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  • Some general C questions.

    - by b-gen-jack-o-neill
    Hello. I am trying to fully understand the process pro writing code in some language to execution by OS. In my case, the language would be C and the OS would be Windows. So far, I read many different articles, but I am not sure, whether I understand the process right, and I would like to ask you if you know some good articles on some subjects I couldn´t find. So, what I think I know about C (and basically other languages): C compiler itself handles only data types, basic math operations, pointers operations, and work with functions. By work with functions I mean how to pass argument to it, and how to get output from function. During compilation, function call is replaced by passing arguments to stack, and than if function is not inline, its call is replaced by some symbol for linker. Linker than find the function definition, and replace the symbol to jump adress to that function (and of course than jump back to program). If the above is generally true and I get it right, where to final .exe file actually linker saves the functions? After the main() function? And what creates the .exe header? Compiler or Linker? Now, additional capabilities of C, today known as C standart library is set of functions and the declarations of them, that other programmers wrote to extend and simplify use of C language. But these functions like printf() were (or could be?) written in different language, or assembler. And there comes my next question, can be, for example printf() function be written in pure C without use of assembler? I know this is quite big question, but I just mostly want to know, wheather I am right or not. And trust me, I read a lots of articles on the web, and I would not ask you, If I could find these infromation together on one place, in one article. Insted I must piece by piece gather informations, so I am not sure if I am right. Thanks.

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  • Compiling Visual c++ programs from the command line and msvcr90.dll

    - by Stanley kelly
    Hi, When I compile my Visual c++ 2008 express program from inside the IDE and redistribute it on another computer, It starts up fine without any dll dependencies that I haven't accounted for. When I compile the same program from the visual c++ 2008 command line under the start menu and redistribute it to the other computer, it looks for msvcr90.dll at start-up. Here is how it is compiled from the command line cl /Fomain.obj /c main.cpp /nologo -O2 -DNDEBUG /MD /ID:(list of include directories) link /nologo /SUBSYSTEM:WINDOWS /ENTRY:mainCRTStartup /OUT:Build\myprogram.ex e /LIBPATH:D:\libs (list of libraries) and here is how the IDE builds it based on the relevant parts of the build log. /O2 /Oi /GL /I clude" /I (list of includes) /D "WIN32" /D "NDEBUG" /D "_CONSOLE" /D "_UNICODE" /D "UNICODE" /FD /EHsc /MD /Gy /Yu"stdafx.h" /Fp"Release\myprogram" /Fo"Release\\" /Fd"Release\vc90.pdb" /W3 /c /Zi /TP /wd4250 /vd2 Creating command line "cl.exe @d:\myprogram\Release\RSP00000118003188.rsp /nologo /errorReport:prompt" /OUT:"D:\myprgram\Release\myprgram.exe" /INCREMENTAL:NO /LIBPATH:"d:\gtkmm\lib" /MANIFEST /MANIFESTFILE:"Release\myprogam.exe.intermediate.manifest" /MANIFESTUAC:"level='asInvoker' uiAccess='false'" /DEBUG /PDB:"d:\myprogram\Release\myprogram.pdb" /SUBSYSTEM:WINDOWS /OPT:REF /OPT:ICF /LTCG /ENTRY:"mainCRTStartup" /DYNAMICBASE /NXCOMPAT /MACHINE:X86 (list of libraries) Creating command line "link.exe @d:\myprogram\Release\RSP00000218003188.rsp /NOLOGO /ERRORREPORT:PROMPT" /outputresource:"..\Release\myprogram.exe;#1" /manifest .\Release\myprogram.exe.intermediate.manifest Creating command line "mt.exe @d:\myprogram\Release\RSP00000318003188.rsp /nologo" I would like to be able to compile it from the command line and not have it look for such a late version of the runtime dll, like the version compiled from the IDE seems not to do. Both versions pass /MD to the compiler, so i am not sure what to do.

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  • Seeking help with a MT design pattern

    - by SamG
    I have a queue of 1000 work items and a n-proc machine (assume n = 4).The main thread spawns n (=4) worker threads at a time ( 25 outer iterations) and waits for all threads to complete before processing the next n (=4) items until the entire queue is processed for(i= 0 to queue.Length / numprocs) for(j= 0 to numprocs) { CreateThread(WorkerThread,WorkItem) } WaitForMultipleObjects(threadHandle[]) The work done by each (worker) thread is not homogeneous.Therefore in 1 batch (of n) if thread 1 spends 1000 s doing work and rest of the 3 threads only 1 s , above design is inefficient,becaue after 1 sec other 3 processors are idling. Besides there is no pooling - 1000 distinct threads are being created How do I use the NT thread pool (I am not familiar enough- hence the long winded question) and QueueUserWorkitem to achieve the above. The following constraints should hold The main thread requires that all worker items are processed before it can proceed.So I would think that a waitall like construct above is required I want to create as many threads as processors (ie not 1000 threads at a time) Also I dont want to create 1000 distinct events, pass to the worker thread, and wait on all events using the QueueUserWorkitem API or otherwise Exisitng code is in C++.Prefer C++ because I dont know c# I suspect that the above is a very common pattern and was looking for input from you folks.

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  • C# TCP Async EndReceive() throws InvalidOperationException ONLY on Windows XP 32-bit

    - by James Farmer
    I have a simple C# Async Client using a .NET socket that waits for timed messages from a local Java server used for automating commands. The messages come in asynchronously and is written to a ring buffer. This implementation seems to work fine on Windows Vista/7/8 and OSX, but will randomly throw this exception while it's receiving a message from the local Java server: Unhandled Exception: System.InvalidOperationException: EndReceive can only be called once for each asynchronous operation.     at System.Net.Sockets.Socket.EndReceive(IAsyncResult asyncResult, SocketError& errorCode)     at System.Net.Sockets.Socket.EndReceive(IAsyncResult asyncResult)     at SocketTest.Controller.RecvAsyncCallback(IAsyncResult ar)     at System.Net.LazyAsyncResult.Complete(IntPtr userToken)     ... I've looked online for this error, but have found nothing really helpful. This is the code where it seems to break: /// <summary> /// Callback to receive socket data /// </summary> /// <param name="ar">AsyncResult to pass to End</param> private void RecvAsyncCallback(IAsyncResult ar) { // The exception will randomly happen on this call int bytes = _socket.EndReceive(_recvAsyncResult); // check for connection closed if (bytes == 0) { return; } _ringBuffer.Write(_buffer, 0, bytes); // Checks buffer CheckBuffer(); _recvAsyncResult = _sock.BeginReceive(_buffer, 0, _buffer.Length, SocketFlags.None, RecvAsyncCallback, null); } The error doesn't happen on any particular moment except in the middle of receiving a message. The message itself can be any length for this to happen, and the exception can happen right away, or sometimes even up to a minute of perfect communication. I'm pretty new with sockets and network communication, and I feel I might be missing something here. I've tested on at least 8 different computers, and the only similarity with the computers that throw this exception is that their OS is Windows XP 32-bit.

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  • Strange C++ performance difference?

    - by STingRaySC
    I just stumbled upon a change that seems to have counterintuitive performance ramifications. Can anyone provide a possible explanation for this behavior? Original code: for (int i = 0; i < ct; ++i) { // do some stuff... int iFreq = getFreq(i); double dFreq = iFreq; if (iFreq != 0) { // do some stuff with iFreq... // do some calculations with dFreq... } } While cleaning up this code during a "performance pass," I decided to move the definition of dFreq inside the if block, as it was only used inside the if. There are several calculations involving dFreq so I didn't eliminate it entirely as it does save the cost of multiple run-time conversions from int to double. I expected no performance difference, or if any at all, a negligible improvement. However, the perfomance decreased by nearly 10%. I have measured this many times, and this is indeed the only change I've made. The code snippet shown above executes inside a couple other loops. I get very consistent timings across runs and can definitely confirm that the change I'm describing decreases performance by ~10%. I would expect performance to increase because the int to double conversion would only occur when iFreq != 0. Chnaged code: for (int i = 0; i < ct; ++i) { // do some stuff... int iFreq = getFreq(i); if (iFreq != 0) { // do some stuff with iFreq... double dFreq = iFreq; // do some stuff with dFreq... } } Can anyone explain this? I am using VC++ 9.0 with /O2. I just want to understand what I'm not accounting for here.

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  • Building simple Reddit scraper

    - by Bazant Fundator
    Let's say that I would like to make a collection of images from reddit for my own amusement. I have ran the code on my development env and It haven't gone past the first page of posts (anything beyond requries the after string from the JSON. Additionally, When I turn on the validation, the whole loop breaks if the item doesn't pass it, not just the current iteration. I would be glad If you helped me understand mistakes I made. class Link include Mongoid::Document include Mongoid::Timestamps field :author, type: String field :url, type: String validates_uniqueness_of :url, # no duplicates validates :url, uniqueness :true end def fetch (count, after) count_s = count.to_s # convert count to string link = "http://reddit.com/r/aww/.json?count="+count_s+"&after="+after #so it can be used there res = HTTParty.get(link) # GET req. to the reddit server json = JSON.parse(res.body) # Parse the response if json['kind'] == "Listing" then # check if the retrieved item is a Listing for i in 1...(count) do # for each list item datum = json['data']['children'][i]['data'] #i-th element properties if datum['domain'].in?(["imgur.com", "i.imgur.com"]) then # fetch only imgur links Link.create!(author: datum['author'], url: datum['url']) # save to db end end count += 25 fetch(count, json['data']['after']) # if it retrieved the right kind of object, move on to the next page end end fetch(25," ") # run it

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  • Per-pixel per-component alpha blending in Windows

    - by Crend King
    I have a 24-bit bitmaps with R, G, B color channels and a 24-bit bitmap with R, G, B alpha channels. I want to alpha blend the first bitmap to a HDC in GDI or RenderTarget in Direct2D with the alpha channels respectively. For example, suppose for one pixel, the bitmap color is (192, 192, 192), the HDC color is (0, 255, 255) and the alpha channels are (30, 40, 50). The final HDC color should be (22, 245, 242). I know I can BitBlt the HDC to a memory HDC first, do alpha blending by manually calculating the color of each pixel and finally BitBlt back. I just want to avoid the additional blitting and leave APIs do their job (faster since they are in kernel space). The first idea comes to my mind is to split the source bitmap into 3 red-only, green-only and blue-only 8-bit bitmaps, do normal alpha blending, then composite the 3 output bitmaps into the HDC. But I don't find a way to do the splitting and composition natively in Windows (would Direct2D layer help?). Also, the splitting and compositing may require many additional copying. The performance overhead would be too high. Or maybe do the alpha blending in 3 passes. Each pass apply the blending for one channel, while maintaining the other 2 unchanged. Thanks for any comment. EDIT: I found this question, and the answer should be good reference to this problem. However, besides AC_SRC_OVER, there is no other blending operation supported. Why don't Microsoft improve their API?

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  • REST application, Transactions, Cache drop

    - by Julian Davchev
    Hi, I am building REST API in php with memcache layer on top for caching all resources. After some reading experience it turns out it's best when documents are as simple as posible...mainly due to dropping cache sequences. So if there is 'building','room' entities for the 'room' document I would only place the id of the 'building' and not the whole data of it. Then on api client side I would merge data as needed. Problem becomes when I need to update/insert (most cases more than one table). I update one resource but on second update system fails or whatever and there becomes database inconsistancies. I see several solutions: 1. Implement rest transactions which I find wrong and complex as idea is to be stateless and easy. 2. On update/insert actions I pass more complex data (not single entities) so I can force transactions on API level. But this will make it weird that your GET document structure is same as PUT document structure. And again somehow make drop sequences complex. Any pointers are more than welcome. Cheers,

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  • ASP.NET MVC Model Binding into a List

    - by Maxim Z.
    In my ASP.NET MVC site, part of a feature allows the user to enter the hours when a certain venue is open. I've decided to store these hours in a VenueHours table in my database, with a FK-to-PK relationship to a Venues table, as well as DayOfWeek, OpeningTime, and ClosingTime parameters. In my View, I want to allow the user to only input the times they know about; in other words, some days may not be filled in for a Venue. I'm thinking of creating checkboxes that the user can check to enable the OpeningTime and ClosingTime fields for the DayOfWeek that the checkbox belongs to. My question relates to how to pass this information to my HttpPost Controller Action. As I know the maximum amount of Days that can be passed in (7), I could of course just write 7 nullable VenueHour parameters into my Action, but I'm sure there's a better way. Can I somehow bind the View information into a List that is passed to my Action? This will also help me if I run into a scenario where there is no limit to how much information the user can fill in.

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  • ASP MVC: Submitting a form with nested user controls

    - by Nigel
    I'm fairly new to ASP MVC so go easy :). I have a form that contains a number of user controls (partial views, as in System.Web.Mvc.ViewUserControl), each with their own view models, and some of those user controls have nested user controls within them. I intended to reuse these user controls so I built up the form using a hierarchy in this way and pass the form a parent view model that contains all the user controls' view models within it. For example: Parent Page (with form and ParentViewModel) -->ChildControl1 (uses ViewModel1 which is passed from ParentViewModel.ViewModel1 property) -->ChildControl2 (uses ViewModel2 which is passed from ParentViewModel.ViewModel2 property) -->ChildControl3 (uses ViewModel3 which is passed from ViewModel2.ViewModel3 property) I hope this makes sense... My question is how do I retrieve the view data when the form is submitted? It seems the view data cannot bind to the ParentViewModel: public string Save(ParentViewModel viewData)... as viewData.ViewModel1 and viewData.ViewModel2 are always null. Is there a way I can perform a custom binding? Ultimately I need the form to be able to cope with a dynamic number of user controls and perform an asynchronous submission without postback. I'll cross those bridges when I come to them but I mention it now so any answer won't preclude this functionality. Many thanks.

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  • Odd behaviour with PHP's in_array function.

    - by animuson
    I have a function that checks multiple form items and returns either boolean(true) if the check passed or the name of the check that was run if it didn't pass. I built the function to run multiple checks at once, so it will return an array of these results (one result for each check that was run). When I run the function, I get this array result: Array ( [0] => 1 [1] => password [2] => birthday ) // print_r array(3) { [0]=> bool(true) [1]=> string(8) "password" [2]=> string(8) "birthday" } // var_dump The 'username' check passed and the 'password' and 'birthday' checks both failed. Then I am using simple in_array statements to determine which ones failed, like so: $results = $ani->e->vld->simulate("register.php", $checks); die(var_dump($results)); // Added after to see what array was being returned if (in_array("username", $results)) // do something if (in_array("password", $results)) // do something if (in_array("birthday", $results)) // do something The problem I'm having is that the 'username' line is still executing, even those 'username' is not in the array. It executes all three statements as if they were all true for some reason. Why is this? I thought maybe that the bool(true) was automatically causing the function to return true for every result without checking the rest of the array, but I couldn't find any documentation that would suggest that very odd functionality.

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  • ASP.Net MVC Json Result: Parameters passed to controller method issue

    - by Moskie
    I'm having a problem getting a controller method that returns a JsonResult to accept parameters passed via the JQuery getJSON method. The code I’m working on works fine when the second parameter ("data") of the getJSON method call is null. But when I attempt to pass in a value there, it seems as if the controller method never even gets called. In this example case, I just want to use an integer. The getJSON call that works fine looks like this: $.getJSON(”/News/ListNewsJson/”, null, ListNews_OnReturn); The controller method is like this: public JsonResult ListNewsJson(int? id) { … return Json(toReturn); } By putting a breakpoint in the ListNewsJson method, I see that this method gets called when the data parameter of getJSON is null, but when I replace it with value, such as, say, 3: $.getJSON(”/News/ListNewsJson/”, 3, ListNews_OnReturn); … the controller method/breakpoint is never hit. Any idea what I'm doing wrong? I should also mention that the controller method works fine if I manually go to the address via my browser ("/News/ListNewsJson/3").

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  • Maintaining session information between 2 asp.net calls programmatically?

    - by Santhosh
    Hi, I'm not sure if I'll be clear enough in my explaination to make you guys understand, but I'll try. Here's my problem: We have an external site which the users in our company connect to by giving their corresponding username and password. The external site is an ASP.NET website. We want to integrate this website into our intranet portal so that the users don't have to enter their UN/Pwd to login to the website. Since the target website has no provision for SSO, we are simulating the POST request to login. So far so good. We are now required to perform an action after the initial login is done, on an another page. We can simulate the corresponding POST request as well. But the problem is since we are not maintaining any session information in our initial POST request, it always redirects to the login screen! Is there any way to maintain ASP.NET session information between multiple calls done programmatically? Can we create an ASP.NET session id cookie programmatically and then pass it along with our initial request? Or this is not possible at all? Any comments are appreciated. Thanks for your help. Regards.

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  • Hooking thread exit

    - by mackenir
    Is there a way for me to hook the exit of managed threads (i.e. run some code on a thread, just before it exits?) I've developed a mechanism for hooking thread exit that works for some threads. Step 1: develop a 'hook' STA COM class that takes a callback function and calls it in its destructor. Step 2: create a ThreadStatic instance of this object on the thread I want to hook, and pass the object a managed delegate converted to an unmanaged function pointer. The delegate then gets called on thread exit (since the CLR calls IUnknown::Release on all STA COM RCWs as part of thread exit). This mechanism works on, for example, worker threads that I create in code using the Thread class. However, it doesn't seem to work for the application's main thread (be it a console or windows app). The 'hook' COM object seems to be deleted too late in the shutdown process and the attempt to call the delegate fails. (The reason I want to implement this facility is so I can run some native COM code on the exiting thread that works with STA COM objects that were created on the thread, before it's 'too late' (i.e. before the thread has exited, and it's no longer possible to work with STA COM objects on that thread.))

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  • How to avoid using this in a contructor

    - by Paralife
    I have this situation: interface MessageListener { void onMessageReceipt(Message message); } class MessageReceiver { MessageListener listener; public MessageReceiver(MessageListener listener, other arguments...) { this.listener = listener; } loop() { Message message = nextMessage(); listener.onMessageReceipt(message); } } and I want to avoid the following pattern: (Using the this in the Client constructor) class Client implements MessageListener { MessageReceiver receiver; MessageSender sender; public Client(...) { receiver = new MessageReceiver(this, other arguments...); sender = new Sender(...); } . . . @Override public void onMessageReceipt(Message message) { if(Message.isGood()) sender.send("Congrtulations"); else sender.send("Boooooooo"); } } The reason why i need the above functionality is because i want to call the sender inside the onMessageReceipt() function, for example to send a reply. But I dont want to pass the sender into a listener, so the only way I can think of is containing the sender in a class that implements the listener, hence the above resulting Client implementation. Is there a way to achive this without the use of 'this' in the constructor? It feels bizare and i dont like it, since i am passing myself to an object(MessageReceiver) before I am fully constructed. On the other hand, the MessageReceiver is not passed from outside, it is constructed inside, but does this 'purifies' the bizarre pattern? I am seeking for an alternative or an assurance of some kind that this is safe, or situations on which it might backfire on me.

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  • form with multiple upload but allow no upload on edit problems

    - by minus4
    hiya i have a section that when created takes in images, however when you edit this item i dont want them to re-upload none changes images just to change a description or name. i have created this that deals with uploading files: public void UploadFiles(string currentFileName, FormCollection form) { // loop through all files in form post foreach (string file in Request.Files) { HttpPostedFileBase hpf = Request.Files[file]; // if no file is uploaded, we could be editing so set to current value if (hpf.ContentLength == 0) { form[file] = currentFileName; } else { //rename the file unique so we dont clash with names var filename = hpf.FileName.Replace(" ", "_").Replace(".", DateTime.Now.Date.Ticks + "."); UploadFileName = filename; hpf.SaveAs(Server.MapPath("~/Content/custom/" + filename)); // set the name of the file in our post to the new name form[file] = UploadFileName; } } // ensure value is still sent when no files are uploaded on edit if(Request.Files.Count <= 0) { UploadFileName = currentFileName; } } all works fine when only one image is required (CurrentFileName), however there is now a new image available taking it to a total of 2 images in the database therefor currentFileName is obsolete. has anyone tackled this and how as i have hit a wall with this one. thought of string[] currentFiles but cant see how to match this into string file in Request.Files. if it helps i am also working with models for the form so i could pass over the model but i dont think your able to do model.file without some kind of reflection. help much appreciated. thanks

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  • ASP.Net MVC 3 Full Name In DropDownList

    - by tgriffiths
    I am getting a bit confused with this and need a little help please. I am developing a ASP.Net MVC 3 Web application using Entity Framework 4.1. I have a DropDownList on one of my Razor Views, and I wish to display a list of Full Names, for example Tom Jones Michael Jackson James Brown In my Controller I retrieve a List of User Objects, then select the FirstName and LastName of each User, and pass the data to a SelectList. List<User> Requesters = _userService.GetAllUsersByTypeIDOrgID(46, user.organisationID.Value).ToList(); var RequesterNames = from r in Requesters let person = new { UserID = r.userID, FullName = new { r.firstName, r.lastName } } orderby person.FullName ascending select person; viewModel.RequestersList = new SelectList(RequesterNames, "UserID", "FullName"); return View(viewModel); In my Razor View I have the following @Html.DropDownListFor(model => model.requesterID, Model.RequestersList, "Select", new { @class = "inpt_a"}) @Html.ValidationMessageFor(model => model.requesterID) However, when I run the code I get the following error At least one object must implement IComparable. I feel as if I am going about this the wrong way, so could someone please help with this? Thanks.

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  • Beginner problems with references to arrays in python 3.1.1

    - by Protean
    As part of the last assignment in a beginner python programing class, I have been assigned a traveling sales man problem. I settled on a recursive function to find each permutation and the sum of the distances between the destinations, however, I am have a lot of problems with references. Arrays in different instances of the Permute and Main functions of TSP seem to be pointing to the same reference. from math import sqrt class TSP: def __init__(self): self.CartisianCoordinates = [['A',[1,1]], ['B',[2,2]], ['C',[2,1]], ['D',[1,2]], ['E',[3,3]]] self.Array = [] self.Max = 0 self.StoredList = ['',0] def Distance(self, i1, i2): x1 = self.CartisianCoordinates[i1][1][0] y1 = self.CartisianCoordinates[i1][1][1] x2 = self.CartisianCoordinates[i2][1][0] y2 = self.CartisianCoordinates[i2][1][1] return sqrt(pow((x2 - x1), 2) + pow((y2 - y1), 2)) def Evaluate(self): temparray = [] Data = [] for i in range(len(self.CartisianCoordinates)): Data.append([]) for i1 in range(len(self.CartisianCoordinates)): for i2 in range(len(self.CartisianCoordinates)): if i1 != i2: temparray.append(self.Distance(i1, i2)) else: temparray.append('X') Data[i1] = temparray temparray = [] self.Array = Data self.Max = len(Data) def Permute(self,varray,index,vcarry,mcarry): #Problem Class array = varray[:] carry = vcarry[:] for i in range(self.Max): print ('ARRAY:', array) print (index,i,carry,array[index][i]) if array[index][i] != 'X': carry[0] += self.CartisianCoordinates[i][0] carry[1] += array[index][i] if len(carry) != self.Max: temparray = array[:] for j in range(self.Max):temparray[j][i] = 'X' index = i mcarry += self.Permute(temparray,index,carry,mcarry) else: return mcarry print ('pass',mcarry) return mcarry def Main(self): out = [] self.Evaluate() for i in range(self.Max): array = self.Array[:] #array appears to maintain the same reference after each copy, resulting in an incorrect array being passed to Permute after the first iteration. print (self.Array[:]) for j in range(self.Max):array[j][i] = 'X' print('I:', i, array) out.append(self.Permute(array,i,[str(self.CartisianCoordinates[i][0]),0],[])) return out SalesPerson = TSP() print(SalesPerson.Main()) It would be greatly appreciated if you could provide me with help in solving the reference problems I am having. Thank you.

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  • SQL Server 2005 Reporting Services and the Report Viewer

    - by Kendra
    I am having an issue embedding my report into an aspx page. Here's my setup: 1 Server running SQL Server 2005 and SQL Server 2005 Reporting Services 1 Workstation running XP and VS 2005 The server is not on a domain. Reporting Services is a default installation. I have one report called TestMe in a folder called TestReports using a shared datasource. If I view the report in Report Manager, it renders fine. If I view the report using the http ://myserver/reportserver url it renders fine. If I view the report using the http ://myserver/reportserver?/TestReports/TestMe it renders fine. If I try to view the report using http ://myserver/reportserver/TestReports/TestMe, it just goes to the folder navigation page of the home directory. My web application is impersonating somebody specific to get around the server not being on a domain. When I call the report from the report viewer using http ://myserver/reportserver as the server and /TestReports/TestMe as the path I get this error: For security reasons DTD is prohibited in this XML document. To enable DTD processing set the ProhibitDtd property on XmlReaderSettings to false and pass the settings into XmlReader.Create method. When I change the server to http ://myserver/reportserver? I get this error when I run the report: Client found response content type of '', but expected 'text/xml'. The request failed with an empty response. I have been searching for a while and haven't found anything that fixes my issue. Please let me know if there is more information needed. Thanks in advance, Kendra

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  • SSIS Lookup with Lookup Component Vs Script Component.

    - by Nev_Rahd
    Hello, I need to load Dimensions from EDW Tables (which does maintain historical records) and is of type Key-Value-Parameter. My scenario is ok if got a record in EDW as below Key1 Key2 Code Value EffectiveDate EndDate CurrentFlag 100 555 01 AAA 2010-01-01 11.00.00 9999-12-31 Y 100 555 02 BBB 2010-01-01 11.00.00 9999-12-31 Y This need to be loaded into DM by pivoting it as key1 and key2 combinations makes Natural key for DM SK NK 01 02 EffectiveDate EndDate CurrentFlag 1 100-555 AAA BBB 2010-01-01 11.00.00 9999-12-31 Y My ssis package does this all good pivoting... looking up the incoming NK in DIM.. if new will insert .. else with further lookup with effective date and determine if the incoming for same natural key got any new (change) in attribute.. if so updates the current record byy setting its end date and insert the new one with new attribute value and pulling the recent records values for other attributes. My problem is if the same natural key comes twice with same attribute in single extract my first lookup which on natural key .. will let both records pass and try to insert.. where its fails. If i get distinct records on NK the second is not picked and need to run package again. So my question how can i configure lookup or alernative way to handle this scenario when same NK comes twice in single extract, would be able to insert first record if not exists in Dim table and for second one should be able to updated with the changes with reference to one inserted above. Not sure this makes sense what am trying to explain. Will attached the screenshot once back to work desk (on monday). Thanks

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  • WinForms data binding with a Save button?

    - by Mat
    How is data binding in C# WinForms supposed to work when you have a Save button? I don't want the data updated until I press Save! I have two forms (list and detail) backed by a BindingList<T> collection and my custom object from that collection, respectively. I can bind each form to the list or object appropriately. However, any changes made in the detail form are immediately reflected in the list form - I don't want to save the changes and update the details shown in the list until the Save button is pressed. Is data binding designed to support this? Is there a common pattern for doing so? Whichever way I look at it, binding doesn't seem to be able to support this scenario. I've considered the following: Pass a clone of the object to the detail form, but then I have to reconcile the changes on Save - changes may have been made to the copy in the list in the meantime. Implementing IEditableObject and calling EndEdit on save almost works as I can prevent the list being notified of the changes made until Save is pressed, but if something else causes a refresh the list is updated with the interim data. I'm currently left with dispensing with data binding in my detail view, and doing it all manually. Which is rather annoying.

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  • Can I indicate where my MySQL parameter should go more meaningfully than just having a ? to mark the

    - by Paul H
    I've got a chunk of code where I can pass info into a MySQL command using parameters through an ODBC connection. Example code showing surname passed in using string surnameToLookFor: using (OdbcConnection DbConn = new OdbcConnection( connectToDB )) { OdbcDataAdapter cmd = new OdbcDataAdapter( "SELECT Firstname, Address, Postcode FROM customers WHERE Surname = ?", DbConn); OdbcParameter odbcParam = new OdbcParameter("surname", surnameToLookFor); cmd.SelectCommand.Parameters.Add(odbcParam); cmd.Fill(dsCustomers, "customers"); } What I'd like to know is whether I can indicate where my parameter should go more meaningfully than just having a ? to mark the position - as I could see this getting quite hard to debug if there are multiple parameters being replaced. I'd like to provide a name to the parameter in a manner something like this: SELECT Firstname, Address, Postcode FROM customers WHERE Surname = ?surname ", When I try this it just chokes. The following code public System.Data.DataSet Customer_Open(string sConnString, long ld) { using (MySqlConnection oConn = new MySqlConnection(sConnString)) { oConn.Open(); MySqlCommand oCommand = oConn.CreateCommand(); oCommand.CommandText = "select * from cust_customer where id=?id"; MySqlParameter oParam = oCommand.Parameters.Add("?id", MySqlDbType.Int32); oParam.Value = ld; oCommand.Connection = oConn; DataSet oDataSet = new DataSet(); MySqlDataAdapter oAdapter = new MySqlDataAdapter(); oAdapter.SelectCommand = oCommand; oAdapter.Fill(oDataSet); oConn.Close(); return oDataSet; } } is from http://www.programmingado.net/a-389/MySQL-NET-parameters-in-query.aspx and includes the fragment where id=?id Which would be ideal. Is this only available through the .Net connector rather than the ODBC? If it is possible to do using ODBC how would I need to change my code fragment to enable this?

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  • Link to Hotmail / Windows Live email compose -- maintaining BCC

    - by Curtis Gibby
    My app creates a mailto-esque link that takes the end user to a Hotmail compose screen with various attributes pre-filled. Most of the functionality I need is working: to, cc, subject, body. However, Hotmail seems to be stripping out any BCC attributes that I pass into the URL. For example, this link works as advertised: http://mail.live.com/mail/EditMessageLight.aspx?n=&[email protected]&[email protected];%[email protected]&subject=the%20subject&body=the%20body I get the one email address in the To field and two in the CC field. But when I try the exact same URL except substituting "bcc" for "cc", the two addresses are nowhere to be found. http://mail.live.com/mail/EditMessageLight.aspx?n=&[email protected]&[email protected];%[email protected]&subject=the%20subject&body=the%20body This link format is posted all over the web (along with a variation like http://mail.live.com/default.aspx?rru=compose%3f[attributes] ), but none of the various settings that I've tried actually work to bring in the BCC addresses. I need the BCC so that the email recipients are not given each others' email addresses. My versions of this url for regular old mailto, along with Gmail and Yahoo Mail, work perfectly. Surprise surprise.

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  • Ruby on Rails / Yellow Maps For Ruby Plugin woes...

    - by Zach
    Okay I've read through the plugin comments and the docs as well and I have yet to come up with an answer as to how to do this. Here's my problem I want to use the :info_window_tabs and the :icon option, but I don't know what format to pass my information in. According to the documentation the following code should be correct. Here's my code: @mapper.overlay_init(GMarker.new([map.lat, map.lng], :title => map.name, :info_window_tabs => [ {:tab => "HTML", :content => @marker_html}, {:tab => "Attachments", :content => "stuff"}], :icon => { :image => "../images/icon.png" })) The readme and documentation can be viewed here. And the relevant ruby file that I am trying to interact with, including the author's comments, can be viewed here. I have tried the #rubyonrails channel in IRC as well as emailing the author directly and reporting an issue at GitHub. It really is just a question of syntax. Thanks!

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  • C# Client to Consume Google App Engine RESTful Webservice (rpc XML)

    - by Ngu Soon Hui
    I think I hit a problem when using C# client to consume Google App Engine Webservice. The Google App Engine code I use is here. This is how the python script on server would look like: from google.appengine.ext import webapp from google.appengine.ext.webapp.util import run_wsgi_app import logging from StringIO import StringIO import traceback import xmlrpclib from xmlrpcserver import XmlRpcServer class Application: def __init__(self): pass def getName(self,meta): return 'example' class XMLRpcHandler(webapp.RequestHandler): rpcserver = None def __init__(self): self.rpcserver = XmlRpcServer() app = Application() self.rpcserver.register_class('app',app) def post(self): request = StringIO(self.request.body) request.seek(0) response = StringIO() try: self.rpcserver.execute(request, response, None) except Exception, e: logging.error('Error executing: '+str(e)) for line in traceback.format_exc().split('\n'): logging.error(line) finally: response.seek(0) rstr = response.read() self.response.headers['Content-type'] = 'text/xml' self.response.headers['Content-length'] = "%d"%len(rstr) self.response.out.write(rstr) application = webapp.WSGIApplication( [('/xmlrpc/', XMLRpcHandler)], debug=True) def main(): run_wsgi_app(application) if __name__ == "__main__": main() The client side ( in Python) is this: import xmlrpclib s = xmlrpclib.Server('http://localhost:8080/xmlrpc/') print s.app.getName() I have no problem in using Python client to retrieve values from Google App Engine, but I do have difficulties in using a C# client to retrieve the values. The error I got was 404 method not found when I am trying to GetResponse from the web request. This is my code var request = (HttpWebRequest)WebRequest.Create("http://localhost:8080/xmlrpc/app"); request.Method = "GET"; request.ContentLength = 0; request.ContentType = "text/xml"; using (HttpWebResponse response = request.GetResponse() as HttpWebResponse) //404 method not found error here. { } I think it must be that the url is wrong, but I don't know how to get it right. Any idea?

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