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  • php user authentication libraries / frameworks ... what are the options?

    - by es11
    I am using PHP and the codeigniter framework for a project I am working on, and require a user login/authentication system. For now I'd rather not use SSL (might be overkill and the fact that I am using shared hosting discourages this). I have considered using openID but decided that since my target audience is generally not technical, it might scare users away (not to mention that it requires mirroring of login information etc.). I know that I could write a hash based authentication (such as sha1) since there is no sensitive data being passed (I'd compare the level of sensitivity to that of stackoverflow). That being said, before making a custom solution, it would be nice to know if there are any good libraries or packages out there that you have used to provide semi-secure authentication? I am new to codeigniter, but something that integrates well with it would be preferable. Any ideas? (i'm open to criticism on my approach and open to suggestions as to why I might be crazy not to just use ssl). Thanks in advance. Update: I've looked into some of the suggestions. I am curious to try out zend-auth since it seems well supported and well built. Does anyone have experience with using zend-auth in codeigniter (is it too bulky?) and do you have a good reference on integrating it with CI? I do not need any complex authentication schemes..just a simple login/logout/password-management authorization system. Also, dx_auth seems interesting as well, however I am worried that it is too buggy. Has anybody else had success with this? I realized that I would also like to manage guest users (i.e. users that do not login/register) in a similar way to stackoverflow..so any suggestions that have this functionality would be great

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  • Java SSH2 libraries in depth: Trilead/Ganymed/Orion [/other?]

    - by Bernd Haug
    I have been searching for a pure Java SSH library to use for a project. The single most important needed feature is that it has to be able to work with command-line git, but remote-controlling command-line tools is also important. A pretty common choice, e.g. used in the IntelliJ IDEA git integration (which works very well), seems to be Trilead SSH2. Looking at their website, it's not being maintained any more. Trilead seems to have been a fork of Ganymed SSH2, which was a ETH Zurich project that didn't see releases for a while, but had a recent release by its new owner, Christian Plattner. There is another actively maintained fork from that code base, Orion SSH, that saw an even more recent release, but which seems to get mentioned online much less than the other 2 forks. Has anybody here worked with any of (or, if possible, both) of Ganymed and Orion and could kindly describe the development experience with either/both? Accuracy of documentation [existence of documentation?], stability, buggyness... - all of these would be highly interesting to me. Performance is not so important for my current project. If there is another pure-Java SSH implementation that should be used instead, please feel free to mention it, but please don't just mention a name...describe your judgment from actual experience. Sorry if this question may seem a bit "do my homework"-y, but I've really searched for reviews. Everything out there seems to be either a listing of implementations or short "use this! it's great!" snippets.

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  • Powershell invoke-command with PSCredential in line

    - by jaffa
    I need to be able to run a command on another server. This script acts as a bootstrap to another script which is run on the actual server. This works great on servers on the same domain, but if I need to run this script on a remote server, I need to specify credentials. The command is kicked off from a Msbuild targets file like so: <Target Name="PreDeployment" Condition="true" BeforeTargets="MSDeployPublish"> <Exec Command="powershell.exe -ExecutionPolicy Bypass invoke-command bootstrapScript.ps1 -computername $(MyServer) -argumentlist param1, param2" /> </Target> However, I need to be able to supply the credentials by creating a new PSCredentials object with a secure password for my deployment script to run on a remote server: <Target Name="PreDeployment" Condition="true" BeforeTargets="MSDeployPublish"> <Exec Command="powershell.exe -ExecutionPolicy Bypass invoke-command bootstrapScript.ps1 -computername $(MyServer) -credential New-Object System.Management.Automation.PSCredential ('admin', (convertto-securestring $(Password) -asplaintext -force)) -argumentlist param1, param2" /> </Target> When I run the build, a dialog pops up with the username set to System.Management.Automation.PSCredential. I need to be able to create the credentials in-line on the executable target. How do I accomplish this?

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  • Spring-MVC Problem using @Controller on controller implementing an interface

    - by layne
    I'm using spring 2.5 and annotations to configure my spring-mvc web context. Unfortunately, I am unable to get the following to work. I'm not sure if this is a bug (seems like it) or if there is a basic misunderstanding on how the annotations and interface implementation subclassing works. For example, @Controller @RequestMapping("url-mapping-here") public class Foo { @RequestMapping(method=RequestMethod.GET) public void showForm() { ... } @RequestMapping(method=RequestMethod.POST) public String processForm() { ... } } works fine. When the context starts up, the urls this handler deals with are discovered, and everything works great. This however does not: @Controller @RequestMapping("url-mapping-here") public class Foo implements Bar { @RequestMapping(method=RequestMethod.GET) public void showForm() { ... } @RequestMapping(method=RequestMethod.POST) public String processForm() { ... } } When I try to pull up the url, I get the following nasty stack trace: javax.servlet.ServletException: No adapter for handler [com.shaneleopard.web.controller.RegistrationController@e973e3]: Does your handler implement a supported interface like Controller? org.springframework.web.servlet.DispatcherServlet.getHandlerAdapter(DispatcherServlet.java:1091) org.springframework.web.servlet.DispatcherServlet.doDispatch(DispatcherServlet.java:874) org.springframework.web.servlet.DispatcherServlet.doService(DispatcherServlet.java:809) org.springframework.web.servlet.FrameworkServlet.processRequest(FrameworkServlet.java:571) org.springframework.web.servlet.FrameworkServlet.doGet(FrameworkServlet.java:501) javax.servlet.http.HttpServlet.service(HttpServlet.java:627) However, if I change Bar to be an abstract superclass and have Foo extend it, then it works again. @Controller @RequestMapping("url-mapping-here") public class Foo extends Bar { @RequestMapping(method=RequestMethod.GET) public void showForm() { ... } @RequestMapping(method=RequestMethod.POST) public String processForm() { ... } } This seems like a bug. The @Controller annotation should be sufficient to mark this as a controller, and I should be able to implement one or more interfaces in my controller without having to do anything else. Any ideas?

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  • iPhone: Accessing Composite Name in AddressBook Causes EXC_BAD_ACCESS

    - by Fyrian
    Hi everyone. I'm new to iPhone development and have a question I hope someone can help me with. I have a programmer working on an iPhone app for me and when I run the app in the simulator, it works great. But when I try to run it on my actual iPhone, I get a EXC_BAD_ACCESS error and the app locks up. Looking at the debugger, it's referencing the following code in my MainController as the problem: -(void)loadAddressBook{ NSAutoreleasePool *pool = [[NSAutoreleasePool alloc] init]; addressBookLoaded=1; [AddressbookRecord readAllContactTable:[self getDBPath]]; ABAddressBookRef addressBook = ABAddressBookCreate(); for(NSUInteger i=1;i<=ABAddressBookGetPersonCount(addressBook);i++) { ABRecordRef myPerson =ABAddressBookGetPersonWithRecordID (addressBook,(ABRecordID)(i)); NSString *name = (NSString*)ABRecordCopyCompositeName(myPerson); //save in database AddressbookRecord *addObj = [[AddressbookRecord alloc] initWithPrimaryKey:0]; addObj.ClientName=name; [addObj addNewContactEntry]; } addressBookLoaded=2; [pool release]; } More specifically, it points to this specific line as the problem: NSString *name =(NSString*)ABRecordCopyCompositeName(myPerson); My programmer can't seem to figure out what the problem is since he can't replicate it on his end. Does anyone have any ideas what would cause this problem??? Thanks!

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  • How does jquery display an image received from an ajax request?

    - by Gnee
    I have this working great, but I'd like a deeper understanding of what is actually going on behind the scenes. I am using Jquery's Ajax method to pull 5 blog posts (returning only the title and first photo). A PHP script grabs the blog posts' title and first photo and sticks it in an array and sends it back to my browser as JSON. Upon receiving the JSON object, Jquery grabs the first member of the JSON object and displays it's title and photo. In a gallery I made, using buttons – the user can iterate the 1-5 posts. So the actual AJAX call happens right away, and only once. I am basically using this kind of setup: $('my_div').html(json_obj[i]) and each click does a i++. So jquery is plucking these blog posts from my computers memory, my web browsers cache, or some kind of cache in the Javascript engine? One of the things it's returning is a pretty gnarly animated gif. I just wonder if it constantly running in the background (but not visible), stealing processing cycles...etc. Or Javascript just inserting (say a flash movie) into the DOM, but before hand does nothing but take up a little memory (no processing). Anyway, I'm just curious. If someone is a guru on this, I'd love to hear your take. Thanks!!

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  • Uninitialized array offset

    - by kimmothy16
    Hey everyone, I am using PHP to create a form with an array of fields. Basically you can add an unlimited number of 'people' to the form and each person has a first name, last name, and phone number. The form requires that you add a phone number for the first person only. If you leave the phone number field blank on any others, the handler file is supposed to be programmed to use the phone number from the first person. So, my fields are: person[] - a hidden field with a value that is this person's primary key. fname[] - an input field lname[] - an input field phone[] - an input field My form handler looks like this: $people = $_POST['person'] $counter = 0; foreach($people as $person): if($phone[$counter] == '') { // use $phone[0]'s phone number } else { // use $phone[$counter] number } $counter = $counter + 1; endforeach; PHP doesn't like this though, it is throwing me an Notice: Uninitialized string offset error. I debugged it by running the is_array function on people, fname, lname, and phone and it returns true to being an array. I can also manually echo out $phone[2], etc. and get the correct value. I've also ran is_int on the $counter variable and it returned true, so I'm unsure why this isn't working as intended? Any help would be great!

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  • Export database data to csv from view by date range asp.net mvc3

    - by Benjamin Randal
    I am trying to find a way to export data from my database and save it as a .csv file. Ideally the user will be able to select a date range on a view, which will display the data to be exported, then the user can click an "export to CSV" link. I've done quite a bit of searching and but have not found much specific enough to help me step through the process. Any help would be great. I would like to export data from this database model... { public class InspectionInfo { [Key] public int InspectionId { get; set; } [DisplayName("Date Submitted")] [DataType(DataType.Date)] // [Required] public DateTime Submitted { get; set; } [DataType(DataType.MultilineText)] [MaxLength(1000)] // [Required] public string Comments { get; set; } // [Required] public Contact Contact { get; set; } [ForeignKey("Contact")] public Int32 ContactId { get; set; } [MaxLength(100)] public String OtherContact { get; set; } I have a service for search also, just having difficulty implementing public SearchResults SearchInspections(SearchRequest request) { using (var db = new InspectionEntities()) { var results = db.InspectionInfos .Where( i=> ( (null == request.StartDate || i.Submitted >= request.StartDate.Value) && (null == request.EndDate || i.Submitted <= request.EndDate.Value) ) ) .OrderBy(i=>i.Submitted) .Skip(request.PageSize*request.PageIndex).Take(request.PageSize); return new SearchResults{ TotalResults=results.Count(), PageIndex=request.PageIndex, Inspections=results.ToList(), SearchRequest=request }; } }

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  • ASMX Web Service online works when all of the code is in one file without code-behind

    - by Ben McCormack
    I have an ASMX Web Service that has its code entirely in a code-behind file, so that the entire contents of the .asmx file is: <%@ WebService Language="C#" CodeBehind="~/App_Code/AddressValidation.cs" Class="AddressValidation" %> On my test machine (Windows XP with IIS 5), I set up a virtual directory just for this ASP.NET 2.0 solution and everything works great. All my code is separated nicely and it just works. However, when we deployed this solution to our Windows Server 2003 development environment, we noticed that the code only compiled when all of the code was dropped directly into the .asmx file, meaning that the solution didn't work with code-behind. We can't figure out why this is happening. One thing that's different about our setup in our development environment is that instead of creating a separate virual directory just for this solution, we dropped it into an existing directory that runs a classic ASP application. So here we have a folder with an ASP.NET 2.0 application within a directory that contains a classic ASP application. Granted, everything in the ASP.NET 2.0 application works if all of the code is within the .asmx file and not in code-behind, but we'd really like to know why it's not recognizing the code-behind files and compiling it correctly.

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  • 2 different routes on one page?

    - by Dejan.S
    Hi I'm pretty new with MVC2 or MVC in general. If it's one thing I get caught up with it's routes. Like now I got this scenario. Im going from the regular site to Admin. My navigation is the same partialview on both I just do a check which data to render something like this. <% if (!Request.RawUrl.Contains("Admin")){%> <% foreach (var site in Model) { %> <%= Html.MenuItem(site.BelongSite, "Sida", "Site", site.BelongSite) %> | <%} %> <%} else {%> <%= Html.ActionLink("Konfig", "Konfigurera", "Admin") %> <% } %> My route looks like this routes.MapRoute( "Admin", // Route name "Admin/{action}/{name}", // URL with parameters new { controller = "Admin", action = "konfigurera", name = UrlParameter.Optional } // Parameter defaults ); On my View called Konfigurera I got Edit sites and they use the route above and it works great. The navigation tho dont get no action assigned to it. It's just <a href='Admin/'> The navigation is in the shared folder, and it is a strongly typed. Any Ideas? I been struggling with this for about a hour now Thanks for any input

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  • Need help writing jQuery to loop through table and inject markers into google map?

    - by abemonkey
    I am new to jQuery. I've done some simple things with it but what I am attempting now is a over my head and I need some help. I am building a locator for all the firearms dealers in the US for a client. I am working within Drupal. I have a proximity search by zip code that works great. If you search by zip a list of paginated results shows up in an html table that can by paged through via ajax. I would like a map to be above this list with markers corresponding to the names and addresses being listed. I already have all the lat and long values in the table results. I want the script to update the markers and automatically zoom to fit the markers in the view when a user changes the sort order of the table or pages through the results. Also, I'd like to have a hover highlight effect over the rows of the table that simultaneously highlight the corresponding marker, and have a click on the table row equal a click on a marker that pops up a marker info window to be populated using jQuery to read the name and address fields of the table. Hope this all makes sense. I know I'm putting a lot out there, I'm not asking for someone to write the whole script, just wanted to give as many details as possible. Thanks for any help. I'm just lost when it comes to looping and moving data around. If you want to check out what I have so far on the project please visit: www.axtsweapons.com and login with the username: "test" and the password: "1234" and then visit this direct link: www.axtsweapons.com/ffllocator. For just a simple page that would be easy to manipulate and play with goto: http://www.axtsweapons.com/maptest.html Thanks!

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  • Why doesn't this jQuery snippet work in IE8 like it does in Firefox or Chrome (Live Demo Included) ?

    - by Siracuse
    I asked for help earlier on Stackoverflow involving highlighting spans with the same Class when a mouse hovers over any Span with that same Class. It is working great: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2709686/how-can-i-add-a-border-to-all-the-elements-that-share-a-class-when-the-mouse-has $('span[class]').hover( function() { $('.' + $(this).attr('class')).css('background-color','green'); }, function() { $('.' + $(this).attr('class')).css('background-color','yellow'); } ) Here is an example of it in usage: http://dl.dropbox.com/u/638285/0utput.html However, it doesn't appear to work properly in IE8, while it DOES work in Chrome/Firefox. Here is a screenshot of it in IE8, with my mouse hovered over the " min) { min" section in the middle. As you can see, it highlighted the span that the mouse is hovering over perfectly fine. However, it has also highlighted some random spans above and below it that don't have the same class! Only the span's with the same Class as the one where the mouse is over should be highlighted green. In this screenshot, only that middle green section should be green. Here is a screenshot of it working properly in Firefox/Chrome with my mouse in the exact same position: This screenshot is correct as the span that the mouse is over (the green section) is the only one in this section that shares that class. Why is IE8 randomly green-highlighting spans when it shouldn't be (they don't share the same class) using my little jQuery snippet? Again, if you want to see it live I have it here: http://dl.dropbox.com/u/638285/0utput.html

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  • Conditional macro expansion

    - by Dave DeLong
    Heads up: This is a weird question. I've got some really useful macros that I like to use to simplify some logging. For example I can do Log(@"My message with arguments: %@, %@, %@", @"arg1", @"arg2", @"arg3"), and that will get expanded into a more complex method invocation that includes things like self, _cmd, __FILE__, __LINE__, etc, so that I can easily track where things are getting logged. This works great. Now I'd like to expand my macros to not only work with Objective-C methods, but general C functions. The problem is the self and _cmd portions that are in the macro expansion. These two parameters don't exist in C functions. Ideally, I'd like to be able to use this same set of macros within C functions, but I'm running into problems. When I use (for example) my Log() macro, I get compiler warnings about self and _cmd being undeclared (which makes total sense). My first thought was to do something like the following (in my macro): if (thisFunctionIsACFunction) { DoLogging(nil, nil, format, ##__VA_ARGS__); } else { DoLogging(self, _cmd, format, ##__VA_ARGS__); } This still produces compiler warnings, since the entire if() statement is substituted in place of the macro, resulting in errors with the self and _cmd keywords (even though they will never be executed during function execution). My next thought was to do something like this (in my macro): if (thisFunctionIsACFunction) { #define SELF nil #define CMD nil } else { #define SELF self #define CMD _cmd } DoLogging(SELF, CMD, format, ##__VA_ARGS__); That doesn't work, unfortunately. I get "error: '#' is not followed by a macro parameter" on my first #define. My other thought was to create a second set of macros, specifically for use in C functions. This reeks of a bad code smell, and I really don't want to do this. Is there some way I can use the same set of macros from within both Objective-C methods and C functions, and only reference self and _cmd if the macro is in an Objective-C method?

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  • firefox lead dot in cookie issue

    - by Jon
    Hi all, We are having an annoying issue with Firefox and cookies. We have the following domains: sub1.mydomain.com sub2.mydomain.com sub3.mydomain.com otherdomain.com We have converting our framework to be multilingual and providing a drop down to change the language at any point during site. The code base is shared across all the domains above. We can not set a cookie across all "mydomain.com" sites, they have to be on each of the sub domains. To get this to work we set a JavaScript cookie when the users chooses a new language. When the page posts back to the server the code picks this up and sets the users preferences to that new language code, (this is all C# and ASP.NET). We have to set the host to be "subX.mydomain.com" and the path to be "/" in the cookie so that it is just for the subdomain and all parts of that domain. This works great on all browsers apart from FireFox. It seems that firefox will pre append a DOT to the beginning of domain so ".subX.mydomain.com". When the code posts back with FireFox the cookie is always null. Has anyone had this situation, (I imagine it is not al that uncommon). I have read a lot of people saying, remove the domain from the cookie, but that can not work for us as we have multiple subdomains that need their own cookie values. Thanks

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  • PHP - Best practice to retain form values across postback

    - by Adam
    Hello, Complete PHP novice here, almost all my previous work was in ASP.NET. I am now working on a PHP project, and the first rock I have stumbled upon is retaining values across postback. For the most simple yet still realistic example, i have 10 dropdowns. They are not even databound yet, as that is my next step. They are simple dropdowns. I have my entire page inclosed in a tag. the onclick() event for each dropdown, calls a javascript function that will populate the corrosponding dropdowns hidden element, with the dropdowns selected value. Then, upon page reload, if that hidden value is not empty, i set the selected option = that of my hidden. This works great for a single postback. However, when another dropdown is changed, the original 1'st dropdown loses its value, due to its corrosponding hidden value losing its value as well! This draws me to look into using querystring, or sessions, or... some other idea. Could someone point me in the right direction, as to which option is the best in my situation? I am a PHP novice, however I am being required to do some pretty intense stuff for my skill level, so I need something flexable and preferribly somewhat easy to use. Thanks! -----edit----- A little more clarification on my question :) When i say 'PostBack' I am referring to the page/form being submitted. The control is passed back to the server, and the HTML/PHP code is executed again. As for the dropdowns & hiddens, the reason I used hidden variables to retain the "selected value" or "selected index", is so that when the page is submitted, I am able to redraw the dropdown with the previous selection, instead of defaulting back to the first index. When I use the $_POST[] command, I am unable to retrieve the dropdown by name, but I am able to retrieve the hidden value by name. This is why upon dropdown-changed event, I call javascript which sets the selected value from the dropdown into its corrosponding hidden.

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  • A moral dilemma - What job to go for?

    - by StefanE
    Here is the story: I have accepted an offer from a gaming company to work as an senior test engineer / developer. I have not yet received an signed copy of the contract. I will get a bit less salary then I asked for and it is as well less than I have today. The company have booked flight tickets for my move over there. Now comes the problem. I did an telephone interview with a company last week and they have asked me for an in person interview and are willing to pay for flights for the meeting. This company is my first choice(and have been for a few years) and would also benefit my career and I believe I will enjoy working there more. What should I do here.. I do feel uncomfortable giving a last minute rejection when I have over the phone accepted the offer, but on the other hand they have yet produced a signed contract and as well paying me a bit less than I think I'm worth. The business is small in many ways and I don't want to end up with a bad reputation. Would be great to hear your opinions!

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  • My perl script is acting funny...

    - by TheGNUGuy
    I am trying to make a jabber bot from scratch and my script is acting funny. I was originally developing the bot on a remote CentOS box, but I have switched to a local Win7 machine. Right now I'm using ActiveState Perl and I'm using Eclipse with the perl plugin to run a debug the script. The funny behavior I'm experiencing occurs when I run or debug the script. If I run the script using the debugger it works fine, meaning I can send messages to the bot and it can send messages to me. However when I just execute the script normally the bot sends the successful connection message then it disconnects from my jabber server and the script ends. I'm a novice when it comes to perl and I can't figure out what I'm doing wrong. My guess is it has something to do with the subroutines and sending the presence of the bot. (I know for sure that it has something to do with sending the bot's presence because if the presence code is removed, the script behaves as expected except the bot doesn't appear to be online.) If anyone can help me with this that would be great. I originally had everything in 1 file but separated them into several trying to figure out my problem here are the pastebin links to my source code. jabberBot.pl: http://pastebin.com/cVifv0mm chatRoutine.pm: http://pastebin.com/JXmMT7av trimSpaces.pm: http://pastebin.com/SkeuWtu1 Thanks again for any help!

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  • Mono doesn't write settings defaults

    - by Petar Minchev
    Hi guys! Here is my problem. If I use only one Windows Forms project and call only - Settings.Default.Save() when running it, Mono creates a user.config file with the default value for each setting. It is fine, so far so good. But now I add a class library project, which is referenced from the Windows Forms project and I move the settings from the Windows Forms project to the Class Library one. Now I do the same - Settings.Default.Save() and to my great surprise, Mono creates a user.config file with EMPTY values(NOT the default ones) for each setting?! What's the difference between having the settings in the Windows Forms Project or in the class library one? And by the way it is not a operating system issue. It is a Mono issue, because it doesn't work both under Windows and Linux. If I don't use Mono everything is fine, but I have to port my application to Linux, so I have to use Mono. I am really frustrated, it is blocking a project:( Thanks in advance for any suggestion you have. Regards, Petar

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  • Rails does not display error messages on a form in a custom method

    - by slythic
    Hi all, I've created a custom method called checkout in my app. I create an order (which is done my adding products to my "cart"), assign it to my client, and then I head to my checkout screen where I confirm the items and enter their customer order number and complete the order (submit). Everything works great except that it doesn't display error messages. I'm able to display a flash error notice (seen in complete_order method) when things go wrong but it doesn't specify the details like a normal form would. The error messages should appear if the customer order number is not unique for that client. Below is the custom method (checkout) related code. Order Model: validates_uniqueness_of :customer_order_number, :scope => :client_id Orders_controller: def checkout @order = current_order end def complete_order @order = current_order respond_to do |format| if @order.update_attributes(params[:order]) @order.complete #sets submitted datetime and state to 'complete' flash[:notice] = 'Thank you! Your order is being processed.' format.html { redirect_to( products_path ) } format.xml { head :ok } else flash[:error] = 'Please review your items' #added to confirm an error is present format.html { redirect_to( checkout_path ) } format.xml { render :xml => @order.errors, :status => :unprocessable_entity } end end end And the form in the checkout view: <% form_for @order, :url => { :controller => "orders", :action => "complete_order" } do |f| %> <%= f.error_messages %> <%= f.text_field :customer_order_number, :label => "Purchase Order Number" %> <p> <%= f.submit 'Complete Order', :confirm => 'Are you sure?' %> <small> or <%= link_to 'cancel', current_cart_path %></small> </p> <% end %> Any idea how I can display the specific error messages? Thank you in advance! -Tony

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  • Preferred way of application initialization

    - by lisak
    Do you guys have your own little framework for project startups ? I mean, every time one needs to do the same things at the beginning: Context initialization - ideally after arguments are processed. Sometimes without interactive user input, sometimes with input reader. Sometimes we need to load properties, sometimes not. Then we need to get a class out of context and run its method. Programming....programming until writing shell script to place everything on classpath. It's true that it differs according to the actual needs. But it seems to me, that I'm doing always almost the same, again and again from the scratch. Sometimes I realize that I'm postponing my work just because I don't want to do these annoying startups. It would be great if there was some kind of universal Main class doing reflection to specified bean, context initialization, argument parsing, interactive user input reading and have the programmer do the important things...All setup might be done via spring configuration. I think I'll have to do it by myself. I'd appreciate your ideas

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  • Oracle why does creating trigger fail when there is a field called timestamp?

    - by Omar Kooheji
    I've just wasted the past two hours of my life trying to create a table with an auto incrementing primary key bases on this tutorial, The tutorial is great the issue I've been encountering is that the Create Target fails if I have a column which is a timestamp and a table that is called timestamp in the same table... Why doesn't oracle flag this as being an issue when I create the table? Here is the Sequence of commands I enter: Creating the Table: CREATE TABLE myTable (id NUMBER PRIMARY KEY, field1 TIMESTAMP(6), timeStamp NUMBER, ); Creating the Sequence: CREATE SEQUENCE test_sequence START WITH 1 INCREMENT BY 1; Creating the trigger: CREATE OR REPLACE TRIGGER test_trigger BEFORE INSERT ON myTable REFERENCING NEW AS NEW FOR EACH ROW BEGIN SELECT test_sequence.nextval INTO :NEW.ID FROM dual; END; / Here is the error message I get: ORA-06552: PL/SQL: Compilation unit analysis terminated ORA-06553: PLS-320: the declaration of the type of this expression is incomplete or malformed Any combination that does not have the two lines with a the word "timestamp" in them works fine. I would have thought the syntax would be enough to differentiate between the keyword and a column name. As I've said I don't understand why the table is created fine but oracle falls over when I try to create the trigger... CLARIFICATION I know that the issue is that there is a column called timestamp which may or may not be a keyword. MY issue is why it barfed when I tried to create a trigger and not when I created the table, I would have at least expected a warning. That said having used Oracle for a few hours, it seems a lot less verbose in it's error reporting, Maybe just because I'm using the express version though. If this is a bug in Oracle how would one who doesn't have a support contract go about reporting it? I'm just playing around with the express version because I have to migrate some code from MySQL to Oracle.

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  • reddit style voting with django

    - by dotty
    Hay i need to hand implemeneting a voting system into a model. I've had a huge helping hand from Mike DeSimone making this work in the first place, but i need to expand upon his work. Here is my current code View def show_game(request): game = Game.objects.get(pk=1) discussions = game.gamediscussion_set.filter(reply_to=None) d = { 'game':game, 'discussions':discussions } return render_to_response('show_game', d) Template <ul> {% for discussion in discussions %} {{ discussion.html }} {% endfor %} </ul> Model class GameDiscussion(models.Model): game = models.ForeignKey(Game) message = models.TextField() reply_to = models.ForeignKey('self', related_name='replies', null=True, blank=True) created_on = models.DateTimeField(blank=True, auto_now_add=True) userUpVotes = models.ManyToManyField(User, blank=True, related_name='threadUpVotes') userDownVotes = models.ManyToManyField(User, blank=True, related_name='threadDownVotes') def html(self): DiscussionTemplate = loader.get_template("inclusions/discussionTemplate") return DiscussionTemplate.render(Context({ 'discussion': self, 'replies': [reply.html() for reply in self.replies.all()] })) DiscussionTemplate <li> {{ discussion.message }} {% if replies %} <ul> {% for reply in replies %} {{ reply }} {% endfor %} </ul> {% endif %} </li> As you can see we have 2 fields userUpVotes and userDownVotes on the model, these will calculate how to order the discussions and replies. How would i implement these 2 fields to order the replies and discussions based on votes? Any help would be great!

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  • How do I test database-related code with NUnit?

    - by Michael Haren
    I want to write unit tests with NUnit that hit the database. I'd like to have the database in a consistent state for each test. I thought transactions would allow me to "undo" each test so I searched around and found several articles from 2004-05 on the topic: http://weblogs.asp.net/rosherove/archive/2004/07/12/180189.aspx http://weblogs.asp.net/rosherove/archive/2004/10/05/238201.aspx http://davidhayden.com/blog/dave/archive/2004/07/12/365.aspx http://haacked.com/archive/2005/12/28/11377.aspx These seem to resolve around implementing a custom attribute for NUnit which builds in the ability to rollback DB operations after each test executes. That's great but... Does this functionality exists somewhere in NUnit natively? Has this technique been improved upon in the last 4 years? Is this still the best way to test database-related code? Edit: it's not that I want to test my DAL specifically, it's more that I want to test pieces of my code that interact with the database. For these tests to be "no-touch" and repeatable, it'd be awesome if I could reset the database after each one. Further, I want to ease this into an existing project that has no testing place at the moment. For that reason, I can't practically script up a database and data from scratch for each test.

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  • Can't add object to Array in jQuery's getJSON data function (scope issue)

    - by seo20
    I have a person object and wants to store it into a global ArrayCollection I have made. Works great in normal scope: var s = new ArrayCollection(); s.add(new person("Knud", "Mikkelsen", 35)); The problem is when I want to add people inside my jQuery function "mainFunction". I can't seem to get it right. I know it's something to do with scope and I have to wrap something in functions like in my ArrayCollection. Please help me - thanks a lot. function ArrayCollection() { var myArray = new Array; return { empty: function () { myArray.splice(0, myArray.length); }, add: function (myElement) { myArray.push(myElement); }, getAll: function () { return myArray; } } } function person(firstName, lastName, age) { this.firstName = firstName; this.lastName = lastName; this.age = parseInt(parseFloat(age)); } function mainFunction() { //.... var s = new ArrayCollection(); s.add(new person("Knud", "Mikkelsen", 35)); $.getJSON(url, function (data) { for (var x = 0; x < data.length; x++) { var myPerson = new person(data[x].FirstName.toString(), data[x].LastName.toString(), data[x].Age.toString()); s.add(myPerson); } }); alert(drawArray(s.getAll())); } function drawArray(myArray) { var v = ""; for (var i = 0; i < myArray.length; i++) { v += myArray[i].firstName + " " + myArray[i].lastName + " (" + myArray[i].age + ")\n"; } return v; }

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  • Form Validation - IF field is blank THEN automatically selection option

    - by shovelshed
    Hi I need help to automatically select an option to submit with a form: When the 'form-email' field is blank i want it to select 'option 1' and, When the field is not blank i want it to select 'option 2'. Here's my form code <form method="post" onsubmit="return validate-category(this)" action="tdomf-form-post.php" id='tdomf_form1' name='tdomf_form1' class='tdomf_form'> <textarea title="Post Title" name="content-title-tf" id="form-content" >Say it...</textarea> <input type="text" value="" name="content-text-ta" id="form-email"/> <select name='categories' class='form-category' type="hidden"> <option value="3" type="hidden">Anonymous</option> <option value="4" type="hidden" selected="selected">Competition</option> </select> <input type="submit" value="Say it!" name="tdomf_form1_send" id="form-submit"/> </form> I have an idea that the javascript would go something like this, but can't find what the code is to change the value. <script type="text/javascript"> function validate-category(field) { with (field) { if (value==null||value=="") { select category 1 } else { select category 2 return true; } } } </script> Any help on this would be great. Thanks in advance.

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