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• Export large amount of data from Oracle 10G to SQL Server 2005

  - by uniball

  Dear all, I need to export 100 million data rows (avg row length ~ 100 bytes) from Oracle 10G database table into SQL server (over WAN/VLAN with 6MBits/sec capacity) on a regular basis. So far, these are the options that I have tried and a quick summary. Has anyone tried this before? Are there other better options? Which option would be the best in terms of performance and reliability? The time taken has been calculated using tests on smaller amounts of data and then extrapolating it to estimate the time required. Using data import wizard on the SQL server or SSIS packages to import the data. It will take around 150 hours to complete the task. Using Oracle batch job to spool data into a comma-delimited flat-file. Then using SSIS package to FTP this file to the SQL server and then load directly from the flat-file. The issue here is the size of the flat-file which is expected to run in GBs. Although this option is drastically different, I am even considering the option of using Linked Server to query the Oracle data directly at run-time to avoid bringing in data. Performance is a big problem and I have limited control over the Oracle database in terms of creating table indexes. Regards, Uniball

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• Migrate Data and Schema from MySQL to SQL Server

  - by colithium

  Are there any free solutions for automatically migrating a database from MySQL to SQL Server Server that "just works"? I've been attempting this simple (at least I thought so) task all day now. I've tried: SQL Server Management Studio's Import Data feature Create an empty database Tasks - Import Data... .NET Framework Data Provider for Odbc Valid DSN (verified it connects) Copy data from one or more tables or views Check 1 VERY simple table Click Preview Get Error: The preview data could not be retrieved. ADDITIONAL INFORMATION: ERROR [42000] [MySQL][ODBC 5.1 Driver][mysqld-5.1.45-community]You have an error in your SQL syntax; check the manual that corresponds to your MySQL server version for the right syntax to use near '"table_name"' at line 1 (myodbc5.dll) A similar error occurs if I go through the rest of the wizard and perform the operation. The failed step is "Setting Source Connection" the error refers to retrieving column information and then lists the above error. It can retrieve column information just fine when I modify column mappings so I really don't know what the issue is. I've also tried getting various MySql tools to output ddl statements that SQL Server understand but haven't succeeded. I've tried with MySQL v5.1.11 to SQL Server 2005 and with MySQL v5.1.45 to SQL Server 2008 (with ODBC drivers 3.51.27.00 and 5.01.06.00 respectively)

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• How do I programmatically run all the JUnit tests in my Java application?

  - by Andrew McKinlay

  From Eclipse I can easily run all the JUnit tests in my application. I would like to be able to run the tests on target systems from the application jar, without Eclipse (or Ant or Maven or any other development tool). I can see how to run a specific test or suite from the command line. I could manually create a suite listing all the tests in my application, but that seems error prone - I'm sure at some point I'll create a test and forget to add it to the suite. The Eclipse JUnit plugin has a wizard to create a test suite, but for some reason it doesn't "see" my test classes. It may be looking for JUnit 3 tests, not JUnit 4 annotated tests. I could write a tool that would automatically create the suite by scanning the source files. Or I could write code so the application would scan it's own jar file for tests (either by naming convention or by looking for the @Test annotation). It seems like there should be an easier way. What am I missing?

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• How to get JTree expanded?

  - by Dzmitry Zhaleznichenka

  I have a wizard with several screens where user has to fill his/her details for further processing. At the second screen I have a radio group with three radio buttons that enable additional elements. To proceed, user has to choose one of them. When user selects third button, single-selection JTree filled in with data enables and user has to select an option from it. Then user has to press "Next" to get to next screen. The option he\she had selected is stored as a TreePath. So far so good. My problem is the following. If the user wants to come back from the following screen to the screen with a JTree, I want to provide him\her with the JTree expanded to the option that had been selected and to highlight the option. However, whatsoever I try to do for that (any combinations of expandPath, scrollPathToVisible, addSelectionPath, makeVisible) always provides me with a collapsed tree. I try to expand both leaves and nodes. My code looks like this: rbProcessJTree.setSelected(isProcessJTree()); if (null != getSelectedTablePath()){ trTables.addSelectionPath(getSelectedTablePath()); trTables.expandPath(getSelectedTablePath()); trTables.scrollPathToVisible(getSelectedTablePath()); } When setSelected() is called, state change listener is invoked that enables JTree. The model is loaded during the form initialization. Each time I switch between screens, I save the input data from previous screen and dispose it. Then, when I need to open previous screen back, I save data from the following screen, dispose it, load data to this screen and show it. So each time the screen is generating from scratch. Could you please explain, what sequence of operations has to be done to get JTree expanded in a newly created form,with data model loaded and selection path provided?

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• guide for creating addins for Visual Studio 2010?

  - by JMarsch

  Hello: 2 questions actuall: Is there a good comprensive guide out there for creating add-ins for Visual Studio? Here's a weird specific problem -- I'm trying to get my add-in to load. The code that the wizard stubs into the OnConnect method will add it to the toolbar, but only if it passes this "if" statement: if (connectMode == ext_ConnectMode.ext_cm_UISetup) The problem is that connectMode never seems to equal ext_cm_UISetup. It always seems to equal ext_cm_AfterStartup, and My AddIn never appears on the toolbar. I could cheat and short-circuit the if, but since Visual Studio put that code there, I bet it's right, and I have something else wrong. According to the docs, the value should only ever be ext_cm_UISetup once -- the first time VS encounters the addin. So I probably need to somehow make VS forget about the add-in, but I can't find anywhere to do that. And by the way, isn't that exceptionally delicate? The reason I'm in this pickle is because I happened to get an exception on the first try, so now I can never try again?? Can't be right.

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• Javascript Computed Values With Arrays

  - by user983969

  Jquery Each Json Values Issue This question is similar to above, but not the same before it gets marked duplicated. After realasing how to use computed values i came across another issue. In my javascript i have the following code: var incidentWizard = ['page1.html','page2.html','page3.html']; var magicWizard = ['page1.html','page2.html','page3.html']; var loadedURL = 'page1.html'; The input to this function would be (true,'incident') function(next,wizardname) { var WizSize = incidentWizard.length; wizardName = [wizardName] + 'Wizard'; var wizardPOS = jQuery.inArray(loadedURL,incidentWizard); And now i want to use the wizardname parameter to decide what array i am going to use... Loader(incidentWizard[wizardPOS],true); Ive also tried Loader([incidentWizard][wizardPOS],true); and Loader([incidentWizard][wizardPOS],true); Also the loader function just required the string value in the array at wizardPOS sorry for confusion But when trying this i always end up with the outcome... /incidentWizard I know this is something to do with using computed values but i've tried reading about them and cant seem to solve this issue. Basicly i want to use the computed value of wizardName to access an an array of that name. Please help supports, looking forward to seeing many ways to do this!

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• Entity framework self referencing loop detected

  - by Lyd0n

  I have a strange error. I'm experimenting with a .NET 4.5 Web API, Entity Framework and MS SQL Server. I've already created the database and set up the correct primary and foreign keys and relationships. I've created a .edmx model and imported two tables: Employee and Department. A department can have many employees and this relationship exists. I created a new controller called EmployeeController using the scaffolding options to create an API controller with read/write actions using Entity Framework. In the wizard, selected Employee as the model and the correct entity for the data context. The method that is created looks like this: // GET api/Employee public IEnumerable<Employee> GetEmployees() { var employees = db.Employees.Include(e => e.Department); return employees.AsEnumerable(); } When I call my API via /api/Employee, I get this error: ...The 'ObjectContent`1' type failed to serialize the response body for content type 'application/json; ...System.InvalidOperationException","StackTrace":null,"InnerException":{"Message":"An error has occurred.","ExceptionMessage":"Self referencing loop detected with type 'System.Data.Entity.DynamicProxies.Employee_5D80AD978BC68A1D8BD675852F94E8B550F4CB150ADB8649E8998B7F95422552'. Path '[0].Department.Employees'.","ExceptionType":"Newtonsoft.Json.JsonSerializationException","StackTrace":" ... Why is it self referencing [0].Department.Employees? That doesn't make a whole lot of sense. I would expect this to happen if I had circular referencing in my database but this is a very simple example. What could be going wrong?

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• WCF consumed as WebService adds a boolean parameter?

  - by Martín Marconcini

  I've created the default WCF Service in VS2008. It's called "Service1" public class Service1 : IService1 { public string GetData( int value ) { return string.Format("You entered: {0}", value); } public CompositeType GetDataUsingDataContract( CompositeType composite ) { if ( composite.BoolValue ) { composite.StringValue += "Suffix"; } return composite; } } It works fine, the interface is IService1: [ServiceContract] public interface IService1 { [OperationContract] string GetData( int value ); [OperationContract] CompositeType GetDataUsingDataContract( CompositeType composite ); // TODO: Add your service operations here } This is all by default; Visual Studio 2008 created all this. I then created a simple Winforms app to "test" this. I added the Service Reference to my the above mentioned service and it all works. I can instanciate and call myservice1.GetData(100); and I get the result. But I was told that this service will have to be consumed by a Winforms .NET 2.0 app via Web Services, so I proceeded to add the reference to a new Winforms .NET 2.0 application created from scratch (only one winform called form1). This time, when adding the "web reference", it added the typical "localhost" one belonging to webservices; the wizard saw the WCF Service (running on background) and added it. When I tried to consume this, I found out that the GetData(int) method, was now GetData(int, bool). Here's the code private void button1_Click( object sender, EventArgs e ) { localhost.Service1 s1 = new WindowsFormsApplication2.localhost.Service1(); Console.WriteLine(s1.GetData(100, false)); } Notice the false in the GetData call? I don't know what that parameter is or where did that come from, it is called "bool valueSpecified". Does anybody know where this is coming from? Anything else I should do to consume a WCF Service as a WebService from .NET 2.0? (winforms).

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• Prompting for authentication from a wxPython program and passing it along to IIS?

  - by MetaHyperBolic

  I have a client (written in Python, with a wxPython front end in dead-simple wizard style) which communicates a website running IIS. A python script receives requests and does the usual client-server dance. I would have written this as a browser application, but for the requirement that certain things happen on the local PC that the web can't help with (file manipulation, interfacing with certain USB hardware, etc.) Right now, I am simply using the logon credentials, compounded as a string from os.environ['USERDOMAIN'] and os.environ['USERNAME'], to pass along to the server, which connects to Active Directory and enumerates the members of the group, looking for those logon credentials. It's an ugly hack, but it works. Obviously, I could make people log out of the generic helper accounts and log back into Windows using specific accounts. However, I wondered how feasible it would be to provide some kind of logon prompt wherein the user can type in a name and password, then some kind of authorization token could be passed on to IIS. This seems like something I would not want to do myself, given that amateurs almost always make huge security mistakes. Now you can see why I am wishing this was purely web-based. What's a good way to handle this?

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• displaying a WPF Window from a System.Configuration.Install.Installer class

  - by cbeuker

  Greetings all, I have a question. I have created a WPF application. So, I naturally created an installer (Visual Studio Install project) for it. In the Commit section of the installer I want to launch a WPF window which is my configuration wizard. So I created a Installer class, overrode the Commit method and put the following in method: Application theApp = new Application; theApp.Run (new MyWPFWizardWindow()); I keep getting the error: The calling thread must be STA, because many UI components require this. No problems, this makes as it is a GUI application. But I can't, for the life of me, get the installer to fire up my window. I have tried putting [STAThread] on the method. I have tried firing up a thread and setting the ApartmentState to STA. I am guessing it's something really simple that I am over looking. Anyone have any thoughts? Thanks in advance.. cmb..

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• What are good examples of perfectly acceptable approaches to development that are NOT test driven development (TDD)?

  - by markbruns

  The TDD cycle is test, code, refactor, (repeat) and then ship. TDD implies development that is driven by testing, specifically that means understanding requirements and then writing tests first before developing or writing code. My natural inclination is a philosophical bias in favor of TDD; I would like to be convinced that there are other approaches that now work well or even better than TDD so I have asked this question. What are examples of perfectly acceptable approaches that NOT test driven development? I can think of plenty approaches that are not TDD but could be a lot more trouble than what they are worth ... it's not moral judgement, it's just that they are cost more than they are worth ... the following are simply examples of things that might be ok as learning exercises, but approaches I'd find to be NOT acceptable in serious production and NOT TDD might include: Inspecting quality into your product -- Focusing efforts on developing a proficiency in testing/QA can be problematic, especially if you don't work on the requirements and development side first ... symptom of this include bug triaging where the developers have so many different bugs to deal with it, it is necessary to employ a form of triage -- each development cycle gets worse and worse, programmers work more and more hours, sleep less and less, struggle to keep going in death march until they are consumed. Superstition ... believing in things that you don't understand -- this would involve borrowing code that you believe has been proven or tested from somewhere, e.g. legacy code, a magic code starter wizard or an open source project, and you go forward hacking up a storm of modifications, sliding FaceBook Connect into your the user interface, inventing some new magic features on the fly (e.g. a mashup using the Twitter API, GoogleMaps API and maybe Zappos API), showing off your cool new "product" to a few people and then writing up a simple "specification" and list of "test cases" and turning that over to Mechanical Turk for testing.

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• Validating a phone number in Android PreferenceScreen

  - by djechelon

  I have a PreferenceScreen in which the user is capable, if system can't autodetect it, to enter the device's phone number. I'm still learning this part of Android but I managed to understand a bit of PreferenceScreens by examples provided by Android SDK itself and a few tutorials. What I want is that the user can save the phone number only if null or valid, where by "valid" I mean running a generic validation logic (ie. an anonymous method that returns true or false, that can be reused in any possible situation*) or better, just to simplify things, ^(\+39)?3[0-9]{9}$ For now I have the following XML snip <EditTextPreference android:inputType="phone" android:key="@string/preference_phoneNo" android:selectAllOnFocus="true" android:singleLine="true" android:summary="@string/pref_phoneNumber_description" android:title="@string/pref_phoneNumber" /> and following code by courtesy of Eclipse New Activity wizard: private void setupSimplePreferencesScreen() { if (!isSimplePreferences(this)) { return; } addPreferencesFromResource(R.xml.pref_general); bindPreferenceSummaryToValue(findPreference(getString(R.string.preference_phoneNo))); } addPreferenceFromResource is supposed to load the XML node and add the preference to the screen, while binPreferenceSummaryToValue is supposed to make description text change when preference is updated. Just for sake of completeness for those who don't like code courtesy of the IDE, the second method is provided by Eclipse who also provides a private class in the code file that is /** * A preference value change listener that updates the preference's summary * to reflect its new value. */ In the general case, what should I do to perform validation logic before the preference gets saved when I click OK on the preference editor? Where is the validation logic to be put in a PreferenceScreen? *Aren't we all here to learn?

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• Mysql configuration problem

  - by jazzrai

  I have being trying since last night. At first it was working but this morning again its not working. I am installing mysql version 5.0 on vista machine. when i try to configure its says that: The security settings could not be applied to the database because the connnection had failed with the following error: Error Nr. 1045 access denied for user 'root'@'localhost'(using password:yes) if a personal firewall is runnig on your machine plaes make sure you have opened the tcp port 3306 for connections. otherwise no client applicaion can connect to the server. after you have opened the port please press retry to apply the secirity settings. if you are re-installing after you just installed the mysql server please not that the data directory was not removed automatically. therefore the old password from your last installation is still needed to connect to the server. in this case please select skip now and re-run the configuration wizard from the start menu. i tried disabling the wirefall, user accounts but getting the same error. can anyone suggest me something please.

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• vSphere Client vCenter Template Customization Specification Using Windows Sysprep Unattended Answer XML File

  - by Brian

  I'm trying to setup a vSphere Client vCenter v5.0.0 Build 455964 Template Customization Specification using a Windows Sysprep unattended answer XML file for Win2008R2. However I didn't know how Sysprep worked before attempting this so it was a time-consuming nightmare (even after reviewing VMware vSphere ESXi 5's documentation)! I think I've figure out what I'm supposed to be doing, but it's still not working. The biggest problem at this point is that vSphere Client vCenter Customization Specification IP address information is not sticking when I load a Sysprep XML file with just 1 basic setting! This can only be a bug. Here is the process I'm using: PROCESS for Windows - vSphere Client Install Windows OS install VM Tools customize Windows (GPOs can be used to do this after deployment) install Applications (GPOs can be used to do this after deployment too) shutdown the VM convert the VM to a template create a custom Windows Sysprep XML answer file with desired customizations View Management Customization Specifications Manager create "New" Specification for "Target Virtual Machine OS" select Windows check "Use Custom Sysprep Answer File" (ADDS: Custom Sysprep File. KEEPS: Network (IP), Operating System Options (SID, Sysprep /generalize). REPLACES: Registration Information of Owner Name & Organization, Computer Name, Windows License (Key), Administrator Password, Time Zone, Run Once, Workgroup or Domain) name it as "VMwareCS-OS####R#x32/64w/Sysprep-TEST" (CS=Customization Specification) set Description as "Created YYYY/MM/DD by FLast" NEXT import a Sysprep answer file from secure location NEXT Custom settings NEXT click "..." box to right of "Use DHCP" set "Use the following IP settings:" for "IP Address" fill out the first 2 octets set appropriate values for other 2-3 fields set DNS server addresses OK NEXT check "Generate New Security ID (SID)" ALWAYS as template is likely a domain-member computer so it can be updated occasionally NEXT Finish View Inventory VMs and Templates right-click previously completed template Deploy Virtual Machine from this Template provide the new OS name (max15char) select inventory location NEXT select Host/Cluster (wait for validation to succeed) NEXT select Resource Pool (wait for validation to succeed) NEXT select Storage location NEXT check "Power on this virtual machine after creation" select "Customize using an existing customization specification" select desired specification select "Use the Customization Wizard to temporarily adjust the specification before deployment" NEXT NEXT Custom settings? NEXT check "Generate New Security ID (SID)" ALWAYS as template is likely a domain-member computer so it can be updated occasionally NEXT Finish Finish. I know a community member named "brian" (http://serverfault.com/users/25904/brian) has worked with this scenario before, but I couldn't figure out how to contact him directly, so Brian if you see this message could you provide some information to help? Thanks, Brian

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• DPM 2010 PowerShell Script to Easily Restore Multiple Files

  - by bmccleary

  I’ve got what I thought would be a simple task with Data Protection Manager 2010 that is turning out to be quite frustrating. I have a file server on one server and it is the only server in a protection group. This file server is the repository for a document management application which stores the files according to the data within a SQL database. Sometimes users inadvertently delete files from within our application and we need to restore them. We have all the information needed to restore the files to include the file name, the folder that the file was stored in and the exact date that the file was deleted. It is easy for me to restore the file from within the DPM console since we have a recovery point created every day, I simply go to the day before the delete, browse to the proper folder and restore the file. The problem is that using the DPM console, the cumbersome wizard requires about 20 mouse clicks to restore a single file and it takes 2-4 minutes to get through all the windows. This becomes very irritating when a client needs 100’s of files restored… it takes all day of redundant mouse clicks to restore the files. Therefore, I want to use a PowerShell script (and I’m a novice at PowerShell) to automate this process. I want to be able to create a script that I pass in a file name, a folder, a recovery point date (and a protection group/server name if needed) and simply have the file restored back to its original location with some sort of success/failure notification. I thought it was a simple basic task of a backup solution, but I am having a heck of a time finding the right code. I have seen the sample code at http://social.technet.microsoft.com/wiki/contents/articles/how-to-use-a-windows-powershell-script-to-recover-an-item-in-data-protection-manager.aspx that I have tried to follow, but it doesn’t accomplish what I really want to do (it’s too simplistic) and there are errors in the sample code. Therefore, I would like to get some help writing a script to restore these files. An example of the known values to restore the data are: DPM Server: BACKUP01 Protection Group: Document Repository Data Protected Server: FILER01 File Path: R:\DocumentRepository\ToBackup\ClientName\Repository\2010\07\24\filename.pdf Date Deleted: 8/2/2010 (last recovery point = 8/1/2010) Bonus Points: If you can help me not only create this script, but also show me how to automate by providing a text file with the above information that the PowerShell script loops through, or even better, is able to query our SQL server for the needed data, then I would be more than willing to pay for this development.

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• VPN IP Routing - slow connections

  - by dannymcc

  UPDATE: Router error logs show: LCP Time-out 0 I'm not sure how to correct this. The Lan-to-Lan profiles are set to -1 Idle Timeout (for the remote branch). I have a PPTP VPN running between two Draytek 2820 routers. They are setup that one dials out to the other one. Main Practice - 192.168.1.0/24 Branch - 192.168.3.0/24 I have then set (on the Branch) router the following route: 192.168.1.0/24 If I then request a server running on 192.168.1.1 from the Branch, it correctly routes through VPN tunnel. If I request the branch server at 192.168.3.1 it correctly routes to the local server without using the VPN tunnel. I have temporarily disabled the firewall on both routers, and made sure that QoS is disabled. The Main Practice internet connection is ~30mb down / ~10mb up, and the Branch connection is ~5mb down / ~2mb up. Anything over the VPN tunnel runs pretty slowly (VNC, Remote Desktop and Terminal Emulators). However, if I dial using the Windows VPN wizard, creating a connection from the laptop to the Main Practice - everything runs quickly. I'm looking for possible causes, and/or ways of further diagnosing the issue. Any help would be greatly appreciated! UPDATE: In summary, when I connect within the Branch and try and access a host that's within the Main Practice it works, but slowly. If I then dial the VPN on my Windows 7 laptop whilst still connected to the Branch network, it's fast. Main Practice Branch Practice Routing Table from Branch Router Key: C - connected, S - static, R - RIP, * - default, ~ - private * 0.0.0.0/ 0.0.0.0 via 126.256.126.103 WAN2 C~ 192.168.1.99/ 255.255.255.255 directly connected VPN-1 S~ 192.168.1.0/ 255.255.255.0 via 192.168.1.99 VPN-1 S~ 192.168.2.0/ 255.255.255.0 via 192.168.1.99 VPN-1 C~ 192.168.3.0/ 255.255.255.0 directly connected LAN2 C 126.256.126.103/ 255.255.255.224 directly connected WAN2 Routing Table from Main Practice Key: C - connected, S - static, R - RIP, * - default, ~ - private * 0.0.0.0/ 0.0.0.0 via 81.139.64.1, WAN2 S 81.137.176.1/ 255.255.255.255 via 81.137.176.1, WAN2 * 81.139.64.1/ 255.255.255.255 via 81.139.64.1, WAN2 C~ 192.168.1.204/ 255.255.255.255 is directly connected, VPN C~ 192.168.1.0/ 255.255.255.0 is directly connected, LAN S~ 192.168.2.0/ 255.255.255.0 via 192.168.1.204, VPN S~ 192.168.3.0/ 255.255.255.0 via 192.168.1.203, VPN Connection Details (from Branch Router) Connection Details (from Main Practice Router) IPERF.exe Output

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• Why do I have multiple drives in my backup system image?

  - by bebop

  I have a drive which has 2 partitions. One is where the OS is installed, the other is a data (but not libraries) drive. When I try and create a backup using the built in tool, it wants to include both partitions in the system image. Why does it do this? If I move the os to a separate drive will I be able to back up just this data? Edit: To be more clear. I have 4 disks in the machine. 1 disc has 2 partitions. These are c: and e:, the other disks are d: f: and h:. The OS is installed on c: and libraries are stored on h:. The libraries are already backed up using crashplan, but I want to create a system image so I can easily restore the machine, if it either dies or if I get a SSD drive. When I choose backup (either through the wizard or if I open it through control panel) and check (or click) create a system image it automatically adds both c: and e: to the list of drives that will be backed up, and I cannot change this, the checkboxes to unselect are greyed out. I would like to know why it automatically adds e: to the list (but not h:, where the libraries are) and if I can change some setting so whatever files it has on e: that it thinks need to be backed up as part of the system image are moved to c:. How can I determine what they are? Is it because c: and e: are partitions of the same disk? If I move c: tro a different disk will that mean I only have to back up c:? Thanks Edit 2: I have viewed all files including hidden and system ones on both drives and it seems that I have a suspicous hidden e:\boot\ folder. I think that I might have installed the OS as a VHD at first then installed a seperate version straight on the disk, having dual boot for a while, then used EasyBCD to remove the VHD boot and file. Might this be what is causing my issue? How might I go about removing this? is it safe to just delete the boot folder?

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• Adding a Microsoft Exchange 2010 account to my Windows Phone 7.5 mobile (Nokia Lumia 800) without trusted certificate

  - by MAXE

  I have problems in creating an account on my Nokia Lumia 800 (OS version: 7.10.8773.98, of course with Windows Phone 7.1 mounted with all updates) to one of my company's Microsoft Exchange 2010 server, because it cannot provide a trusted certificate...but only when contacting it from outside my network (like https ://mail.(CompanyName).com). Accessing the server from inside my network (pointing directly to the machine name or internal IP address: https ://(MachineName) or https ://10.0.1.200) gives me NO PROBLEM AT ALL! Setting correctly (I guess) all the parameters for the account (accessing from outside my network), the connection (after correctly set my credentials as asked) will not be established. It gives the next error (translated from my language manually): Error of <CompanyName> There is a problem with the certificate of (Server Address). Please contact support or the provider. Last try: X minutes ago Error code: 80072F06 I've tried all possible configurations and parameters (including the check The server requires an encrypted (SSL) connection, of course), but no way. EDITED: As suggested by Oliver Salzburg, I also tried this way without any results. I tried so: I went to my OWA (Outlook Web Access) that gives me the same problem (problems the certificate, it's not trusted) After accepting to continue, I clicked on the Error in Certificate button of the Internet Explorer 9 address bar - Show Certificates - page Details, show: - Copy to file... button - in the exporting wizard: Next - Binary encoding DER X.509 (.cer) (but there was also Base binary 64 X.509 (.cer), no way) - Next - saved to a new file From my Google Mail Account, I sent a mail to myself the certificate as attachment I read the mail from my WP7 phone, saved the attachment and then ran it: answering Yes to Do you wany to install the certificate? of course... Closed any active program and rebooted the phone Re-tried in synchronizing my account....:(...SAME PROBLEM! EDITED 2: Thanks again to Oliver Salzburg, I tried the next solution: I went to the site https://www.testexchangeconnectivity.com/ I selected Exchange ActiveSync option, as suggested I setted all my parameters, as I made for my phone I also setted the option Ignore SSL attendibility (and in another test I didn't) I performed my test This is the complete log (I removed my parameters): Seems the same problem (machine name in the certificate is different from the external Exchange website domain name?)! It is possible to get rid of this annoying (I know by myself who is this server!) problem? Thank you very much.

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• Upgrading TFS 2005 to TFS 2010 fails at "Executing servicing step Upgrade Version Control Identities"

  - by nadeemmar

  Hi all, I have been trying to upgrade our TFS 2005 to TFS 2010 but with no luck so far. I went through the TFS Installation guide and many upgrade guides but with no luck in overcoming the issue I am facing which seems to be unique and different to other described issues. In our company, we have a domain forest with several domains. Lets say domain A, B, and C. TFS is in domain A and has users from all these three domains. All domains have trust reltionships between them. However, domain C was deleted several months ago. In the upgrade process, whenever I reach the collection upgrade step, the following error is raised: [Info @09:57:50.997] [2010-12-29 09:55:47Z][Informational] Step Data: ExtensionType = Microsoft.TeamFoundation.VersionControl.Server.PlugIns.WorkspaceSecurityNamespaceExtension [Info @09:57:50.997] [2010-12-29 09:55:47Z] Servicing step Create VersionControl Security Namespaces passed. (ServicingOperation: UpgradePreTfs2010Databases; Step group: Upgrade.TfsVersionControl) [Info @09:57:50.997] [2010-12-29 09:55:47Z] Executing servicing step Upgrade Version Control Identities. (ServicingOperation: UpgradePreTfs2010Databases; Step group: Upgrade.TfsVersionControl) [Info @09:57:50.997] [2010-12-29 09:55:47Z][Informational] Step Performer: VersionControl [Info @09:57:50.997] [2010-12-29 09:55:47Z][Informational] Step Type: UpgradeIdentity [Info @09:57:50.997] [2010-12-29 09:55:47Z][Informational] Step Data Text: [Error @09:57:50.997] [2010-12-29 09:55:51Z][Error] Sync error for identity: System.Security.Principal.WindowsIdentity, S-1-5-21-1004336348-527237240-682003330-2818 - The trust relationship between the primary domain and the trusted domain failed I looked for the SID and it seems to be for a user in the deleted domain C. With a bit of googling, I figured out that TFSConfig Identities command can be used to remap users from one domain to the other. I went ahead and created local users that matches the users we have from domain C and ran the TFSConfig Identities /Change command and it executed successfully. However, I still get the same error. I am stuck and can't figure out how to move forward :( I need your expertise, has anyone faced this issue before? Do I need to change these identities on TFS 2005 before I commence the upgrade? I forgot to mention, I am following the upgrade with a move approach. I created a virtual machine for testing the upgrade. Installed SQL server 2008, restored the TFS databases and installed TFS 2010 and ran the upgrade wizard. Regards, Nadeem

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• Add Mirror for volumes other than the last one in Windows 7 (disk "not up-to-date")

  - by rakslice

  I'm using Windows 7 x64 Ultimate. I have an existing 4TB disk with 3 NTFS volumes, a new 3TB blank disk, and I'm trying to mirror the volumes onto the new disk. My Windows install is on an SSD which is Disk 0. The 4TB disk with volumes is Disk 1, and the new blank disk is Disk 2. I can add a mirror successfully for the last volume, but when I try to add a mirror for the first volume I immediately get errors (see below). Is there something I special I need to do to add a mirror for a volume other than the last one? More info: I opened Disk Management, right-clicked on the first volume on the existing disk, went to Add Mirror, and selected the new disk. The first time I did this I was prompted to convert the new disk to a Dynamic Disk, which I approved. Subsequently I got a message: The operation failed to complete because the Disk Management console view is not up-to-date. Refresh the view by using the refresh task. If the problem persists close the Disk Management console, then restart Disk Management or restart the computer. I've refreshed disk management, restarted the computer, and converted the new disk to basic and back to dynamic, but I still get that error message. Looking around for suggestions of a workaround, I saw a suggestion to use the diskpart command line tool. Running diskpart from the Start Menu as Administrator, I did select volume 2 (the first volume I want to mirror) and then add disk 2 (the new disk), and received a somewhat similar error: Virtual Disk Service error: The disk's extent information is corrupted. DiskPart has referenced an object which is not up-to-date. Refresh the object by using the RESCAN command. If the problem persists exit DiskPart, then restart DiskPart or restart the computer. A rescan appears to be successful: DISKPART> select disk 2 Disk 2 is now the selected disk. DISKPART> rescan Please wait while DiskPart scans your configuration... DiskPart has finished scanning your configuration. but attempting to add the mirror again resulted in the same error. The only similar report I found online was this: http://www.sevenforums.com/hardware-devices/335780-unable-mirror-all-but-last-partition-drive.html Based on that I attempted to mirror the last volume on the disk to the new disk using diskpart, and that started successfully -- it is currently resynchronizing. More Background: In the course of dealing with a failing 3TB hard drive, I bought a replacement 4TB drive and installed it, then copied the partitions from the failing drive to it using Minitool Partition Wizard Home, and then removed the failing drive and was up and running again normally. Now I've received a warranty replacement for the failing drive, and installed it, and now I'm attempting to mirror my partitions to it.

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• Win 8: Adding a boot volume to an MBR dynamic disk [NOT about changing to basic disks]

  - by Stilez

  (This is NOT aiming to convert to basic disk. In this question, the disk stays dynamic but becomes bootable) There doesn't seem to be a clear, well stated answer I can find, for the question "What are the criteria for Windows 8 to successfully boot from an MBR dynamic disk", or "how do I fix a dynamic MBR partition that's failing boot"? I've tried to educate myself but can't find crucial information to clear it all up. My existing HDD/SSD setup: DISK 0 ~ 60GB SSD/MBR/basic: (350MB recovery)(60GB windows 8 bootable) DISK 1 ~ 512GB SSD/MBR/dynamic: (350MB recovery)(60GB unallocated)(410GB mirrored data) DISK 2 ~ 512GB SSD/MBR/dynamic: (350MB recovery)(60GB unallocated)(410GB mirrored data) DISKS 3, 4, 5: (ignored for simplicity: 2xHDD RAID1 + caching SSD) I'm heavy duty on data crunching and virtualisation, just maxxed out 32GB RAM @ 2133 and moved to 4960X + 64GB. Disk 0 is a pure system disk of little value, and virtualisations runs off mirrored SSDs (Samsung 840 Pro 512 x 2) for double speed reading and so they snapshot in reasonable time. I'm using 4 SATA3 ports and the board only has two decent Intel ports (onboard Marvell are poorer quality). I'm wary of choosing between LSI, HighPoint and other 3rd party controllers as I'm unfamiliar with the maze of decent RAID cards (that's a whole other issue!). I want to cut down my SSD needs by moving the boot volume and caching volume to the 840 pros, giving a setup with 2 fewer SSDs: DISK 0 ~ 512GB SSD/MBR/dynamic: (350MB recovery)(60GB boot)(410GB mirrored data) DISK 1 ~ 512GB SSD/MBR/dynamic: (350MB recovery)(30GB cache for the ICH10R mirror)(30GB temp)(410GB mirrored data) DISKS 2, 3: (2xHDD RAID1) Intel's RST allows this, Win 8 allows booting off a MBR/dynamic disk, and the two 60GB SSDs are hardly the fastest SSDs anyway, they'll get repurposed. Moving the caching volume is easy. Moving the boot volume has me stumped. The difficulty is, I'm hitting a wall of knowledge here. I have a UEFI Asus motherboard with an previous traditional MBR/basic boot disk, and I want it to boot from a disk and volume that's MBR/dynamic. The disk copy is physically ok (Partition Wizard Server will copy to dynamic volumes) but then hits a light blue 0xc000000e boot error. No real surprise, I expected to have some boot fixing, but had expected Windows to boot-fix it (all drivers exist), or the usual manual fixes to work. Specifically, I don't know enough, to know what's got to be manually checked and perhaps corrected for the disk to boot (legacy/uefi/bios, odd partitions, boot tables, disk IDs, hidden boot files, oh my!), or if I need to change any of this secure boot/UEFI/legacy stuff in the bios, convert a 512 SSD to basic and then back to dynamic when working, or if the issue is pure OS config using "diskpart", "bootsect" and "bootrec" from the Win8 DVD. The old system disk still boots but I don't know enough to figure what to fix, to make the system boot as I want. The answers probably aren't hard but the real issue is my confusion and missing information. Thanks for helping!

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• Server 2008, 2 NICs, 2 fixed IPs - big delays using internet

  - by user46055

  Hi geniuses I have an all in one Windows 2008 server, configured with AD/DHCP/DNS/RRAS - all set up with wizards and no specific tweaking. The server has 2 network adapters : one of which ("MyWAN") is plugged into our office's internet connection, the other ("MyLAN") is plugged into a local switch, which is also where all our desktops are connected. So this one server is doing everything. When first set up, MyLAN had a fixed IP of 192.168.2.1 and served the desktops with DHCP scope 192.168.2.50-99. It also told them to use 192.168.2.1 as DNS and gateway. MyWAN was setup to take its IP etc from DHCP, being handled by the building's router and ADSL modem etc. All desktops were setup to use DHCP. This all worked perfectly fine, until I recently changed MyWAN to have a static IP (I wanted to access it from home, and needed to give it a static IP to port map in the building's router). Things still work, but there is now a long delay when accessing the internet. The actual speed is as before when downloading, but there is a pause of 3-6 secs when connecting to new hosts (for example if I browse to slashdot from either a desktop or the server itself, it'll hang on connecting to slashdot.org, hang again on connecting to *.fsdn, *.google-analytics.com and all the other hosts referenced from the main page). If I ping slashdot.org from the server, I get the following : Pinging slashdot.org [216.34.181.45] with 32 bytes of data: Reply from 192.168.2.1: Destination host unreachable. Reply from 216.34.181.45: bytes=32 time=99ms TTL=239 Reply from 216.34.181.45: bytes=32 time=100ms TTL=239 Reply from 216.34.181.45: bytes=32 time=101ms TTL=239 Pinging anywhere external always seems to hit 192.168.2.1 first, which doesn't seem right. Trying tracert from the server gives the following : Tracing route to slashdot.org [216.34.181.45] over a maximum of 30 hops: 1 MYSERVER01.intranet [192.168.2.1] reports: Destination host unreachable Trying tracert from a desktop gives the following : Tracing route to slashdot.org [216.34.181.45] over a maximum of 30 hops: 1 <1 ms * <1 ms MYSERVER [192.168.2.1] 2 * * * Request timed out. 3 6 ms 6 ms 6 ms dsl-gw1.ge.mer.uk.webtapestry.net [217.151.111.17] 4 38 ms 239 ms 251 ms gw-router.ge.mer.uk.webtapestry.net [217.151.111.13] ...and then all is fine after that. I think that DNS is working fine because the domain names are getting translated to correct IPs immediately. DHCP seems to be okay? So perhaps it's something up with my RRAS setup - although I can't see any option during the setup wizard which I would have filled in differently. I've also tried changing the binding order of the two network connections, to prioritise MyWAN, but that doesn't seem to have done anything. Any idea what's up? Many thanks - Rob

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• Sharing folder in a Virtual Private Windows Server 2008 R2 ?

  - by Triztian

  See Edit 2: Hello all, seems my involvement with computers has grown and I've found my self in the need to access a shared folder on a server. I've read some documentation and managed to set up the folder as a share, for this I created a local group and for now just one local user that has access to the share, the folder is in the public user folder and it's permissions should be (and I believe they are) read/write. The problem is that I can't connect from a remote machine I mean I don't know how the way it should be accessed, the server has a public IP and we use it also as a host to our website I don't know if that affects it though, the folder will be used as the "keeper" for the QuickBooks company files and has the database server manager installed. I've tried setting up a VPN Connection to the but no success. The server has a domain name a "http://www.example.com" that redirects to our website, I am unsure if it could be accessed that way, also the share has a location displayed when I right-click properties Heres what I've tried Setting up a VPN Connection (Windows Vista and 7) Got to the point where I got asked for credential and entered the user I created (which is not an admin) but I got a "Connection fail error 800" I suppose this is because in the domain field I entered the servers workgroup. right-click add network connection (Windows 7) Went through the wizard until I reached the point of entering the location, tried many things, the name in the share's properties(\\SOMETHING\Share), the http://www.example.com , the IP address I'm quite unfamiliar with this, so I have my guesses: Since the group and user are local they do not have access to the folder. The firewall in the server is blocking my connection. Anyways, any help and guidence is truly appreciated. EDIT 1: As @tony roth pointed out it may be a security fail, an I commented it out to management and said that that is not an issue, so please bare with me. EDIT 2: I've found out that the real question could be streamlined to "Sharing folder in a Virtual Private Server?", as thats what we have, a virtual private windows server 2008 R2, and I would like to know how to make it show like a normal folder in the client computer. Thanks again for all of your support.

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• SCCM SP2 - OOB Management Certificates Problems

  - by Achinoam

  Hi experts, I have a vPro client computer with AMT 4.0. It was importeed successfully via the Import OOB Computers wizard, and after sending a "Hello- packet" it became provisioned. (The SCCM GUI displays AMT Status: Provisioned). But when I try to perform power operations on this machine, they always fail with the following lines in the log: AMT Operation Worker: Wakes up to process instruction files 7/29/2009 10:59:29 AM 2176 (0x0880) AMT Operation Worker: Wait 20 seconds... 7/29/2009 10:59:29 AM 2176 (0x0880) Auto-worker Thread Pool: Work thread 3884 started 7/29/2009 10:59:29 AM 3884 (0x0F2C) session params : https:/ / amt4.domaindemo.com:16993 , 11001 7/29/2009 10:59:29 AM 3884 (0x0F2C) ERROR: Invoke(invoke) failed: 80020009argNum = 0 7/29/2009 10:59:31 AM 3884 (0x0F2C) Description: A security error occurred 7/29/2009 10:59:31 AM 3884 (0x0F2C) Error: Failed to Invoke CIM_BootConfigSetting::ChangeBootOrder_INPUT action. 7/29/2009 10:59:31 AM 3884 (0x0F2C) AMT Operation Worker: AMT machine amt4.domaindemo.com can't be waken up. Error code: 0x80072F8F 7/29/2009 10:59:31 AM 3884 (0x0F2C) Auto-worker Thread Pool: Warning, Failed to run task this time. Will retry(1) it 7/29/2009 10:59:31 AM 3884 (0x0F2C) After investigation, I've seen that the problem occurs already on the 2nd stage of the provisioning: Start 2nd stage provision on AMT device amt4.domaindemo.com. 8/2/2009 4:55:12 PM 2944 (0x0B80) session params : https: / / amt4.domaindemo.com:16993 , 11001 8/2/2009 4:55:12 PM 2944 (0x0B80) Delete existing ACLs... 8/2/2009 4:55:12 PM 2944 (0x0B80) ERROR: Invoke(invoke) failed: 80020009argNum = 0 8/2/2009 4:55:14 PM 2944 (0x0B80) Description: A security error occurred 8/2/2009 4:55:14 PM 2944 (0x0B80) Error: Cannot Enumerate User Acl Entries. 8/2/2009 4:55:14 PM 2944 (0x0B80) Error: CSMSAMTProvTask::StartProvision Fail to call AMTWSManUtilities::DeleteACLs 8/2/2009 4:55:14 PM 2944 (0x0B80) Error: Can not finish WSMAN call with target device. 1. Check if there is a winhttp proxy to block connection. 2. Service point is trying to establish connection with wireless IP address of AMT firmware but wireless management has NOT enabled yet. AMT firmware doesn't support provision through wireless connection. 3. For greater than 3.x AMT, there is a known issue in AMT firmware that WSMAN will fail with FQDN longer than 44 bytes. (MachineId = 17) 8/2/2009 4:55:14 PM 2944 (0x0B80) STATMSG: ID=7208 SEV=E LEV=M SOURCE="SMS Server" COMP="SMS_AMT_OPERATION_MANAGER" SYS=JE-DEV-MS0 SITE=JR1 PID=1756 TID=2944 GMTDATE=Sun Aug 02 14:55:14.281 2009 ISTR0="amt4.domaindemo.com" ISTR1="amt4.domaindemo.com" ISTR2="" ISTR3="" ISTR4="" ISTR5="" ISTR6="" ISTR7="" ISTR8="" ISTR9="" NUMATTRS=0 8/2/2009 4:55:14 PM 2944 (0x0B80) This error is consistent with all the other 2nd stage provisioning tasks. (Add ACLs, Enable Web UI, etc.) I've opened the certification authority, and I see that the certificates were issued to the SCCM Site server instead of the AMT client! What could be the reason for this failure? What is the problematic definition for the certificate? Thank you in advance!!!

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• SCCM SP2 - OOB Management Certificates Problems

  - by Achinoam

  I have a vPro client computer with AMT 4.0. It was importeed successfully via the Import OOB Computers wizard, and after sending a "Hello- packet" it became provisioned. (The SCCM GUI displays AMT Status: Provisioned). But when I try to perform power operations on this machine, they always fail with the following lines in the log: AMT Operation Worker: Wakes up to process instruction files 7/29/2009 10:59:29 AM 2176 (0x0880) AMT Operation Worker: Wait 20 seconds... 7/29/2009 10:59:29 AM 2176 (0x0880) Auto-worker Thread Pool: Work thread 3884 started 7/29/2009 10:59:29 AM 3884 (0x0F2C) session params : https:/ / amt4.domaindemo.com:16993 , 11001 7/29/2009 10:59:29 AM 3884 (0x0F2C) ERROR: Invoke(invoke) failed: 80020009argNum = 0 7/29/2009 10:59:31 AM 3884 (0x0F2C) Description: A security error occurred 7/29/2009 10:59:31 AM 3884 (0x0F2C) Error: Failed to Invoke CIM_BootConfigSetting::ChangeBootOrder_INPUT action. 7/29/2009 10:59:31 AM 3884 (0x0F2C) AMT Operation Worker: AMT machine amt4.domaindemo.com can't be waken up. Error code: 0x80072F8F 7/29/2009 10:59:31 AM 3884 (0x0F2C) Auto-worker Thread Pool: Warning, Failed to run task this time. Will retry(1) it 7/29/2009 10:59:31 AM 3884 (0x0F2C) After investigation, I've seen that the problem occurs already on the 2nd stage of the provisioning: Start 2nd stage provision on AMT device amt4.domaindemo.com. 8/2/2009 4:55:12 PM 2944 (0x0B80) session params : https: / / amt4.domaindemo.com:16993 , 11001 8/2/2009 4:55:12 PM 2944 (0x0B80) Delete existing ACLs... 8/2/2009 4:55:12 PM 2944 (0x0B80) ERROR: Invoke(invoke) failed: 80020009argNum = 0 8/2/2009 4:55:14 PM 2944 (0x0B80) Description: A security error occurred 8/2/2009 4:55:14 PM 2944 (0x0B80) Error: Cannot Enumerate User Acl Entries. 8/2/2009 4:55:14 PM 2944 (0x0B80) Error: CSMSAMTProvTask::StartProvision Fail to call AMTWSManUtilities::DeleteACLs 8/2/2009 4:55:14 PM 2944 (0x0B80) Error: Can not finish WSMAN call with target device. 1. Check if there is a winhttp proxy to block connection. 2. Service point is trying to establish connection with wireless IP address of AMT firmware but wireless management has NOT enabled yet. AMT firmware doesn't support provision through wireless connection. 3. For greater than 3.x AMT, there is a known issue in AMT firmware that WSMAN will fail with FQDN longer than 44 bytes. (MachineId = 17) 8/2/2009 4:55:14 PM 2944 (0x0B80) STATMSG: ID=7208 SEV=E LEV=M SOURCE="SMS Server" COMP="SMS_AMT_OPERATION_MANAGER" SYS=JE-DEV-MS0 SITE=JR1 PID=1756 TID=2944 GMTDATE=Sun Aug 02 14:55:14.281 2009 ISTR0="amt4.domaindemo.com" ISTR1="amt4.domaindemo.com" ISTR2="" ISTR3="" ISTR4="" ISTR5="" ISTR6="" ISTR7="" ISTR8="" ISTR9="" NUMATTRS=0 8/2/2009 4:55:14 PM 2944 (0x0B80) This error is consistent with all the other 2nd stage provisioning tasks. (Add ACLs, Enable Web UI, etc.) I've opened the certification authority, and I see that the certificates were issued to the SCCM Site server instead of the AMT client! What could be the reason for this failure? What is the problematic definition for the certificate? Thank you in advance!!!

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