Search Results

Search found 14799 results on 592 pages for 'instance eval'.

Page 472/592 | < Previous Page | 468 469 470 471 472 473 474 475 476 477 478 479  | Next Page >

  • PHP/Java Bridge - Access Java objects in PHP

    - by Omer Hassan
    I have a Red5 application which defines some public Java methods. When I start the server, an object of the application class gets created. I am trying to call the public methods of the application class from PHP using the existing instance of the Java application class. So here's my Java application: public class App extends org.red5.server.adapter.ApplicationAdapter { public boolean appStart(IScope app) { // This method gets called when the application starts // and an object of this App class is created. return true; } // This is the method I would like to call from PHP. public void f() { } } From PHP, I would like to get access to the App object that is created and call the method f() on it. I have tried playing around with this thing called "context". So in the Java method App.appStart(), I did this: // Save a reference to this App object to be retrieved later in PHP. new PhpScriptContextFactory().getContext().put("x", this); And in PHP, I tried to access the saved object like this: require_once("http://localhost:5080/JavaBridge/java/Java.inc"); var_dump(java_is_null(java_context()->get("x"))); Unfortunately, the java_is_null() function in PHP returns true. I also tried saving the App object in a static variable of App class but when I access that variable in PHP, its value is null.

    Read the article

  • RESTfully Nesting Resource Routes with Single Identifiers

    - by Craig Walker
    In my Rails app I have a fairly standard has_many relationship between two entities. A Foo has zero or more Bars; a Bar belongs to exactly one Foo. Both Foo and Bar are identified by a single integer ID value. These values are unique across all of their respective instances. Bar is existence dependent on Foo: it makes no sense to have a Bar without a Foo. There's two ways to RESTfully references instances of these classes. Given a Foo.id of "100" and a Bar.id of "200": Reference each Foo and Bar through their own "top-level" URL routes, like so: /foo/100 /bar/200 Reference Bar as a nested resource through its instance of Foo: /foo/100 /foo/100/bar/200 I like the nested routes in #2 as it more closely represents the actual dependency relationship between the entities. However, it does seem to involve a lot of extra work for very little gain. Assuming that I know about a particular Bar, I don't need to be told about a particular Foo; I can derive that from the Bar itself. In fact, I probably should be validating the routed Foo everywhere I go (so that you couldn't do /foo/150/bar/200, assuming Bar 200 is not assigned to Foo 150). Ultimately, I don't see what this brings me. So, are there any other arguments for or against these two routing schemes?

    Read the article

  • Matlab and .net problem with character string function input

    - by Peter
    I have a MATLAB function that I've compiled into a .net library. The function is a simple one that takes a character array as an input and a numeric array as output: function insert = money(dateLimit) .. insert = [1 2]; The function works fine when no function arguments are specified (a default argument is provided inside the function) Dim sf As New SpreadFinder.SpreadFinder Dim output = sf.money() As soon as an argument is specified .net complains. I'm thinking this should be easy and has been done before but searching through MATLAB documentation doesn't offer much help. Here's what I've tried. The sf.money() overload for the function with arguments is (numArgsOut as Integer, argsOut as MWArray, argsIn as MWArray) and hence that's what I've tried. What am I missing? Dim sf As New SpreadFinder.SpreadFinder Dim inputArgs(1) As Arrays.MWCharArray Dim dateLimitString As String = "some string" inputArgs(0) = New Arrays.MWCharArray(dateLimitString) Dim outputArgs(1) As Arrays.MWNumericArray outputArgs(0) = New Arrays.MWNumericArray() sf.money(1, outputArgs, inputArgs) Gives System.NullReferenceException : Object reference not set to an instance of an object. at MathWorks.MATLAB.NET.Utility.MWMCR.EvaluateFunction(String functionName, Int32 numArgsOut, Int32 numArgsIn, MWArray[] argsIn) at MathWorks.MATLAB.NET.Utility.MWMCR.EvaluateFunction(String functionName, Int32 numArgsOut, MWArray[]& argsOut, MWArray[] argsIn) at SpreadFinder.SpreadFinder.money(Int32 numArgsOut, MWArray[]& argsOut, MWArray[] argsIn)

    Read the article

  • PostSharp when using DataContractSerializer?

    - by Dan Bryant
    I have an Aspect that implements INotifyPropertyChanged on a class. The aspect includes the following: [OnLocationSetValueAdvice, MethodPointcut("SelectProperties")] public void OnPropertySet(LocationInterceptionArgs args) { var currentValue = args.GetCurrentValue(); bool alreadyEqual = (currentValue == args.Value); // Call the setter args.ProceedSetValue(); // Invoke method OnPropertyChanged (ours, the base one, or the overridden one). if (!alreadyEqual) OnPropertyChangedMethod.Invoke(args.Location.Name); } This works fine when I instantiate the class normally, but I run into problems when I deserialize the class using a DataContractSerializer. This bypasses the constructor, which I'm guessing interferes with the way that PostSharp sets itself up. This ends up causing a NullReferenceException in an intercepted property setter, but before it has called the custom OnPropertySet, so I'm guessing it interferes with setting up the LocationInterceptionArgs. Has anyone else encountered this problem? Is there a way I can work around it? I did some more research and discovered I can fix the issue by doing this: [OnDeserializing] private void OnDeserializing(StreamingContext context) { AspectUtilities.InitializeCurrentAspects(); } I thought, okay, that's not too bad, so I tried to do this in my Aspect: private IEnumerable<MethodInfo> SelectDeserializing(Type type) { return type.GetMethods(BindingFlags.Instance | BindingFlags.NonPublic | BindingFlags.Public).Where( t => t.IsDefined(typeof (OnDeserializingAttribute), false)); } [OnMethodEntryAdvice, MethodPointcut("SelectDeserializing")] public void OnMethodEntry(MethodExecutionArgs args) { AspectUtilities.InitializeCurrentAspects(); } Unfortunately, even though it intercepts the method properly, it doesn't work. I'm thinking the call to InitializeCurrentAspects isn't getting transformed properly, since it's now inside the Aspect rather than directly inside the aspect-enhanced class. Is there a way I can cleanly automate this so that I don't have to worry about calling this on every class that I want to have the Aspect?

    Read the article

  • Do servlet containers prevent web applications from causing each other interference and how do they do it?

    - by chrisbunney
    I know that a servlet container, such as Apache Tomcat, runs in a single instance of the JVM, which means all of its servlets will run in the same process. I also know that the architecture of the servlet container means each web application exists in its own context, which suggests it is isolated from other web applications. As depicted here: Accepting that each web application is isolated, I would expect that you could create 2 copies of an identical web application, change the names and context paths of each (as well as any other relevant configuration), and run them in parallel without one affecting the other. The answers to this question appear to support this view. However, a colleague disagrees based on their experience of attempting just that. They took a web application and tried to run 2 separate instances (with different names etc) in the same servlet container and experienced issues with the 2 instances conflicting (I'm unable to elaborate more as I wasn't involved in that work). Based on this, they argue that since the web applications run in the same process space, they can't be isolated and things such as class attributes would end up being inadvertently shared. This answer appears to suggest the same thing The two views don't seem to be compatible, so I ask you: Do servlet containers prevent web applications deployed to the same container from conflicting with each other? If yes, How do they do this? If no, Why does interference occur? and finally, Under what circumstances could separate web applications conflict and cause each other interference?, perhaps scenarios involving resources on the file system, native code, or database connections?

    Read the article

  • SQL Server 2000 intermittent connection exceptions on production server - specific environment probl

    - by StickyMcGinty
    We've been having intermittent problems causing users to be forcibly logged out of out application. Our set-up is ASP.Net/C# web application on Windows Server 2003 Standard Edition with SQL Server 2000 on the back end. We've recently performed a major product upgrade on our client's VMWare server (we have a guest instance dedicated to us) and whereas we had none of these issues with the previous release the added complexity that the new upgrade brings to the product has caused a lot of issues. We are also running SQL Server 2000 (build 8.00.2039, or SP4) and the IIS/ASP.NET (.Net v2.0.50727) application on the same box and connecting to each other via a TCP/IP connection. Primarily, the exceptions being thrown are: System.IndexOutOfRangeException: Cannot find table 0. System.ArgumentException: Column 'password' does not belong to table Table. [This exception occurs in the log in script, even though there is clearly a password column available] System.InvalidOperationException: There is already an open DataReader associated with this Command which must be closed first. [This one is occurring very regularly] System.InvalidOperationException: This SqlTransaction has completed; it is no longer usable. System.ApplicationException: ExecuteReader requires an open and available Connection. The connection's current state is connecting. System.Data.SqlClient.SqlException: Timeout expired. The timeout period elapsed prior to completion of the operation or the server is not responding. And just today, for the first time: System.Web.UI.ViewStateException: Invalid viewstate. We have load tested the app using the same number of concurrent users as the production server and cannot reproduce these errors. They are very intermittent and occur even when there are only 8/9/10 user connections. My gut is telling me its ASP.NET - SQL Server 2000 connection issues.. We've pretty much ruled out code-level Data Access Layer errors at this stage (we've a development team of 15 experienced developers working on this) so we think its a specific production server environment issue.

    Read the article

  • How do I associate Parameters to Command objects in ADO with VBScript?

    - by Krashman5k
    I have been working an ADO VBScript that needs to accept parameters and incorporate those parameters in the Query string that gets passed the the database. I keep getting errors when the Record Set Object attempts to open. If I pass a query without parameters, the recordset opens and I can work with the data. When I run the script through a debugger, the command object does not show a value for the parameter object. It seems to me that I am missing something that associates the Command object and Parameter object, but I do not know what. Here is a bit of the VBScript Code: ... 'Open Text file to collect SQL query string' Set fso = CreateObject("Scripting.FileSystemObject") fileName = "C:\SQLFUN\Limits_ADO.sql" Set tso = fso.OpenTextFile(fileName, FORREADING) SQL = tso.ReadAll 'Create ADO instance' connString = "DRIVER={SQL Server};SERVER=myserver;UID=MyName;PWD=notapassword; Database=favoriteDB" Set connection = CreateObject("ADODB.Connection") Set cmd = CreateObject("ADODB.Command") connection.Open connString cmd.ActiveConnection = connection cmd.CommandText = SQL cmd.CommandType = adCmdText Set paramTotals = cmd.CreateParameter With paramTotals .value = "tot%" .Name = "Param1" End With 'The error occurs on the next line' Set recordset = cmd.Execute If recordset.EOF then WScript.Echo "No Data Returned" Else Do Until recordset.EOF WScript.Echo recordset.Fields.Item(0) ' & vbTab & recordset.Fields.Item(1) recordset.MoveNext Loop End If The SQL string that I use is fairly standard except I want to pass a parameter to it. It is something like this: SELECT column1 FROM table1 WHERE column1 IS LIKE ? I understand that ADO should replace the "?" with the parameter value I assign in the script. The problem I am seeing is that the Parameter object shows the correct value, but the command object's parameter field is null according to my debugger.

    Read the article

  • Behavior of retained propertie while holder is retained

    - by Aurélien Vallée
    Hello everyone, I am a beginner ObjectiveC programmer, coming from the C++ world. I find it very difficult to understand the memory management offered by NSObject :/ Say I have the following class: @interface User : NSObject { NSString* name; } @property (nonatomic,retain) NSString* name; - (id) initWithName: (NSString*) theName; - (void) release; @end @implementation User @synthetise name - (id) initWithName: (NSString*) theName { if ( self = [super init] ) { [self setName:theName]; } return self; } - (void) release { [name release]; [super release]; } @end No considering the following code, I can't understand the retain count results: NSString* name = [[NSString alloc] initWithCString:/*C string from sqlite3*/]; // (1) name retainCount = 1 User* user = [[User alloc] initWithName:name]; // (2) name retainCount = 2 [whateverMutableArray addObject:user]; // (3) name retainCount = 2 [user release]; // (4) name retainCount = 1 [name release]; // (5) name retainCount = 0 At (4), the retain count of name decreased from 2 to 1. But that's not correct, there is still the instance of user inside the array that points to name ! The retain count of a variable should only decrease when the retain count of a referring variable is 0, that is, when it is dealloced, not released.

    Read the article

  • JAX-WS client with AXIS server; namespace problem?

    - by Jarno
    I'm having a problem related to JAX-WS and AXIS. JAX-WS (2.1.7) as a client, Axis (1.4.x) as server. Everything works OK, but the response can't be read to Java. Response: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <soapenv:Envelope xmlns:soapenv="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/envelope/" xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance"> <soapenv:Body> <ns1:myserviceResponse soapenv:encodingStyle="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/encoding/" xmlns:ns1="http://my/service"> <ns1:myserviceReturn xsi:type="xsd:string">responsestring</ns1:myserviceReturn> </ns1:myserviceResponse> </soapenv:Body> </soapenv:Envelope> The problem is that if "ns1:"-namespace declaration is removed from myserviceReturn, JAX-WS is able to return else than null. Does anyone have a clue how to force JAX-WS to ignore namespaces, how to modify SOAP response manually to exclude "ns1", or other ideas for this kind of problem? Any help is appreciated!!!

    Read the article

  • Integrating ASP.NET MVC 2 with classic ASP

    - by David Lively
    I'm in the process of moving a large classic ASP application to ASP.NET MVC 2. Questions: My question is about project organization. I would prefer to not mix the MVC code with the ASP code in the same VS project. I'd like to have an MVC WAP with areas that match the parts of the website that I'm migrating. For instance, the old site has a folder /products/default.asp..... /products/productName/default.asp etc. In the MVC WAP, I'd like to have an area called "products", which I could then, either through a rewrite, routing, or preferably through some IIS configuration, point the "products" folder on the ASP site to. In this way, I could gradually move root folders from the ASP site to the MVC application. However, if I create the MVC WAP in a virtual folder, then my routes wind up looking like http://localhost/virtualFolder/products instead of http://localhost/products Any suggestions on how to conquer this? I know that, during deployment, I could deploy the MVC WAP into the root of the ASP site, but this doesn't help with debugging.

    Read the article

  • JQUERY - jQuery UI Nested Sortables 2 - help getting it working

    - by nobosh
    Hello, I'm interested in using the following JQUERY - http://lucaswoj.com/2010/01/jquery-ui-nested-sortables-2/ However, I can't seem to get a demo instance of the plugin work. Here's the code I'm using: <script type="text/javascript"> $('#findit').nestedSortable({}); </script> <div > <ul id="findit"> <li> List Item Content <ul></ul> <li> <li> List Item Content 2 <ul></ul> <li> <li> List Item Content 3 <ul></ul> <li> <li> List Item Content 4 <ul></ul> <li> <ul> </div> Any ideas? Thanks

    Read the article

  • IValidator.Validate method and adding error message to a custom type

    - by user102533
    I have several server controls that implement the IValidator interface. As such, they have their own Validate() methods that look like this. public void Validate() { this.IsValid = true; if (someConditionFails()) { ErrorMessage = "Condition failed!"; this.IsValid = false; } } I understand that these Validate() methods are executed on postback before the load completed event that is executed before the save button's event handler. What I would like to do is pass in a reference to an instance of a custom class that collects all the error messages that I can access from Save button event handler. In other words, I would like to do something like this: public void Validate(ref SummaryOfErrorMessages sum) I guess I can't do this as the signature is different from what the IValidator interface has. The other option I can think of is on Load Completed event, I would iterate through all the validators on page, get the ones with IsValid = false and create my SummaryOfErrorMessages there. Does this sound right? Is there a better way of doing it?

    Read the article

  • Delphi Mock Wizard

    - by Todd
    Let me preface this by saying I'm fairly new to Unit Testing, Mocks, Stubs, Etc... I've installed Delphi-Mock-Wizard. When I select a unit and "Generate Mock", a new unit is created but it's very basic and not anything what I understand Mocks to be. unit Unit1; (** WARNING - AUTO-GENERATED MOCK! Change this unit if you want to, but be aware that any changes you make will be lost if you regenerate the mock object (for instance, if the interface changes). My advice is to create a descendent class of your auto-generated mock - in a different unit - and override things there. That way you get to keep them. Also, the auto-generate code is not yet smart enough to generate stubs for inherited interfaces. In that case, change your mock declaration to inherit from a mock implementation that implements the missing interface. This, unfortunately, is a violation of the directive above. I'm working on it. You may also need to manually change the unit name, above. Another thing I am working on. **) interface uses PascalMock, TestInterfaces; type IThingy = interface; implementation end. Looking at the source there seems to be quite a bit commented out. I'm wondering, has anyone gotten this to work? My IDE is D2010. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Initialize webservice WSDL at runtime using Flex and Mate framework

    - by GroovyB
    I am developing a Flex application on top of Mate framework. In this application, I am using a webservice to retrieve data. As this webservice as not a fix location URL (depending on where customers installed it), I define this URL in a config file. When the Flex application starts, it first reads this config file, then I would like to use the value I found to initialize the webservice. But currently, I have no idea how to this. Here is my EventMap.mxml <EventMap> <services:Services id="services" /> <EventHandlers type="{FlexEvent.PREINITIALIZE}"> <HTTPServiceInvoker instance="{services.configService}"> <resultHandlers> <MethodInvoker generator="{ConfigManager}" method="loadFromXml" arguments="{resultObject}" /> </resultHandlers> <faultHandlers> <InlineInvoker method="Alert.show" arguments="ERROR: Unable to load config.xml !" /> </faultHandlers> </HTTPServiceInvoker> In this part, the ConfigManager parse the config file and intitialize a bindable property called webServiceWsdl Here is my Services.mxml <mx:Object> <mx:Script> <![CDATA[ [Bindable] public var webservice:String; ]]> </mx:Script> <mx:HTTPService id="configService" url="config.xml" useProxy="false" /> <mx:WebService id="dataService" wsdl="{webservice}" useProxy="false"/> </mx:Object> How can I initialize this webservice property ?

    Read the article

  • Why did i get this error?

    - by David
    here's the code: class Acount { int sum ; String owner ; //these seem to make sense //a constructor or two public Acount () { this.sum = 0 ; this.owner = "John Doe" ; } public Acount (String name) {this.sum = 0 ; this.owner = name ; } public Acount (String name, int sum) {this.sum = sum ; this.owner = name ; } //prints an acount in the format "owner" "sum" public static void printAcount (Acount Acount) {System.out.print (Acount.owner) ; System.out.print (" ") ; System.out.println (Acount.sum) ; } public static void main (String[]arg) { Acount Acount1 = new Acount ("david", 100) ; System.out.println ("heres the first acount as it was created:") ; printAcount (Acount1) ; System.out.println ("now i changed one of its instance varaibles with a static method") ; upOne (Acount1) ; printAcount (Acount1) ; } public static Acount upOne (Acount Acount) { Acount.sum = Acount.sum + 1 ; return Acount ; } } here's the error: Exception in thread "main" java.lang.NoClassDefFoundError: Acount/java What went wrong?

    Read the article

  • C# WinForms. Multiple Forms in separate threads

    - by Calum Murray
    I'm trying to run an ATM Simulation in C# with Windows Forms that can have more than one instance of an ATM machine transacting with a bank account simultaneously. The idea is to use semaphores/locking to block critical code that may lead to race conditions. My question is this: How can I run two Forms simultaneously on separate threads? In particular, how does all of this fit in with the Application.Run() that's already there? Here's my main class: public class Bank { private Account[] ac = new Account[3]; private ATM atm; public Bank() { ac[0] = new Account(300, 1111, 111111); ac[1] = new Account(750, 2222, 222222); ac[2] = new Account(3000, 3333, 333333); Application.Run(new ATM(ac)); } static void Main(string[] args) { new Bank(); } } ...that I want to run two of these forms on separate threads... public partial class ATM : Form { //local reference to the array of accounts private Account[] ac; //this is a reference to the account that is being used private Account activeAccount = null; private static int stepCount = 0; private string buffer = ""; // the ATM constructor takes an array of account objects as a reference public ATM(Account[] ac) { InitializeComponent(); //Sets up Form ATM GUI in ATM.Designer.cs this.ac = ac; } ... I've tried using Thread ATM2 = new Thread(new ThreadStart(/*What goes in here?*/)); But what method do I put in the ThreadStart constructor, since the ATM form is event-driven and there's no one method controlling it? Thanks, Calum

    Read the article

  • A dynamic array of class "landmark", inside another single class "landmarks"

    - by pinnacler
    I'm working on a robot localization simulator and I created a class called "landmark". The end result is going to be a robot that is always centered and always faces the top of the screen. As it turns, the birds eye view map will rotate around the robot. To accomplish this, I'm assuming I can rotate one class and have all elements inside rotate as well. So, the landmark class has properties x,y, label, and radius. This is suppose to simulate a tree location in a forest. To test everything, I need "forest data," and I wrote a script to generate 100 trees in a 100m x 100m area. The script automatically generates values within an acceptable range for x,y, radius. The generated data is stored in an object called tempForest and is 100x3. Ideally, I want to create a class called "landmarks" (plural) that has 100 landmark instances inside. How would I instantiate 100 instances of landmark in one instance of landmarks using that randomly generated data? Ideally, I'd just type treeBeacons = landmarks(); and it would randomly populate 100 (user definable, set in config file) instances with x, y, radius data. I'm not sure how to deal with a dynamic array of class "Landmark", inside another single class "landmarks." Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • What would be the equivalent VB.NET code for this C# FluentNHibernate component mapping?

    - by Will Marcouiller
    I'm a C# programmer constrained to write VB.NET code. While exploring NHibernate further for my current client, I encountered FluentNHibernate, which I find real attractive. But now, I wonder how to "translate" this C# code for component mapping into VB.NET code: Component(x => x.Address, m => { m.Map(x => x.Number); m.Map(x => x.Street); m.Map(x => x.PostCode); }); I know from here: Component(Of Client)(Function(c) c.Address, ...) what I miss is how to continue with the brackets in VB.NET, since there's no Begin End keywords or so. EDIT 1: Following Mr. JaredPar instructions, I figured that his solution might work. If we take the time to read his answer, we may notice that we both don't know what the MType is within his solution. I might have found out that the MType is: FluentNHibernate.Mapping.ComponentPart(Of TComponent) Thus, TComponent is, from my understanding, an anonymous type that I shall parameter to use. From this point of view, since I wish to map the properties of my Address object, replacing TComponent in my help method signature seems not to work. Private Sub MapAdresseHelper(Of Adresse)(ByVal a As FluentNHibernate.Mapping.ComponentPart(Of Adresse)) a.Map(Function(m) m.Number) a.Map(Function(m) m.Street).Length(50) a.Map(Function(m) m.PostCode).Length(10) End Sub The error I get is that my Address class doesn't have a property member named Street, for instance. It sees my Address type, it recognizes it, but it seems buggy somehow. I guess VBNET is poorly designed for lambda expressions and is less evolved than C# (Sorry, a bit of frustration due to the constraint of working with it and not being capable of doing things VERY easily done in C#.) Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Is it possible to template a template in WPF XAML?

    - by imekon
    Is it possible to use templates within templates? For instance, I have the following two templates: <HierarchicalDataTemplate x:Key="RecursiveTemplate" ItemsSource="{Binding Children}"> <StackPanel Margin="1" Orientation="Horizontal"> <Ellipse Fill="DarkGreen" Width="14" Height="14"/> <TextBlock MouseDown="OnTreeMouseDown" TargetUpdated="OnTargetUpdated" Visibility="{Binding Editing, Converter={StaticResource visibilityInverter}}" Margin="5" Text="{Binding Name}"/> <TextBox PreviewKeyDown="OnTreeKeyDown" Visibility="{Binding Editing, Converter={StaticResource visibilityConverter}}" Margin="2" Text="{Binding Name}"/> </StackPanel> </HierarchicalDataTemplate> <HierarchicalDataTemplate x:Key="ContainerTemplate" ItemsSource="{Binding Children}"> <StackPanel Margin="1" Orientation="Horizontal"> <Ellipse Fill="DarkBlue" Width="14" Height="14"/> <TextBlock MouseDown="OnTreeMouseDown" TargetUpdated="OnTargetUpdated" Visibility="{Binding Editing, Converter={StaticResource visibilityInverter}}" Margin="5" Text="{Binding Name}"/> <TextBox PreviewKeyDown="OnTreeKeyDown" Visibility="{Binding Editing, Converter={StaticResource visibilityConverter}}" Margin="2" Text="{Binding Name}"/> </StackPanel> </HierarchicalDataTemplate> There's a section of identical XAML: <TextBlock MouseDown="OnTreeMouseDown" TargetUpdated="OnTargetUpdated" Visibility="{Binding Editing, Converter={StaticResource visibilityInverter}}" Margin="5" Text="{Binding Name}"/> <TextBox PreviewKeyDown="OnTreeKeyDown" Visibility="{Binding Editing, Converter={StaticResource visibilityConverter}}" Margin="2" Text="{Binding Name}"/> Is it possible to move that to a resource and refer to it by name, rather than repeat it?

    Read the article

  • How to run an app in Tomcat?

    - by artaxerxe
    Hi! I have put my project in tomcat_home/webapps/ directory. The structure is : project_name/WEB-INF/classes. in WEB-INF i have put my web.xml descriptor. The problem is that when i try to run the application, it doesn't find the files. The error is: The requested resource () is not available. My web.xml content is: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="ISO-8859-1"?> <web-app xmlns="http://java.sun.com/xml/ns/j2ee" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xsi:schemaLocation="http://java.sun.com/xml/ns/j2ee http://java.sun.com/xml/ns/j2ee/web-app_2_4.xsd" version="2.4"> <servlet> <servlet-name>Chapter1 Servlet</servlet-name> <servlet-class>Ch1Servlet</servlet-class> </servlet> <servlet-mapping> <servlet-name>Chapter1 Servlet</servlet-name> <servlet-url>/Serv1</servlet-url> </servlet-mapping> </web-app> I have also restarted the server, but it doesn't want to work. Any suggestions?

    Read the article

  • C# Inheritence: Choosing what repository based on type of inherited class

    - by Oskar Kjellin
    I have been making a program that downloads information about movies from the internet. I have a base class Title, which represents all titles. Movie, Serie and Episode are inherited from that class. To save them to the database I have 2 services, MovieService and SerieService. They in turn call repositories, but that is not important here. I have a method Save(Title title) which I am not very happy with. I check for what type the title is and then call the correct service. I would like to perhaps write like this: ITitleService service = title.GetService(); title.GetSavedBy(service); So I have an abstract method on Title that returns an ITitleSaver, which will return the correct service for the instance. My question is how should I implement ITitleSaver? If I make it accept Title I will have to cast it to the correct type before calling the correct overload. Which will lead to having to deal with casting once again. What is the best approach to dealing with this? I would like to have the saving logic in the corresponding class.

    Read the article

  • Are lambda expressions/delegates in C# "pure", or can they be?

    - by Bob
    I recently asked about functional programs having no side effects, and learned what this means for making parallelized tasks trivial. Specifically, that "pure" functions make this trivial as they have no side effects. I've also recently been looking into LINQ and lambda expressions as I've run across examples many times here on StackOverflow involving enumeration. That got me to wondering if parallelizing an enumeration or loop can be "easier" in C# now. Are lambda expressions "pure" enough to pull off trivial parallelizing? Maybe it depends on what you're doing with the expression, but can they be pure enough? Would something like this be theoretically possible/trivial in C#?: Break the loop into chunks Run a thread to loop through each chunk Run a function that does something with the value from the current loop position of each thread For instance, say I had a bunch of objects in a game loop (as I am developing a game and was thinking about the possibility of multiple threads) and had to do something with each of them every frame, would the above be trivial to pull off? Looking at IEnumerable it seems it only keeps track of the current position, so I'm not sure I could use the normal generic collections to break the enumeration into "chunks". Sorry about this question. I used bullets above instead of pseudo-code because I don't even know enough to write pseudo-code off the top of my head. My .NET knowledge has been purely simple business stuff and I'm new to delegates and threads, etc. I mainly want to know if the above approach is good for pursuing, and if delegates/lambdas don't have to be worried about when it comes to their parallelization.

    Read the article

  • Hibernate triggering constraint violations using orphanRemoval

    - by ptomli
    I'm having trouble with a JPA/Hibernate (3.5.3) setup, where I have an entity, an "Account" class, which has a list of child entities, "Contact" instances. I'm trying to be able to add/remove instances of Contact into a List<Contact> property of Account. Adding a new instance into the set and calling saveOrUpdate(account) persists everything lovely. If I then choose to remove the contact from the list and again call saveOrUpdate, the SQL Hibernate seems to produce involves setting the account_id column to null, which violates a database constraint. What am I doing wrong? The code below is clearly a simplified abstract but I think it covers the problem as I'm seeing the same results in different code, which really is about this simple. SQL: CREATE TABLE account ( INT account_id ); CREATE TABLE contact ( INT contact_id, INT account_id REFERENCES account (account_id) ); Java: @Entity class Account { @Id @Column public Long id; @OneToMany(cascade = CascadeType.ALL, orphanRemoval = true) @JoinColumn(name = "account_id") public List<Contact> contacts; } @Entity class Contact { @Id @Column public Long id; @ManyToOne(optional = false) @JoinColumn(name = "account_id", nullable = false) public Account account; } Account account = new Account(); Contact contact = new Contact(); account.contacts.add(contact); saveOrUpdate(account); // some time later, like another servlet request.... account.contacts.remove(contact); saveOrUpdate(account); Result: UPDATE contact SET account_id = null WHERE contact_id = ? Edit #1: It might be that this is actually a bug http://opensource.atlassian.com/projects/hibernate/browse/HHH-5091

    Read the article

  • Linux: How to find all serial devices (ttyS, ttyUSB and others)?

    - by Thomas Tempelmann
    What is the proper way to get a list of all available serial ports/devices on a Linux system? In other words, when I iterate over all devices in /dev/, how do I tell which ones are serial ports in the classic way, i.e. those usually supporting baud rates and RTS/CTS flow control? The solution would be coded in C. I ask because I am using a 3rd party library that does this clearly wrong: It appears to only iterate over /dev/ttyS*. The problem is that there are, for instance, serial ports over USB (provided by USB-RS232 adapters), and those are listed under /dev/ttyUSB*. And reading the Serial-HOWTO at Linux.org, I get the idea that there'll be other name spaces as well, as time comes. So I need to find the official way to detect serial devices. Problem is that there appears none documented, or I can't find it. I imagine one way would be to open all files from /dev/tty* and call a specific ioctl() on them that is only available on serial devices. Would that be a good solution, though?

    Read the article

  • Select XML nodes as rows

    - by Bjørn
    I am selecting from a table that has an XML column using T-SQL. I would like to select a certain type of node and have a row created for each one. For instance, suppose I am selecting from a people table. This table has an XML column for addresses. The XML is formated similar to the following: <address> <street>Street 1</street> <city>City 1</city> <state>State 1</state> <zipcode>Zip Code 1</zipcode> </address> <address> <street>Street 2</street> <city>City 2</city> <state>State 2</state> <zipcode>Zip Code 2</zipcode> </address> How can I get results like this: Name         City         State Joe Baker   Seattle      WA Joe Baker   Tacoma     WA Fred Jones  Vancouver BC

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 468 469 470 471 472 473 474 475 476 477 478 479  | Next Page >