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  • C# reflexion, cloning

    - by Enriquev
    Say I have this class Myclass that contains this method: public class MyClass { public int MyProperty { get; set; } public int MySecondProperty { get; set; } public MyOtherClass subClass { get; set; } public object clone<T>(object original, T emptyObj) { FieldInfo[] fis = this.GetType().GetFields(BindingFlags.Instance | BindingFlags.Public | BindingFlags.NonPublic); object tempMyClass = Activator.CreateInstance(typeof(T)); foreach (FieldInfo fi in fis) { if (fi.FieldType.Namespace != original.GetType().Namespace) fi.SetValue(tempMyClass, fi.GetValue(original)); else fi.SetValue(tempMyClass, this.clone(fi.GetValue(original), fi.GetValue(original))); } return tempMyClass; } } Then this class: public class MyOtherClass { public int MyProperty777 { get; set; } } when I do this: MyClass a = new MyClass { MyProperty = 1, MySecondProperty = 2, subClass = new MyOtherClass() { MyProperty777 = -1 } }; MyClass b = a.clone(a, a) as MyClass; how come on the second call to clone, T is of type object and not of type MyOtherClass

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  • How to avoid serializing zero values with Simple Xml

    - by Bram Vandenbussche
    I'm trying to serialise an object using simple xml (http://simple.sourceforge.net/). The object setup is pretty simple: @Root(name = "order_history") public class OrderHistory { @Element(name = "id", required = false) public int ID; @Element(name = "id_order_state") public int StateID; @Element(name = "id_order") public int OrderID; } The problem is when I create a new instance of this class without an ID: OrderHistory newhistory = new OrderHistory(); newhistory.OrderID = _orderid; newhistory.StateID = _stateid; and I serialize it via simple xml: StringWriter xml = new StringWriter(); Serializer serializer = new Persister(); serializer.write(newhistory, xml); it still reads 0 in the resulting xml: <?xml version='1.0' encoding='UTF-8'?> <order_history> <id>0</id> <id_order>2</id_order> <id_order_state>8</id_order_state> </order_history> I'm guessing the reason for this is that the ID property is not null, since integers can't be null. But I really need to get rid of this node, and I'd rather not remove it manually. Any clues anyone?

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  • Can I build this XPath query dynamically in XSLT?

    - by Martin Doms
    I have a document that looks something like <root> <element> <subelement1 /> <subelement2 /> </element> <element> <subelement2 /> <subelement1 /> </element> </root> In my XSLT sheet in the context of /element[2]/[someNode] I want to get a number that represents the distance of /element[1]/[someNode] (ie, the number of preceding siblings of /element1/[someNode]). For example, in the context of /element[2]/subelement1 I'd like to have some way to get the number 2, the distance from /element[1] to /element[1]/subelement2. I only ever need the distance of the given node name from the first instance of . Intuitively I thought I could construct this like <xsl:variable name="nodename" select="name()" /> <xsl:value-of select="/element[1]/$nodename/preceding-sibling::*" /> but unfortunately this sheet doesn't compile. Is what I'm trying to achieve possible in XSLT?

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  • Why did i get this error?

    - by David
    here's the code: class Acount { int sum ; String owner ; //these seem to make sense //a constructor or two public Acount () { this.sum = 0 ; this.owner = "John Doe" ; } public Acount (String name) {this.sum = 0 ; this.owner = name ; } public Acount (String name, int sum) {this.sum = sum ; this.owner = name ; } //prints an acount in the format "owner" "sum" public static void printAcount (Acount Acount) {System.out.print (Acount.owner) ; System.out.print (" ") ; System.out.println (Acount.sum) ; } public static void main (String[]arg) { Acount Acount1 = new Acount ("david", 100) ; System.out.println ("heres the first acount as it was created:") ; printAcount (Acount1) ; System.out.println ("now i changed one of its instance varaibles with a static method") ; upOne (Acount1) ; printAcount (Acount1) ; } public static Acount upOne (Acount Acount) { Acount.sum = Acount.sum + 1 ; return Acount ; } } here's the error: Exception in thread "main" java.lang.NoClassDefFoundError: Acount/java What went wrong?

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  • How do I associate Parameters to Command objects in ADO with VBScript?

    - by Krashman5k
    I have been working an ADO VBScript that needs to accept parameters and incorporate those parameters in the Query string that gets passed the the database. I keep getting errors when the Record Set Object attempts to open. If I pass a query without parameters, the recordset opens and I can work with the data. When I run the script through a debugger, the command object does not show a value for the parameter object. It seems to me that I am missing something that associates the Command object and Parameter object, but I do not know what. Here is a bit of the VBScript Code: ... 'Open Text file to collect SQL query string' Set fso = CreateObject("Scripting.FileSystemObject") fileName = "C:\SQLFUN\Limits_ADO.sql" Set tso = fso.OpenTextFile(fileName, FORREADING) SQL = tso.ReadAll 'Create ADO instance' connString = "DRIVER={SQL Server};SERVER=myserver;UID=MyName;PWD=notapassword; Database=favoriteDB" Set connection = CreateObject("ADODB.Connection") Set cmd = CreateObject("ADODB.Command") connection.Open connString cmd.ActiveConnection = connection cmd.CommandText = SQL cmd.CommandType = adCmdText Set paramTotals = cmd.CreateParameter With paramTotals .value = "tot%" .Name = "Param1" End With 'The error occurs on the next line' Set recordset = cmd.Execute If recordset.EOF then WScript.Echo "No Data Returned" Else Do Until recordset.EOF WScript.Echo recordset.Fields.Item(0) ' & vbTab & recordset.Fields.Item(1) recordset.MoveNext Loop End If The SQL string that I use is fairly standard except I want to pass a parameter to it. It is something like this: SELECT column1 FROM table1 WHERE column1 IS LIKE ? I understand that ADO should replace the "?" with the parameter value I assign in the script. The problem I am seeing is that the Parameter object shows the correct value, but the command object's parameter field is null according to my debugger.

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  • RESTfully Nesting Resource Routes with Single Identifiers

    - by Craig Walker
    In my Rails app I have a fairly standard has_many relationship between two entities. A Foo has zero or more Bars; a Bar belongs to exactly one Foo. Both Foo and Bar are identified by a single integer ID value. These values are unique across all of their respective instances. Bar is existence dependent on Foo: it makes no sense to have a Bar without a Foo. There's two ways to RESTfully references instances of these classes. Given a Foo.id of "100" and a Bar.id of "200": Reference each Foo and Bar through their own "top-level" URL routes, like so: /foo/100 /bar/200 Reference Bar as a nested resource through its instance of Foo: /foo/100 /foo/100/bar/200 I like the nested routes in #2 as it more closely represents the actual dependency relationship between the entities. However, it does seem to involve a lot of extra work for very little gain. Assuming that I know about a particular Bar, I don't need to be told about a particular Foo; I can derive that from the Bar itself. In fact, I probably should be validating the routed Foo everywhere I go (so that you couldn't do /foo/150/bar/200, assuming Bar 200 is not assigned to Foo 150). Ultimately, I don't see what this brings me. So, are there any other arguments for or against these two routing schemes?

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  • PostSharp when using DataContractSerializer?

    - by Dan Bryant
    I have an Aspect that implements INotifyPropertyChanged on a class. The aspect includes the following: [OnLocationSetValueAdvice, MethodPointcut("SelectProperties")] public void OnPropertySet(LocationInterceptionArgs args) { var currentValue = args.GetCurrentValue(); bool alreadyEqual = (currentValue == args.Value); // Call the setter args.ProceedSetValue(); // Invoke method OnPropertyChanged (ours, the base one, or the overridden one). if (!alreadyEqual) OnPropertyChangedMethod.Invoke(args.Location.Name); } This works fine when I instantiate the class normally, but I run into problems when I deserialize the class using a DataContractSerializer. This bypasses the constructor, which I'm guessing interferes with the way that PostSharp sets itself up. This ends up causing a NullReferenceException in an intercepted property setter, but before it has called the custom OnPropertySet, so I'm guessing it interferes with setting up the LocationInterceptionArgs. Has anyone else encountered this problem? Is there a way I can work around it? I did some more research and discovered I can fix the issue by doing this: [OnDeserializing] private void OnDeserializing(StreamingContext context) { AspectUtilities.InitializeCurrentAspects(); } I thought, okay, that's not too bad, so I tried to do this in my Aspect: private IEnumerable<MethodInfo> SelectDeserializing(Type type) { return type.GetMethods(BindingFlags.Instance | BindingFlags.NonPublic | BindingFlags.Public).Where( t => t.IsDefined(typeof (OnDeserializingAttribute), false)); } [OnMethodEntryAdvice, MethodPointcut("SelectDeserializing")] public void OnMethodEntry(MethodExecutionArgs args) { AspectUtilities.InitializeCurrentAspects(); } Unfortunately, even though it intercepts the method properly, it doesn't work. I'm thinking the call to InitializeCurrentAspects isn't getting transformed properly, since it's now inside the Aspect rather than directly inside the aspect-enhanced class. Is there a way I can cleanly automate this so that I don't have to worry about calling this on every class that I want to have the Aspect?

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  • UIView Controller mysteriously getting deallocated

    - by Dan Ray
    I have a UINavigation scheme with a "welcome" page, a middle page, and a detail page. In the middle page, there's a segmented controller that can swap the main body of that page between a table, a calendar, and a MKMapView, each implemented with their own view controller classes. Today I implemented the MapView and its annotations and all of that. It's nice. And a detail disclosure on each callout takes you to the detail page just the same way as if you'd gotten there via the table. Lovely. I also have a right-button-bar button that pushes in a "search" view. From there you can search the data I'm navigating. When it's done filtering the data (an array of objects I'm keeping in a data singleton), it makes the table reload its data, and calls my annotation-clearer-and-builder methods on the map view, and then pops itself out, so the "middle" page (including whatever view was in the guts of it) is back on the screen. Problem is, if I go back and forth between the map and the search a couple times, any mention of the table view causes us to crash with: *** -[CALayer retain]: message sent to deallocated instance 0x710b810. (I obviously have NSZombies turned on.) I put an NSLog in the dealloc method of my table view controller. That thing's never getting called. I don't know if we're ditching it behind the scenes for memory purposes, or if I'm leaking it and can't get my hands back on it, or what. I'm sort of at a loss about where to look. Any hints?

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  • Initialize webservice WSDL at runtime using Flex and Mate framework

    - by GroovyB
    I am developing a Flex application on top of Mate framework. In this application, I am using a webservice to retrieve data. As this webservice as not a fix location URL (depending on where customers installed it), I define this URL in a config file. When the Flex application starts, it first reads this config file, then I would like to use the value I found to initialize the webservice. But currently, I have no idea how to this. Here is my EventMap.mxml <EventMap> <services:Services id="services" /> <EventHandlers type="{FlexEvent.PREINITIALIZE}"> <HTTPServiceInvoker instance="{services.configService}"> <resultHandlers> <MethodInvoker generator="{ConfigManager}" method="loadFromXml" arguments="{resultObject}" /> </resultHandlers> <faultHandlers> <InlineInvoker method="Alert.show" arguments="ERROR: Unable to load config.xml !" /> </faultHandlers> </HTTPServiceInvoker> In this part, the ConfigManager parse the config file and intitialize a bindable property called webServiceWsdl Here is my Services.mxml <mx:Object> <mx:Script> <![CDATA[ [Bindable] public var webservice:String; ]]> </mx:Script> <mx:HTTPService id="configService" url="config.xml" useProxy="false" /> <mx:WebService id="dataService" wsdl="{webservice}" useProxy="false"/> </mx:Object> How can I initialize this webservice property ?

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  • nsxmlparser not solving &apos;

    - by alex
    Hi! Im using NSXMLParser to dissect a xml package, I'm receiving &apos inside the package text. I have the following defined for the xmlParser: [xmlParser setShouldResolveExternalEntities: YES]; The following method is never called - (void)parser:(NSXMLParser *)parser foundExternalEntityDeclarationWithName:(NSString *)entityName publicID:(NSString *)publicID systemID:(NSString *)systemID The text in the field before the &apos is not considered by the parser. Im searching how to solve this, any idea??? Thanks in advance Alex XML package portion attached: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="ISO-8859-1"?><SOAP-ENV:Envelope xmlns:SOAP-ENV="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/envelope/" xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:SOAP-ENC="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/encoding/" xmlns:tns="urn:appwsdl"><SOAP-ENV:Body><ns1:getObjects2Response xmlns:ns1="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/envelope/"><return xsi:type="tns:objectsResult"><totalRecipes xsi:type="xsd:string">1574</totalObjects><Objects xsi:type="tns:Item"><id xsi:type="xsd:string">4311</id><name xsi:type="xsd:string"> item title 1 </name><procedure xsi:type="xsd:string">item procedure 11......

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  • Matlab and .net problem with character string function input

    - by Peter
    I have a MATLAB function that I've compiled into a .net library. The function is a simple one that takes a character array as an input and a numeric array as output: function insert = money(dateLimit) .. insert = [1 2]; The function works fine when no function arguments are specified (a default argument is provided inside the function) Dim sf As New SpreadFinder.SpreadFinder Dim output = sf.money() As soon as an argument is specified .net complains. I'm thinking this should be easy and has been done before but searching through MATLAB documentation doesn't offer much help. Here's what I've tried. The sf.money() overload for the function with arguments is (numArgsOut as Integer, argsOut as MWArray, argsIn as MWArray) and hence that's what I've tried. What am I missing? Dim sf As New SpreadFinder.SpreadFinder Dim inputArgs(1) As Arrays.MWCharArray Dim dateLimitString As String = "some string" inputArgs(0) = New Arrays.MWCharArray(dateLimitString) Dim outputArgs(1) As Arrays.MWNumericArray outputArgs(0) = New Arrays.MWNumericArray() sf.money(1, outputArgs, inputArgs) Gives System.NullReferenceException : Object reference not set to an instance of an object. at MathWorks.MATLAB.NET.Utility.MWMCR.EvaluateFunction(String functionName, Int32 numArgsOut, Int32 numArgsIn, MWArray[] argsIn) at MathWorks.MATLAB.NET.Utility.MWMCR.EvaluateFunction(String functionName, Int32 numArgsOut, MWArray[]& argsOut, MWArray[] argsIn) at SpreadFinder.SpreadFinder.money(Int32 numArgsOut, MWArray[]& argsOut, MWArray[] argsIn)

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  • How to run an app in Tomcat?

    - by artaxerxe
    Hi! I have put my project in tomcat_home/webapps/ directory. The structure is : project_name/WEB-INF/classes. in WEB-INF i have put my web.xml descriptor. The problem is that when i try to run the application, it doesn't find the files. The error is: The requested resource () is not available. My web.xml content is: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="ISO-8859-1"?> <web-app xmlns="http://java.sun.com/xml/ns/j2ee" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xsi:schemaLocation="http://java.sun.com/xml/ns/j2ee http://java.sun.com/xml/ns/j2ee/web-app_2_4.xsd" version="2.4"> <servlet> <servlet-name>Chapter1 Servlet</servlet-name> <servlet-class>Ch1Servlet</servlet-class> </servlet> <servlet-mapping> <servlet-name>Chapter1 Servlet</servlet-name> <servlet-url>/Serv1</servlet-url> </servlet-mapping> </web-app> I have also restarted the server, but it doesn't want to work. Any suggestions?

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  • Django: How can I delete a formset entry if one of it's data is blank?

    - by mkret
    Hi, I have the following scenario: I have a form with data that does not need translation and a formset with a textfield that should be translated into an undefined amount of languages. Both parts are bound to a model. Each translated text is kept in a model with a foreign key that binds it to the untranslatable data. Something like: class Person(models.Model): name = models.CharField(max_length=60) birth_date = models.DateField() class PersonBio(models.Model): person = models.ForeignKey(Person) locale = models.CharField(max_length=10) bio = models.TextField() Each form in the formset has 2 fields: A textfield (with the translated text) A locale field (with the language into which the text was translated) I've got it working with no problems until I tryed to change it's normal behaviour. I wanted to eliminate the need for the DELETE field by deleting an instance of the translated text if the textfield was left blank. I've googled quite a lot now and read the whole documentation for forms, formsets and model validation but had no luck. To be honest, I couldn't even think of a solution. Where should I implement this? On a Form clean() method? On the view? Somewhere in the Fieldset? Fieldset's save() method, maybe? I'll keep trying to find a way to do that, but any help/tip/clue is appreciated. Thanks in advance.

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  • IValidator.Validate method and adding error message to a custom type

    - by user102533
    I have several server controls that implement the IValidator interface. As such, they have their own Validate() methods that look like this. public void Validate() { this.IsValid = true; if (someConditionFails()) { ErrorMessage = "Condition failed!"; this.IsValid = false; } } I understand that these Validate() methods are executed on postback before the load completed event that is executed before the save button's event handler. What I would like to do is pass in a reference to an instance of a custom class that collects all the error messages that I can access from Save button event handler. In other words, I would like to do something like this: public void Validate(ref SummaryOfErrorMessages sum) I guess I can't do this as the signature is different from what the IValidator interface has. The other option I can think of is on Load Completed event, I would iterate through all the validators on page, get the ones with IsValid = false and create my SummaryOfErrorMessages there. Does this sound right? Is there a better way of doing it?

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  • Behavior of retained propertie while holder is retained

    - by Aurélien Vallée
    Hello everyone, I am a beginner ObjectiveC programmer, coming from the C++ world. I find it very difficult to understand the memory management offered by NSObject :/ Say I have the following class: @interface User : NSObject { NSString* name; } @property (nonatomic,retain) NSString* name; - (id) initWithName: (NSString*) theName; - (void) release; @end @implementation User @synthetise name - (id) initWithName: (NSString*) theName { if ( self = [super init] ) { [self setName:theName]; } return self; } - (void) release { [name release]; [super release]; } @end No considering the following code, I can't understand the retain count results: NSString* name = [[NSString alloc] initWithCString:/*C string from sqlite3*/]; // (1) name retainCount = 1 User* user = [[User alloc] initWithName:name]; // (2) name retainCount = 2 [whateverMutableArray addObject:user]; // (3) name retainCount = 2 [user release]; // (4) name retainCount = 1 [name release]; // (5) name retainCount = 0 At (4), the retain count of name decreased from 2 to 1. But that's not correct, there is still the instance of user inside the array that points to name ! The retain count of a variable should only decrease when the retain count of a referring variable is 0, that is, when it is dealloced, not released.

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  • Object created in Interface Builder getting dealloc'ed too soon

    - by Collin Allen
    The Project I'm working on a relatively simple iPhone OS project that's navigation controller based, with a root table view and a detail table view. Tap an item in the main list to see its details in a pushed table view. The Setup I broke out the data source for both views into their own objects so as not to muddy the purpose of a view controller. Having done this, the table views no longer have data sources since those methods are now in separate files, so I created an instance of each data source class in the appropriate XIB files with the Object item (dragged it in, then set its class). Then, to actually connect the tableviews to their data sources, I set the dataSource outlet of each tableview to the yellow data source object in Interface Builder. The table view delegates are still set to their view controllers. The Problem The root table view works just fine, but when you tap a row to push to the detail view, the data source object gets instantiated as expected, then immediately dealloc'ed, causing a crash (numberOfSectionsInTableView: gets called on the freed object). I can't figure out why the data source is getting automatically dealloc-ed when I need it right then and there for the detail view, as indicated by my data source object creation and tableview connection in Interface Builder. What's more perplexing is that the very approach works fine for the root tableview! The Question Is there anything obvious I'm missing that would cause this to happen? Or, is this even the right way to instantiate a data source for a table view controller? It seems like poor object oriented programming to do it from within the view controller, which should only be concerned with the view. I could cram everything in two table view controller classes and it would probably work, but it would not be as modular as I'd like. Thanks!

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  • JQUERY - jQuery UI Nested Sortables 2 - help getting it working

    - by nobosh
    Hello, I'm interested in using the following JQUERY - http://lucaswoj.com/2010/01/jquery-ui-nested-sortables-2/ However, I can't seem to get a demo instance of the plugin work. Here's the code I'm using: <script type="text/javascript"> $('#findit').nestedSortable({}); </script> <div > <ul id="findit"> <li> List Item Content <ul></ul> <li> <li> List Item Content 2 <ul></ul> <li> <li> List Item Content 3 <ul></ul> <li> <li> List Item Content 4 <ul></ul> <li> <ul> </div> Any ideas? Thanks

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  • Are lambda expressions/delegates in C# "pure", or can they be?

    - by Bob
    I recently asked about functional programs having no side effects, and learned what this means for making parallelized tasks trivial. Specifically, that "pure" functions make this trivial as they have no side effects. I've also recently been looking into LINQ and lambda expressions as I've run across examples many times here on StackOverflow involving enumeration. That got me to wondering if parallelizing an enumeration or loop can be "easier" in C# now. Are lambda expressions "pure" enough to pull off trivial parallelizing? Maybe it depends on what you're doing with the expression, but can they be pure enough? Would something like this be theoretically possible/trivial in C#?: Break the loop into chunks Run a thread to loop through each chunk Run a function that does something with the value from the current loop position of each thread For instance, say I had a bunch of objects in a game loop (as I am developing a game and was thinking about the possibility of multiple threads) and had to do something with each of them every frame, would the above be trivial to pull off? Looking at IEnumerable it seems it only keeps track of the current position, so I'm not sure I could use the normal generic collections to break the enumeration into "chunks". Sorry about this question. I used bullets above instead of pseudo-code because I don't even know enough to write pseudo-code off the top of my head. My .NET knowledge has been purely simple business stuff and I'm new to delegates and threads, etc. I mainly want to know if the above approach is good for pursuing, and if delegates/lambdas don't have to be worried about when it comes to their parallelization.

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  • C# Inheritence: Choosing what repository based on type of inherited class

    - by Oskar Kjellin
    I have been making a program that downloads information about movies from the internet. I have a base class Title, which represents all titles. Movie, Serie and Episode are inherited from that class. To save them to the database I have 2 services, MovieService and SerieService. They in turn call repositories, but that is not important here. I have a method Save(Title title) which I am not very happy with. I check for what type the title is and then call the correct service. I would like to perhaps write like this: ITitleService service = title.GetService(); title.GetSavedBy(service); So I have an abstract method on Title that returns an ITitleSaver, which will return the correct service for the instance. My question is how should I implement ITitleSaver? If I make it accept Title I will have to cast it to the correct type before calling the correct overload. Which will lead to having to deal with casting once again. What is the best approach to dealing with this? I would like to have the saving logic in the corresponding class.

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  • Unit testing with Mocks when SUT is leveraging Task Parallel Libaray

    - by StevenH
    I am trying to unit test / verify that a method is being called on a dependency, by the system under test. The depenedency is IFoo. The dependent class is IBar. IBar is implemented as Bar. Bar will call Start() on IFoo in a new (System.Threading.Tasks.)Task, when Start() is called on Bar instance. Unit Test (Moq): [Test] public void StartBar_ShouldCallStartOnAllFoo_WhenFoosExist() { //ARRANGE //Create a foo, and setup expectation var mockFoo0 = new Mock<IFoo>(); mockFoo0.Setup(foo => foo.Start()); var mockFoo1 = new Mock<IFoo>(); mockFoo1.Setup(foo => foo.Start()); //Add mockobjects to a collection var foos = new List<IFoo> { mockFoo0.Object, mockFoo1.Object }; IBar sutBar = new Bar(foos); //ACT sutBar.Start(); //Should call mockFoo.Start() //ASSERT mockFoo0.VerifyAll(); mockFoo1.VerifyAll(); } Implementation of IBar as Bar: class Bar : IBar { private IEnumerable<IFoo> Foos { get; set; } public Bar(IEnumerable<IFoo> foos) { Foos = foos; } public void Start() { foreach(var foo in Foos) { Task.Factory.StartNew( () => { foo.Start(); }); } } } I appears that the issue is obviously due to the fact that the call to "foo.Start()" is taking place on another thread (/task), and the mock (Moq framework) can't detect it. But I could be wrong. Thanks

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  • Integrating ASP.NET MVC 2 with classic ASP

    - by David Lively
    I'm in the process of moving a large classic ASP application to ASP.NET MVC 2. Questions: My question is about project organization. I would prefer to not mix the MVC code with the ASP code in the same VS project. I'd like to have an MVC WAP with areas that match the parts of the website that I'm migrating. For instance, the old site has a folder /products/default.asp..... /products/productName/default.asp etc. In the MVC WAP, I'd like to have an area called "products", which I could then, either through a rewrite, routing, or preferably through some IIS configuration, point the "products" folder on the ASP site to. In this way, I could gradually move root folders from the ASP site to the MVC application. However, if I create the MVC WAP in a virtual folder, then my routes wind up looking like http://localhost/virtualFolder/products instead of http://localhost/products Any suggestions on how to conquer this? I know that, during deployment, I could deploy the MVC WAP into the root of the ASP site, but this doesn't help with debugging.

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  • Linux: How to find all serial devices (ttyS, ttyUSB and others)?

    - by Thomas Tempelmann
    What is the proper way to get a list of all available serial ports/devices on a Linux system? In other words, when I iterate over all devices in /dev/, how do I tell which ones are serial ports in the classic way, i.e. those usually supporting baud rates and RTS/CTS flow control? The solution would be coded in C. I ask because I am using a 3rd party library that does this clearly wrong: It appears to only iterate over /dev/ttyS*. The problem is that there are, for instance, serial ports over USB (provided by USB-RS232 adapters), and those are listed under /dev/ttyUSB*. And reading the Serial-HOWTO at Linux.org, I get the idea that there'll be other name spaces as well, as time comes. So I need to find the official way to detect serial devices. Problem is that there appears none documented, or I can't find it. I imagine one way would be to open all files from /dev/tty* and call a specific ioctl() on them that is only available on serial devices. Would that be a good solution, though?

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  • Delphi Mock Wizard

    - by Todd
    Let me preface this by saying I'm fairly new to Unit Testing, Mocks, Stubs, Etc... I've installed Delphi-Mock-Wizard. When I select a unit and "Generate Mock", a new unit is created but it's very basic and not anything what I understand Mocks to be. unit Unit1; (** WARNING - AUTO-GENERATED MOCK! Change this unit if you want to, but be aware that any changes you make will be lost if you regenerate the mock object (for instance, if the interface changes). My advice is to create a descendent class of your auto-generated mock - in a different unit - and override things there. That way you get to keep them. Also, the auto-generate code is not yet smart enough to generate stubs for inherited interfaces. In that case, change your mock declaration to inherit from a mock implementation that implements the missing interface. This, unfortunately, is a violation of the directive above. I'm working on it. You may also need to manually change the unit name, above. Another thing I am working on. **) interface uses PascalMock, TestInterfaces; type IThingy = interface; implementation end. Looking at the source there seems to be quite a bit commented out. I'm wondering, has anyone gotten this to work? My IDE is D2010. Thanks.

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  • Comparable and Comparator contract with regards to null

    - by polygenelubricants
    Comparable contract specifies that e.compareTo(null) must throw NullPointerException. From the API: Note that null is not an instance of any class, and e.compareTo(null) should throw a NullPointerException even though e.equals(null) returns false. On the other hand, Comparator API mentions nothing about what needs to happen when comparing null. Consider the following attempt of a generic method that takes a Comparable, and return a Comparator for it that puts null as the minimum element. static <T extends Comparable<? super T>> Comparator<T> nullComparableComparator() { return new Comparator<T>() { @Override public int compare(T el1, T el2) { return el1 == null ? -1 : el2 == null ? +1 : el1.compareTo(el2); } }; } This allows us to do the following: List<Integer> numbers = new ArrayList<Integer>( Arrays.asList(3, 2, 1, null, null, 0) ); Comparator<Integer> numbersComp = nullComparableComparator(); Collections.sort(numbers, numbersComp); System.out.println(numbers); // "[null, null, 0, 1, 2, 3]" List<String> names = new ArrayList<String>( Arrays.asList("Bob", null, "Alice", "Carol") ); Comparator<String> namesComp = nullComparableComparator(); Collections.sort(names, namesComp); System.out.println(names); // "[null, Alice, Bob, Carol]" So the questions are: Is this an acceptable use of a Comparator, or is it violating an unwritten rule regarding comparing null and throwing NullPointerException? Is it ever a good idea to even have to sort a List containing null elements, or is that a sure sign of a design error?

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  • Is it possible to template a template in WPF XAML?

    - by imekon
    Is it possible to use templates within templates? For instance, I have the following two templates: <HierarchicalDataTemplate x:Key="RecursiveTemplate" ItemsSource="{Binding Children}"> <StackPanel Margin="1" Orientation="Horizontal"> <Ellipse Fill="DarkGreen" Width="14" Height="14"/> <TextBlock MouseDown="OnTreeMouseDown" TargetUpdated="OnTargetUpdated" Visibility="{Binding Editing, Converter={StaticResource visibilityInverter}}" Margin="5" Text="{Binding Name}"/> <TextBox PreviewKeyDown="OnTreeKeyDown" Visibility="{Binding Editing, Converter={StaticResource visibilityConverter}}" Margin="2" Text="{Binding Name}"/> </StackPanel> </HierarchicalDataTemplate> <HierarchicalDataTemplate x:Key="ContainerTemplate" ItemsSource="{Binding Children}"> <StackPanel Margin="1" Orientation="Horizontal"> <Ellipse Fill="DarkBlue" Width="14" Height="14"/> <TextBlock MouseDown="OnTreeMouseDown" TargetUpdated="OnTargetUpdated" Visibility="{Binding Editing, Converter={StaticResource visibilityInverter}}" Margin="5" Text="{Binding Name}"/> <TextBox PreviewKeyDown="OnTreeKeyDown" Visibility="{Binding Editing, Converter={StaticResource visibilityConverter}}" Margin="2" Text="{Binding Name}"/> </StackPanel> </HierarchicalDataTemplate> There's a section of identical XAML: <TextBlock MouseDown="OnTreeMouseDown" TargetUpdated="OnTargetUpdated" Visibility="{Binding Editing, Converter={StaticResource visibilityInverter}}" Margin="5" Text="{Binding Name}"/> <TextBox PreviewKeyDown="OnTreeKeyDown" Visibility="{Binding Editing, Converter={StaticResource visibilityConverter}}" Margin="2" Text="{Binding Name}"/> Is it possible to move that to a resource and refer to it by name, rather than repeat it?

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