Search Results

Search found 14745 results on 590 pages for 'setting'.

Page 473/590 | < Previous Page | 469 470 471 472 473 474 475 476 477 478 479 480  | Next Page >

  • Can't get past "A potentially dangerous Request.Form value was detected..." error

    - by joshb
    I'm doing my first ASP.NET MVC2 project and I can't get past the "A potentially dangerous Request.Form value was detected..." error when trying to submit a form. I've done this in MVC1 using the ValidateInputAttribute and I've read about the breaking change in .NET 4 that requires setting the request validation mode in the web.config. Basically I'm doing exactly what is outlined in this thread: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2019843/a-potentially-dangerous-request-form-value-in-mvc-2-asp-net-4-0. Nothing's working though so I must be missing something. Here's my code: Web.config <configuration> <system.web> <httpHandlers> <add path="*" verb="*" type="System.Web.HttpNotFoundHandler"/> </httpHandlers> <httpRuntime requestValidationMode="2.0" /> <pages validateRequest="true" pageParserFilterType="System.Web.Mvc.ViewTypeParserFilter, System.Web.Mvc, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31BF3856AD364E35" pageBaseType="System.Web.Mvc.ViewPage, System.Web.Mvc, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31BF3856AD364E35" userControlBaseType="System.Web.Mvc.ViewUserControl, System.Web.Mvc, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31BF3856AD364E35"> <controls> <add assembly="System.Web.Mvc, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31BF3856AD364E35" namespace="System.Web.Mvc" tagPrefix="mvc" /> </controls> </pages> </system.web> <system.webServer> <validation validateIntegratedModeConfiguration="false" /> <handlers> <remove name="BlockViewHandler"/> <add name="BlockViewHandler" path="*" verb="*" preCondition="integratedMode" type="System.Web.HttpNotFoundHandler" /> </handlers> </system.webServer> </configuration> Controller action [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] [ValidateInput(false)] public ActionResult Edit(Page pageToEdit) { // do stuff.... } Any ideas on what I'm doing wrong here?

    Read the article

  • ruby nl2br outside <code> ... </code>

    - by Julien P.
    Hi everyone, I've been struggling on this thing for a week without being able to find what I'm looking for. Here is what I'd like to do: I'm setting up a wiki where I can post all my knowledge to (yes, I know a couple things :p) but I can't render it the way I'd like to. The bodies of my posts are text fields. In order to render them the right way I run the following command: @post.body.gsub("\n", "<br />") I also have some tags with some code inside that looks like this < code my code < /code. Here come's the issue. Every line between the < code and < /code tags are changed to but it doesn'r render properly since I'm using a code render template. Therefore, I'd like to know if there is a way to change all \n to < br / except for those between < code and < /code Thank you everyone for reading this and helping me out. PS: Please do not consider the spaces after the < in each tag. I had to do this to "espace" them. Julien

    Read the article

  • Call Multiple Stored Procedures with the Zend Framework

    - by Brian Fisher
    I'm using Zend Framework 1.7.2, MySQL and the MySQLi PDO adapter. I would like to call multiple stored procedures during a given action. I've found that on Windows there is a problem calling multiple stored procedures. If you try it you get the following error message: SQLSTATE[HY000]: General error: 2014 Cannot execute queries while other unbuffered queries are active. Consider using PDOStatement::fetchAll(). Alternatively, if your code is only ever going to run against mysql, you may enable query buffering by setting the PDO::MYSQL_ATTR_USE_BUFFERED_QUERY attribute. I found that to work around this issue I could just close the connection to the database after each call to a stored procedure: if (strtoupper(substr(PHP_OS, 0, 3)) === 'WIN') { //If on windows close the connection $db->closeConnection(); } This has worked well for me, however, now I want to call multiple stored procedures wrapped in a transaction. Of course, closing the connection isn't an option in this situation, since it causes a rollback of the open transaction. Any ideas, how to fix this problem and/or work around the issue. More info about the work around Bug report about the problem

    Read the article

  • Using PHP cURL with an HTTP Debugging Proxy

    - by Kane
    I'm using the app "Fiddler" to debug a GET attempt to a website via PHP cURL. In order to see the cURL traffic I had to specify that the cURL connection use the Fiddler proxy (see code below). $ch = curl_init(); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_HTTPPROXYTUNNEL, 1); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_PROXY, '127.0.0.1:8888'); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_CONNECTTIMEOUT, 5); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_TIMEOUT, 10); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_HEADERFUNCTION, 'read_header'); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER, 1); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_USERAGENT, $user_agent); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_REFERER, "http://domain.com"); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_HTTPHEADER, $headers); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_COOKIEJAR, "my_cookies.txt"); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_COOKIEFILE, "my_cookies.txt"); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_URL, "http://domain.com"); $response = curl_exec($ch); But the problem is that in Fiddler I can only see this: Request (domain.com is just an alias): CONNECT domain.com:80 HTTP/1.1 Response: HTTP/1.1 200 Blind-Connection Established If I manually load the website in a browser Fiddler gives me WAY more information. I can see the cookies, the header information, and what I'm receiving via the GET. Any ideas why Fiddler can't see more useful information from PHP cURL? Edit: I tried turning on the "Enable HTTPS Decryption" option inside Tools / Fiddler Options / HTTPS (which I'm not sure why I'd need to use as I didn't tell cURL to use HTTPS). Unfortunately, by changing this setting I now get a Response of: HTTP/1.1 502 Connection failed Edit: If it helps, the app "Charles" shows me WAY more information than Fiddler, but I really want to figure out Fiddler since I like it better.

    Read the article

  • Can I embed a custom font in an iPhone application?

    - by Airsource Ltd
    I would like to have an app include a custom font for rendering text, load it, and then use it with standard UIKit elements like UILabel. Is this possible? I found these links: http://discussions.apple.com/thread.jspa?messageID=8304744 http://forums.macrumors.com/showthread.php?t=569311 but these would require me to render each glyph myself, which is a bit too much like hard work, especially for multi-line text. I've also found posts that say straight out that it's not possible, but without justification, so I'm looking for a definitive answer. EDIT - failed -[UIFont fontWithName:size:] experiment I downloaded Harrowprint.tff (downloaded from here) and added it to my Resources directory and to the project. I then tried this code: UIFont* font = [UIFont fontWithName:@"Harrowprint" size:20]; which resulted in an exception being thrown. Looking at the TTF file in Finder confirmed that the font name was Harrowprint. EDIT - there have been a number of replies so far which tell me to read the documentation on X or Y. I've experimented extensively with all of these, and got nowhere. In one case, X turned out to be relevant only on OS X, not on iPhone. Consequently I am setting a bounty for this question, and I will award the bounty to the first person who provides an answer (using only documented APIs) who responds with sufficient information to get this working on the device. Working on the simulator too would be a bonus. EDIT - it appears that the bounty auto-awards to the answer with the highest nunber of votes. Interesting. No one actually provided an answer that solved the question as asked - the solution that involves coding your own UILabel subclass doesn't support word-wrap, which is an essential feature for me - though I guess I could extend it to do so.

    Read the article

  • Problems with QDialog in Qt

    - by Martin
    I'm using Qt for Symbian. I have some problems with a QDialog that I open from a QMenu. The QDialog shows up fine and in the QDialog I have a QDialogButtonBox with a button to Close the QDialog. BUT if I close the QDialog and then open it from the QMenu again, it will show up but the button from the QDialogButtonBox will not show up. Instead the buttons from the QMainWindow will show but they are grayed out. How can I get the QDialog buttons to show every time? Maybe I have some problems with setting focus on the QDialog? I really can't see what I'm doing wrong here. It's not much code that I use, you can try it yourself. This is my code: In QMainWindow I use the following to create the menu: QAction *menuButton = new QAction("Menu", this); menuButton->setSoftKeyRole(QAction::PositiveSoftKey); QMenu *menu = new QMenu(this); menuButton->setMenu(menu); QAction *popup = new QAction("Show popup",this); connect(popup, SIGNAL(triggered()), this, SLOT(showPopup())); menu->addAction(popup); addAction(menuButton); This shows the QDialog: void MyMainWindow::showPopup(){ TestDialog *test = new TestDialog(this); test->setAttribute(Qt::WA_DeleteOnClose); test->show(); } This is the TestDialog: TestDialog::TestDialog(QWidget *parent) : QDialog(parent) { ui.setupUi(this); QDesktopWidget* desktopWidget = QApplication::desktop(); QRect rect = desktopWidget->availableGeometry(); this->setFixedWidth(rect.width()); }

    Read the article

  • Fetch request error: no entity? Probably easy, but help!

    - by cksubs
    Hi, I'm going through the Stanford iPhone course. I'm on the second Paparazzi assignment. I'm getting this error: * Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSInvalidArgumentException', reason: 'executeFetchRequest:error: A fetch request must have an entity.' I've copied a lot of the code from this walkthrough site. Running his source code works perfectly, and at this point my code is pretty much exactly the same as his. But it throws that error. See below for the relavent bits: // Create FetchRequest NSFetchRequest *request = [[NSFetchRequest alloc] init]; NSEntityDescription *entity = [NSEntityDescription entityForName:@"Person" inManagedObjectContext:context]; [request setEntity:entity]; // Set the sort descriptor NSSortDescriptor *sortDescriptor = [[NSSortDescriptor alloc] initWithKey:@"personName" ascending:NO]; NSArray *sortDescriptors = [[NSArray alloc] initWithObjects:sortDescriptor, nil]; [request setSortDescriptors:sortDescriptors]; [sortDescriptors release]; [sortDescriptor release]; // set up NSFetchedResultsController to hold the fetch NSFetchedResultsController *frc = [[NSFetchedResultsController alloc] initWithFetchRequest:request managedObjectContext:context sectionNameKeyPath:nil cacheName:@"personCache"]; // execute the fetch NSError *error; NSLog(@"Prints Here"); [frc performFetch:&error]; NSLog(@"Doesn't Print Here"); I'm clearly setting the entity with [request setEntity:entity]. So the error has me stumped. Is there something I'm missing? Maybe in another file? I don't know. I'm still so confused with Objective-C.... Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Jsystem AutoITAgent does not work - java.lang.NoClassDefFoundError: org/apache/xmlrpc/WebServer

    - by lasombra
    Even so the jar files exists and are in the correct folder, I get the NoClassDefFoundError. Why? What I am doing wrong? The Classpath definition is .\thirdparty\lib\;C:\jsystem\runner\lib\ant-jsystem.jar;C:jsystem\runner\lib\cli.jar;C:\jsystem\runner\lib\commons-logging-1.1.jar;C:\jsystem\runner\lib\embeddedCatalina.jar;C:\jsystem\runner\lib\fileParser.jar;C:\jsystem\runner\lib\filetransfer.jar;C:\jsystem\runner\lib\j2autoit.jar;C:\jsystem\runner\lib\jsystem-launcher.jar;C:\jsystem\runner\lib\jsystemAgent.jar;C:\jsystem\runner\lib\jsystemApp.jar;C:\jsystem\runner\lib\jsystemCommon.jar;C:\jsystem\runner\lib\jsystemCore.jar;C:\jsystem\runner\lib\snmp.jar;C:\jsystem\runner\lib\stations.jar;C:\jsystem\runner\lib\swing.jar;C:\jsystem\runner\lib\tcl.jar;C:\jsystem\runner\lib\vbshell.jar;C:\jsystem\runner\lib\web.jar;C:\jsystem\runner\lib\wget.jar; C:\jsystem\runner\lib\xmlrpc-client-3.1.3.jar; C:\jsystem\runner\lib\xmlrpc-common-3.1.3.jar; C:\jsystem\runner\lib\xmlrpc-server-3.1.3.jar; C:\jsystem\runner\lib\j2autoit\j2autoit.jar C:\jsystem\runner Setting J2AutoIt Agent to use the port: 8888 Exception in thread "main" java.lang.NoClassDefFoundError: org/apache/xmlrpc/WebServer at com.jsystem.j2autoit.AutoItAgent.startAutoItWebServer(AutoItAgent.java:665) at com.jsystem.j2autoit.AutoItAgent.main(AutoItAgent.java:348) Caused by: java.lang.ClassNotFoundException: org.apache.xmlrpc.WebServer at java.net.URLClassLoader$1.run(Unknown Source) at java.security.AccessController.doPrivileged(Native Method) at java.net.URLClassLoader.findClass(Unknown Source) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(Unknown Source) at sun.misc.Launcher$AppClassLoader.loadClass(Unknown Source) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(Unknown Source) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClassInternal(Unknown Source) ... 2 more

    Read the article

  • Hudson: how do i use a parameterized build to do svn checkout and svn tag?

    - by Derick Bailey
    I'm setting up a parameterized build in hudson v1.362. the parameter i'm creting is used to determine which branch to checkout in subversion. I can set my svn repository url like this: https://my.svn.server/branches/${branch} and it does the checkout and the build just fine. now I want to tag the build after it finishes. i'm using the SVN tagging plugin for hudson to do this. so i go to the bottom of the project config screen for the hudson project and turn on "Perform Subversion tagging on successful build". here, i set my Tag Base URL to https://my.svn.server/tags/${branch}-${BUILD_NUMBER} and it gives me errors about those properties not being found. so i change them to environment variable usages like this: https://my.svn.server/tags/${env['branch']}-${env['BUILD_NUMBER']} and the svn tagging plugin is happy. the problem now is that my svn repository at the top is using the ${branch} syntax and the svn tagging plugin barfs on this: moduleLocation: Remote -https://my.svn.server/branches/$branch/ Tag Base URL: 'https://my.svn.server/tags/thebranchiused-1234'. There was no old tag at https://my.svn.server/tags/thebranchiused-1234. ERROR: Publisher hudson.plugins.svn_tag.SvnTagPublisher aborted due to exception java.lang.NullPointerException at hudson.plugins.svn_tag.SvnTagPlugin.perform(SvnTagPlugin.java:180) at hudson.plugins.svn_tag.SvnTagPublisher.perform(SvnTagPublisher.java:79) at hudson.tasks.BuildStepMonitor$3.perform(BuildStepMonitor.java:36) at hudson.model.AbstractBuild$AbstractRunner.perform(AbstractBuild.java:601) at hudson.model.AbstractBuild$AbstractRunner.performAllBuildSteps(AbstractBuild.java:580) at hudson.model.AbstractBuild$AbstractRunner.performAllBuildSteps(AbstractBuild.java:558) at hudson.model.Build$RunnerImpl.cleanUp(Build.java:167) at hudson.model.Run.run(Run.java:1295) at hudson.model.FreeStyleBuild.run(FreeStyleBuild.java:46) at hudson.model.ResourceController.execute(ResourceController.java:88) at hudson.model.Executor.run(Executor.java:124) Finished: FAILURE notice the first line, there: the svn tag is looking at ${branch} as part of the repository url... it's not parsing out the property value. i tried to change my original Repository URL for svn to use the ${env['branch']} syntax, but that blows up on the original checkout because this syntax is not getting parsed at all by the checkout. help?! how do i use a parameterized build to set the svn url for checkout and for tagging my build?!

    Read the article

  • How to create a rails staging environment in engineyard?

    - by siulamvictor
    I have a production instance in engineyard up and running well. I would like to create a new staging instance for internal testing. I cloned the existing production instance, changed Framework Environment to staging. I can deploy all the code to staging instance from Github. Engineyard reported the server is fully configured and ready. I have subdomain-fu in my Rails app, as I have some subdomain handling in my app. I set the subdomain initializer like this.... SubdomainFu.tld_sizes = {:development => 1, :test => 0, :production => 1, :staging => 2} As the production instance is using the domain xxxxx.com, I would like my staging instance use the domain staging.xxxxx.com. But I got an error when open this domain. Seems the app use xxxxx.com as domain but not the staging.xxxxx.com. I checked the engineyard database.yml. It use xxxxx_production database, I supposed it should be xxxxx_staging. Seems the engineyard instance is not set to staging environment, but just clone all the setting from production server. Does anyone have experience with this and can show me the way on how to fix it? Thanks. :)

    Read the article

  • jQuery set selected value in option box once the box has been loaded

    - by Maarten
    I want to preset the value of a selectbox based on a hidden field. I need this after an error has been detected in a form to avoid the user having to set the value themselves again. I do this by setting the value of a hidden field server side. The problem I have seems to be that the select box isn't done yet at the time I try to set the selected value. Anyone know how to solve this (possibly in a very different way?) <script type="text/javascript" src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.4.2/jquery.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" charset="utf-8"> $(function(){ // this functions loads the state select box with states if a country with states is selected $("select#countries").change(function(){ $.getJSON("/ajax/exhibition/getstates.php?idCountry="+$("select#countries").val(), function(j){ var options = ''; $.each(j, function(key, value){ options += '<option value="' + key + '">' + value + '</option>'; }); $("select#state").html(options); }); }); }); $(document).ready(function(){ // preset the state select box on page ready $('select#countries').change(); // set the selected value of the state select box var foo = $('#statepreset').val(); $("select#state option[value="+foo+"]").attr('selected', 'selected'); }); </script>

    Read the article

  • SqlBulkCopy causes Deadlock on SQL Server 2000.

    - by megatoast
    I have a customized data import executable in .NET 3.5 which the SqlBulkCopy to basically do faster inserts on large amounts of data. The app basically takes an input file, massages the data and bulk uploads it into a SQL Server 2000. It was written by a consultant who was building it with a SQL 2008 database environment. Would that env difference be causing this? SQL 2000 does have the bcp utility which is what BulkCopy is based on. So, When we ran this, it triggered a Deadlock error. Error details: Transaction (Process ID 58) was deadlocked on lock resources with another process and has been chosen as the deadlock victim. Rerun the transaction. I've tried numerous ways to try to resolve it. like temporarily setting the connection string variable MultipleActiveResultSets=true, which wasn't ideal, but it still gives a Deadlock error. I also made sure it wasn't a connection time out problem. here's the function. Any advice? /// <summary> /// Bulks the insert. /// </summary> public void BulkInsert(string destinationTableName, DataTable dataTable) { SqlBulkCopy bulkCopy; if (this.Transaction != null) { bulkCopy = new SqlBulkCopy ( this.Connection, SqlBulkCopyOptions.TableLock, this.Transaction ); } else { bulkCopy = new SqlBulkCopy ( this.Connection.ConnectionString, SqlBulkCopyOptions.TableLock | SqlBulkCopyOptions.UseInternalTransaction ); } bulkCopy.ColumnMappings.Add("FeeScheduleID", "FeeScheduleID"); bulkCopy.ColumnMappings.Add("ProcedureID", "ProcedureID"); bulkCopy.ColumnMappings.Add("AltCode", "AltCode"); bulkCopy.ColumnMappings.Add("AltDescription", "AltDescription"); bulkCopy.ColumnMappings.Add("Fee", "Fee"); bulkCopy.ColumnMappings.Add("Discount", "Discount"); bulkCopy.ColumnMappings.Add("Comment", "Comment"); bulkCopy.ColumnMappings.Add("Description", "Description"); bulkCopy.BatchSize = dataTable.Rows.Count; bulkCopy.DestinationTableName = destinationTableName; bulkCopy.WriteToServer(dataTable); bulkCopy = null; }

    Read the article

  • Delete record in Linq to Sql

    - by Anders Svensson
    I have Linq2Sql classes User, Page, and UserPage (from a junction table), i.e. a many-to-many relationship. I'm using a gridview to show all Users, with a dropdownlist in each row to show the Pages visited by each user. Now I want to be able to delete records through the gridview, so I have added a delete button in the gridview by setting "Enable deleting" on it. Then I tried to use the RowDeleting event to specify how to delete the records since it doesn't work by default. And because its a relationship I know I need to delete the related records in the junction table before deleting the user record itself, so I added this in the RowDeleting event: protected void GridView2_RowDeleting(object sender, GridViewDeleteEventArgs e) { int id = (int)((DataKey)GridView2.DataKeys[e.RowIndex]).Value; UserPageDBDataContext context = new UserPageDBDataContext(); var userPages = from userPage in context.UserPages where userPage.User.UserID == id select userPage; foreach (var userPage in userPages) context.UserPages.DeleteOnSubmit(userPage); context.SubmitChanges(); var user = context.Users.Single(u => u.UserID == id); context.Users.DeleteOnSubmit(user); context.SubmitChanges(); } This actually seems to delete records, because the record with the id in question does indeed disappear, but strangely, a new record seems to be added at the end...! So, say I have 3 records in the gridview: 1 Jack stackoverflow.com 2 Betty stackoverflow.com/questions 3 Joe stackoverflow.com/whatever Now, if I try to delete user 1 (Jack), record number 1 will indeed disappear in the gridview, but the same record will appear at the end with a new id: 2 Jack stackoverflow.com 3 Betty stackoverflow.com/questions 4 Joe stackoverflow.com/whatever I have tried searching on how to delete records using Linq, and I believe I'm doing exacly as the examples I have read (e.g. the second example here: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/Bb386925%28v=VS.100%29.aspx). I have read that you can also set cascade delete on the relationship in the database, but I wanted to do it this way in code, as your supposed to be able to. So what am I doing wrong?

    Read the article

  • object_getInstanceVariable works for float, int, bool, but not for double?

    - by Russel West
    I've got object_getInstanceVariable to work as here however it seems to only work for floats, bools and ints not doubles. I do suspect I'm doing something wrong but I've been going in circles with this. float myFloatValue; float someFloat = 2.123f; object_getInstanceVariable(self, "someFloat", (void*)&myFloatValue); works, and myFloatValue = 2.123 but when I try double myDoubleValue; double someDouble = 2.123f; object_getInstanceVariable(self, "someDouble", (void*)&myDoubleValue); i get myDoubleValue = 0. If I try to set myDoubleValue before the function eg. double myDoubleValue = 1.2f, the value is unchanged when I read it after the object_getInstanceVariable call. setting myIntValue to some other value before the getinstancevar function above returns 2 as it should, ie. it has been changed. then I tried Ivar tmpIvar = object_getInstanceVariable(self, "someDouble", (void*)&myDoubleValue); if i do ivar_getName(tmpIvar) i get "someDouble", but myDoubuleValue = 0 still! then i try ivar_getTypeEncoding(tmpIvar) and i get "d" as it should be. So to summarize, if typeEncoding = float, it works, if it is a double, the result is not set but it correctly reads the variable and the return value (Ivar) is also correct. I must be doing something basic wrong that I cant see so I'd appreciate if someone could point it out.

    Read the article

  • StackOverFlowException - but oviously NO recursion/endless loop

    - by user567706
    Hi there, I'm now blocked by this problem the entire day, read thousands of google results, but nothing seems to reflect my problem or even come near to it... i hope any of you has a push into the right direction for me. I wrote a client-server-application (so more like 2 applications) - the client collects data about his system, as well as a screenshot, serializes all this into a XML stream (the picture as a byte[]-array]) and sends this to the server in regular intervals. The server receives the stream (via tcp), deserializes the xml to an information-object and shows the information on a windows form. This process is running stable for about 20-25 minutes at a submission interval of 3 seconds. When observing the memory usage there's nothing significant to see, also kinda stable. But after these 20-25 mins the server throws a StackOverflowException at the point where it deserializes the tcp-stream, especially when setting the Image property from the byte[]-array. I thoroughly searched for recursive or endless loops, and regarding the fact that it occurs after thousands of sucessfull intervals, i could hardly imagine that. public byte[] ImageBase { get { MemoryStream ms = new MemoryStream(); _screen.Save(ms, System.Drawing.Imaging.ImageFormat.Jpeg); return ms.GetBuffer(); } set { if (_screen != null) _screen.Dispose(); //preventing well-known image memory leak MemoryStream ms = new MemoryStream(value); try { _screen = Image.FromStream(ms); //<< EXCEPTION THROWING HERE } catch (StackOverflowException ex) //thx to new CLR management this wont work anymore -.- { Console.WriteLine(ex.Message + Environment.NewLine + ex.StackTrace); } ms.Dispose(); ms = null; } } I hope that more code would be unnecessary, or it could get very complex... Please help, i have no clue at all anymore thx Chris

    Read the article

  • Google Chrome, IE problem with adjusting style before AJAX

    - by orokusaki
    When I'm using AJAX, I typically do something before each request to let the user know that they'll be waiting for a second. This is usually done by just adding an animated loading gif. When I do this, Firefox does what you'd expect and adds the gif before moving control to the next line (where the AJAX is called). In Chrome, it locks the browser and doesn't make any DOM changes at all (let alone load an image), including even changing the color of something, until the AJAX is done. This isn't just AJAX though. It's anything that holds control, and it never makes DOM changes until the control is given back to the window. Example (using jQuery): function submit_order() { $('#my_element').css('color', '#FF0000'); // Make text red before calling AJAX $.getJSON('/api/', my_callback) // Note, in IE and Chrome #my_element isn't turned red until the AJAX finishes and my_callback is run } Why does this happen, and how can I solve it? I can't use ASYNC because of the nature of the data (it would be a big mess). I experimented with using window.setTimeout(myajaxfunc, 150) after setting the style, to see if it would set the style, then do the timeout, but it appears it isn't an issue with just AJAX, but rather the control of the script in general (I think, hence the title making mention to AJAX because this is the only time I ever run into this problem). This doesn't have anything to do with it being in a function BTW.

    Read the article

  • DataGrid finding a control

    - by nat
    HI I have a DataGrid (yes would be nicer if it was a gridview but nothing i can do about that) in the itemDataBound event i am adding a hidden field into the first cell of each row I am setting its ID based on something, and then saving its clientID in a List for later attempts to get the value from it but try as i might i cant find anything with findcontrol have tried here is the itemdatabound bit foreach(page in datasource){ HiddenField hidOrder = new HiddenField(); hidOrder.ID = "order_" + page.Id.ToString(); hidOrder.Value = page.Ordering.ToString(); e.Item.Cells[0].Controls.Add(hidOrder); idList.Add(hidOrder.ClientID); } then this is a button click event.. int numRows = FrontEndDataGrid.Items.Count; for (int i = 0; i < numRows; i++){ foreach(string hidID in idList){ HiddenField hf = FrontEndDataGrid.Items[i].FindControl(hidID) as HiddenField; //ssadly this never finds anything //have also tried looping around the cells for each 'row' - no luck there either } } any ideas? thanks nat

    Read the article

  • How to handle ASP.NET application error that occurs on application start and transfer & display erro

    - by Soul_Master
    I know that ASP.NET MVC has error filter attribute to handle specified error type. However, this feature cannot catch any error that occurs when application start. Therefore, I need to add some code to “Application_Error” method for handling this error like the following code. public void Application_Error(object sender, EventArgs e) { // At this point we have information about the error var ctx = HttpContext.Current; var exception = ctx.Server.GetLastError(); var errorInfo = "<br>Offending URL: " + ctx.Request.Url + "<br>Source: " + exception.Source + "<br>Message: " + exception.Message + "<br>Stack trace: " + exception.StackTrace; ctx.Response.Write(errorInfo); Server.ClearError(); } Although, this code will works fine, when normal application error occurs like error that occurs in view page. Nevertheless, it does not work when error occurs on application starting because request and response objects are always null. Next, I try to solve this question by setting default redirect in custom errors like the following code. <customErrors mode="On" defaultRedirect="Scripts/ApplicationError.htm"></customErrors> Unfortunately, it does not work because when application receive redirected request, it try to start application again and it throw exception again. How do to solve this problem? Alternatively, Do you have other idea for handling this error. Thanks, PS. The main reason for creating this handler because I want to display error when application cannot connect to other service like database for caching data on application start.

    Read the article

  • How to reliably send a request cross domain and cross browser on page unload

    - by Agmin
    I have javascript code that's loaded by 3rd parties. The javascript keeps track of a number of metrics, and when a user exits the page I'd like to send the metrics back to my server. Due to XSS checks in some browsers, like IE, I cannot do a simple jquery.ajax() call. Instead, I'm appending an image src to the page with jquery. Here's the code, cased by browser: function record_metrics() { //Arbitrary code execution here to set test_url $esajquery('#MainDiv').append("<img src='" + test_url + "' />"); } if ($esajquery.browser.msie) { window.onbeforeunload = function() { record_metrics(); } } else { $esajquery(window).unload( function(){ record_metrics(); } ); } FF aborts the request to "test_url" if I use window.onbeforeunload, and IE8 doesn't work with jquery's unload(). IE8 also fails to work if the arbitrary test_url setting code is too long, although IE8 seems to work fine if the is immediately appended to the DOM. Is there a better way to solve this issue? Unfortunately this really needs to execute when a user leaves the page.

    Read the article

  • IncludeExceptionDetailInFaults not behaving as thought

    - by pdiddy
    I have this simple test project just to test the IncludeExceptionDetailInFaults behavior. public class Service1 : IService1 { public string GetData(int value) { throw new InvalidCastException("test"); return string.Format("You entered: {0}", value); } } [ServiceContract] public interface IService1 { [OperationContract] string GetData(int value); } In the app.config of the service i have it set to true <serviceDebug includeExceptionDetailInFaults="True" /> On the client side: try { using (var proxy = new ServiceReference1.Service1Client()) Console.WriteLine(proxy.GetData(5)); } catch (Exception ex) { Console.WriteLine(ex.Message); } This is what I thought the behavior was: Setting to includeExceptionDetailInFaults=true would propagate the exception detail to the client. But I'm always getting the CommunicationObjectFaultException. I did try having the FaultContract(typeof(InvalidCastException)) on the contract but same behavior, only getting the CommunicationObjectFaultException. The only way to make it work was to throw new FaultException(new InvalidCastException("test")); But I thought with IncludeExceptionDetailInFaults=true the above was done automatically. Am I missing something?

    Read the article

  • Build System with Recursive Dependency Aggregation

    - by radman
    Hi, I recently began setting up my own library and projects using a cross platform build system (generates make files, visual studio solutions/projects etc on demand) and I have run into a problem that has likely been solved already. The issue that I have run into is this: When an application has a dependency that also has dependencies then the application being linked must link the dependency and also all of its sub-dependencies. This proceeds in a recursive fashion e.g. (For arguments sake lets assume that we are dealing exclusively with static libraries.) TopLevelApp.exe dependency_A dependency_A-1 dependency_A-2 dependency_B dependency_B-1 dependency_B-2 So in this example TopLevelApp will need to link dependency_A, dependency_A-1, dependency_A-2 etc and the same for B. I think the responsibility of remembering all of these manually in the target application is pretty sub optimal. There is also the issue of ensuring the same version of the dependency is used across all targets (assuming that some targets depend on the same things, e.g. boost). Now linking all of the libraries is required and there is no way of getting around it. What I am looking for is a build system that manages this for you. So all you have to do is specify that you depend on something and the appropriate dependencies of that library will be pulled in automatically. The build system I have been looking at is premake premake4 which doesn't handle this (as far as I can determine). Does anyone know of a build system that does handle this? and if there isn't then why not?

    Read the article

  • Precompiled headers question

    - by Kotti
    Hello! I am right now reorganizing my project and what recently was a simple application now became a pair of C++ projects - static library and real application. I would like to share one precompiled header between two projects, but face some troubles with setting up the .pdb file paths. Assume my first project is called Library and builds it's .lib file with a corresponding Library.pdb file. Now, the second project is called Application and builds everything into the same folder (.exe and another Application.pdb file). Right now my both projects create their own precompiled headers file (Library.pch and Application.pch) based on one actual header file. It works, but I think it's a waste of time and I also think there should be a way to share one precompiled header between two projects. If in my Application project I try to set the Use Precompiled Header (/Yu) option and set it to Library.pch, it wouldn't work, because of the following error: error C2858: command-line option 'program database name "Application.pdb" inconsistent with precompiled header, which used "Library.pdb". So, does anyone know some trick or way to share one precompiled header between two projects preserving proper debug information?

    Read the article

  • Deserialize generic collections - coming up empty

    - by AC
    I've got a settings object for my app that has two collections in it. The collections are simple List generics that contain a collection of property bags. When I serialize it, everything is saved with no problem: XmlSerializer x = new XmlSerializer(settings.GetType()); TextWriter tw = new StreamWriter(@"c:\temp\settings.cpt"); x.Serialize(tw, settings); However when I deserialize it, everything is restored except for the two collections (verified by setting a breakpoint on the setters: XmlSerializer x = new XmlSerializer(typeof(CourseSettings)); XmlReader tr = XmlReader.Create(@"c:\temp\settings.cpt"); this.DataContext = (CourseSettings)x.Deserialize(tr); What would cause this? Everything is pretty vanilla... here's a snippet from the settings object... omitting most of it. The PresentationSourceDirectory works just fine, but the PresentationModules' setter isn't hit: private string _presentationSourceDirectory = string.Empty; public string PresentationSourceDirectory { get { return _presentationSourceDirectory; } set { if (_presentationSourceDirectory != value) { OnPropertyChanged("PresentationSourceDirectory"); _presentationSourceDirectory = value; } } } private List<Module> _presentationModules = new List<Module>(); public List<Module> PresentationModules { get { var sortedModules = from m in _presentationModules orderby m.ModuleOrder select m; return sortedModules.ToList<Module>(); } set { if (_presentationModules != value) { _presentationModules = value; OnPropertyChanged("PresentationModules"); } } }

    Read the article

  • WPF data validation is overriding theme on the interface

    - by black sensei
    Hello! Good People I built a WPF application and manage to get the validation working thanks to posts on stackoverflow.The only probblem i'm having is that it's overriding the theme i'm using. example the theme makes the textboxes look like a round rectangle but after setting the binding it look like the default textboxes. here is my code : <Button.Style> <Style TargetType="{x:Type Button}"> <Setter Property="IsEnabled" Value="false" /> <Style.Triggers> <!-- Require the controls to be valid in order to press OK --> <MultiDataTrigger> <MultiDataTrigger.Conditions> <Condition Binding="{Binding ElementName=txtEmail, Path=(Validation.HasError)}" Value="false" /> </MultiDataTrigger.Conditions> <Setter Property="IsEnabled" Value="true" /> </MultiDataTrigger> </Style.Triggers> </Style> </Button.Style> code behind is : //Form loaded event code txtEmail.GetBindingExpression(TextBox.TextProperty).UpdateSource(); I've tried to look into the theme file but i was quickly lost.i thought i could use that file like a web css file.Now i've disabled the data binding because of that.Is there any work around for this? thanks for reading this

    Read the article

  • How to enable commenting on the Facebook Like Button

    - by digitaldreamer
    I'm integrating the Facebook Like Button into a site. The likeing functionality is working fine except that you cannot add comments to your like after you've clicked the like button. Several sites including CNN has this working so this should be possible. The docs mention that you need to use the JavaScript SDK to get commenting to work, which I am doing; however I cannot get commenting to show up. A fuller-featured Like button is available via the XFBML tag and requires you use the new JavaScript SDK. The XFBML version allows users to add a comment to their like as it is posted back to Facebook. I cannot find details on which options are available for this more "fully-featured" XFBML like button. I'm wondering if there is a setting that I need to add, an option that I'm not passing in, or anything that I've overlooked. I am on a dev server, and I'm linking back to the live site for now. Perhaps the ContactURL and the base URL of the liked page need to be the same in order to get commenting to work? Here's how I'm embedding the facebook like button: <!-- facebook --> <div id="fb-root"></div> <script type="text/javascript"> window.fbAsyncInit = function() { FB.init({appId: 'XXXXXXXXXXXXXX', status: true, cookie: true, xfbml: true}); }; (function() { var e = document.createElement('script'); e.async = true; e.src = document.location.protocol + '//connect.facebook.net/en_US/all.js'; document.getElementById('fb-root').appendChild(e); }()); </script> <!-- facebook --> ... <fb:like href="example.com" layout="button_count" show_faces="false" width="100" colorscheme="dark"></fb:like>

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 469 470 471 472 473 474 475 476 477 478 479 480  | Next Page >