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• Record Disappeared from Mysql Table, How Can I Find Out What Happened?

  - by Jascha

  I got the fire alarm phone call, AIM messages and email today from a client stating "The site is down!, WTF happened?!" Well, after a little digging, it turns out one of the records in a table had been wiped clean, but without removing the row itself. So, I had the representation of data, but a bunch of empty fields. (needless to day I need to write into my code a catch for this.) What my real question is, where can I figure out what happened? I've got access to phpmyadmin and that's about it. I found some access logs on in the root directory of my server, but that just tells me the client was in the admin area I built editing that record, I'd like to know specifically what they did that made all of the data go away. (what query was run etc...) is it possible without real server admin access? is there a neat little php to mysql class that returns data like this? Thanks in advance. -Jascha

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• restrict script inside iframe to run only within pages of same top-level domain?

  - by Justin Grant

  I'd like to enforce a requirement that client script inside a page (which in turn is loaded inside an iframe of another page) will only run when the parent page is on the same top-level domain as the framed page (although it may be on another hostname in that domain). Is this do-able? I assume that the easy solution of looking at top.location.host won't be available due to cross-site scripting limitations, but I'm wondering if other javascript hackery could suffice. Constraints on any potential solution inculde: I need to be able to run XmlHttpRequest calls inside the child page, and I need to validate that the hostname is in the same domain before I make those calls. (this makes a document.domain solution challenging because AFAIK setting document.domain disables the ability to make XmlHttpRequest calls. I can control client-side script and HTML on both parent or child (and I can create new pages if needed), but I can't make any server-side code changes. I can't simulate the above via server-side calls or proxies, because the child page's hostname uses a forms auth system with hostname-scoped cookies that I can't get access to from the parent page since it's on a different hostname. I don't have enough control over the child-frame site to be able to put both sites behind the same reverse-proxy or load-balancer (which would enable me to put both sites on the same hostname). I don't actually need to access any UI inside the IFrame-- the iframe is invisible and I'm only using it to run javascript within the security context of a site on a different hostname from the parent page. So at this point I'm stumped. Got any ideas? I want to make sure I'm not overlooking an easy solution before giving up.

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• Winsock tcp/ip Socket listening but connection refused, race condition?

  - by Wayne

  Hello folks. This involves two automated unit tests which each start up a tcp/ip server that creates a non-blocking socket then bind()s and listen()s in a loop on select() for a client that connects and downloads some data. The catch is that they work perfectly when run separately but when run as a test suite, the second test client will fail to connect with WSACONNREFUSED... UNLESS there is a Thread.Sleep() of several seconds between them??!!! Interestingly, there is retry loop every 1 second for connecting after any failure. So the second test loops for a while until timeout after 10 minutes. During that time, netstat -na shows the correct port number is in the LISTEN state for the server socket. So if it is in the listen state? Why won't it accept the connection? In the code, there are log messages that show the select NEVER even gets a socket ready to read (which means ready to accept a connection when it applies to a listening socket). Obviously the problem must be related to some race condition between finishing one test which means close() and shutdown() on each end of the socket, and the start up of the next. This wouldn't be so bad if the retry logic allowed it to connect eventually after a couple of seconds. However it seems to get "gummed up" and won't even retry. However, for some strange reason the listening socket SAYS it's in the LISTEN state even through keeps refusing connections. So that means it's the Windoze O/S which is actually catching the SYN packet and returning a RST packet (which means "Connection Refused"). The only other time I ever saw this error was when the code had a problem that caused hundreds of sockets to get stuck in TIME_WAIT state. But that's not the case here. netstat shows only about a dozen sockets with only 1 or 2 in TIME_WAIT at any given moment. Please help.

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• Axis webservice calls fail sometimes, access.log shows content!

  - by epischel

  Hi, our app is a webservice client (axis 1) to a third party webservice (also axis 1). We use it for some years now. Since a few weeks, we (as a client) get sometimes HTTP status 400 (bad request) or read timeouts when calling the webservice. Strangely, the access.log of the service shows part of the request or the response instead of the URL. It looks like this (looks like the end of the request string) x.x.x.x -> y.y.y.y:8080 - - [timestamp] "POST /webservice HTTP/1.0" 200 16127 0 x.x.x.x -> y.y.y.y:8080 - - [timestamp] "POST /webservice HTTP/1.0" 200 22511 1 x.x.x.x -> y.y.y.y:8080 - - [timestamp] "il=\"true\"/><nsl:text xsi:type=\"xsd:string\" xsi:nil=\"true\"/></SOAPSomeOperation></soapenv:Body></soapenv:Envelope> Axis/1.4" 400 299 0 or (some string out of the what looks like the request) x.x.x.x -> y.y.y.y:8080 - - [timestamp] ":string\">some text</sometag><othertag>moretext" 400 299 0 or in some other cases it looks like two requests thrown together (... means xml string left out): x.x.x.x -> y.y.y.y:8080 - - [timestamp] "...</someop></soapenv:Body></soapenv:Envelope>:xsd=\"http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema\"...</soapenv:Body></soapenv:Envelope>" 400 299 0 Application log does not give any hints. Frequency of such call is 1% of all calls to that service. The only discriminator I know of so far is that it happens since operations informed us that the service url changed because of "server migration". Has anyone experienced such phenomenon yet? Has somebody got an idea whats wrong and how to fix? Thanks,

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• Facebook Application with PHP running loosing session

  - by ArneRie

  Iam trying to build an Facebook Application based on PHP. The Application is running under php on my own Webhost inside an Canvas as iFrame. I have included the newest Client Library for PHP from Facebook: facebook-php-sdk-94fcb13 To Authorize the user inside my application iam trying to use Facebook Connect, like the example shipped with the Client. Everything works fine the 1st Login, but when i hit the F5 Key to reload the page, the session is lost and i have to login again. When i call my application outside of the Facebook Canvas everything is fine. Iam not sure, but i think my Browser (Chrome/FireFox - Ubuntu) is not allowing to store an cookie inside an iFrame. Does someone knows an solution for this Problem? Here are some Parts of the Sourcecode: $facebook = new Facebook(array( 'appId' => 'x', 'secret' => 'x', 'cookie' => 'true', )); $session = $facebook->getSession(); $facebook->setSession($session); $me = null; // Session based API call. if ($session) { try { $uid = $facebook->getUser(); $me = $facebook->api('/me'); } catch (FacebookApiException $e) { error_log($e); } } // login or logout url will be needed depending on current user state. if ($me) { $logoutUrl = $facebook->getLogoutUrl(); } else { $loginUrl = $facebook->getLoginUrl(); }

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• Multiple calls to data service from SL3?

  - by Chris

  I have an SL3 that makes asynchronous calls to a data service. Basically, there is a treeview that is bound to a collection of objects. The idea is that as a user selects a specific treeviewitem, a call is made to the data service, with a parameter specific to the selected treeviewitem being passed to the corresponding web method in the data service. The data service returns data back to the SL3 client, and the client presents the data to the user. This works well. The problem is that when users start to navigate through the treeview using the arrow keys on their keyboard, they could press the down arrow key, for example, 10 times, and 10 calls will be made to the data service, and then each of the 10 items will be displayed to the user momentarily, until finishing with the data for the most recently selected treeview item. So - onto the question. How can I put in some form of delay, to allow someone to navigate quickly through a treeview, then, once then stop at a certain treeviewitem, a call is made to the data service? Thanks for any suggestions. Chris

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• What are some of best Javascript memory detecting tools?

  - by Philip Fourie

  Our team is faced with slow but serious Javascript memory leak. We have read up on the normal causes for memory leaks in Javascript (eg. closures and circular references). We tried to avoid those pitfalls in the code but it likely we still have unknown mistakes left in our code. I started my search for available tools but would like input from people with actual experience with these tools. Some of the tools I found so far (but have no idea how good and useful they would be for our problem): Sieve Drip JavaScript Memory Leak Detector Our search is not limited to free tools, it will be a bonus, but more importantly something that will get the job done. We do the following in our Javascript code: AJAX calls to a .NET WCF back-end that send back JSON data Manipulate the DOM Keep a fairly sized object model in the Javascript to store current state

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• Biztalk vs API for databroker layer

  - by jdt199

  My company is about to undergo a large project in which our client wants a large customer portal with a cms, crm implementing. This will require interaction with data from multiple sources across our customers business, these sources include XML office backend systems, sql datbases, webservices etc. Our proposed solution would be to write an API in c# to provide a common interface with all these systems. This would be scalable for future and concurrent projects within the company. Our client expressed an interest in using Biztalk rather than a custom API for this integration, as they feel it is an enterprise solution that any of their suppliers could pick up and use, and it will be better supported. We feel that the configuration work using Biztalk would be rather heavy for all their custom business rules which are required and an interface for the new application to get data to and from Biztalk would still need to be written. Are we right to prefer a custom API solution above Biztalk? Would Biztalk be suitable as a databroker layer to provide an interface for the new Customer portal we are writing. We have not experience with using Biztalk before so any input would be appreciated.

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• How to deal with "partial" dates (2010-00-00) from MySQL in Django?

  - by Etienne

  In one of my Django projects that use MySQL as the database, I need to have a date fields that accept also "partial" dates like only year (YYYY) and year and month (YYYY-MM) plus normal date (YYYY-MM-DD). The date field in MySQL can deal with that by accepting 00 for the month and the day. So 2010-00-00 is valid in MySQL and it represent 2010. Same thing for 2010-05-00 that represent May 2010. So I started to create a PartialDateField to support this feature. But I hit a wall because, by default, and Django use the default, MySQLdb, the python driver to MySQL, return a datetime.date object for a date field AND datetime.date() support only real date. So it's possible to modify the converter for the date field used by MySQLdb and return only a string in this format 'YYYY-MM-DD'. Unfortunately the converter use by MySQLdb is set at the connection level so it's use for all MySQL date fields. But Django DateField rely on the fact that the database return a datetime.date object, so if I change the converter to return a string, Django is not happy at all. Someone have an idea or advice to solve this problem? How to create a PartialDateField in Django ? EDIT Also I should add that I already thought of 2 solutions, create 3 integer fields for year, month and day (as mention by Alison R.) or use a varchar field to keep date as string in this format YYYY-MM-DD. But in both solutions, if I'm not wrong, I will loose the special properties of a date field like doing query of this kind on them: Get all entries after this date. I can probably re-implement this functionality on the client side but that will not be a valid solution in my case because the database can be query from other systems (mysql client, MS Access, etc.)

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• How can I work around WinXP using ports 1025-5000 as ephemeral?

  - by Chris Dolan

  If you create a TCP client socket with port 0 instead of a non-zero port, then the operating system chooses any free ephemeral port for you. Most OSes choose ephemeral ports from the IANA dynamic port range of 49152-65535. However in Windows Server 2003 and earlier (including XP) Microsoft used ports 1025-5000 as the ephemeral range, according to their bind() documentation. I run multiple Java services on the same hardware. On rare occasions, this range collides with well-known ports that I use for other services (e.g. port 4160 for Jini discovery). While rare, this has caused real problems. Is there any easy way to tell Windows or Java to use a different port range for client sockets? Microsoft's docs indicate that I can change the high end of that range via the MaxUserPort TcpIP registry setting, but I see no way to change the low end. Update: I've made some progress on this. It looks like Microsoft has a concept of reserved ports that are exceptions to the ephemeral port range. There's a registry setting that lets you change this permanently and apparently there must be an API to do the same thing because there's a data structure that holds high/low values for reserved port ranges, but I can't find the actual function call anywhere... The registry solution may work, but now I'm fixated on this API.

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• Rich faces3.3.2 is not working in WebSphear 7

  - by palakolanusrinu

  Hi, I'm new to this rich faces and JSF i have developed one sample app and its working fine in tomcat6 now same app i have moved to WebSphear7 here i'm facing the problem. Exception on console: Unable to locate the tag library for uri //richfaces.org/rich" List of jars in build path: Commons-beanutils-1.8.3.jar commons-codec-1.4.jar commons-collections-3.2.1.jar commons-digester-2.0.jar commons-discovery-0.4.jar conmmons-logging.jar jsf-api.jar jsf-impl.jar jstl-1.2.jar jstl-api-1.2.jar jst-impl-1.2.jar richfaces-api-3.3.2.SR1.jar richfaces-impl-3.3.2.SR1.jar richfaces-ui-3.3.2.SR1.jar Web.xml is http://java.sun.com/xml/ns/javaee/web-app_2_5.xsd" id="WebApp_ID" version="2.5" bbh index.html index.htm index.jsp default.html default.htm default.jsp Faces Servlet javax.faces.webapp.FacesServlet 1 Faces Servlet *.jsf State saving method: 'client' or 'server' (=default). See JSF Specification 2.5.2 javax.faces.STATE_SAVING_METHOD client javax.servlet.jsp.jstl.fmt.localizationContext resources.application com.sun.faces.config.ConfigureListener Faces Servlet *.faces <context-param> <param-name>org.richfaces.SKIN</param-name> <param-value>blueSky</param-value> </context-param> <filter> <display-name>RichFaces Filter</display-name> <filter-name>richfaces</filter-name> <filter-class>org.ajax4jsf.Filter</filter-class> <init-param> <param-name>createTempFiles</param-name> true maxRequestSize 2000000 richfaces Faces Servlet REQUEST FORWARD INCLUDE My JSP including the tag libs are like <%@taglib uri="http://java.sun.com/jsf/core" prefix="f"% <%@taglib uri="http://java.sun.com/jsf/html" prefix="h"% <%@taglib uri="http://java.sun.com/jsp/jstl/core" prefix="c"% <%@ taglib uri="http://richfaces.org/a4j" prefix="a4j"% <%@ taglib uri="http://richfaces.org/rich" prefix="rich"% Please Help me and thx in advance

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• Create x509 certificate with openssl/makecert tool

  - by Zé Carlos

  I'm creating a x509 certificate using makecert with the following parameters: makecert -r -pe -n "CN=Client" -ss MyApp I want to use this certificate to encrypt and decrypt data with RSA algoritm. I look to generated certificate in windows certificate store and everything seems ok (It has a private key, public key is a RSA key with 1024 bits and so on..) Now i use this C# code to encrypt data: X509Store store = new X509Store("MyApp", StoreLocation.CurrentUser); store.Open(OpenFlags.ReadOnly); X509Certificate2Collection certs = store.Certificates.Find(X509FindType.FindBySubjectName, "Client", false); X509Certificate2 _x509 = certs[0]; using (RSACryptoServiceProvider rsa = (RSACryptoServiceProvider)_x509.PrivateKey) { byte[] dataToEncrypt = Encoding.UTF8.GetBytes("hello"); _encryptedData = rsa.Encrypt(dataToEncrypt, true); } When executing the Encrypt method, i receive a CryptographicException with message "Bad key". I think the code is fine. Probably i'm not creating the certificate properly. Any comments? Thanks ---------------- EDIT -------------- If anyone know how to create the certificate using OpenSsl, its also a valid answer for me.

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• How to deploy RESTful Web Service onto IIS

  - by Chris Lee

  Hi all, I'm new to .Net and IIS. I've created a simple RESTful Web Service in VS2008 and .net 3.5 framework using WCF. I've tested it well with F5 debugging in VS(seems it is auto deployed on Windows Service). Now I want to deploy it on my IIS server so that I can use it remotely. But I cannot find any guide for this. I manually deployed my service folder just as an ASP.net site. But seems it does not work(keep showing 401 error). Can anyone tell me how to deploy it to IIS? It contains a simple GET method and I hope it can be accessed by anomynous clients (because the host IP is 192.168..). I have a web.config file, a .dll and .pdb under /bin folder, a Global.asax and .svc file for my service. The IIS server is on the same machine. Thanks a million.

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• Cheapest way to to determine if a MySQL connection is still alive

  - by MtnViewMark

  I have a pool of MySQL connections for a web-based data service. When it starts to service a request, it takes a connection from the pool to use. The problem is that if there has been a significant pause since that particular connection has been used, the server may have timed it out and closed its end. I'd like to be able to detect this in the pool management code. The trick is this: The environment in which I'm coding gives me only a very abstact API into the connection. I can basically only execute SQL statements. I don't have access to the actual socket or direct access to the MySQL client API. So, the question is: What is the cheapest MySQL statement I can execute on the connection to determine if it is working. For example SELECT 1; should work, but I'm wondering if there is something even cheaper? Perhaps something that doesn't even got across the wire, but is handled in the MySQL client lib and effectively answers the same question?

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• How to use log4j for a axis2 webservice

  - by KItis

  I have created a simple axis2 webservice to understand logging functionality in a webservice. in this sample webservice, when a client calls this webservice, first it reads the log4j.property file. then i can see the logs being printed on console. but i have included file appender too into the property file. but i can not file the log file any where in my sample webapplication. i am using tomcat to run the webservice. following is webservice interface method called by client. package test; import java.io.IOException; import java.io.InputStream; import java.util.Properties; import org.apache.log4j.BasicConfigurator; import org.apache.log4j.Logger; import org.apache.log4j.PropertyConfigurator; public class WSInterface { static final Logger logger = Logger.getLogger(WSInterface.class); public String log4jTest(String input){ InputStream inputStream = this.getClass().getClassLoader() .getResourceAsStream(input); Properties properties = new Properties(); System.out.println("InputStream is: " + inputStream); //load the inputStream using the Properties try { properties.load(inputStream); } catch (IOException e) { // TODO Auto-generated catch block e.printStackTrace(); } PropertyConfigurator.configure(properties); logger.debug("Hello World!"); Class myclass = WSInterface.class; String url = myclass.getResource("WSInterface.class").toString(); String output = ""; return url; } }

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• Setting an Excel Range with an Array using Python and comtypes?

  - by technomalogical

  Using comtypes to drive Python, it seems some magic is happening behind the scenes that is not converting tuples and lists to VARIANT types: # RANGE(“C14:D21”) has values # Setting the Value on the Range with a Variant should work, but # list or tuple is not getting converted properly it seems >>>from comtypes.client import CreateObject >>>xl = CreateObject("Excel.application") >>>xl.Workbooks.Open(r'C:\temp\my_file.xlsx') >>>xl.Visible = True >>>vals=tuple([(x,y) for x,y in zip('abcdefgh',xrange(8))]) # creates: #(('a', 0), ('b', 1), ('c', 2), ('d', 3), ('e', 4), ('f', 5), ('g', 6), ('h', 7)) >>>sheet = xl.Workbooks[1].Sheets["Sheet1"] >>>sheet.Range["C14","D21"].Value() (('foo',1),('foo',2),('foo',3),('foo',4),('foo',6),('foo',6),('foo',7),('foo',8)) >>>sheet.Range["C14","D21"].Value[()] = vals # no error, this blanks out the cells in the Range According to the comtypes docs: When you pass simple sequences (lists or tuples) as VARIANT parameters, the COM server will receive a VARIANT containing a SAFEARRAY of VARIANTs with the typecode VT_ARRAY | VT_VARIANT. This seems to be inline with what MSDN says about passing an array to a Range's Value. I also found this page showing something similar in C#. Can anybody tell me what I'm doing wrong? EDIT I've come up with a simpler example that performs the same way (in that, it does not work): >>>from comtypes.client import CreateObject >>>xl = CreateObject("Excel.application") >>>xl.Workbooks.Add() >>>sheet = xl.Workbooks[1].Sheets["Sheet1"] # at this point, I manually typed into the range A1:B3 >>> sheet.Range("A1","B3").Value() ((u'AAA', 1.0), (u'BBB', 2.0), (u'CCC', 3.0)) >>>sheet.Range("A1","B3").Value[()] = [(x,y) for x,y in zip('xyz',xrange(3))] # Using a generator expression, per @Mike's comment # However, this still blanks out my range :(

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• prevent javascript in the WMD editor's preview box

  - by Justin Grant

  There are many SO questions (e.g. here and here) about how to do server-side scrubbing of Markdown produced by the WMD editor to ensure the HTML generated doesn't contain malicious script, like this: <img onload="alert('haha');" src="http://www.google.com/intl/en_ALL/images/srpr/logo1w.png" /> Unfortunately, this still allows script to show up in the WMD client's preview box. I doubt this is a big deal since if you're scrubbing the HTML on the server, an attacker can't save the bad HTML so no one else will be able to see it later and have their cookies stolen or sessions hijacked by the bad script. But it's still kinda odd to allow an attacker to run any script in the context of your site, and it's probably a bad idea to allow the client preview window to allow different HTML than your server will allow. StackOverflow has clearly plugged this hole. How did they do it? [NOTE: I already figured this out but it required some tricky javascript debugging, so I'm answering my own question here to help others who may want to do ths same thing]

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• .NET Process.Start() on an executable on a remote system - security warning?

  - by BrettRobi

  I've created a Windows Service that accepts commands from remote machines via WCF. One of those commands is to run a specified executable (let's ignore the security implications of such functionality). In my Service I am using Process.Start() to run the executable. All works well if the executable is local to the machine, but if it is on a remote file share it is failing with no error (or more accurately just hanging). I suspect the problem is that it is triggering the standard Windows 'Unverified Publisher' warning that one would see if they double click an exe on a remote system. Is there any way I can bypass this from my service so that I can truly run any executable? As I said I understand the security implications of allowing it to run any executable, but this is really what I need. I would have thought this warning was only a user mode concept, but it really does seem to be getting in the way of my Service. Ideas?

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• Windows service hangs

  - by Ram

  Hi, I have a webdav client-server application. I'm using Cassini webserver to host the webdav server. One important thing here is that I start and Stop my webserver using a windows service. Now, I start my windows service and I attach my webdav server application's debugger to the windows service. Everything used to go fine, that is I could connect to the server using my webdav client, debug the server code. However, a couple of days back, when I tried to debug my webdav server application, which in turn is attached to a windows service, my computer freezes while I'm in the midst of debugging the server app. The freeze does not occur at the same line every time and is therefore not predictable. Every time this happens, I would not be able to do anything at all with my computer except to reboot the system using the power button. What could be the problem? Could it be the service that is freezing or something else? Any help? Thanks, Ram

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• How would you code a washing machine?

  - by Dan

  Imagine I have a class that represents a simple washing machine. It can perform following operations in the following order: turn on - wash - centrifuge - turn off. I see two basic alternatives: A) I can have a class WashingMachine with methods turnOn(), wash(int minutes), centrifuge(int revs), turnOff(). The problem with this is that the interface says nothing about the correct order of operations. I can at best throw InvalidOprationException if the client tries to centrifuge before machine was turned on. B) I can let the class itself take care of correct transitions and have the single method nextOperation(). The problem with this on the other hand, is that the semantics is poor. Client will not know what will happen when he calls the nextOperation(). Imagine you implement the centrifuge button’s click event so it calls nextOperation(). User presses the centrifuge button after machine was turned on and ups! machine starts to wash. I will probably need a few properties on my class to parameterize operations, or maybe a separate Program class with washLength and centrifugeRevs fields, but that is not really the problem. Which alternative is better? Or maybe there are some other, better alternatives that I missed to describe?

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• Can I force Apache 2.2 connection close from inside a C module?

  - by Amos Shapira

  Hello, We'd like to have a more fine-grained control on the connections we serve in a C++ Apache 2.2 module (on CentOS 5). One of the connections needs to stay alive for a few multiple requests, so we set "KeepAlive" to "On" and set a short keep-alive period. But for every such connection we have a few more connections from the browser which we don't need to leave behind and instead want to force them to close after a single request. Some of these connections are on different ports (so we can distinguish them by port, since KeepAlive can be set per virtual host) and some request a different URL (so we can tell from the path and parameters that we don't want to leave them behind). Also for the one we do want to keep alive, we know that after a certain request we'd like to close it too. But so far the only way we found to "cancel" the keep-alive is to send a polite "Connection: close" header to the client. If the client is not well behaved, or malicious, then they can keep it open and waste our resources. Is there a way to tell Apache to close the connection from the server side? The documentation advises against just plain close(2) call on the socket since Apache needs to do some clean up before that's done. But is there some API or a trick to "override" the static "KeepAlive On" configuration dynamically (and convince Apache to call close(2))? Thanks.

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• Porting - Shared Memory x32 & x64 processes

  - by dpb

  A 32 bit host Windows application setups shared memory (using memory mapped file / CreateFileMapping() API), and then other 32 bit client processes use this shared memory to communicate with each other. I am planning to port the host application to 64 bit platform and once it is ready, I intend that both 32 bit and 64 bit client processes should be able to use the shared memory setup by the main 64 bit host application. The original code written for host x32 application uses "size_t" almost everywhere, since this differs from 4 bytes to 8 bytes as we move from x32 to x64, I am looking for replacing it. I intend to replace "size_t" by "unsigned long long", so that its size will be same on 32 bit & 64 bit. Can you please suggest me better alternative? Also, will the use of "unsigned long long" have performance impact on x32 app .. i guess yes? Research Done - Found very useful articles - a) 20 issue in porting from 32 bit to 64 bit (www.viva64.com) b) No way to restrict/change "size_t" on x64 platform to 4 bytes using compiler flags or any hooks/crooks since it is typedef

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• How much does Website Development cost nowadays?

  - by Andreas Grech

  I am thinking of setting up my own freelance business but coming from a workplace that offers a particular service to huge clients, I do not know what are the current charges for websites are nowadays. I know that as technology just keeps changing and changing (most of the time, for the better...), the amount you charge for a single website is constantly differing. Like for example, I don't think static websites (with just static html pages) are that expensive today, no? (as i said, I might be mistaken since I haven't really touched on this freelance industry yet) So, freelance web-developers out there, can you give me estimates on how much you charge for your clients? Some examples of websites that I want to know an approx charge: ~10 static html pages ~10 dhtml pages (with maybe a flasy menu on the top/side) Database driven websites with a standard CMS (be it the one you developed, or an existing one) Database driven but with a custom-built cms for the particular client Using an existing template for a design Starting the design from scratch etc... I know that the normally clients don't really care about the technologies used to construct their websites, but do you charge differently according to which technology you use to build the website with?; as in, is the technology a factor when setting the price? ...being ASP.Net, PHP, Ruby On Rails etc... Also, how do you go on about charging your clients for your services? What are the major factors that you consider when setting a price tag for a website to a client ? And better yet, how do you even find prospective clients? <= [or should I leave this question for a different post?] Btw, in your post, also mention some numbers (in cash values, be it in USD, GBP, EUR or anything) because I want to be able to take calculate some averages from this post when some answers stack up

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• Paramaterising SQL in SSIS

  - by Anonymouslemming

  Hi all, I'm trying to paramaterize some queries in SSIS. After some reading, it sounds like my best option is to create one variable that contains my base sql, another that contains my criteria and a final variable that is evaluated as an expression that includes both of these. I want to end up with an SQL query that is effectively UPDATE mytable set something='bar' where something_else='foo' So my first two variables have the scope of my package and are as follows: Name: BaseSQL Data Type: String Value: UPDATE mytable set something = 'bar' where something_else = Name: MyVariable Data Type: String Value: foo My third variable has a scope of the data flow task where I want to use this SQL and is as follows: Name: SQLQuery Data Type: String Value: @[User::BaseSQL] + "'" + @[User::MyVariable] + "'" EvaluateAsExpression: True In the OLE DB Source, I then choose my connection and 'SQL command from variable' and select User::SQLQuery from the dropdown box. The Variable Value window then displays the following: @[User::BaseSQL] + "'" + @[User::MyVariable] + "'" This is as desired, and would provide the output I want from my DB. The variable name dropdown also contains User::BaseSQL and User::MyVariable so I believe that my namespaces are correct. However, when I then click preview, I get the following error when configuring an OLE DB Source (using SQL command from variable): TITLE: Microsoft Visual Studio Error at Set runtime in DB [Set runtime in myDb DB [1]]: SSIS Error Code DTS_E_OLEDBERROR. An OLE DB error has occurred. Error code: 0x80040E14. An OLE DB record is available. Source: "Microsoft SQL Server Native Client 10.0" Hresult: 0x80040E14 Description: "Statement(s) could not be prepared.". An OLE DB record is available. Source: "Microsoft SQL Server Native Client 10.0" Hresult: 0x80040E14 Description: "Must declare the scalar variable "@".". (Microsoft Visual Studio) Can anyone advise what I'm missing or how I can resolve this please ? Thanks in advance!

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• Hibernate Bi- Directional many to many mapping advice!

  - by Rob

  hi all, i woundered if anyone might be able to help me out. I am trying to work out what to google for (or any other ideas!!) basically i have a bidirectional many to many mapping between a user entity and a club entity (via a join table called userClubs) I now want to include a column in userClubs that represents the role so that when i call user.getClubs() I can also work out what level access they have. Is there a clever way to do this using hibernate or do i need to rethink the database structure? Thank you for any help (or just for reading this far!!) the user.hbm.xml looks a bit like <set name="clubs" table="userClubs" cascade="save-update"> <key column="user_ID"/> <many-to-many column="activity_ID" class="com.ActivityGB.client.domain.Activity"/> </set> the activity.hbm.xml part <set name="members" inverse="true" table="userClubs" cascade="save-update"> <key column="activity_ID"/> <many-to-many column="user_ID" class="com.ActivityGB.client.domain.User"/> </set> The current userClubs table contains the fields id | user_ID | activity_ID I would like to include in there id | user_ID | activity_ID | role and be able to access the role on both sides...

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