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  • Why are changes to coffeescript files not being compiled when my Rails 3.2.0 app is in development mode?

    - by ben
    Normally, any changes I make to .js.coffee files in my Rails 3.2.0 app in development mode take effect when I refresh the page. All of a sudden, this is not happening. If I do rake assets:precompile, then the changes are shown, but then if I do rake assets:clean they go back to not being shown. What is causing this? Edit: Restarting the server makes the changes show. Why isn't this happening automatically as before? Edit: Here is my development.rb Myapp::Application.configure do # Settings specified here will take precedence over those in config/application.rb # In the development environment your application's code is reloaded on # every request. This slows down response time but is perfect for development # since you don't have to restart the web server when you make code changes. config.cache_classes = false # Log error messages when you accidentally call methods on nil. config.whiny_nils = true # Show full error reports and disable caching config.consider_all_requests_local = true config.action_controller.perform_caching = false # Don't care if the mailer can't send config.action_mailer.raise_delivery_errors = false # Print deprecation notices to the Rails logger config.active_support.deprecation = :log # Only use best-standards-support built into browsers config.action_dispatch.best_standards_support = :builtin # Raise exception on mass assignment protection for Active Record models config.active_record.mass_assignment_sanitizer = :strict # Log the query plan for queries taking more than this (works # with SQLite, MySQL, and PostgreSQL) config.active_record.auto_explain_threshold_in_seconds = 0.5 # Do not compress assets config.assets.compress = false # Expands the lines which load the assets config.assets.debug = true config.action_mailer.default_url_options = { :host => 'localhost:3000' } config.log_level = :warn end

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  • Trim characters from RSS feed

    - by egr103
    I'm calling in a RSS feed to my website using PHP. Currently my code below is calling in the entire contents for pubDate: <pubDate>Thu, 12 Sep 2013 07:23:59 +0000</pubDate> How do I just display the day and month from the above example i.e. 12 Sep? EDIT I should clarify, the above line of code is an example output I currently get but as I'm calling the latest 3 posts from an RSS feed, this date and time will vary. I therefore need the code to be more dynamic (if that's the right term!) This code is my full code that fetches the contents of an RSS feed: <?php $counter = 0; $xml=simplexml_load_file("http://tutorial.world.edu/feed/"); foreach ($xml->channel->item as $item) { $title = (string) $item->title; // Title Post $link = (string) $item->link; // Url Link $pubDate = (string) $item->pubDate; // date $description = (string) $item->description; //Description Post echo '<div class="display-rss-feed"><a href="'.$link.'" target="_blank" title="" >'.$title.' </a><br/><br/>'; echo $description.'<hr><p style="background-color:#e4f;">'.$pubDate.'</p></div>'; if($counter == 2 ) { break; } else { $counter++; } } ?>

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  • Zend_Validate_Abstract custom validator not displaying correct error messages.

    - by Jeremy Dowell
    I have two text fields in a form that I need to make sure neither have empty values nor contain the same string. The custom validator that I wrote extends Zend_Validate_Abstract and works correctly in that it passes back the correct error messages. In this case either: isEmpty or isMatch. However, the documentation says to use addErrorMessages to define the correct error messages to be displayed. in this case, i have attached ->addErrorMessages(array("isEmpty"=>"foo", "isMatch"=>"bar")); to the form field. According to everything I've read, if I return "isEmpty" from isValid(), my error message should read "foo" and if i return "isMatch" then it should read "bar". This is not the case I'm running into though. If I return false from is valid, no matter what i set $this-_error() to be, my error message displays "foo", or whatever I have at index[0] of the error messages array. If I don't define errorMessages, then I just get the error code I passed back for the display and I get the proper one, depending on what I passed back. How do I catch the error code and display the correct error message in my form? The fix I have implemented, until I figure it out properly, is to pass back the full message as the errorcode from the custom validator. This will work in this instance, but the error message is specific to this page and doesn't really allow for re-use of code. Things I have already tried: I have already tried validator chaining so that my custom validator only checks for matches: ->setRequired("true") ->addValidator("NotEmpty") ->addErrorMessage("URL May Not Be Empty") ->addValidator([*customValidator]*) ->addErrorMessage("X and Y urls may not be the same") But again, if either throws an error, the last error message to be set displays, regardless of what the error truly is. I'm not entirely sure where to go from here. Any suggestions?

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  • Masters in Computer Science

    - by reko
    Hi, My name is Gautam. I come from India. I am extremely passionate about Web Development.. I like to build web applications all the time.. Can I make this web application building a full time profession? I have just graduated from bachelors... Is there a Master of Computer Science in Web Development? Can I choose Masters in Web Development? Is it a bad choice? Is there a course very close to it Web Development that I can choose? Should I just keep Web Development as a part time thing to do?? Could you please let me know any good universities which offer this course/ close to this course for Spring 2010? Please advice on what I should do because my mind keeps throwing millions of questions on what I should do and my only hope is STACKOVERFLOW helps me as it always does to solve problems.. Looking forward for your reply.. Thanks in advance Regards, Gautam

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  • How to loop video using NetStream in Data Generation Mode

    - by WesleyJohnson
    I'm using a NetStream in Data Generation Mode to play an embeded FLV using appendBytes. When the stream is finished playing, I'd like to loop the FLV file. I'm not sure how to achieve this. Here is what I have so far (this isn't a complete example): public function createBorderAnimation():void { // Load the skin image borderAnimation = Assets.BorderAnimation; // Convert the animation to a byte array borderAnimationBytes = new borderAnimation(); // Initialize the net connection border_nc = new NetConnection(); border_nc.connect( null ); // Initialize the net stream border_ns = new NetStream( border_nc ); border_ns.client = { onMetaData:function( obj:Object ):void{ trace(obj); } } border_ns.addEventListener( NetStatusEvent.NET_STATUS, border_netStatusHandler ); border_ns.play( null ); border_ns.appendBytes( borderAnimationBytes ); // Initialize the animation border_vd = new Video( 1024, 768 ); border_vd.attachNetStream( border_ns ); // Add the animation to the stage ui = new UIComponent(); ui.addChild( DisplayObject( border_vd ) ); grpBackground.addElement( ui ); } protected function border_netStatusHandler( event:NetStatusEvent ):void { if( event.info.code == "NetStream.Buffer.Flush" || event.info.code == "NetStream.Buffer.Empty" ) { border_ns.appendBytesAction( NetStreamAppendBytesAction.RESET_BEGIN ); border_ns.appendBytes( borderAnimationBytes ); border_ns.appendBytesAction( NetStreamAppendBytesAction.END_SEQUENCE ); } } This will loop the animation, but it starts chewing up memory like crazy. I've tried using NetStream.seek(0) and NetStream.appendBytesAction( NetStreamAppendBytesAction.RESET_SEEK ), but then I'm not sure what to do next. If you just try to call appendBytes again after that, it doesn't work, presumably because I'm appending the full byte array which has the FLV header and stuff? I'm not very familiar with how that all works. Any help is greatly appreciated.

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  • What's wrong with debugging in Eclipse on Android?

    - by Sebastian Dwornik
    I've obviously been spoiled by Visual Studio, because although I'm just learning Android and the Eclipse environment, debugging apps in Eclipse is becoming a serious detriment to further development. For example, Eclipse will compile this divide by zero just fine: public class Lesson2Main extends Activity { /** Called when the activity is first created. */ @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate (savedInstanceState); int i = 1 / 0; TextView tv = new TextView (this); tv.setText ("Hello, Android!"); setContentView (tv); } } And then, when it executes it under the debugger, I will get a full screen of useless debug info, non of which actually points me to the specific line containing the error. The stackTrace is null within the exception ('e') info tree, and it simply states a message stating 'ArithmeticException'. (that's nice, how about you point me in the direction of where you found it!?) I've looked all over the screen and am baffled that this IDE can't get this right. Does developing with Eclipse resort everyone back to 1991 with printf() like logging at every interval then to track down bugs? Seriously. Is there a configuration or plug-in that I'm missing to help with this? I haven't tested this case with XCode, but if the iPhone dev. IDE handles this more like Visual Studio, then no wonder the Android marketplace has so few apps. I'm excited about Android, but it seems that Eclipse is getting in the way.

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  • Subclassing NSArrayController in order to limit size of arrangedObjects

    - by Simone Manganelli
    I'm trying to limit the number of objects in an array controller, but I still want to be able to access the full array, if necessary. A simple solution I came up with was to subclass NSArrayController, and define a new method named "limitedArrangedObjects", that returns a limited number of objects from the real set of arranged objects. (I've seen http://stackoverflow.com/questions/694493/limiting-the-number-of-objects-in-nsarraycontroller , but that doesn't address my problem.) I want this property to be observable via bindings, so I set a dependency to arrangedObjects on it. Problem is, when arrangedObjects is updated, limitedArrangedObjects seems not to be observing the value change in arrangedObjects. I've hooked up an NSCollectionView to limitedArrangedObjects, and zero objects are being displayed. (If I bind it to arrangedObjects instead, all the objects show up as expected.) What's the problem? Here's the relevant code: @property (readonly) NSArray *limitedArrangedObjects; - (NSArray *)limitedArrangedObjects; { NSArray *arrangedObjects = [super arrangedObjects]; NSUInteger upperLimit = 10000; NSUInteger count = [arrangedObjects count]; if (count > upperLimit) count = upperLimit; arrayToReturn = [arrangedObjects subarrayWithRange:NSMakeRange(0, count)]; return arrayToReturn; } + (NSSet *)keyPathsForValuesAffectingValueForKey:(NSString *)key; { NSSet *keyPaths = [super keyPathsForValuesAffectingValueForKey:key]; if ([key isEqualToString:@"limitedArrangedObjects"]) { NSSet *affectingKeys = [NSSet setWithObjects:@"arrangedObjects",nil]; keyPaths = [keyPaths setByAddingObjectsFromSet:affectingKeys]; } return keyPaths; }

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  • WPF validation red border doesn't show If UserControl collapsed first

    - by Creepy Gnome
    There seems to be a bug with WPF in 3.5, and I was hoping someone may have found a workaround. Basically if you have a custom UserControl that contains a TextBox and it is in a Window but initialized to be Collapsed by default in the xaml or code behind if it fails validation when you make the control visible it will not show the red border until it fails while visible. However, this works correctly when visibility is set to Hidden, just no when Collapsed. I am already overriding the ErrorTemplate with a style to workaround the Adornment issue with the red border staying visibile when you collapse the control. Below is my full style for the TextBox. If there is any additional changes or additions to make it work correctly with collapsed controls that would be great. <Style TargetType="TextBox"> <Setter Property="Margin" Value="3" /> <Setter Property="Validation.ErrorTemplate"> <Setter.Value> <ControlTemplate> <ControlTemplate.Resources> <BooleanToVisibilityConverter x:Key="converter" /> </ControlTemplate.Resources> <DockPanel LastChildFill="True"> <Border BorderThickness="2" BorderBrush="Red" Visibility="{ Binding ElementName=placeholder, Mode=OneWay, Path=AdornedElement.IsVisible, Converter={StaticResource converter}}" > <AdornedElementPlaceholder x:Name="placeholder" /> </Border> </DockPanel> </ControlTemplate> </Setter.Value> </Setter> <Style.Triggers> <Trigger Property="Validation.HasError" Value="true" > <Setter Property="ToolTip" Value="{Binding RelativeSource={RelativeSource Self}, Path=(Validation.Errors)[0].ErrorContent}" /> </Trigger> </Style.Triggers> </Style>

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  • Integrating legacy Ajax script in CakePHP

    - by octavian
    Hi, I have a legacy script that I would like to integrate in a cakephp app. The script makes use of $_POST and such and since I'm quite a noob I would need some help for the integration. Here is how the script looks like: THE JAVASCRIPT: prototype.js builder.js (these two are from the prototype fw) lib.js (makes a ajax requests to remote.php) THE PHP remote.php (contains FastJSON class and $_POST vars) if ($_POST['cmd'] == 'SAVETEAM' && $_POST['info']) { $INFO = json_decode(str_replace('\"', '"', $_POST['info'])); $nr = 1; $SORT = array($INFO->GK, $INFO->DEF, $INFO->MID, $INFO->FOR, $INFO->RZ); foreach ($SORT as $STD) foreach ($STD as $v) mysql_query("UPDATE players_teams SET fieldposition = ".$nr++." WHERE player_id = {$v->player_id} AND team_id = {$v->team_id}") or die(mysql_error()); // CAPTAION mysql_query("UPDATE `teams` SET captain = '{$_POST['captain']}' WHERE `user_id` = {$_POST['userid']}") or die(mysql_error()); } transfers.php (containts the form that uses the javascript and link to the JS) I have really no idea how to structure the files and calls in cakephp. Currently I have "Undefined index: cmd [APP/vendors/remote.php, line 230]" errors since I use $_POST['cmd'] (I placed remote.php in Vendors and included it, the JS was just included old fashion way, as a link and appears in the source code). How can I make this work? I'm sorry but I'm not familiar with AJAX and Cake... If you want a full look at the code, here it is: http://octavian.be/thecode.zip Thank you for reading and helping me out.

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  • Can I have two separate projects, 1 WebForms and 1 ASP.NET MVC, to both point to the same domain?

    - by Hamman359
    Is it possible to setup two separate projects, 1 WebForms and 1 ASP.NET MVC, to both point to the same domain? i.e. both point to different pages within www.somesite.com. Here's some background on the application and why I'm asking. This is a brownfield application that is currently 2.0 WebForms and is full of WebFormy 'goodness' (i.e. ObjectDataSources, FormView controls, UpdatePanels, etc...) There are lost of other 'fun' things in the code base like 600+ Stored Procedures and 200+ line methods in the business layer code that get data from the DB via stored proc, do some processing on the data, build an HTML string using string concatenation and then return that string to the UI layer. What we are planning on doing is developing new features in MVC and slowly converting the existing features over to MVC one at a time. As part of this transition, we will also be re-writing the layers below the UI to clean up the mess there and to do things like replace the stored procedures with NHibernate and introduce an IOC container. I know that you can run WebForms and MVC side-by-side in the same project, however, because we will be making wholesale changes to the way we do many things throughout our entire development stack, I'd like the new stuff to be a completely separate project within the solution. This should help serve as very visual reminder that this is a different way of doing things than before and make it easier to remove the old code as it is no longer needed. What I don't know is, is this even possible? Can two separate project point to the same domain? Here's an quick example of what I'm thinking: www.somesite.com/orders.aspx?id=123 (Orders page from existing WebForms project) www.somesite.com/customer/987 (Customer page from new MVC project)

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  • "Exclusive" DirectDraw palette isn't actually exclusive

    - by CyberShadow
    We're maintaining an old video game that uses a full-screen 256-color graphics mode with DirectDraw. The problem is, some applications running in the background sometimes try to change the system palette while the game is running, which results in corrupted graphics. We can (sometimes) detect when this happens by processing the WM_PALETTECHANGED message. A few update versions ago we added logging (just log the window title/class/process name), which helped users identify offending applications and close them. MSN Live Messenger was a common culprit. The problem got worse when we found out that Windows Vista (and 7) does it "by itself". The WM_PALETTECHANGED parameters point towards CSRSS and the desktop window. In Vista, a workaround that often worked was to open any folder (Computer, Documents, etc.) and leave it open while running the game. Sounds ridiculous, but it worked - in most cases. In Windows 7, not even this workaround worked any more. Users found that stopping some services (Windows Update and the indexing service) also resolved the problem on some configurations. Some time ago I just started trying random things in hope of finding a solution. I found that setting the GDI palette (using Create/SelectPalette) before setting the DirectDraw palette (using IDirectDrawPalette::SetEntries) would restore the palette after it became corrupted (WM_PALETTECHANGED handler). SetSystemPaletteUse and calling SetPalette on the primary surface helped some more. However, there is still perceivable flickering when an application tries to steal the palette, which is especially prominent during fades. Question: is there a way to get a "real" exclusive palette, which completely disallows other applications changing the Windows palette as long as our game retains focus?

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  • C++ boost.asio server and client connection undersanding

    - by Edgar Buchvalov
    i started learning boost.asio and i have some problems with undersanding tcp connections. There is example from official boost site: #include <ctime> #include <iostream> #include <string> #include <boost/asio.hpp> using boost::asio::ip::tcp; std::string make_daytime_string() { using namespace std; // For time_t, time and ctime; time_t now = time(0); return ctime(&now); } int main() { try { boost::asio::io_service io_service; tcp::acceptor acceptor(io_service, tcp::endpoint(tcp::v4(), 13)); for (;;) { tcp::socket socket(io_service); acceptor.accept(socket); std::string message = make_daytime_string(); boost::system::error_code ignored_error; boost::asio::write(socket, boost::asio::buffer(message), boost::asio::transfer_all(), ignored_error); } } catch (std::exception& e) { std::cerr << e.what() << std::endl; } return 0; } there is question, why if i want to connet to this server via client i have t write: boost::asio::io_service io_service; tcp::resolver resolver(io_service); tcp::resolver::query query(host_ip, "daytime"); //why daytime? tcp::resolver::iterator endpoint_iterator = resolver.resolve(query); tcp::resolver::iterator end; why daytime?, what it meant and where it is inicialized in server, or i just doesn't missed somefing? there is full client code : www.boost.org/doc/libs/1_39_0/doc/html/boost_asio/tutorial/tutdaytime1.html thanks for explanation in advance

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  • Rails Heroku Migrate Unknown Error

    - by Ryan Max
    Hello. I am trying to get my app up and running on heroku. However once I go to migrate I get the following error: $ heroku rake db:migrate rake aborted! An error has occurred, this and all later migrations canceled: 530 5.7.0 Must issue a STARTTLS command first. bv42sm676794ibb.5 (See full trace by running task with --trace) (in /disk1/home/slugs/155328_f2d3c00_845e/mnt) == BortMigration: migrating ================================================= -- create_table(:sessions) -> 0.1366s -- add_index(:sessions, :session_id) -> 0.0759s -- add_index(:sessions, :updated_at) -> 0.0393s -- create_table(:open_id_authentication_associations, {:force=>true}) -> 0.0611s -- create_table(:open_id_authentication_nonces, {:force=>true}) -> 0.0298s -- create_table(:users) -> 0.0222s -- add_index(:users, :login, {:unique=>true}) -> 0.0068s -- create_table(:passwords) -> 0.0123s -- create_table(:roles) -> 0.0119s -- create_table(:roles_users, {:id=>false}) -> 0.0029s I'm not sure exactly what it means. Or really what it means at all. Could it have to do with my Bort installation? I did remove all the open-id stuff from it. But I never had any problems with my migrations locally. Additionally on Bort the Restful Authentication uses my gmail stmp to send confirmation emails...all the searches on google i do on STARTTLS have to do with stmp. Can someone point me in the right direction?

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  • When I try to run vim in command line I get Python errors

    - by Eduan
    When I try running vim in the Terminal (so as to follow @romainl's suggestion in my other question) I get lots of Python errors, which all boil down to: IOError: invalid Python installation: unable to open /usr/include/python2.7/pyconfig.h (No such file or directory) Why is this? I can use Python or Sublime Text even, without any problems. The full list of errors is the following: Traceback (most recent call last): File "/System/Library/Frameworks/Python.framework/Versions/2.7/lib/python2.7/site.py", line 565, in <module> File "/System/Library/Frameworks/Python.framework/Versions/2.7/lib/python2.7/site.py", line 547, in main File "/System/Library/Frameworks/Python.framework/Versions/2.7/lib/python2.7/site.py", line 278, in addusersitepackages File "/System/Library/Frameworks/Python.framework/Versions/2.7/lib/python2.7/site.py", line 253, in getusersitepackages File "/System/Library/Frameworks/Python.framework/Versions/2.7/lib/python2.7/site.py", line 243, in getuserbase File "/System/Library/Frameworks/Python.framework/Versions/2.7/lib/python2.7/sysconfig.py", line 523, in get_config_var File "/System/Library/Frameworks/Python.framework/Versions/2.7/lib/python2.7/sysconfig.py", line 419, in get_config_vars File "/System/Library/Frameworks/Python.framework/Versions/2.7/lib/python2.7/sysconfig.py", line 298, in _init_posix IOError: invalid Python installation: unable to open /usr/include/python2.7/pyconfig.h (No such file or directory) Extra info: I am on Mac OS X Mountain Lion (OS 10.8) EDIT: I tried @BobDunakey idea with no success, the idea was to use sudo. I still get the same errors. EDIT 2: I was able to solve the problem thanks to Zirak's solution, which is the following: http://clearfix.be/2012/08/05/fix-mountain-lion-10-8-python-ioerror-pyconfig-h-error/

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  • Python - Open default mail client using mailto, with multiple recipients

    - by victorhooi
    Hi, I'm attempting to write a Python function to send an email to a list of users, using the default installed mail client. I want to open the email client, and give the user the opportunity to edit the list of users or the email body. I did some searching, and according to here: http://www.sightspecific.com/~mosh/WWW_FAQ/multrec.html It's apparently against the RFC spec to put multiple comma-delimited recipients in a mailto link. However, that's the way everybody else seems to be doing it. What exactly is the modern stance on this? Anyhow, I found the following two sites: http://2ality.blogspot.com/2009/02/generate-emails-with-mailto-urls-and.html http://www.megasolutions.net/python/invoke-users-standard-mail-client-64348.aspx which seem to suggest solutions using urllib.parse (url.parse.quote for me), and webbrowser.open. I tried the sample code from the first link (2ality.blogspot.com), and that worked fine, and opened my default mail client. However, when I try to use the code in my own module, it seems to open up my default browser, for some weird reason. No funny text in the address bar, it just opens up the browser. The email_incorrect_phone_numbers() function is in the Employees class, which contains a dictionary (employee_dict) of Employee objects, which themselves have a number of employee attributes (sn, givenName, mail etc.). Full code is actually here (http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2963975/python-converting-csv-to-objects-code-design) from urllib.parse import quote import webbrowser .... def email_incorrect_phone_numbers(self): email_list = [] for employee in self.employee_dict.values(): if not PhoneNumberFormats.standard_format.search(employee.telephoneNumber): print(employee.telephoneNumber, employee.sn, employee.givenName, employee.mail) email_list.append(employee.mail) recipients = ', '.join(email_list) webbrowser.open("mailto:%s?subject=%s&body=%s" % (recipients, quote("testing"), quote('testing')) ) Any suggestions? Cheers, Victor

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  • SQL Selects on subsets

    - by Adam
    I need to check if a row exists in a database; however, I am trying to find the way to do this that offers the best performance. This is best summarised with an example. Let's assume I have the following table: dbo.Person( FirstName varchar(50), LastName varchar(50), Company varchar(50) ) Assume this table has millions of rows, however ONLY the column Company has an index. I want to find out if a particular combination of FirstName, LastName and Company exists. I know I can do this: IF EXISTS(select 1 from dbo.Person where FirstName = @FirstName and LastName = @LastName and Company = @Company) Begin .... End However, unless I'm mistaken, that will do a full table scan. What I'd really like it to do is a query where it utilises the index. With the table above, I know that the following query will have great performance, since it uses the index: Select * from dbo.Person where Company = @Company Is there anyway to make the search only on that subset of data? e.g. something like this: select * from ( Select * from dbo.Person where Company = @Company ) where FirstName = @FirstName and LastName = @LastName That way, it would only be doing a table scan on a much narrower collection of data. I know the query above won't work, but is there a query that would? Oh, and I am unable to create temporary tables, as the user will only have read access.

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  • SQL: script to create country, state tables

    - by pcampbell
    Consider writing an application that requires registration for an entity, and the schema has been defined to require the country, state/prov/county data to be normalized. This is fairly typical stuff here. Naming also is important to reflect. Each country has a different name for this entity: USA = states Australia = states + territories Canada = provinces + territories Mexico = states Brazil = states Sweden = provinces UK = counties, principalities, and perhaps more! Most times when approaching this problem, I have to scratch together a list of good countries, and the states/prov/counties of each. The app may be concerned with a few countries and not others. The process is full of pain. It typically involves one of two approaches: opening up some previous DB and creating a CREATE script based on those tables. Run that script in the context of the new system. creating a DTS package from database1 to database2, with all the DDL and data included in the transfer. My goal now is to script the creation and insert of the countries that I'd be concerned with in the app of the day. When I want to roll out Countries X/Y/Z, I'll open CountryX.sql, and load its states into the ProvState table. Question: do you have a set of scripts in your toolset to create schema and data for countries and state/province/county? If so, would you share your scripts here? (U.K. citizens, please feel free to correct me by way of a comment in the use of counties.)

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  • Custom UIView using CALayers disappears after 180º rotation or navigation controller pop

    - by Steve Madsen
    I have a created a custom UIView subclass that is exhibiting some strange behavior. It is a spinning wheel selector, and for performance reasons it is drawn entirely into two CALayer instances. The bottom layer is the wheel itself, which is rotated using setAffineTransform: according to touches. The top layer is eye candy. drawRect: is fairly simple. If the control hasn't been drawn yet (or it's been invalidated), it calls a method that creates the images and assigns them to the layer contents property. - (void) drawRect:(CGRect)rect { if (imageLayer == nil) { [self drawIntoImageLayer]; } [self updateWheelRotation]; } When the view controller using this view first appears, everything is fine. There are two instances where the view completely disappears, however: If the device is rotated a full 180°. After a view controller is popped off the navigation stack and the view becomes visible again. drawRect: is not called either time. Interestingly enough, it IS called after a 90° orientation change, and that causes the view to re-appear. How can I ensure that a custom view using CALayers is redrawn properly in these situations?

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  • latin1/unicode conversion problem with ajax request and special characters

    - by mfn
    Server is PHP5 and HTML charset is latin1 (iso-8859-1). With regular form POST requests, there's no problem with "special" characters like the em dash (–) for example. Although I don't know for sure, it works. Probably because there exists a representable character for the browser at char code 150 (which is what I see in PHP on the server for a literal em dash with ord). Now our application also provides some kind of preview mechanism via ajax: the text is sent to the server and a complete HTML for a preview is sent back. However, the ordinary char code 150 em dash character when sent via ajax (tested with GET and POST) mutates into something more: %E2%80%93. I see this already in the apache log. According to various sources I found, e.g. http://www.tachyonsoft.com/uc0020.htm , this is the UTF8 byte representation of em dash and my current knowledge is that JavaScript handles everything in Unicode. However within my app, I need everything in latin1. Simply said: just like a regular POST request would have given me that em dash as char code 150, I would need that for the translated UTF8 representation too. That's were I'm failing, because with PHP on the server when I try to decode it with either utf8_decode(...) or iconv('UTF-8', 'iso-8859-1', ...) but in both cases I get a regular ? representing this character (and iconv also throws me a notice: Detected an illegal character in input string ). My goal is to find an automated solution, but maybe I'm trying to be überclever in this case? I've found other people simply doing manual replacing with a predefined input/output set; but that would always give me the feeling I could loose characters. The observant reader will note that I'm behind on understanding the full impact/complexity with things about Unicode and conversion of chars and I definitely prefer to understand the thing as a whole then a simply manual mapping. thanks

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  • Subsonic, child records, and collections

    - by Dane
    Hi, I've been working with subsonic for a few weeks now, and it is working really well. However, I've just run into an issue with child objects with additional partial properties. Some of it is probably me just not understanding the .Net object lifecycle. I have an object - search. This has a few properties like permissions and stuff, and it links to a child table called search_options. In my Asp.Net app, it loops through these search options and creates controls. Then on postback, it grabs the values and assigns it back to a "value" property on the search_option. This value property is a simple string that's defined in a partial class. I then want to create a method on the search object, called PerformSearch. This then loops through the child search_options, and performs a custom query based on the "value" property. However, even though I assign the "value" property to the child search_option, when I access it later via the search.search_options collection, it is null. I'm guessing that maybe because it's accessing it in two different places, it performs another lazy load from the DB and the value is lost? Is there a way to tell the class that it's already loaded or something? or a way to access it so it's not reloaded from the DB? Code is below (shitty pseudocode, not full version) : ASP.Net page, loading back the values from postback : dim obj_search as search = new subsonic.query.select().......' retrieves the search object for each opt as search_option in obj_search.search_options opt.Value = Ctype(FindControl("search_option_" + opt.search_option_id),Textbox).Text debug.print(opt.Value) ' value is correct next for each opt as search_option in obj_search.search_options debug.print(opt.Value) 'this is nothing next Now, the partial class : public partial class search_option private m_value as string public property Value() as string get return m_value end get set( byval value as string) m_value = value end set end property end class

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  • PHP Post Count in Forum

    - by Chris
    I'm currently desiging a forum application, I considered using a premade but decided against it as it's useful for me to learn some of the techniques. So I've written a fairly full featured forum... great. One of the problems I want to solve is to include user data for each post, at the minute the post table includes the poster ID (obviously) and I added the poster's username at a later date so I didn't have to query the User DB for X number of posts in a thread. However, it's become apparent I now want to do this, usernames don't need to update retrospectively, however avatars, sigs, and especially post counts need to update actively, so data in some form needs keeping up to date somewhere... What would be a good way of implementing this? I obviously don't want to include any more user data on the Posts DB table than necessary, but I'm struggling to find an easy way to do this short of querying the DB for each post in a thread, which is potentially going to create a lot of traffic. How have other people solved this, I've been examining the code on some other open source apps but I can't find what I'm looking for. Is it possible to select multiple records in one query? In which case I could build an array dynamically on each page request (eg 'SQL blah blah' then a for each loop to insert the ID's). Could I join the tables each time? Do I submit a query for each post? Hmm.

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  • AJAX vs ActiveX/Flash for browser-based game

    - by iconiK
    I have been following the usage of JavaScript for the past few years, and with the release of extremely fast scripting engines (V8, SquirrelFish Extrene, TraceMonkey, etc.) the possibilities of JavaScript have increased dramatically. However, the usage share of Internet Explorer coupled with it's total lack of support for recent standards makes me want to drop a bomb on Microsoft's HQ, as it creates a huge amount of problems for any website. The game will need to be pretty dynamic client-side, with animations and other eye-candy things, but not a full-blown game like those that run directly in the OS using DirectX or OpenGL. However, this might be a little stretch for JavaScript and will certainly feel extremely slow in Internet Explorer (given that the current IE engine can be hundreds of times slower than SFX; gotta see what IE9 will bring), would it be better to just do the whole thing in Flash? I know this means requiring the plug-in AND I have no experience whatsoever with Flash (other than browsing YouTube :P). It also means I can't just output directly from PHP, I would have to use XML or some other format to pass data to it (JSON is directly integrated in JS and PHP can deal with it easily). Another idea would be to provide an alternative interface just for IE, though I don't know how (ActiveX maybe? or with Flash, then why not just provide it to all browsers) or totally not supporting it and requiring the use of other browsers, although this is plain stupid from a business perspective. So here am I, wondering what approach to take and thus asking for your advice. How should I build the client-side? AJAX in all browsers, Flash in all browsers or a mix (AJAX for "modern" browsers and something else for the "grandpa": IE).

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  • Copy SQL Server data from one server to another on a schedule

    - by rwmnau
    I have a pair of SQL Servers at different webhosts, and I'm looking for a way to periodically update the one server using the other. Here's what I'm looking for: As automated as possible - ideally, without any involvement on my part once it's set up. Pushes a number of databases, in their entirely (including any schema changes) from one server to the other Freely allows changes on the source server without breaking my process. For this reason, I don't want to use replication, as I'd have to break it every time there's an update on the source, and then recreate the publication and subscription One database is about 4GB in size and contains binary data. I'm not sure if there's a way to export this to a script, but it would be a mammoth file if I did. Originally, I was thinking of writing something that takes a scheduled full backup of each database, FTPs the backups from one server to the other once they're done, and then the new server picks it up and restores it. The only downside I can see to this is that there's no way to know that the backups are done before starting to transfer them - can these backups be done synchronously? Also, the server being refreshes is our test server, so if there's some downtime involved in moving the data, that's fine. Does anybody out there have a better idea, or is what I'm currently considering the best non-replication way to go? Thanks for your help, everybody. UPDATE: I ended up designing a custom solution to get this done using BAT files, 7Zip,command line FTP, and OSQL, so it runs in a completely automatic way and aggregates the data from a dozen servers across the country. I've detailed the steps in a blog entry. Thanks for all your input!

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  • Running a GWT application (including Applets) inside an IFRAME from an ASP.NET 3.5 app?

    - by Jay Stevens
    We are looking at integrating a full-blown GWT (Google Web Toolkit 2.0) application with an existing ASP.NET 3.5 application. My first gut reaction is that this is a horrible frankenstein idea. However, the customer has insisted that we use this application developed by a third-party. I have almost NO CONTROL over the development of the GWT app. My first thought is to actually attempt to embed this in an iFrame. Because GWT is running under Tomcat/Jakarta, it is hosted on a different server from the .NET app so the iFrame src will be to a URL on the other machine. I need to utilize our own ASP.NET authorization scheme to restrict access to the embedded GWT application. The GWT app also uses embedded java applets, which don't seem to be working right now inside the iframe. The GWT app makes calls to a backend server (using GWT-RPC?). Any major problems with this approach that anyone can see? Will GWT work on an iframe while hosted on a different machine? NOTE: SIMPLY ADDING A DIV WITH THE SAME NAME DOES NOT WORK FOR THIS!

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  • Strings exported from a module have changed line breaks

    - by Jesse Millikan
    In a DrScheme project, I'm using a MrEd editor-canvas% with text% and inserting a string from a literal in a Scheme file. This results in an extra blank line in the editor for each line of text I'm trying to insert. I've tracked this down to the apparent fact that string literals from outside modules are getting extra line breaks. Here's a full example. The editor is irrelevant at this point, but it displays the result. ; test-literals.ss (module test-literals scheme (provide (all-defined-out)) (define exported-string "From another module with some more line breaks. ")) ; editor-test.ss (module editor-test scheme (require mred "test-literals.ss") (define w (instantiate frame% ("Editor Test" #f) )) (define c (instantiate editor-canvas% (w) (line-count 12) (min-width 400))) (define editor (instantiate text% ())) (send c set-editor editor) (send w show #t) (send editor erase) (send editor insert "Some text with some line breaks. ") (send editor insert exported-string)) And the result in the editor is Some text with some line breaks. From another module with some more line breaks. I've traced in and figured out that it's changing Unix line breaks to Windows line breaks when strings are imported from another module, but these display as double line breaks. Why is this happening and is there a way to stop it other than changing every imported string?

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