Search Results

Search found 12768 results on 511 pages for 'little snitch'.

Page 474/511 | < Previous Page | 470 471 472 473 474 475 476 477 478 479 480 481  | Next Page >

  • A question about making a C# class persistant during a file load

    - by Adam
    Apologies for the indescriptive title, however it's the best I could think of for the moment. Basically, I've written a singleton class that loads files into a database. These files are typically large, and take hours to process. What I am looking for is to make a method where I can have this class running, and be able to call methods from within it, even if it's calling class is shut down. The singleton class is simple. It starts a thread that loads the file into the database, while having methods to report on the current status. In a nutshell it's al little like this: public sealed class BulkFileLoader { static BulkFileLoader instance = null; int currentCount = 0; BulkFileLoader() public static BulkFileLoader Instance { // Instanciate the instance class if necessary, and return it } public void Go() { // kick of 'ProcessFile' thread } public void GetCurrentCount() { return currentCount; } private void ProcessFile() { while (more rows in the import file) { // insert the row into the database currentCount++; } } } The idea is that you can get an instance of BulkFileLoader to execute, which will process a file to load, while at any time you can get realtime updates on the number of rows its done so far using the GetCurrentCount() method. This works fine, except the calling class needs to stay open the whole time for the processing to continue. As soon as I stop the calling class, the BulkFileLoader instance is removed, and it stops processing the file. What I am after is a solution where it will continue to run independently, regardless of what happens to the calling class. I then tried another approach. I created a simple console application that kicks off the BulkFileLoader, and then wrapped it around as a process. This fixes one problem, since now when I kick off the process, the file will continue to load even if I close the class that called the process. However, now the problem I have is that cannot get updates on the current count, since if I try and get the instance of BulkFileLoader (which, as mentioned before is a singleton), it creates a new instance, rather than returning the instance that is currently in the executing process. It would appear that singletons don't extend into the scope of other processes running on the machine. In the end, I want to be able to kick off the BulkFileLoader, and at any time be able to find out how many rows it's processed. However, that is even if I close the application I used to start it. Can anyone see a solution to my problem?

    Read the article

  • How would I add an if statement into MSQLI query?

    - by Josh
    Okay so I'm just learning mysqli and I'm having a little trouble putting this code together. I've posted the mysqli query below and then below that is the code I'm trying to combine with the mysqli query and I can't seem to get it to work. Maybe what I'm doing isn't possible, but the third section below is how I had the query written for mysql and it's working fine. Answers in code are appreciated! Thanks! MYSQLI QUERY: <?php require("../config.php"); if ($stmt = $mysqli->prepare("SELECT firstname,lastname,spousefirst,phonecell,email,date,contacttype,status FROM contacts WHERE contacttype IN ('Buyer','Seller','Buyer / Seller','Investor') ORDER BY date DESC")) { $stmt->execute(); $stmt->bind_results($firstname,$lastname,$spousefirst,$phonecell,$email,$date,$contacttype,$status); while ($stmt->fetch()) { echo ''.$firstname.' '." ".' '.$lastname.' '.",".' '.$spousefirst.' '.",".' '.$phonecell.' '.",".' '.$email.' '.",".' '.$date.' '.",".' '.$contacttype.' '.",".' '.$status.'</br>'; } $stmt->close(); } $mysqli->close(); ?> WHAT I'M TRYING TO COMBINE THE ABOVE WITH: if (($_GET['date'] == 'today')) { $sql = "SELECT * FROM contacts WHERE contacttype IN ('Buyer','Seller','Buyer / Seller','Investor') AND date = DATE(NOW()) ORDER BY date DESC"; } WHAT I HAD BEFORE WITH MYSQL THAT WORKS: <?php require("../config.php"); $sql = "SELECT * FROM contacts WHERE contacttype IN ('Buyer','Seller','Buyer / Seller','Investor') AND status = 'New' ORDER BY date DESC"; if (($_GET['date'] == 'today')) { $sql = "SELECT * FROM contacts WHERE contacttype IN ('Buyer','Seller','Buyer / Seller','Investor') AND date = DATE(NOW()) ORDER BY date DESC"; } ?>

    Read the article

  • Sum Values in Multidimensional Array

    - by lemonpole
    Hello all. I'm experimenting with arrays in PHP and I am setting up a fake environment where a "team's" record is held in arrays. $t1 = array ( "basicInfo" => array ( "The Sineps", "December 25, 2010", "lemonpole" ), "overallRecord" => array ( 0, 0, 0, 0 ), "overallSeasons" => array ( "season1.cs" => array (0, 0, 0), "season2.cs" => array (0, 0, 0) ), "matches" => array ( "season1.cs" => array ( "week1" => array ("12", "3", "1"), "week2" => array ("8", "8" ,"0"), "week3" => array ("8", "8" ,"0") ), "season2.cs" => array ( "week1" => array ("9", "2", "5"), "week2" => array ("12", "2" ,"2") ) ) ); What I am trying to achieve is to add all the wins, loss, and draws, from each season's week to their respective week. So for example, the sum of all the weeks in $t1["matches"]["season1.cs"] will be added to $t1["overallSeasons"]["season1.cs"]. The result would leave: "overallSeasons" => array ( "season1.cs" => array (28, 19, 1), "season2.cs" => array (21, 4, 7) ), I tried to work this out on my own for the past hour and all I have gotten is a little more knowledge of for-loops and foreach-loops :o... so I think I now have the basics down such as using foreach loops and so on; however, I am still fairly new to this so bear with me! I can get the loop to point to $t1["matches"] key and go through each season but I can't seem to figure out how to add all of the wins, loss, and draw, for each individual week. For now, I'm only looking for answers concerning the overall seasons sum since I can work from there once I figure out how to achieve this. Any help will be much appreciated but please, try and keep it simple for me... or comment the code accordingly please! Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Why does obj.getBounds().height give a larger height than obj.height?

    - by TC
    I'm new to Flash and ActionScript, but managing quite nicely. One thing that is continuously getting in my way are the width and height properties of DisplayObject(Container)s. I'm finally starting to get my head around them and learned that the width and height of a Sprite are determined solely by their contents for example. I do not understand the following though: I've got a Sprite that I add a bunch of Buttons to. The buttons all have a height of 30 and an y of 0. As such, I'd expect the height of the containing Sprite to be 30. Surprisingly, the height is 100. The Adobe documentation of the height property of a DisplayObject states: Indicates the height of the display object, in pixels. The height is calculated based on the bounds of the content of the display object. Apparently, the 'bounds' of the object are important. So I went ahead and wrote this little test in the Sprite that contains the Buttons: for (var i:int = 0; i < numChildren; ++i) { trace("Y: " + getChildAt(i).y + " H: " + getChildAt(i).height); trace("BOUNDS H: " + getChildAt(i).getBounds(this).height); } trace("SCALEY: " + scaleY + " TOTAL HEIGHT: " + height); This code iterates through all the objects that are added to its display list and shows their y, height and getBounds().height values. Surprisingly, the output is: Y: 0 H: 30 BOUNDS H: 100 ... (5x) SCALEY: 1 TOTAL HEIGHT: 100 This shows that the bounds of the buttons are actually larger than their height (and the height that they appear to be, visually). I have no clue why this is the case however. So my questions are: Why are the bounds of my buttons larger than their height? How can I set the bounds of my buttons so that my Sprite isn't larger than I'd expect it to be based on the position and size of the objects it contains? By the way, the buttons are created as follows: var control:Button = new Button(); control.setSize(90, 30); addChild(control);

    Read the article

  • Have main thread wait for a boost thread complete a task (but not finish).

    - by JAKE6459
    I have found plenty on making one thread wait for another to finish executing before continuing, but that is not what I wanted to do. I am not very familiar with using any multi-threading apis but right now I'm trying to learn boost. My situation is that I am using my main thread (the starting one from int main()) to create an instance of a class that is in charge of interacting with the main GUI. A class function is then called that creates a boost thread which in turn creates the GUI and runs the message pump. The thing I want to do is when my main thread calls the classes member function to create the GUI, I don't want that function to return until I tell it to from the newly created thread. This way my main thread can't continue and call more functions from the GUI class that interact with the GUI thread until that thread has completed GUI creation and entered the message loop. I think I may be able to figure it out if it was multiple boost thread objects interacting with each other, but when it is the main thread (non-boost object) interacting with a boost thread object, I get lost. Eventually I want a loop in my main thread to call a class function (among other tasks) to check if the user as entered any new input into the GUI (buy any changes detected by the message loop being updated into a struct and changing a bool to tell the main thread in the class function a change has occurred). Any suggestions for any of this would be greatly appreciated. This is the member function called by the main thread. int ANNGUI::CreateGUI() { GUIMain = new Main(); GUIThread = new boost::thread(boost::bind(&Main::MainThreadFunc, GUIMain)); return 0; }; This is the boost thread starting function. void Main::MainThreadFunc() { ANNVariables = new GUIVariables; WndProc = new WindowProcedure; ANNWindowsClass = new WindowsClass(ANNVariables, WndProc); ANNWindow = new MainWindow(ANNVariables); GUIMessagePump = new MessagePump; ANNWindow-ShowWindows(); while(true) { GUIMessagePump-ProcessMessage(); } }; BTW, everything compiles fine and when I run it, it works I just put a sleep() in the main thread so I can play with the GUI a little.

    Read the article

  • Is it possible to start (and stop) a thread inside a DLL?

    - by Jerry Dodge
    I'm pondering some ideas for building a DLL for some common stuff I do. One thing I'd like to check if it's possible is running a thread inside of a DLL. I'm sure I would be able to at least start it, and have it automatically free on terminate (and make it forcefully terminate its self) - that I can see wouldn't be much of a problem. But once I start it, I don't see how I can continue communicating with it (especially to stop it) mainly because each call to the DLL is unique (as far as my knowledge tells me) but I also know very little of the subject. I've seen how in some occasions, a DLL can be loaded at the beginning and released at the end when it's not needed anymore. I have 0 knowledge or experience with this method, other than just seeing something related to it, couldn't even tell you what or how, I don't remember. But is this even possible? I know about ActiveX/COM but that is not what I want - I'd like just a basic DLL that can be used across languages (specifically C#). Also, if it is possible, then how would I go about doing callbacks from the DLL to the app? For example, when I start the thread, I most probably will assign a function (which is inside the EXE) to be the handler for the events (which are triggered from the DLL). So I guess what I'm asking is - how to load a DLL for continuous work and release it when I'm done - as opposed to the simple method of calling individual functions in the DLL as needed. In the same case - I might assign variables or create objects inside the DLL. How can I assure that once I assign that variable (or create the object), how can I make sure that variable or object will still be available the next time I call the DLL? Obviously it would require a mechanism to Initialize/Finalize the DLL (I.E. create the objects inside the DLL when the DLL is loaded, and free the objects when the DLL is unloaded). EDIT: In the end, I will wrap the DLL inside of a component, so when an instance of the component is created, DLL will be loaded and a corresponding thread will be created inside the DLL, then when the component is free'd, the DLL is unloaded. Also need to make sure that if there are for example 2 of these components, that there will be 2 instances of the DLL loaded for each component. Is this in any way related to the use of an IInterface? Because I also have 0 experience with this. No need to answer it directly with sample source code - a link to a good tutorial would be great.

    Read the article

  • Declare Ajax-webservicecall OnSuccess method anonymous.

    - by user333113
    I write a lot of ajax javascript code and have a little design problem which I'm not totally satisfied with. A lot of times I end up with writing something like this: var typeOfPopup; function RetrievePopupContent(_typeOfPopup) { switch (_typeOfPopup) { case Popup1: WebService.RetrievePopup1Content(param1, param2, DisplayPopup, OnError); break; case Popup2: WebService.RetrievePopup2Content(param1, param2, DisplayPopup, OnError); break; } typeOfPopup = _typeOfPopup; } function DisplayPopup(result) { switch (typeOfPopup) { case Popup1: $get('Popup1').innerHTML = result; break; case Popup2: $get('Popup2').innerHTML = result; break; } Allright. This is a simplified example of what I mean. Often I end up with a lot worse code I believe. What I don't like is the global state variabel outside the functions. One solution I wasn't thinking about when writing this code is to send a context object. I believe you could write something like this: function RetrievePopupContent(typeOfPopup) { switch (typeOfPopup) { case Popup1: WebService.RetrievePopup1Content(param1, param2, DisplayPopup, OnError, typeOfPopup); break; case Popup2: WebService.RetrievePopup2Content(param1, param2, DisplayPopup, OnError, typeOfPopup); break; } } function DisplayPopup(result, typeOfPopup) { switch (typeOfPopup) { case Popup1: $get('Popup1').innerHTML = result; break; case Popup2: $get('Popup2').innerHTML = result; break; } Is this the recommended way? What I also want to do is to be able to write something like this: function RetrievePopupContent(typeOfPopup) { switch (typeOfPopup) { case Popup1: WebService.RetrievePopup1Content(param1, param2, new function(result) { $get('Popup1').innerHTML = result; }, OnError); break; case Popup2: WebService.RetrievePopup2Content(param1, param2, new function(result) { $get('Popup2').innerHTML = result; }, OnError); break; } } Is this possible at all? To declare the callback function anonymous? I am grateful for all opinions on the two options I mentioned myself and also new alternatives to get rid of my global variables I have used this way.

    Read the article

  • How do I overlay text on an image who's size is to be set?

    - by Mike
    I am trying to make a bar chart using tables, which I have almost accomplished to my liking. The last step I want is text over my image which represents the bar. Here is the code I have thus far for building my little bar charts: $height = 50; //build length $width = 450; $multi = $brewAvg / 5; $width = $width * $multi; print " <tr > <td > $count. <a href=\"$breweryURL\"> $brewR</a> </td> <td > <img src=\"blueBar.png\" width=\"$width\" height=\"$height\"> </td> </tr> "; And this produces something like this: You can see in the code how I simply calculate the length of the bar based on a breweries rating. What I want to do next is have the rating number show on top of each breweries on the left hand side. How would I go about accomplishing this? Update: I tried a tutorial I read here: http://www.kavoir.com/2009/02/css-text-over-image.html and I changed my code to this: print "<div class=\"overlay\"> "; print " <tr valign=\"middle\" > <td > $count. <a href=\"$breweryURL\"> $brewR</a> </td> <td > <img src=\"blueBar.png\" width=\"$width\" height=\"$height\"> </td> </tr> "; print" <div class=\"text\"> <p> $brewAvg </p> </div> </div> "; And my css I added was this: <style> .overlay { position:relative; float:left; /* optional */ } .overlay .text { position:absolute; top:10px; /* in conjunction with left property, decides the text position */ left:10px; width:300px; /* optional, though better have one */ } </style> And it did put any of the value son top of my images. All the text is in a list above all the bars like this:

    Read the article

  • Indexing on only part of a field in MongoDB

    - by Rob Hoare
    Is there a way to create an index on only part of a field in MongoDB, for example on the first 10 characters? I couldn't find it documented (or asked about on here). The MySQL equivalent would be CREATE INDEX part_of_name ON customer (name(10));. Reason: I have a collection with a single field that varies in length from a few characters up to over 1000 characters, average 50 characters. As there are a hundred million or so documents it's going to be hard to fit the full index in memory (testing with 8% of the data the index is already 400MB, according to stats). Indexing just the first part of the field would reduce the index size by about 75%. In most cases the search term is quite short, it's not a full-text search. A work-around would be to add a second field of 10 (lowercased) characters for each item, index that, then add logic to filter the results if the search term is over ten characters (and that extra field is probably needed anyway for case-insensitive searches, unless anybody has a better way). Seems like an ugly way to do it though. [added later] I tried adding the second field, containing the first 12 characters from the main field, lowercased. It wasn't a big success. Previously, the average object size was 50 bytes, but I forgot that includes the _id and other overheads, so my main field length (there was only one) averaged nearer to 30 bytes than 50. Then, the second field index contains the _id and other overheads. Net result (for my 8% sample) is the index on the main field is 415MB and on the 12 byte field is 330MB - only a 20% saving in space, not worthwhile. I could duplicate the entire field (to work around the case insensitive search problem) but realistically it looks like I should reconsider whether MongoDB is the right tool for the job (or just buy more memory and use twice as much disk space). [added even later] This is a typical document, with the source field, and the short lowercased field: { "_id" : ObjectId("505d0e89f56588f20f000041"), "q" : "Continental Airlines", "f" : "continental " } Indexes: db.test.ensureIndex({q:1}); db.test.ensureIndex({f:1}); The 'f" index, working on a shorter field, is 80% of the size of the "q" index. I didn't mean to imply I included the _id in the index, just that it needs to use that somewhere to show where the index will point to, so it's an overhead that probably helps explain why a shorter key makes so little difference. Access to the index will be essentially random, no part of it is more likely to be accessed than any other. Total index size for the full file will likely be 5GB, so it's not extreme for that one index. Adding some other fields for other search cases, and their associated indexes, and copies of data for lower case, does start to add up, which I why I started looking into a more concise index.

    Read the article

  • Javascript click function for multiple Classes

    - by Jason Bassett
    So basically I have this little social networking site which allow comments. I've built a comment section that will slide down once a user clicks "Comment" and it slides down under the users status. My problem is that right now, the JavaScript only works on ONE post ID, and not the rest obviously seeing you can only use an ID once. But of course if I use classes instead, All the comment sections slide down because now they're all the same class. See below for my HTML and JavaScript. So if someone has a better method out there, please help :) $(function () { $(".comment-box").slideUp(); //when "comment" is clicked, slide down the comment box. if ($(".comment-box-btn").click(function () { $(".comment-box").slideDown(); })); //when "cancel" is clicked, slide up the comment box. if ($(".close-comment-box").click(function () { $(".comment-box").slideUp() })); }); And here's the HTML used //anchor for "Comment" <a class="comment-box-btn" href="#"><i class="icon-comment"></i> Comment</a> //comment box <div class="row comment-box" style="display:none;"> <div class="col-md-12"> <form accept-charset="UTF-8" action="" method="post"> <textarea class="form-control animated" cols="180" id="new-comment" name="comment" placeholder="Comment.." rows="1"></textarea> <div class="text-right" style="margin-top:20px;"> <a class="btn btn-default close-comment-box" href="#"> <span class="glyphicon glyphicon-remove"></span> Cancel</a> <button class="btn btn-info" type="submit">Comment</button> </div> </form> </div> </div>

    Read the article

  • More efficient SQL than using "A UNION (B in A)"?

    - by machinatus
    Edit 1 (clarification): Thank you for the answers so far! The response is gratifying. I want to clarify the question a little because based on the answers I think I did not describe one aspect of the problem correctly (and I'm sure that's my fault as I was having a difficult time defining it even for myself). Here's the rub: The result set should contain ONLY the records with tstamp BETWEEN '2010-01-03' AND '2010-01-09', AND the one record where the tstamp IS NULL for each order_num in the first set (there will always be one with null tstamp for each order_num). The answers given so far appear to include all records for a certain order_num if there are any with tstamp BETWEEN '2010-01-03' AND '2010-01-09'. For example, if there were another record with order_num = 2 and tstamp = 2010-01-12 00:00:00 it should not be included in the result. Original question: Consider an orders table containing id (unique), order_num, tstamp (a timestamp), and item_id (the single item included in an order). tstamp is null, unless the order has been modified, in which case there is another record with identical order_num and tstamp then contains the timestamp of when the change occurred. Example... id order_num tstamp item_id __ _________ ___________________ _______ 0 1 100 1 2 101 2 2 2010-01-05 12:34:56 102 3 3 113 4 4 124 5 5 135 6 5 2010-01-07 01:23:45 136 7 5 2010-01-07 02:46:00 137 8 6 100 9 6 2010-01-13 08:33:55 105 What is the most efficient SQL statement to retrieve all of the orders (based on order_num) which have been modified one or more times during a certain date range? In other words, for each order we need all of the records with the same order_num (including the one with NULL tstamp), for each order_num WHERE at least one of the order_num's has tstamp NOT NULL AND tstamp BETWEEN '2010-01-03' AND '2010-01-09'. It's the "WHERE at least one of the order_num's has tstamp NOT NULL" that I'm having difficulty with. The result set should look like this: id order_num tstamp item_id __ _________ ___________________ _______ 1 2 101 2 2 2010-01-05 12:34:56 102 5 5 135 6 5 2010-01-07 01:23:45 136 7 5 2010-01-07 02:46:00 137 The SQL that I came up with is this, which is essentially "A UNION (B in A)", but it executes slowly and I hope there is a more efficient solution: SELECT history_orders.order_id, history_orders.tstamp, history_orders.item_id FROM (SELECT orders.order_id, orders.tstamp, orders.item_id FROM orders WHERE orders.tstamp BETWEEN '2010-01-03' AND '2010-01-09') AS history_orders UNION SELECT current_orders.order_id, current_orders.tstamp, current_orders.item_id FROM (SELECT orders.order_id, orders.tstamp, orders.item_id FROM orders WHERE orders.tstamp IS NULL) AS current_orders WHERE current_orders.order_id IN (SELECT orders.order_id FROM orders WHERE orders.tstamp BETWEEN '2010-01-03' AND '2010-01-09');

    Read the article

  • IO::Pipe - close(<handle>) does not set $?

    - by danboo
    My understanding is that closing the handle for an IO::Pipe object should be done with the method ($fh->close) and not the built-in (close($fh)). The other day I goofed and used the built-in out of habit on a IO::Pipe object that was opened to a command that I expected to fail. I was surprised when $? was zero, and my error checking wasn't triggered. I realized my mistake. If I use the built-in, IO:Pipe can't perform the waitpid() and can't set $?. But what I was surprised by was that perl seemed to still close the pipe without setting $? via the core. I worked up a little test script to show what I mean: use 5.012; use warnings; use IO::Pipe; say 'init pipes:'; pipes(); my $fh = IO::Pipe->reader(q(false)); say 'post open pipes:'; pipes(); say 'return: ' . $fh->close; #say 'return: ' . close($fh); say 'status: ' . $?; say q(); say 'post close pipes:'; pipes(); sub pipes { for my $fd ( glob("/proc/self/fd/*") ) { say readlink($fd) if -p $fd; } say q(); } When using the method it shows the pipe being gone after the close and $? is set as I expected: init pipes: post open pipes: pipe:[992006] return: 1 status: 256 post close pipes: And, when using the built-in it also appears to close the pipe, but does not set $?: init pipes: post open pipes: pipe:[952618] return: 1 status: 0 post close pipes: It seems odd to me that the built-in results in the pipe closure, but doesn't set $?. Can anyone help explain the discrepancy? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Storing an Image with php?

    - by Chris
    I'm trying to store an Image in my website so I can use it easily but I found this php code from here and I can't quite make much sense of it.. I'm just starting php and I dont quite know what to change and what to keep.. I'd greatly appreciate it if you could explain this a little better for me, thanks. <?php $allowedExts = array("jpg", "jpeg", "gif", "png"); $extension = end(explode(".", $_FILES["file"]["name"])); if ((($_FILES["file"]["type"] == "image/gif") || ($_FILES["file"]["type"] == "image/jpeg") || ($_FILES["file"]["type"] == "image/png") || ($_FILES["file"]["type"] == "image/pjpeg")) && ($_FILES["file"]["size"] < 20000) && in_array($extension, $allowedExts)) { if ($_FILES["file"]["error"] > 0) { echo "Return Code: " . $_FILES["file"]["error"] . "<br />"; } else { echo "Upload: " . $_FILES["file"]["name"] . "<br />"; echo "Type: " . $_FILES["file"]["type"] . "<br />"; echo "Size: " . ($_FILES["file"]["size"] / 1024) . " Kb<br />"; echo "Temp file: " . $_FILES["file"]["tmp_name"] . "<br />"; if (file_exists("upload/" . $_FILES["file"]["name"])) { echo $_FILES["file"]["name"] . " already exists. "; } else { move_uploaded_file($_FILES["file"]["tmp_name"], "upload/" . $_FILES["file"]["name"]); echo "Stored in: " . "upload/" . $_FILES["file"]["name"]; } } } else { echo "Invalid file"; } ?>

    Read the article

  • Postfix - am I sending spam?

    - by olrehm
    today I received like 30 messages within 5 minutes telling me that some mail I send could not be delivered, mostly to *.ru email addresses which I did not send any mail to. I have my own webserver (postfix/dovecot) set up using this guide (http://workaround.org/ispmail/lenny) but adjusted a little bit for Ubuntu. I tested whether I am an Open Relay which I am apparently not. Now there are two possible reasons for the above mentioned emails: Either I am sending out spam, or somebody wants me to think that, correct? How can I check this? I selected one particular address that I supposedly send spam to. Then I searched my mail.log for this entry. I found two blocks that record that somebody from the server connected to my server and delivered some message to two different users. I cannot find an entry reporting that anyone from my server send an email to that server. Does this mean its just some mail to scare me or could it still have been send by me in the first place? Here is one such block from the log (I replaced some confidential stuff): Jun 26 23:23:28 mycustomernumber postfix/smtpd[29970]: connect from mx.webstyle.ru[195.144.251.97] Jun 26 23:23:29 mycustomernumber postfix/smtpd[29970]: 044991528995: client=mx.webstyle.ru[195.144.251.97] Jun 26 23:23:29 mycustomernumber postfix/cleanup[29974]: 044991528995: message-id=<[email protected]> Jun 26 23:23:29 mycustomernumber postfix/qmgr[3369]: 044991528995: from=<>, size=2198, nrcpt=1 (queue active) Jun 26 23:23:29 mycustomernumber amavis[28598]: (28598-11) ESMTP::10024 /var/lib/amavis/tmp/amavis-20110626T223137-28598: <> -> <[email protected]> SIZE=2198 Received: from mycustomernumber.stratoserver.net ([127.0.0.1]) by localhost (rehmsen.de [127.0.0.1]) (amavisd-new, port 10024) with ESMTP for <[email protected]>; Sun, 26 Jun 2011 23:23:29 +0200 (CEST) Jun 26 23:23:29 mycustomernumber amavis[28598]: (28598-11) Checking: YakjkrdFq6A8 [195.144.251.97] <> -> <[email protected]> Jun 26 23:23:29 mycustomernumber postfix/smtpd[29970]: disconnect from mx.webstyle.ru[195.144.251.97] Jun 26 23:23:29 mycustomernumber amavis[28598]: (28598-11) lookup_sql_field(id) (WARN: no such field in the SQL table), "[email protected]" result=undef Jun 26 23:23:32 mycustomernumber postfix/smtpd[29979]: connect from localhost.localdomain[127.0.0.1] Jun 26 23:23:32 mycustomernumber postfix/smtpd[29979]: 0A1FA1528A21: client=localhost.localdomain[127.0.0.1] Jun 26 23:23:32 mycustomernumber postfix/cleanup[29974]: 0A1FA1528A21: message-id=<[email protected]> Jun 26 23:23:32 mycustomernumber postfix/qmgr[3369]: 0A1FA1528A21: from=<>, size=2841, nrcpt=1 (queue active) Jun 26 23:23:32 mycustomernumber postfix/smtpd[29979]: disconnect from localhost.localdomain[127.0.0.1] Jun 26 23:23:32 mycustomernumber amavis[28598]: (28598-11) FWD via SMTP: <> -> <[email protected]>,BODY=7BIT 250 2.0.0 Ok, id=28598-11, from MTA([127.0.0.1]:10025): 250 2.0.0 Ok: queued as 0A1FA1528A21 Jun 26 23:23:32 mycustomernumber amavis[28598]: (28598-11) Passed CLEAN, [195.144.251.97] [195.144.251.97] <> -> <[email protected]>, Message-ID: <[email protected]>, mail_id: YakjkrdFq6A8, Hits: 2.249, size: 2197, queued_as: 0A1FA1528A21, 2882 ms Jun 26 23:23:32 mycustomernumber postfix/smtp[29975]: 044991528995: to=<[email protected]>, relay=127.0.0.1[127.0.0.1]:10024, delay=3.3, delays=0.39/0.01/0.01/2.9, dsn=2.0.0, status=sent (250 2.0.0 Ok, id=28598-11, from MTA([127.0.0.1]:10025): 250 2.0.0 Ok: queued as 0A1FA1528A21) Jun 26 23:23:32 mycustomernumber postfix/qmgr[3369]: 044991528995: removed Jun 26 23:23:33 mycustomernumber postfix/smtp[29980]: 0A1FA1528A21: to=<[email protected]>, orig_to=<[email protected]>, relay=mx3.hotmail.com[65.54.188.110]:25, delay=1.2, delays=0.15/0.02/0.51/0.55, dsn=2.0.0, status=sent (250 <[email protected]> Queued mail for delivery) Jun 26 23:23:33 mycustomernumber postfix/qmgr[3369]: 0A1FA1528A21: removed Jun 26 23:26:49 mycustomernumber postfix/anvil[29972]: statistics: max connection rate 1/60s for (smtp:195.144.251.97) at Jun 26 23:23:28 Jun 26 23:26:49 mycustomernumber postfix/anvil[29972]: statistics: max connection count 1 for (smtp:195.144.251.97) at Jun 26 23:23:28 Jun 26 23:26:49 mycustomernumber postfix/anvil[29972]: statistics: max cache size 1 at Jun 26 23:23:28 I can provide more info if you tell me what you need to know. Thank you for you help!

    Read the article

  • Slow login to load-balanced Terminal Server 2008 behind Gateway Server

    - by Frans
    I have a small load-balanced (using Session Broker) Terminal Server 2008 farm behind a Gateway Server which is accessed from the Internet. The problem I have is that there is a delay of 20-30 seconds if the session broker switches the user to another server during login. I think this is related to the fact that I am forcing the security layer to be RDP rather than SSL. The background The Gateway server has a public routeable IP addres and DNS name so it can be accessed from the Internet and all users come in via this route (the system is used to provide access to hosted applications to external customers). The actual terminal servers only have internal IP addresses. This works really well, except that with a Vista or Windows 7 client, the Remote Desktop client will negotiate with the server to use SSL for the security layer. This then exposes the auto-generated certificate that TS1 or TS2 has - but since they are internal, auto-generated certificates, the client will get a stern warning that the certificate is not valid. I can't give the servers a properly authorised certificate as the servers do not have public routeable IP address or DNS name. Instead, I am using Group Policy to force the connections to be over RDP instead of SSL. \Computer Configuration\Policies\Administrative Templates\Windows Components\Terminal Services\Terminal Server\Security\Require use of specific security layer for remote (RDP) connections The Windows 7 user now gets a much less stern warning that "the server's identity cannot be confirmed" which I can live with. I don't have enough control over the end-user's machines to ask them to install a new root certificate either. TS1 and TS2 are also load-balanced using the Session Broker, which is installed on the Gateway Server. I am using round-robin DNS, so the user's initial connection will go via Gateway1 to either TS1 or TS2. TS1/TS2 will then talk to the session broker and may pass the user to the other server. I.e. the user may get connected to TS2, but after talking to the session broker the user may be passed to TS1, which is where they will run their session. When this switching of servers happens, in my setup, the screen sits with the word "Welcome" for 20-30 seconds after which it flickers, Welcome is shown again and then flashing through nthe normal login screens (i.e. "wait for user profile manager" etc). Having done some research, I think what is happening is that the user is being fully logged on to TS2 (while "Welcome" is shown) before being passed to TS1, where they are then logged in again. It is interesting that normally when you see the ""Welcome" word, the little circle to left rotates. However, it does not rotate during this delay - the screen just looks frozen. This blog post leads me to think that this is because CredSSP is not being used, probably because I am disallowing SSL and forcing RDP. What I have tried I enabled SSL again which removes the "Welcome" delay. However, it seems to introduc a new delay much earlier in the process. Specifically, when the RDP client is saying "initialising connection" - this is now much slower. Quite apart from the fact that my certificate problem precludes me using that solution without considerable difficulty. I tried disabling the load balancing (just remove the servers from the session broker farm) and the connections do not have any delay. The problem is also intermittent in the sense that it only happens when the user gets bumped from one server to another. I tested this by trying to connect directly to TS1 (via the Gateway, of course) and then checking which server I actually got connected to. Just to be sure, I also by-passed the round-robin DNS to see if it had any impact and it doesn't. The setup is essentially in line with MS recommendations here: TS Session Broker Load Balancing Step-by-Step Guide I tried changing to using a dedicated redirector. Basically, rather than using a round-robin DNS, I pointed my DNS to the Gateway server and configured it to be a dedicated redirector (disallow logons, add it to the farm). Same problem, alas. Any ideas or suggestions gratefully received.

    Read the article

  • How do I stop and repair a RAID 5 array that has failed and has I/O pending?

    - by Ben Hymers
    The short version: I have a failed RAID 5 array which has a bunch of processes hung waiting on I/O operations on it; how can I recover from this? The long version: Yesterday I noticed Samba access was being very sporadic; accessing the server's shares from Windows would randomly lock up explorer completely after clicking on one or two directories. I assumed it was Windows being a pain and left it. Today the problem is the same, so I did a little digging; the first thing I noticed was that running ps aux | grep smbd gives a lot of lines like this: ben 969 0.0 0.2 96088 4128 ? D 18:21 0:00 smbd -F root 1708 0.0 0.2 93468 4748 ? Ss 18:44 0:00 smbd -F root 1711 0.0 0.0 93468 1364 ? S 18:44 0:00 smbd -F ben 3148 0.0 0.2 96052 4160 ? D Mar07 0:00 smbd -F ... There are a lot of processes stuck in the "D" state. Running ps aux | grep " D" shows up some other processes including my nightly backup script, all of which need to access the volume mounted on my RAID array at some point. After some googling, I found that it might be down to the RAID array failing, so I checked /proc/mdstat, which shows this: ben@jack:~$ cat /proc/mdstat Personalities : [linear] [multipath] [raid0] [raid1] [raid6] [raid5] [raid4] [raid10] md0 : active raid5 sdb1[3](F) sdc1[1] sdd1[2] 2930271872 blocks level 5, 64k chunk, algorithm 2 [3/2] [_UU] unused devices: <none> And running mdadm --detail /dev/md0 gives this: ben@jack:~$ sudo mdadm --detail /dev/md0 /dev/md0: Version : 00.90 Creation Time : Sat Oct 31 20:53:10 2009 Raid Level : raid5 Array Size : 2930271872 (2794.53 GiB 3000.60 GB) Used Dev Size : 1465135936 (1397.26 GiB 1500.30 GB) Raid Devices : 3 Total Devices : 3 Preferred Minor : 0 Persistence : Superblock is persistent Update Time : Mon Mar 7 03:06:35 2011 State : active, degraded Active Devices : 2 Working Devices : 2 Failed Devices : 1 Spare Devices : 0 Layout : left-symmetric Chunk Size : 64K UUID : f114711a:c770de54:c8276759:b34deaa0 Events : 0.208245 Number Major Minor RaidDevice State 3 8 17 0 faulty spare rebuilding /dev/sdb1 1 8 33 1 active sync /dev/sdc1 2 8 49 2 active sync /dev/sdd1 I believe this says that sdb1 has failed, and so the array is running with two drives out of three 'up'. Some advice I found said to check /var/log/messages for notices of failures, and sure enough there are plenty: ben@jack:~$ grep sdb /var/log/messages ... Mar 7 03:06:35 jack kernel: [4525155.384937] md/raid:md0: read error NOT corrected!! (sector 400644912 on sdb1). Mar 7 03:06:35 jack kernel: [4525155.389686] md/raid:md0: read error not correctable (sector 400644920 on sdb1). Mar 7 03:06:35 jack kernel: [4525155.389686] md/raid:md0: read error not correctable (sector 400644928 on sdb1). Mar 7 03:06:35 jack kernel: [4525155.389688] md/raid:md0: read error not correctable (sector 400644936 on sdb1). Mar 7 03:06:56 jack kernel: [4525176.231603] sd 0:0:1:0: [sdb] Unhandled sense code Mar 7 03:06:56 jack kernel: [4525176.231605] sd 0:0:1:0: [sdb] Result: hostbyte=DID_OK driverbyte=DRIVER_SENSE Mar 7 03:06:56 jack kernel: [4525176.231608] sd 0:0:1:0: [sdb] Sense Key : Medium Error [current] [descriptor] Mar 7 03:06:56 jack kernel: [4525176.231623] sd 0:0:1:0: [sdb] Add. Sense: Unrecovered read error - auto reallocate failed Mar 7 03:06:56 jack kernel: [4525176.231627] sd 0:0:1:0: [sdb] CDB: Read(10): 28 00 17 e1 5f bf 00 01 00 00 To me it is clear that device sdb has failed, and I need to stop the array, shutdown, replace it, reboot, then repair the array, bring it back up and mount the filesystem. I cannot hot-swap a replacement drive in, and don't want to leave the array running in a degraded state. I believe I am supposed to unmount the filesystem before stopping the array, but that is failing, and that is where I'm stuck now: ben@jack:~$ sudo umount /storage umount: /storage: device is busy. (In some cases useful info about processes that use the device is found by lsof(8) or fuser(1)) It is indeed busy; there are some 30 or 40 processes waiting on I/O. What should I do? Should I kill all these processes and try again? Is that a wise move when they are 'uninterruptable'? What would happen if I tried to reboot? Please let me know what you think I should do. And please ask if you need any extra information to diagnose the problem or to help!

    Read the article

  • Strange DNS issue with internal Windows DNS

    - by Brady
    I've encountered a strange issue with our internal Windows DNS infrastructure. We have a website hosted on Amazon EC2 with the DNS running on Amazon Route 53. In the publicly facing DNS we have the wildcard record setup as an A record Alias pointing to an AWS Elastic Load Balancer sitting in front of our EC2 instances. For those who are not aware, the A record Alias behaves like a CNAME record, however no extra lookup is required on the client side (See http://docs.amazonwebservices.com/Route53/latest/DeveloperGuide/CreatingAliasRRSets.html for more information). We have a secondary domain that has the www subdomain as a CNAME pointing to a subdomain on the primary domain, which resolves against the wildcard entry. For example the subdomain www.secondary.com is a CNAME to sub1.primary.com, but there is no explicit entry for sub1.primary.com, so it resolves to wildcard record. This setup work without issue publicly. The issue comes in our internal DNS at our corporate office where we use the same primary domain for some internal only facing sites. In this setup we have two Active Directory DNS servers with one Server 2003 and one Server 2008 R2 instance. The zone is an AD integrated zone, but it is not the AD domain. In the internal DNS we have the wildcard record pointing to a third external domain, that is also hosted on Route 53 with an A record Alias pointing to the same ELB instance. For example, *.primary.com is a CNAME to tertiary.com, so in effect you have www.secondary.com as a CNAME to *.primary.com, which is a CNAME to tertiary.com. In this setup, attempting to resolve www.secondary.com will fail. Clearing the cache on the Server 2003 instance will allow it to resolve once, but subsequent attempts will fail. It fails even with a clean cache against the 2008 R2 server. It seems that only Windows clients are affected. A Mac running OSX Mountain Lion does not experience this issue. I'm even able to replicate the issue using nslookup. Against the 2003 server, with a freshly cleaned cache, I recieve the appropriate response from www.secondary.com: Non-authoritative answer: Name: subdomain.primary.com Address: x.x.x.x (Public IP) Aliases: www.secondary.com Subsequent checks simply return: Non-authoritative answer: Name: www.secondary.com If you set the type to CNAME you get the appropriate responses all the time. www.secondary.com gives you: Non-authoritative answer: www.secondary.com canonical name = subdomain.primary.com And subdomain.primary.com gives you: subdomain.primary.com canonical name = tertiary.com And setting type back to A gives you the appropriate response for tertiary.com: Non-authoritative answer: Name: tertiary.com Address: x.x.x.x (Public IP) Against the 2008 R2 server things are a little different. Even with a clean cache, www.secondary.com returns just: Non-authoritative answer: Name: www.secondary.com The CNAME records are returned appropriately. www.secondary.com returns: Non-authoritative answer: www.secondary.com canonical name = subdomain.primary.com And subdomain.primary.com gives you: subdomain.primary.com canonical name = tertiary.com tertiary.com internet address = x.x.x.x (Public IP) tertiary.com AAAA IPv6 address = x::x (Public IPv6) And setting type back to A gives you the appropriate response for tertiary.com: Non-authoritative answer: Name: tertiary.com Address: x.x.x.x (Public IP) Requests directly against subdomain.primary.com work correctly.

    Read the article

  • Windows 7 Boot to VHD using a VHD clone of the system drive

    - by daveh551
    This seems like a not too difficult problem, and, after several hurdles, I'm maddeningly close. But I can't quite get there. I'm running Windows 7 in development shop. I want to start using VS2010 to work on some stuff that won't be released for awhile. My boss said no beta code on the production machine, but I could run VS2010 for this project IF I could do it in an isolated environment, like a virtual PC. Well, I've used the beta and RC of Win7 on VPC's before, and it was painfully slow because of the VPC environment. But everyone has been singing the praises of Windows 7's boot-to-VHD capability, where only the disk is virtualized, and you're actually running on the hardware. Supposed to be little slower, but nowhere near the speed penalty of VPC. I've spent a fair amount of time getting everything installed the way I want it. So I figured, I'll just clone my system drive using Disk2VHD, and boot off of that, and then install VS2010 onto that. (I keep most of my user data, including all my projects, in a separate partition, so that wouldn't have to be duplicated and would still be available.) Well, I had some difficulties with that, owing mainly to the fact that I was using an old version of Disk2VHD - (get the latest if you're going to try it.) But I did finally get it to boot. (Scott Hanselman has a good blog post on boot to VHD). But it wasn't exactly what I was expecting or hoping for. What I expected was that the VHD would become the C: drive, and the original (physical) C: drive would be either hidden or mounted under a different letter, and thus isolated and protected from any changes. What you actually get is that the VHD becomes the D: drive AND you boot from the D: drive, BUT your original C: drive is still there. Which is sort of okay EXCEPT that the Registry on the VHD is a clone of the Registry on C: drive, and includes many hard-coded references to C:. So the result is that some things come from (and modify) D: (the VHD), but some things come from (and modify) C:. (If you open a cmd prompt and do a SET to look at your environment variables, you will see a mixture of D:\ and C:\ paths.) So I don't really have an isolated environment. Most importantly, %ProgramFiles% is still set to C:\Program Files. What I really need is a tool that can access the registry files on the mounted VHD AS FILES, not as registry entries, and do a global search and replace on all the C:\ in strings to D:. I haven't found such a program. (I've tried to do it with a program called Registry Replace, but, even when running as Administrator, there are certain entries that the Registry won't let you change.) Does anyone know of one? Or any other solution to my problem (other than starting from scratch with a clean VHD and installing Win7 and all my programs on it.)?

    Read the article

  • Is there really a need for encryption to have true wireless security? [closed]

    - by Cawas
    I welcome better key-wording here, both on tags and title. I'm trying to conceive a free, open and secure network environment that would work anywhere, from big enterprises to small home networks of just 1 machine. I think since wireless Access Points are the most, if not only, true weak point of a Local Area Network (let's not consider every other security aspect of having internet) there would be basically two points to consider here: Having an open AP for anyone to use the internet through Leaving the whole LAN also open for guests to be able to easily read (only) files on it, and even a place to drop files on Considering these two aspects, once everything is done properly... What's the most secure option between having that, or having just an encrypted password-protected wifi? Of course "both" would seem "more secure". But it shouldn't actually be anything substantial. That's the question, but I think it may need more elaborating on. If you don't think so, please feel free to skip the next (long) part. Elaborating more on the two aspects ... I've always had the feeling using any kind of the so called "wireless security" methods is actually a bad design. I'm talking mostly about encrypting and pass-phrasing (which are actually two different concepts), since I won't even consider hiding SSID and mac filtering. I understand it's a natural way of thinking. With cable networking nobody can access the network unless they have access to the physical cable, so you're "secure" in the physical way. In a way, encrypting is for wireless what building walls is for the cables. And giving pass-phrases would be adding a door with a key. But the cabling without encryption is also insecure. If someone plugin all the data is right there. So, while I can see the use for encrypting data, I don't think it's a security measure in wireless networks. It's wasting resources for too little gain. I believe we should encrypt only sensitive data regardless of wires. That's already done with HTTPS, so I don't really need to encrypt my torrents, for instance. They're torrents, they are meant to be freely shared! As for using passwords, they should be added to the users, always. Not to wifi. For securing files, truly, best solution is backup. Sure all that doesn't happen that often, but I won't consider the most situations where people just don't care. I think there are enough situations where we actually use passwords on our OS users, so let's go with that in mind. I keep promoting the Fonera concept as an instance. It opens up a free wifi port, if you choose so, and anyone can connect to the internet through that, without having any access to your LAN. It also uses a QoS which will never let your bandwidth drop from that public usage. That's security, and it's open. But it's lacking the second aspect. I'll probably be bashed for promoting the non-usage of WPA 2 with AES or whatever, but I wanted to know from more experienced (super) users out there: what do you think?

    Read the article

  • cf3 Can't stat ... in files.copyfrom promise

    - by Xerxes
    On the client: # cf-agent -KIv ... cf3 -> Handling file existence constraints on /etc/cfengine3 cf3 -> Copy file /etc/cfengine3 from /srv/cfengine/sysconf/server/inputs check cf3 No existing connection to 172.31.69.83 is established... cf3 Set cfengine port number to 5308 = 5308 cf3 -> Connect to 172.31.69.83 = 172.31.69.83 on port 5308 cf3 LastSaw host 172.31.69.83 now cf3 Loaded /var/lib/cfengine3/ppkeys/root-172.31.69.83.pub cf3 .....................[.h.a.i.l.]................................. cf3 Strong authentication of server=172.31.69.83 connection confirmed cf3 Server returned error: Unspecified server refusal (see verbose server output) cf3 Can't stat /srv/cfengine/sysconf/server/inputs in files.copyfrom promise cf3 ?> defining promise result class Cfengine_Inputs_Updated_Failed .... cf3 ......................................................... cf3 Promise handle: cf3 Promise made by: [cf-agent.cf ] FAILED 172.31.69.83:///srv/cfengine/sysconf/server/inputs -> localhost:///etc/cfengine3 However, on the server (172.31.69.83), there's no reason why it can't stat the directory: cyrus:/srv/cfengine/sysconf/server# ls -l /srv/cfengine/sysconf/server/inputs total 52 -rw-r--r-- 1 root root 2142 Sep 6 21:54 cf-agent.cf -rw-r--r-- 1 root root 831 Sep 6 18:31 cf-execd.cf -rw-r--r-- 1 root root 4517 Sep 6 21:44 cf-serverd.cf -rw-r--r-- 1 root root 3082 Sep 6 21:44 dns.cf -rw-r--r-- 1 root root 2028 Sep 6 15:12 failsafe.cf -rw-r--r-- 1 root root 5966 Sep 6 21:44 ldap-masters.cf -rw-r--r-- 1 root root 4380 Sep 6 18:31 ldap-security.cf -rw-r--r-- 1 root root 2735 Sep 6 08:21 lib-core.cf -rw-r--r-- 1 root root 1506 Sep 6 21:45 lib-utils.cf -rw-r--r-- 1 root root 2635 Sep 6 20:27 lib-vars.cf -rw-r--r-- 1 root root 2057 Sep 3 17:46 nss.cf -rw-r--r-- 1 root root 1472 Sep 6 18:31 packages.cf -rw-r--r-- 1 root root 1257 Sep 6 18:01 pam-security.cf -rw-r--r-- 1 root root 4019 Sep 6 19:32 promises.cf -rw-r--r-- 1 root root 2808 Sep 3 17:22 site.cf -rw-r--r-- 1 root root 1670 Sep 6 18:31 sudo-security.cf -rw-r--r-- 1 root root 831 Sep 6 18:31 sys-security.cf -rw-r--r-- 1 root root 890 Sep 6 18:31 sys-users.cf cyrus:/srv/cfengine/sysconf/server# I don't see anything interesting server side either when running: /usr/sbin/cf-serverd -d4 --verbose --no-fork And the following does not have any complaints: /usr/sbin/cf-promises -v Any ideas? I'm running cfengine3 on debian, v3.0.5+dfsg-1 - and the cf-agent.cf file is as follows: bundle agent Update { files: linux:: "${cf3.path[inputs]}" action => immediate, move_obstructions => "true", depth_search => Recursive, copy_from => MirrorFrom( "${cf3.host[server]}", "${cf3.path[scm-inputs]}", "true", "0400" ), classes => DefineSoftClass("Cfengine_Inputs_Updated") ; "${cf3.path[sbin]}" comment => "Setting cf3 client sbin scripts: ${cf3.path[sbin]}/", action => immediate, depth_search => Recursive, copy_from => MirrorFrom( "${cf3.host[server]}", "${cf3.path[scm-cnt-scripts]}", "false", "0555" ) ; reports: Cfengine_Inputs_Updated:: "[cf-agent.cf ] Services:CFAgent:Inputs:Updated"; Cfengine_Inputs_Updated_Failed:: "[cf-agent.cf ] FAILED ${cf3.host[server]}://${cf3.path[scm-inputs]} -> localhost://${cf3.path[inputs]}"; } I lie, there is something interesting with a little more debugging... AccessControl(/srv/cfengine/sysconf/server/inputs) AccessControl, match(/srv/cfengine/sysconf/server/inputs,client.com.au) encrypt request=1 Examining rule in access list (/srv/cfengine/sysconf/server/inputs,/home/cfengine)? cf3 Host client.com.au denied access to /srv/cfengine/sysconf/server/inputs Unappending Host client.com.au denied access to /srv/cfengine/sysconf/server/inputs cf3 Access control in sync Unappending Access control in sync Transaction Send[t 59][Packed text] Attempting to send 67 bytes SendSocketStream, sent 67 cf3 From (host=client.com.au,user=root,ip=172.31.69.3) Unappending From (host=client.com.au,user=root,ip=172.31.69.3) cf3 REFUSAL of request from connecting host: (SYNCH 1283777156 STAT /srv/cfengine/sysconf/server/inputs) Unappending REFUSAL of request from connecting host: (SYNCH 1283777156 STAT /srv/cfengine/sysconf/server/inputs) RecvSocketStream(8) cf3 -> Accepting a connection I'll keep looking.

    Read the article

  • Gmail and Live are making all messages from my server as spam.

    - by Ryan Kearney
    I'm getting very weird results here. When my server sends an email to my @hotmail or @gmail account, it's marked as spam. When I send email through my server from Outlook to @hotmail, it doesn't get marked as spam, but it still gets marked as spam in gmail. They seem to get through fine on Yahoo though. My servers hostname A record points to an IP address whose PTR record points back to the same domain name. The TXT record has a SPF record in it to allow email to be sent from that servers IP. I moved from a VPS to a Dedicated server when this started to happen. From what I can see, the email headers are identical. Here's one of my email headers that gmail marks as spam. Some fields were repalced. MYGMAILACCOUNT is the email address of the account the email was addressed to. USER is the name of the account on the system it was sent from HOSTNAME is the servers FQDN IPADDR is the IP Address of the Hostname MYDOMAIN is my domain name Delivered-To: MYGMAILACCOUNT Received: by 10.220.77.82 with SMTP id f18cs263483vck; Sat, 27 Feb 2010 23:58:02 -0800 (PST) Received: by 10.150.16.4 with SMTP id 4mr3886702ybp.110.1267343881628; Sat, 27 Feb 2010 23:58:01 -0800 (PST) Return-Path: <USER@HOSTNAME> Received: from HOSTNAME (HOSTNAME [IPADDR]) by mx.google.com with ESMTP id 17si4604419yxe.134.2010.02.27.23.58.01; Sat, 27 Feb 2010 23:58:01 -0800 (PST) Received-SPF: pass (google.com: best guess record for domain of USER@HOSTNAME designates IPADDR as permitted sender) client-ip=IPADDR; Authentication-Results: mx.google.com; spf=pass (google.com: best guess record for domain of USER@HOSTNAME designates IPADDR as permitted sender) smtp.mail=USER@HOSTNAME Received: from USER by HOSTNAME with local (Exim 4.69) (envelope-from <USER@HOSTNAME>) id 1Nle2K-0000t8-Bd for MYGMAILACCOUNT; Sun, 28 Feb 2010 02:57:36 -0500 To: Ryan Kearney <MYGMAILACCOUNT> Subject: [Email Subject] MIME-Version: 1.0 Content-type: text/plain; charset=UTF-8 Content-Transfer-Encoding: 8bit From: webmaster@MYDOMAIN Message-Id: <E1Nle2K-0000t8-Bd@HOSTNAME> Sender: <USER@HOSTNAME> Date: Sun, 28 Feb 2010 02:57:36 -0500 X-AntiAbuse: This header was added to track abuse, please include it with any abuse report X-AntiAbuse: Primary Hostname - HOSTNAME X-AntiAbuse: Original Domain - gmail.com X-AntiAbuse: Originator/Caller UID/GID - [503 500] / [47 12] X-AntiAbuse: Sender Address Domain - HOSTNAME Anyone have any ideas as to why all mail leaving my server gets marked as spam? EDIT: I already used http://www.mxtoolbox.com/SuperTool.aspx to check if my servers IP's are blacklisted and they are in fact not. That's what I thought at first, but it isn't the case. Update Mar 1, 2010 I received the following email from Microsoft Thank you for writing to Windows Live Hotmail Domain Support. My name is * and I will be assisting you today. We have identified that messages from your IP are being filtered based on the recommendations of the SmartScreen filter. This is the spam filtering technology developed and operated by Microsoft and is built around the technology of machine learning. It learns to recognize what is and isn't spam. In short, we filter incoming emails that look like spam. I am not able to go into any specific details about what these filters specifically entail, as this would render them useless. E-mails from IPs are filtered based upon a combination of IP reputation and the content of individual emails. The reputation of an IP is influenced by a number of factors. Among these factors, which you as a sender can control, are: The IP's Junk Mail Reporting complaint rate The frequency and volume in which email is sent The number of spam trap account hits The RCPT success rate So I'm guessing it has to do with the fact that I got an IP address with little or no history in sending email. I've confirmed that I'm not on any blacklists. I'm guessing it's one of those things that will work itself out in a month or so. I'll post when I hear more.

    Read the article

  • disk-to-disk backup without costly backup redundancy?

    - by AaronLS
    A good backup strategy involves a combination of 1) disconnected backups/snapshots that will not be affected by bugs, viruses, and/or security breaches 2) geographically distributed backups to protect against local disasters 3) testing backups to ensure that they can be restored as needed Generally I take an onsite backup daily, and an offsite backup weekly, and do test restores periodically. In the rare circumstance that I need to restore files, I do some from the local backup. Should a catastrophic event destroy the servers and local backups, then the offsite weekly tape backup would be used to restore the files. I don't need multiple offsite backups with redundancy. I ALREADY HAVE REDUNDANCY THROUGH THE USE OF BOTH LOCAL AND REMOTE BACKUPS. I have recovery blocks and par files with the backups, so I already have protection against a small percentage of corrupt bits. I perform test restores to ensure the backups function properly. Should the remote backups experience a dataloss, I can replace them with one of the local backups. There are historical offsite backups as well, so if a dataloss was not noticed for a few weeks(such as a bug/security breach/virus), the data could be restored from an older backup. By doing this, the only scenario that poses a risk to complete data loss would be one where both the local, remote, and servers all experienced a data loss in the same time period. I'm willing to risk that happening since the odds of that trifecta negligibly small, and the data isn't THAT valuable to me. So I hope I have emphasized that I don't need redundancy in my offsite backups because I have covered all the bases. I know this exact technique is employed by numerous businesses. Of course there are some that take multiple offsite backups, because the data is so incredibly valuable that they don't even want to risk that trifecta disaster, but in the majority of cases the trifecta disaster is an accepted risk. I HAD TO COVER ALL THIS BECAUSE SOME PEOPLE DON'T READ!!! I think I have justified my backup strategy and the majority of businesses who use offsite tape backups do not have any additional redundancy beyond what is mentioned above(recovery blocks, par files, historical snapshots). Now I would like to eliminate the use of tapes for offsite backups, and instead use a backup service. Most however are extremely costly for $/gb/month storage. I don't mind paying for transfer bandwidth, but the cost of storage is way to high. All of them advertise that they maintain backups of the data, and I imagine they use RAID as well. Obviously if you were using them to host servers this would all be necessary, but for my scenario, I am simply replacing my offsite backups with such a service. So there is no need for RAID, and absolutely no value in another layer of backups of backups. My one and only question: "Are there online data-storage/backup services that do not use redundancy or offer backups(backups of my backups) as part of their packages, and thus are more reasonably priced?" NOT my question: "Is this a flawed strategy?" I don't care if you think this is a good strategy or not. I know it pretty standard. Very few people make an extra copy of their offsite backups. They already have local backups that they can use to replace the remote backups if something catastrophic happens at the remote site. Please limit your responses to the question posed. Sorry if I seem a little abrasive, but I had some trolls in my last post who didn't read my requirements nor my question, and were trying to go off answering a totally different question. I made it pretty clear, but didn't try to justify my strategy, because I didn't ask about whether my strategy was justifyable. So I apologize if this was lengthy, as it really didn't need to be, but since there are so many trolls here who try to sidetrack questions by responding without addressing the question at hand.

    Read the article

  • Managing access to multiple linux system

    - by Swartz
    A searched for answers but have found nothing on here... Long story short: a non-profit organization is in dire need of modernizing its infrastructure. First thing is to find an alternatives to managing user accounts on a number of Linux hosts. We have 12 servers (both physical and virtual) and about 50 workstations. We have 500 potential users for these systems. The individual who built and maintained the systems over the years has retired. He wrote his own scripts to manage it all. It still works. No complaints there. However, a lot of the stuff is very manual and error-prone. Code is messy and after updates often needs to be tweaked. Worst part is there is little to no docs written. There are just a few ReadMe's and random notes which may or may not be relevant anymore. So maintenance has become a difficult task. Currently accounts are managed via /etc/passwd on each system. Updates are distributed via cron scripts to correct systems as accounts are added on the "main" server. Some users have to have access to all systems (like a sysadmin account), others need access to shared servers, while others may need access to workstations or only a subset of those. Is there a tool that can help us manage accounts that meets the following requirements? Preferably open source (i.e. free as budget is VERY limited) mainstream (i.e. maintained) preferably has LDAP integration or could be made to interface with LDAP or AD service for user authentication (will be needed in the near future to integrate accounts with other offices) user management (adding, expiring, removing, lockout, etc) allows to manage what systems (or group of systems) each user has access to - not all users are allowed on all systems support for user accounts that could have different homedirs and mounts available depending on what system they are logged into. For example sysadmin logged into "main" server has main://home/sysadmin/ as homedir and has all shared mounts sysadmin logged into staff workstations would have nas://user/s/sysadmin as homedir(different from above) and potentially limited set of mounts, a logged in client would have his/her homedir at different location and no shared mounts. If there is an easy management interface that would be awesome. And if this tool is cross-platform (Linux / MacOS / *nix), that will be a miracle! I have searched the web and so have found nothing suitable. We are open to any suggestions. Thank you. EDIT: This question has been incorrectly marked as a duplicate. The linked to answer only talks about having same homedirs on all systems, whereas we need to have different homedirs based on what system user is currently logged into(MULTIPLE homedirs). Also access needs to be granted only to some machinees not the whole lot. Mods, please understand the full extent of the problem instead of merely marking it as duplicate for points...

    Read the article

  • Integrating HP Systems Insight Manager into an existing environment

    - by ewwhite
    I'm working with an environment that spans multiple data centers/sites and consists primarily of HP ProLiant servers (G5-G7) running Linux. The mix is 30% RHEL/CentOS, the rest are Gentoo :(. I also have a few dozen virtual machines running back-office and Windows servers on VMWare ESX hosts. I run OpenNMS to pull SNMP data from the various server nodes and networking devices. While OpenNMS works wonderfully for up/down, thresholds and notifications, it's native handling of traps is a little rough and the graphs are not particularly pretty. I use Orca/RRD graphs for performance trending and nice graphs. I'm tasked with inventorying the environment and wanted to come up with a clean way to organize server information. Since my environment is mostly HP, I've been playing with HP Systems Insight Manager as a way to extract server data and to deploy HP health/monitoring packages and firmware. The Gentoo systems eventually have to be converted to CentOS, so getting a quick assessment of what hardware is where would be great. Although I've read through a few hundred pages of HP manuals, I'm having a difficult time understanding how to get HP SIM to do what I want, though. My main problems are: I have about 40 subnets to deal with; 98% connected with private lines to facilities across the globe. I don't want to initiate an HP SIM discovery only to pull back every piece of intermediate networking hardware and equipment from all of the locations. I'd like this to focus on the servers. I have OpenNMS configured to accept traps. I don't want HP SIM to duplicate that effort. It seems like the built-in software deployment tool wants to overwrite the trapsink parameters for the systems it encounters during discovery. I have about 10 administrative username/password combinations in use across this infrastructure. Is there a more efficient way to get HP SIM to do the discovery or break discovery into manageable chunks? In terms of general workflow, do people typically install the HP Management Agents during the initial OS deployment (e.g. kickstart post script) or afterwards from HP SIM? Is HP SIM too thick/fat to be an inventory tool? I can't tell if it's meant to be used standalone or alongside other monitoring products. Since the majority of the systems I'm trying to track are those running Gentoo (in order to plan the move to CentOS), is there any way for HP SIM to extract system model information from them ( like dmidecode)? I have systems here where I may have an SSH key established, but not direct user or login access. Is there a way for me to import an SSH private/public key pair into HP SIM to reach out to the servers that can't accept standard credentials? There are a handful of sites where I have inconsistent access or have a double-NAT situation. I may be able to poke a server, but it may not be able to find its way back to the management system. Is there a workaround for this? The certificate configuration for HP SIM seems complicated. What is the preferred setup for trust between systems? I'd also appreciate any notes or recommendations to using this product. Or if there's a better way to do this, I'd like to know.

    Read the article

  • OpenBSD configuration: Client unable to mount via NFS using Berkeley Automounter (amd)

    - by Rilindo
    What I am trying to do is to have my openBSD client (OpenBSD 4.9) auto mount a Linux NFS file system (Scientific Linux 6.1). So far, I am not sure if it is configured correctly. To get things out of the way, I am able to mount nfs manually: # mount_nfs -T -3 192.168.15.100:/exports /mnt # ls -la /mnt total 52 drwxr-xr-x 7 root wheel 4096 Oct 4 22:42 . drwxr-xr-x 16 root wheel 512 Nov 26 16:33 .. drwxrwxr-x 5 _sndio _sndio 4096 Oct 31 21:58 centos drwxr-xr-x 15 root wheel 4096 Nov 6 09:17 home drwxr-xr-x 5 root wheel 4096 Oct 31 21:27 sl drwxr-xr-x 3 root wheel 4096 Nov 19 16:02 sles drwxr-xr-x 17 503 503 4096 Nov 10 17:37 users # So connectivity is not an issue, as far as I can tell. As per man page, the following is configured in /etc/amd/auto.home: /defaults type:=nfs;sublink:=${key};opts:=rw,soft,intr,vers=3,proto=tcp * rhost:=192.168.15.100;rfs:=/exports In turn, /etc/amd/master is configured as such: # cat /etc/amd/master /exports amd.home Upon reboot, I can it see mount, but curiously enough, instead of the hostname: amd:24490 0 0 0 100% /exports From what I understand, amd acts a little different from FreeBSD. Still, I tried to see if I it can automount. Nope: ksh: cd: /exports/users - Resource temporarily unavailable # cd /exports/192.168.15.100/host/users ksh: cd: /exports/192.168.15.100/host/users - Resource temporarily unavailable A search in google doesn't help too much - it seems that automounting NFS with OpenBSD is not something that is usually done. Other than this, information is fairly sparse. I can, of course, always mount is permanently, but I tend to be a bit anal on convention, so no for now. :) Some direction would be appreciation. (And oh, in case you are a wondering, I tried FreeBSD way of using amd and that hasn't worked out - although I wouldn't mind an explanation of the difference between how FreeBSD implements and how OpenBSD implements it) UPDATE: After re-writing the map file several times, I got as far as actually communicating with the NFS server with this configuration: /defaults type:=nfs;rhost:=kerberos.monzell.com;rfs:=/exports;\ sublink:=${key};opts:=rw,nodev,nosuid,soft,intr,tcp,resvport * ${host}==${rhost};type:=nfs;fs:=${rfs};opts:=rw,nodev,nosuid,soft,intr,tcp,resvport However, for some reason, it seems that amd will only default to NFS version 2 over udp: # tcpdump dst kerberos tcpdump: listening on pcn0, link-type EN10MB tcpdump: WARNING: compensating for unaligned libpcap packets 20:38:28.558385 openbsd.monzell.com.856 > kerberos.monzell.com.sunrpc: udp 100 20:38:28.559154 openbsd.monzell.com.856 > kerberos.monzell.com.892: udp 96 20:38:30.592761 openbsd.monzell.com.856 > kerberos.monzell.com.nfsd: xid 0x22000000 (NFSv2) 40 null 20:38:33.558107 arp reply openbsd.monzell.com is-at 52:54:00:52:8f:66 I tried various options of forcing it to try to mount as nfsv3 such as: /defaults type:=nfs;rhost:=kerberos.monzell.com;rfs:=/exports;\ sublink:=${key};opts:=rw,nodev,nosuid,soft,intr,vers=3,proto=tcp,resvport * ${host}==${rhost};type:=nfs;fs:=${rfs};opts:=rw,nodev,nosuid,soft,intr,vers=3,proto=tcp,resvport or: /defaults type:=nfs;rhost:=kerberos.monzell.com;rfs:=/exports;\ sublink:=${key};opts:=rw,nodev,nosuid,soft,intr,vers=-3,proto=tcp,resvport * ${host}==${rhost};type:=nfs;fs:=${rfs};opts:=rw,nodev,nosuid,soft,intr,vers=3,proto=tcp,resvport Nothing yet still. Curious enough, OpenBSD mounts defaults to version 3, so I am not sure why it would start with version in amd. What would be the correct options to pass?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 470 471 472 473 474 475 476 477 478 479 480 481  | Next Page >