. I'm now having a similar issue with a plug in called JQuery knob. http://anthonyterrien.com/knob/ If you look at the JQuery Knob readme file it says this is working code: <input type="text" value="75" class="dial"> $(function() { $('.dial') .trigger( 'configure', { "min":10, "max":40, "fgColor":"#FF0000", "skin":"tron", "cursor":true } ); }); But as far as I can tell it isn't at all. The read me also says the Plug in uses Canvas. I am wondering if I am suppose to wrap this code in a canvas context or if this functionality is already part of the plug in. I know this kind of "question" might not fit in here but I'm a bit confused on the assumptions around reading these kinds of documentation and thought I would post the query regardless. Curious to see if this is due to my "newbi" programming experience or if this is something seasoned coders also fight with. Thank you. Edit In response to Tyanna's reply. I modified the code and it still doesn't work. I posted it below. I made sure that I checked the Google Console to insure the basics were taken care of, such as not getting a read-error on the library. <!DOCTYPE html> <meta charset="UTF-8"> <title>knob</title> <link rel="stylesheet" href="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jqueryui/1.7.2/themes/hot-sneaks/jquery-ui.css" type="text/css" /> <script type="text/javascript" src="https://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.7.2/jquery.js" charset="utf-8"></script> <script src="https://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jqueryui/1.8.21/jquery-ui.min.js"></script> <script src="js/jquery.knob.js"></script> <div id="button1">test </div> <script> $(function() { $("#button1").click(function () { $('.dial').trigger( 'configure', { "min":10, "max":40, "fgColor":"#FF0000", "skin":"tron", "cursor":true } ); }); }); </script>

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  • Route Angular to New Controller after Login

    - by MizAkita
    I'm kind of stuck on how to route my angular app to a new controller after login. I have a simple app, that uses 'loginservice'... after logging in, it then routes to /home which has a different template from the index.html(login page). I want to use /home as the route that displays the partial views of my flightforms controllers. What is the best way to configure my routes so that after login, /home is the default and the routes are called into that particular templates view. Seems easy but I keep getting the /login page when i click on a link which is suppose to pass the partial view into the default.html template: var app= angular.module('myApp', ['ngRoute']); app.config(['$routeProvider', function($routeProvider) { $routeProvider.when('/login', { templateUrl: 'partials/login.html', controller: 'loginCtrl' }); $routeProvider.when('/home', { templateUrl: 'partials/default.html', controller: 'defaultCtrl' }); }]); flightforms.config(['$routeProvider', function($routeProvider){ //sub pages $routeProvider.when('/home', { templateUrl: 'partials/default.html', controller: 'defaultCtrl' }); $routeProvider.when('/status', { templateUrl: 'partials/subpages/home.html', controller: 'statusCtrl' }); $routeProvider.when('/observer-ao', { templateUrl: 'partials/subpages/aobsrv.html', controller: 'obsvaoCtrl' }); $routeProvider.when('/dispatch', { templateUrl: 'partials/subpages/disp.html', controller: 'dispatchCtrl' }); $routeProvider.when('/fieldmgr', { templateUrl: 'partials/subpages/fieldopmgr.html', controller: 'fieldmgrCtrl' }); $routeProvider.when('/obs-backoffice', { templateUrl: 'partials/subpages/obsbkoff.html', controller: 'obsbkoffCtrl' }); $routeProvider.when('/add-user', { templateUrl: 'partials/subpages/users.html', controller: 'userCtrl' }); $routeProvider.otherwise({ redirectTo: '/status' }); }]); app.run(function($rootScope, $location, loginService) { var routespermission=['/home']; //route that require login $rootScope.$on('$routeChangeStart', function(){ if( routespermission.indexOf($location.path()) !=-1) { var connected=loginService.islogged(); connected.then(function(msg) { if(!msg.data) $location.path('/login'); }); } }); }); and my controllers are simple. Here's a sample of what they look like: var flightformsControllers = angular.module('flightformsController', []); flightforms.controller('fieldmgrCtrl', ['$scope','$http','loginService', function($scope,loginService) { $scope.txt='You are logged in'; $scope.logout=function(){ loginService.logout(); } }]); Any ideas on how to get my partials to display in the /home default.html template would be appreciated.

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