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  • Is there an algorithm for converting quaternion rotations to Euler angle rotations?

    - by Will Baker
    Is there an existing algorithm for converting a quaternion representation of a rotation to an Euler angle representation? The rotation order for the Euler representation is known and can be any of the six permutations (i.e. xyz, xzy, yxz, yzx, zxy, zyx). I've seen algorithms for a fixed rotation order (usually the NASA heading, bank, roll convention) but not for arbitrary rotation order. Furthermore, because there are multiple Euler angle representations of a single orientation, this result is going to be ambiguous. This is acceptable (because the orientation is still valid, it just may not be the one the user is expecting to see), however it would be even better if there was an algorithm which took rotation limits (i.e. the number of degrees of freedom and the limits on each degree of freedom) into account and yielded the 'most sensible' Euler representation given those constraints. I have a feeling this problem (or something similar) may exist in the IK or rigid body dynamics domains. Solved: I just realised that it might not be clear that I solved this problem by following Ken Shoemake's algorithms from Graphics Gems. I did answer my own question at the time, but it occurs to me it may not be clear that I did so. See the answer, below, for more detail. Just to clarify - I know how to convert from a quaternion to the so-called 'Tait-Bryan' representation - what I was calling the 'NASA' convention. This is a rotation order (assuming the convention that the 'Z' axis is up) of zxy. I need an algorithm for all rotation orders. Possibly the solution, then, is to take the zxy order conversion and derive from it five other conversions for the other rotation orders. I guess I was hoping there was a more 'overarching' solution. In any case, I am surprised that I haven't been able to find existing solutions out there. In addition, and this perhaps should be a separate question altogether, any conversion (assuming a known rotation order, of course) is going to select one Euler representation, but there are in fact many. For example, given a rotation order of yxz, the two representations (0,0,180) and (180,180,0) are equivalent (and would yield the same quaternion). Is there a way to constrain the solution using limits on the degrees of freedom? Like you do in IK and rigid body dynamics? i.e. in the example above if there were only one degree of freedom about the Z axis then the second representation can be disregarded. I have tracked down one paper which could be an algorithm in this pdf but I must confess I find the logic and math a little hard to follow. Surely there are other solutions out there? Is arbitrary rotation order really so rare? Surely every major 3D package that allows skeletal animation together with quaternion interpolation (i.e. Maya, Max, Blender, etc) must have solved exactly this problem?

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  • Tridion Installation

    - by Kevin Brydon
    I am currently upgrading an installation of Tridion from 5.3 to 2011 starting almost from scratch (aside from migrating the database), brand new virtual servers. I just want to ask for some advice on my current server setup... a sanity check. All servers are running Windows Server 2008. The pages on our website are all classic ASP. Database SQL Server cluster. The 5.3 database has been migrated using the DatabaseManager. This is pretty standard and works well (in test anyway). Content Manager A single server to run the Content Manager and the Publisher. There are around 10 people using it at any one time so not under a particularly heavy load. Content Data Store Filesystem located somewhere on the network. One directory for live and one for staging. Content Delivery Two servers (cd1 and cd2) each with the the following server roles installed. cd1 writes to a filesystem content data store for the live website, cd2 writes to the content data store for the staging website. Presentation Two public facing web servers (web1 and web2) serving both the live and staging websites. The web servers read directly from the content data store as its a filesystem. Each of the web servers have the Content Delivery Server installed so that I can use dynamic linking (and other features?). I've so far set up everything but the web servers. Any thoughts? edit Thanks to Ram S who linked me to a decent walkthrough, upvoted. I suppose I should have posed some questions as I didn't really ask a question. I guess I'm a little confused over the content deliver aspect. I have the Content Delivery split in two separate parts. cd1 and cd2 do the work of shifting information from the Content Manager to the Staging/Live web directories. web1 and web2 should do the work of serving the web pages to the outside world and will interact with the content data store (file system). Is this a correct setup? I need some parts of the Content Delivery on my web servers right? Theoretically I could get rid of the cd1 and cd2 servers and use web1 and web2 to do the deployment right? But I suspect this will put the web servers under unnecessary strain should there ever be a big publish. I've been reading the 2011 Installation Manual, Content Delivery section, and I'm finding it quite hard to get my head around!

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  • How to avoid using duplicate savepoint names in nested transactions in nested stored procs?

    - by Gary McGill
    I have a pattern that I almost always follow, where if I need to wrap up an operation in a transaction, I do this: BEGIN TRANSACTION SAVE TRANSACTION TX -- Stuff IF @error <> 0 ROLLBACK TRANSACTION TX COMMIT TRANSACTION That's served me well enough in the past, but after years of using this pattern (and copy-pasting the above code), I've suddenly discovered a flaw which comes as a complete shock. Quite often, I'll have a stored procedure calling other stored procedures, all of which use this same pattern. What I've discovered (to my cost) is that because I'm using the same savepoint name everywhere, I can get into a situation where my outer transaction is partially committed - precisely the opposite of the atomicity that I'm trying to achieve. I've put together an example that exhibits the problem. This is a single batch (no nested stored procs), and so it looks a little odd in that you probably wouldn't use the same savepoint name twice in the same batch, but my real-world scenario would be too confusing to post. CREATE TABLE Test (test INTEGER NOT NULL) BEGIN TRAN SAVE TRAN TX BEGIN TRAN SAVE TRAN TX INSERT INTO Test(test) VALUES (1) COMMIT TRAN TX BEGIN TRAN SAVE TRAN TX INSERT INTO Test(test) VALUES (2) COMMIT TRAN TX DELETE FROM Test ROLLBACK TRAN TX COMMIT TRAN TX SELECT * FROM Test DROP TABLE Test When I execute this, it lists one record, with value "1". In other words, even though I rolled back my outer transaction, a record was added to the table. What's happening is that the ROLLBACK TRANSACTION TX at the outer level is rolling back as far as the last SAVE TRANSACTION TX at the inner level. Now that I write this all out, I can see the logic behind it: the server is looking back through the log file, treating it as a linear stream of transactions; it doesn't understand the nesting/hierarchy implied by either the nesting of the transactions (or, in my real-world scenario, by the calls to other stored procedures). So, clearly, I need to start using unique savepoint names instead of blindly using "TX" everywhere. But - and this is where I finally get to the point - is there a way to do this in a copy-pastable way so that I can still use the same code everywhere? Can I auto-generate the savepoint name on the fly somehow? Is there a convention or best-practice for doing this sort of thing? It's not exactly hard to come up with a unique name every time you start a transaction (could base it off the SP name, or somesuch), but I do worry that eventually there would be a conflict - and you wouldn't know about it because rather than causing an error it just silently destroys your data... :-(

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  • Why does filter: blur(0) still cause text to blur under Webkit?

    - by johnkavanagh
    I've come across a bug today that's taken far longer than I would like to admit to identify. Essentially: setting a filter: blur(0) (or the vendor-specific -webkit-filter) on an element should - I believe - mean that no form of blur is applied. However, having tested this today, it would appear that Webkit based browsers still blur the text within any element with either blur(0) or blur(0px) assigned to it. I've knocked together a quick Fiddle here: http://jsfiddle.net/f9rBE/ These are three identical dixs containing text (no custom fonts): This has absolutely nothing assigned Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, consectetur adipiscing elit. Aliquam facilisis orci in quam venenatis, in tempus ipsum sagittis. Suspendisse potenti. Donec ullamcorper lacus vel odio accumsan, vel aliquam libero tempor. Praesent nec libero venenatis, ultrices arcu non, luctus quam. Morbi scelerisque sit amet turpis sit amet tincidunt. Praesent semper erat non purus pretium consequat. Aenean et iaculis turpis. Curabitur diam tellus, consectetur non massa et, commodo venenatis metus. One has no styles at all assigned, the other two have blur(0) and blur(0px): .no-blur{} .zero-px-blur{ -webkit-filter: blur(0px); -moz-filter: blur(0px); -o-filter: blur(0px); -ms-filter: blur(0px); filter: blur(0px); } .zero-blur{ -webkit-filter: blur(0); -moz-filter: blur(0); -o-filter: blur(0); -ms-filter: blur(0); filter: blur(0); } If you preview this under Chrome/Safari you'll see that the text in the second two are still blurred: A few things worth noting: This unintentional blurring occurs in Safari on iOS7 devices (both iPhones and iPads); It also occurs on Chrome and Safari under OSX; It doesn't happen under FireFox in OSX. Of course, this isn't supported at all in Firefox just yet so it's hard to tell whether the behaviour I'm seeing is intentional/expected behaviour, or whether this is a bug in Webkit? Is it possible that this is only prevalent in higher-density resolution devices (ie: retina MacBook/iPhone/iPad)? With this in mind, how do you actually overwrite an item that has blur applied to it to set it back to non-blurred?

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  • How does one paint the entire row's background in a QStyledItemDelegate ?

    - by Casey Link
    I have a QTableView which I am setting a custom QStyledItemDelegate on. In addition to the custom item painting, I want to style the row's background color for the selection/hovered states. The look I am going for is something like this KGet screenshot: Here is my code: void MyDelegate::paint( QPainter* painter, const QStyleOptionViewItem& opt, const QModelIndex& index ) const { QBrush backBrush; QColor foreColor; bool hover = false; if ( opt.state & QStyle::State_MouseOver ) { backBrush = opt.palette.color( QPalette::Highlight ).light( 115 ); foreColor = opt.palette.color( QPalette::HighlightedText ); hover = true; } QStyleOptionViewItemV4 option(opt); initStyleOption(&option, index); painter->save(); const QStyle *style = option.widget ? option.widget->style() : QApplication::style(); const QWidget* widget = option.widget; if( hover ) { option.backgroundBrush = backBrush; } painter->save(); style->drawPrimitive(QStyle::PE_PanelItemViewItem, &option, painter, widget); painter->restore(); switch( index.column() ) { case 0: // we want default behavior style->drawControl(QStyle::CE_ItemViewItem, &option, painter, widget); break; case 1: // some custom drawText break; case 2: // draw a QStyleOptionProgressBar break; } painter->restore(); } The result is that each individual cell receives the mousedover background only when the mouse is over it, and not the entire row. It is hard to describe so here is a screenshot: In that picture the mouse was over the left most cell, hence the highlighted background.. but I want the background to be drawn over the entire row. How can I achieve this? Edit: With some more thought I've realized that the QStyle::State_MouseOver state is only being passed for actual cell which the mouse is over, and when the paint method is called for the other cells in the row QStyle::State_MouseOver is not set. So the question becomes is there a QStyle::State_MouseOver_Row state (answer: no), so how do I go about achieving that?

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  • Filter Calendar view SharePoint WWS 3.0

    - by lerac
    Hi all, I have a SP site with a calendarview and would like to filter this on the basis of the current user. Don't be afraid I already figured out how do to this with a list customizing some excisting jScripts and working with Content Editor WebPart. Yet this jScript does not work in a Calendar. To paint a picture I have columns like: Judge1 Lawyer Clerk (example). Underneath these columns there are names ofcourse. However these are not shown in Calendar view, so it is hard to filter on something that is not displayed only the casenumbers. Now I've been thinking (not always wise) perhaps I can adjust the aspx page of calendar/list by adjusting a filter I applied in SharePoint. This would also solve the issue of displaying all the content before it filters with Java, since it should not be possible for users to see the entire listcontent (security). I went to Modify list view and created a filter where judge1 = Mr. J. Jenkins. Then I went to SharePoint Designer and opend the Calendar aspx page. To my expectation I found Mr. J. Jenkins with the following code: Since I can't display image because i'm new, not very handy discrimination I have to give you a url. Code can't be pasted either is completely messes it up even with codemode on. Hyperlink CODE IMAGE Keep in mind I just posted a very tiny part of the code (only the part I want to change). Now I have no idea what kind of code this is above this text (SP wss 3.0 uses for aspx pages), but I would like to change Mr. J. Jenkins into a jScript var/val. Since I already managed to get the current user that is logged in content. var user = jP.getUserProfile(); var userinfspvalue = user.Department; There is more code around that one 2 ofcourse, yet to give you a picture. The var userinfspvalue is what I would like to replace the text Mr. J. Jenkins into. This would mean the calendar would be dynamically filtered based upon the current user that is logged on. Have no idea what is possible, perhaps there is a better solution who knows... Do you know? Thank you so much ahead!

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  • WPF: Binding to ObservableCollection in ControlTemplate is not updated

    - by Julian Lettner
    I created a ControlTemplate for my custom control MyControl. MyControl derives from System.Windows.Controls.Control and defines the following property public ObservableCollection<MyControl> Children{ get; protected set; }. To display the nested child controls I am using an ItemsControl (StackPanel) which is surrounded by a GroupBox. If there are no child controls, I want to hide the GroupBox. Everything works fine on application startup: The group box and child controls are shown if the Children property initially contained at least one element. In the other case it is hidden. The problem starts when the user adds a child control to an empty collection. The GroupBox's visibility is still collapsed. The same problem occurs when the last child control is removed from the collection. The GroupBox is still visible. Another symptom is that the HideEmptyEnumerationConverter converter does not get called. Adding/removing child controls to non empty collections works as expected. Whats wrong with the following binding? Obviously it works once but does not get updated, although the collection I am binding to is of type ObservableCollection. <!-- Converter for hiding empty enumerations --> <Common:HideEmptyEnumerationConverter x:Key="hideEmptyEnumerationConverter"/> <!--- ... ---> <ControlTemplate TargetType="{x:Type MyControl}"> <!-- ... other stuff that works ... --> <!-- Child components --> <GroupBox Header="Children" Visibility="{Binding RelativeSource={RelativeSource TemplatedParent}, Path=Children, Converter={StaticResource hideEmptyEnumerationConverter}}"> <ItemsControl ItemsSource="{TemplateBinding Children}"/> </GroupBox> </ControlTemplate> . [ValueConversion(typeof (IEnumerable), typeof (Visibility))] public class HideEmptyEnumerationConverter : IValueConverter { #region IValueConverter Members public object Convert(object value, Type targetType, object parameter, CultureInfo culture) { int itemCount = ((IEnumerable) value).Cast<object>().Count(); return itemCount == 0 ? Visibility.Collapsed : Visibility.Visible; } public object ConvertBack(object value, Type targetType, object parameter, CultureInfo culture) { throw new NotImplementedException(); } #endregion } Another, more general question: How do you guys debug bindings? Found this (http://bea.stollnitz.com/blog/?p=52) but still I find it very hard to do. I am glad for any help or suggestion.

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  • Using Linq to filter a ComboBox.DataSource ?

    - by Pesche Helfer
    Hi board, in another topic, I've stumbled over this very elegant solution by Darin Dimitrov to filter the DataSource of one ComboBox with the selection of another ComboBox: how to filter combobox in combobox using c# combo2.DataSource = ((IEnumerable<string>)c.DataSource) .Where(x => x == (string)combo1.SelectedValue); I would like to do a similar thing, but intead of filtering by a second combobox, I would like to filter by the text of a TextBox. (Basically, instead of choosing from a second ComboBox, the user simply enters his filter in to a TextBox). However, it turned out to be not as straight forward as I had hoped it would be. I tried stuff as the following, but failed miserably: cbWohndresse.DataSource = ((IEnumerable<DataSet>)ds) .Where(x => x.Tables["Adresse"].Select("AdrLabel LIKE '%TEST%'")); cbWohndresse.DisplayMember = "Adresse.AdrLabel"; cbWohndresse.ValueMember = "Adresse.adress_id"; ds is the DataSet which I would like to use as filtered DataSource. "Adresse" is one DataTable in this DataSet. It contains a DataColumn "AdrLabel". Now I would like to display only those "AdrLabel", which contain the string from the user input. (Currently, %TEST% replaces the textbox.text.) The above code fails because the lambda expression does not return Bool. But I am sure, there are also other problems (which type should I use for IEnumerable? Now it's DataSet, but Darin used String. But how could I convert a DataSet to a string? Yes, I am as much newbyish as it gets, my experience is "void", and publicly so. So please forgive me my rather stupid questions. Your help is greatly appreciated, because I can't solve this on my own (tried hard already). Thank you very much! Pesche P.S. I am only using Linq to achieve an uncomplicated filter for the ComboBox (avoiding a View). The rest is not based on Linq, but on oldstyle Ado.NET (ds is filled by an SqlDataAdapter), if that's of any importance.

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  • Asynchronous readback from opengl front buffer using multiple PBO's

    - by KillianDS
    I am developing an application that needs to read back the whole frame from the front buffer of an openGL application. I can hijack the application's opengl library and insert my code on swapbuffers. At the moment I am successfully using a simple but excruciating slow glReadPixels command without PBO's. Now I read about using multiple PBO's to speed things up. While I think I've found enough resources to actually program that (isn't that hard), I have some operational questions left. I would do something like this: create a series (e.g. 3) of PBO's use glReadPixels in my swapBuffers override to read data from front buffer to a PBO (should be fast and non-blocking, right?) Create a seperate thread to call glMapBufferARB, once per PBO after a glReadPixels, because this will block until the pixels are in client memory. Process the data from step 3. Now my main concern is of course in steps 2 and 3. I read about glReadPixels used on PBO's being non-blocking, will this be an issue if I issue new opengl commands after that very fast? Will those opengl commands block? Or will they continue (my guess), and if so, I guess only swapbuffers can be a problem, will this one stall or will glReadPixels from front buffer be many times faster than swapping (about each 15-30ms) or, worst case scenario, will swapbuffers be executed while glReadPixels is still reading data to the PBO? My current guess is this logic will do something like this: copy FRONT_BUFFER - generic place in VRAM, copy VRAM-RAM. But I have no idea which of those 2 is the real bottleneck and more, what the influence on the normal opengl command stream is. Then in step 3. Is it wise to do this asynchronously in a thread separated from normal opengl logic? At the moment I think not, It seems you have to restore buffer operations to normal after doing this and I can't install synchronization objects in the original code to temporarily block those. So I think my best option is to define a certain swapbuffer delay before reading them out, so e.g. calling glReadPixels on PBO i%3 and glMapBufferARB on PBO (i+2)%3 in the same thread, resulting in a delay of 2 frames. Also, when I call glMapBufferARB to use data in client memory, will this be the bottleneck or will glReadPixels (asynchronously) be the bottleneck? And finally, if you have some better ideas to speed up frame readback from GPU in opengl, please tell me, because this is a painful bottleneck in my current system. I hope my question is clear enough, I know the answer will probably also be somewhere on the internet but I mostly came up with results that used PBO's to keep buffers in video memory and do processing there. I really need to read back the front buffer to RAM and I do not find any clear explanations about performance in that case (which I need, I cannot rely on "it's faster", I need to explain why it's faster). Thank you

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  • Classic ASP vs. ASP.NET encryption options

    - by harrije
    I'm working on a web site where the new pages are ASP.NET and the legacy pages are Classic ASP. Being new to development in the Windows env, I've been studying the latest technology, i.e. .NET and I become like a deer in headlights when ever legacy issues come up regarding COM objects. Security on the website is an abomination, but I've easily encrypted the connectionStrings in the web.config file per http://www.4guysfromrolla.com/articles/021506-1.aspx based on DPAPI machine mode. I understand this approach is not the most secure, but it's better than nothing which is what it was for the ASP.NET pages. Now, I question how to do similar encryption for the connection strings used by the Classic ASP pages. A complicating factor is that the web sited is hosted where I do not have admin permissions or even command line access, just FTP. Moreover I want to avoid managing the key. My research has found: DPAPI with COM interop. Seems like this should already be available, but the only thing I could find discussing this is CyptoUtility (see http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/magazine/cc163884.aspx) which is not installed on the hosting server. There are plenty of other third party COM objects, e.g. Crypto from Dalun Software http://www.dalun.com, but these aren't on the hosted server either, and they look to me to require you to do some kind of key management. There is CAPICOM on the hosted server, but M$ has deprecated it and many report it is not the easiest to use. It is not clear to me whether I can avoid key management with CAPICOM similar to using DPAPI for ASP.NET. If anyone happens to know, please clue me in. I could write an web service in ASP.NET and have the classic ASP pages use it to get the decrypted connection strings and then store those in an application variable. I would not need to use SSL since I could use localhost and nothing would be sent over the internet. In the simpliest form I could implement what someone termed a poor man's version based on a simple XML stream, however, I really was looking to avoid any development since I find it hard to believe there is not a simple solution for Classic ASP like there is for ASP.NET. Maybe I'm missing some options... Recommendations are requested...

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  • design of orm tool

    - by ifree
    Hello , I want to design a orm tool for my daily work, but I'm always worry about the mapping of foreign key. Here's part of my code: using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Text; using System.Data; namespace OrmTool { [AttributeUsage(AttributeTargets.Property)] public class ColumnAttribute:Attribute { public string Name { get; set; } public SqlDbType DataType { get; set; } public bool IsPk { get; set; } } [AttributeUsage(AttributeTargets.Class,AllowMultiple=false,Inherited=false)] public class TableAttribute:Attribute { public string TableName { get; set; } public string Description { get; set; } } [AttributeUsage(AttributeTargets.Property)] public class ReferencesAttribute : ColumnAttribut { public Type Host { get; set; } public string HostPkName{get;set;} } } I want to use Attribute to get the metadata of Entity ,then mapping them,but i think it's really hard to get it done; public class DbUtility { private static readonly string CONNSTR = ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["connstr"].ConnectionString; private static readonly Type TableType = typeof(TableAttribute); private static readonly Type ColumnType = typeof(ColumnAttribute); private static readonly Type ReferenceType = typeof(ReferencesAttribute); private static IList<TEntity> EntityListGenerator<TEntity>(string tableName,PropertyInfo[] props,params SqlParameter[] paras) { return null; } private static IList<TEntity> ResultList() { return null; } private static SqlCommand PrepareCommand(string sql,SqlConnection conn,params SqlParameter[] paras) { SqlCommand cmd = new SqlCommand(); cmd.CommandText = sql; cmd.Connection = conn; if (paras != null) cmd.Parameters.AddRange(paras); conn.Open(); return cmd; } } I don't know how to do the next step, if every Entity has it's own foreign key,how do I get the return result ? If the Entity like this: [Table(Name="ArtBook")] public class ArtBook{ [column(Name="id",IsPk=true,DataType=SqlDbType.Int)] public int Id{get;set;} [References(Name="ISBNId",DataType=SqlDataType.Int,Host=typeof(ISBN),HostPkName="Id")] public ISBN BookISBN{get;set;} public .....more properties. } public class ISBN{ public int Id{get;set;} public bool IsNative{get;set;} } If I read all ArtBooks from database and when I get a ReferencesAttribute how do I set the value of BookISBN?

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  • WPF MVVM Pattern, ViewModel DataContext question

    - by orangecl4now
    I used this side to create my demo application http://windowsclient.net/learn/video.aspx?v=314683 The site was very useful in getting my started and in their example, they created a file called EmployeeRepository.cs which appears to be the source for the data. In their example, the data was hard-wired in code. So I'm trying to learn how to get the data from a data source (like a DB). In my specific case, I want to get the data from a Microsoft Access DB. (READ ONLY, So I'll only use SELECT commands). using System.Collections.Generic; using Telephone_Directory_2010.Model; namespace Telephone_Directory_2010.DataAccess { public class EmployeeRepository { readonly List<Employee> _employees; public EmployeeRepository() { if (_employees == null) { _employees = new List<Employee>(); } _employees.Add(Employee.CreateEmployee("Student One", "IT201", "Information Technology", "IT4207", "Building1", "Room650")); _employees.Add(Employee.CreateEmployee("Student Two", "IT201", "Information Technology", "IT4207", "Building1", "Room650")); _employees.Add(Employee.CreateEmployee("Student Three", "IT201", "Information Technology", "IT4207", "Building1", "Room650")); } public List<Employee> GetEmployees() { return new List<Employee>(_employees); } } } I found another example where an Access DB is used but it doesn't comply with MVVM. So I was trying to figure out how to add the DB file to the project, how to wire it up and bind it to a listbox (i'm not that far yet). Below is my modified file using System.Collections.Generic; using Telephone_Directory_2010.Model; // integrating new code with working code using Telephone_Directory_2010.telephone2010DataSetTableAdapters; using System.Windows.Data; namespace Telephone_Directory_2010.DataAccess { public class EmployeeRepository { readonly List<Employee> _employees; // start // integrating new code with working code private telephone2010DataSet.telephone2010DataTable employeeTable; private CollectionView dataView; internal CollectionView DataView { get { if (dataView == null) { dataView = (CollectionView) CollectionViewSource.GetDefaultView(this.DataContext); } return dataView; } } public EmployeeRepository() { if (_employees == null) { _employees = new List<Employee>(); } telephone2010TableAdapter employeeTableAdapter = new telephone2010TableAdapter(); employeeTable = employeeTableAdapter.GetData(); this.DataContext = employeeTable; } public List<Employee> GetEmployees() { return new List<Employee>(_employees); } } } I get the following error messages when building Error 1 'Telephone_Directory_2010.DataAccess.EmployeeRepository' does not contain a definition for 'DataContext' and no extension method 'DataContext' accepting a first argument of type 'Telephone_Directory_2010.DataAccess.EmployeeRepository' could be found (are you missing a using directive or an assembly reference?) C:\Projects\VS2010\Telephone Directory 2010\Telephone Directory 2010\DataAccess\EmployeeRepository.cs 23 90 Telephone Directory 2010

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  • HTML Purifier: Removing an element conditionally based on its attributes

    - by pinkgothic
    As per the HTML Purifier smoketest, 'malformed' URIs are occasionally discarded to leave behind an attribute-less anchor tag, e.g. <a href="javascript:document.location='http://www.google.com/'">XSS</a> becomes <a>XSS</a> ...as well as occasionally being stripped down to the protocol, e.g. <a href="http://1113982867/">XSS</a> becomes <a href="http:/">XSS</a> While that's unproblematic, per se, it's a bit ugly. Instead of trying to strip these out with regular expressions, I was hoping to use HTML Purifier's own library capabilities / injectors / plug-ins / whathaveyou. Point of reference: Handling attributes Conditionally removing an attribute in HTMLPurifier is easy. Here the library offers the class HTMLPurifier_AttrTransform with the method confiscateAttr(). While I don't personally use the functionality of confiscateAttr(), I do use an HTMLPurifier_AttrTransform as per this thread to add target="_blank" to all anchors. // more configuration stuff up here $htmlDef = $htmlPurifierConfiguration->getHTMLDefinition(true); $anchor = $htmlDef->addBlankElement('a'); $anchor->attr_transform_post[] = new HTMLPurifier_AttrTransform_Target(); // purify down here HTMLPurifier_AttrTransform_Target is a very simple class, of course. class HTMLPurifier_AttrTransform_Target extends HTMLPurifier_AttrTransform { public function transform($attr, $config, $context) { // I could call $this->confiscateAttr() here to throw away an // undesired attribute $attr['target'] = '_blank'; return $attr; } } That part works like a charm, naturally. Handling elements Perhaps I'm not squinting hard enough at HTMLPurifier_TagTransform, or am looking in the wrong place(s), or generally amn't understanding it, but I can't seem to figure out a way to conditionally remove elements. Say, something to the effect of: // more configuration stuff up here $htmlDef = $htmlPurifierConfiguration->getHTMLDefinition(true); $anchor = $htmlDef->addElementHandler('a'); $anchor->elem_transform_post[] = new HTMLPurifier_ElementTransform_Cull(); // add target as per 'point of reference' here // purify down here With the Cull class extending something that has a confiscateElement() ability, or comparable, wherein I could check for a missing href attribute or a href attribute with the content http:/. HTMLPurifier_Filter I understand I could create a filter, but the examples (Youtube.php and ExtractStyleBlocks.php) suggest I'd be using regular expressions in that, which I'd really rather avoid, if it is at all possible. I'm hoping for an onboard or quasi-onboard solution that makes use of HTML Purifier's excellent parsing capabilities. Returning null in a child-class of HTMLPurifier_AttrTransform unfortunately doesn't cut it. Anyone have any smart ideas, or am I stuck with regexes? :)

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  • What's the best way to structure this Linq-to-Events Drag & Drop code?

    - by Rob Fonseca-Ensor
    I am trying to handle a drag & drop interaction, which involves mouse down, mouse move, and mouse up. Here is a simplified repro of my solution that: on mouse down, creates an ellipse and adds it to a canvas on mouse move, repositions the ellipse to follow the mouse on mouse up, changes the colour of the canvas so that it's obvious which one you're dragging. var mouseDown = Observable.FromEvent<MouseButtonEventArgs>(canvas, "MouseLeftButtonDown"); var mouseUp = Observable.FromEvent<MouseButtonEventArgs>(canvas, "MouseLeftButtonUp"); var mouseMove = Observable.FromEvent<MouseEventArgs>(canvas, "MouseMove"); Ellipse ellipse = null; var q = from start in mouseDown.Do(x => { // handle mousedown by creating a red ellipse, // adding it to the canvas at the right position ellipse = new Ellipse() { Width = 10, Height = 10, Fill = Brushes.Red }; Point position = x.EventArgs.GetPosition(canvas); Canvas.SetLeft(ellipse, position.X); Canvas.SetTop(ellipse, position.Y); canvas.Children.Add(ellipse); }) from delta in mouseMove.Until(mouseUp.Do(x => { // handle mouse up by making the ellipse green ellipse.Fill = Brushes.Green; })) select delta; q.Subscribe(x => { // handle mouse move by repositioning ellipse Point position = x.EventArgs.GetPosition(canvas); Canvas.SetLeft(ellipse, position.X); Canvas.SetTop(ellipse, position.Y); }); the XAML is simply <Canvas x:Name="canvas"/> There's a few things I don't like about this code, and I need help refactoring it :) First of all: the mousedown and mouseup callbacks are specified as side effects. If two subscriptions are made to q, they will happen twice. Second, the mouseup callback is specified before the mousemove callback. This makes it a bit hard to read. Thirdly, the reference to the ellipse seems to be in a silly place. If there's two subscriptions, that variable reference will get overwritten quite quickly. I'm sure that there should be some way we can leverage the let keyword to introduce a variable to the linq expression that will mean the correct ellipse reference is available to both the mouse move and mouse up handlers How would you write this code?

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  • Contract developer trying to get outsourcing contract with current client.

    - by Mike
    I work for a major bank as a contract software developer. I've been there a few months, and without exception this place has the worst software practices I've ever seen. The software my team makes has no formal testing, terrible code (not reusable, hard to read, etc), minimal documentation, no defined development process and an absolutely sickening amount of waste due to bureaucratic overhead. Part of my contract is to maintain a group of thousands of very poorly written batch jobs. When one of the jobs fails (read: crashes), it's a developers job to look at the source, figure out what's wrong, fix it, and check it in. There is no quality assurance process or auditing of the results whatsoever. Once the developer says "it works" a manager signs off and it goes into production. What's disturbing is that these jobs essentially grab market data and put it into a third-party risk management system, which provides the bank with critical intelligence. I've discovered the disturbing truth that this has been happening since the 90s and nobody really has evidence the system is getting the correct data! Without going into details, an issue arose on Friday that was so horrible I actually stormed out of the place. I was ready to quit, but I decided to just get out to calm my nerves and possibly go back Monday. I've been reflecting today on how to handle this. I have realized that, in probably less than 6 months, I could (with 2 other developers) remake a large component of this system. The new system would provide them with, as primary benefits, a maintainable codebase less prone to error and a solid QA framework. To do it properly I would have to be outside the bank, the internal bureaucracy is just too much. And moreover, I think a bank is fundamentally not a place that can make good software. This is my plan. Write a report explaining in depth all the problems with their current system Explain why their software practices fail and generate a tremendous amount of error and waste. Use this as the basis for claiming the project must be developed externally. Write a high level development plan, including what resources I will require Hand 1,2,3 to my manager, hopefully he passes it up the chain. Worst case he fires me, but this isn't so bad. Convinced Executive decides to award my company a contract for the new system I have 8 years experience as a software contractor and have delivered my share of successful software products, but all working in-house for small/medium sized companies. When I read this over, I think I have a dynamite plan. But since this is the first time doing something this bold so I have my doubts. My question is, is this a good idea? If you think not, please spare no detail.

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  • WPF Datagrid zoom issue

    - by David Osborn
    I'm working with the WPF DataGrid from the WPFToolkit and I'm having issues with trying to zoom the entire datagrid. My initial thought was that it was going to be really easy and I would just apply a scale transform to the grid and animate the ScaleX, ScaleY properties when the used clicked a button. This did not work however because the scrollbar was zoomed in making it larger. I need fixed headers and fixed columns on the datagrid so I can't simple use a scrollviewer outside of the datagrid to handle the scrolling. The second thing I tried was to just scale the font size in the grid, but this failed because on shrinking the font size the columns stay at the original width and do not shrink. Finally I thought I had it working by using the below code which goes into the view tree for the datagrid and adds a scale transform to the Scroll Content Presenter. (Also not shown in this code, I apply a transform to the visual tree item for the headers in the same manner so that it scales as well). I thought this was working great until I tested out the horizontal scrolling after zooming. (Vertical scrolling works perfectly.) Before zooming at all the horizontal scrolling is fine, but after zooming, when I scroll horzonitally the display freaks out. It is hard to tell exactly what it is doing, but it sort of looks like the content that is scrolling off the left of the screen is "folding over" and coming back in on the left. Maybe it is just all smashing up on the left side. Does anyone have any ideas how I can get this working, hopefully without throwing out my whole datagrid that is already working quite well otherwise. ScrollContentPresenter sp = (ScrollContentPresenter) VisualTreeHelper.GetChild( VisualTreeHelper.GetChild( VisualTreeHelper.GetChild(VisualTreeHelper.GetChild(dgMatrix, 0), 0), 0),2); ScaleTransform st = new ScaleTransform(1, 1); sp.LayoutTransform = st; DoubleAnimation a = new DoubleAnimation(); a.By = 1.5; a.AutoReverse = false; a.Duration = new Duration(TimeSpan.Parse("0:0:0.25")); st.BeginAnimation(ScaleTransform.ScaleXProperty, a); st.BeginAnimation(ScaleTransform.ScaleYProperty, a);

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  • Using embedded resources in Silverlight (4) - other cultures not being compiled

    - by Andrei Rinea
    I am having a bit of a hard time providing localized strings for the UI in a small Silverlight 4 application. Basically I've put a folder "Resources" and placed two resource files in it : Statuses.resx Statuses.ro.resx I do have an enum Statuses : public enum Statuses { None, Working } and a convertor : public class StatusToMessage : IValueConverter { public object Convert(object value, Type targetType, object parameter, CultureInfo culture) { if (!Enum.IsDefined(typeof(Status), value)) { throw new ArgumentOutOfRangeException("value"); } var x = Statuses.None; return Statuses.ResourceManager.GetString(((Status)value).ToString(), Thread.CurrentThread.CurrentUICulture); } public object ConvertBack(object value, Type targetType, object parameter, CultureInfo culture) { throw new NotImplementedException(); } } in the view I have a textblock : <TextBlock Grid.Column="3" Text="{Binding Status, Converter={StaticResource StatusToMessage}}" /> Upon view rendering the converter is called but no matter what the Thread.CurrentThread.CurrentUICulture is set it always returns the default culture value. Upon further inspection I took apart the XAP resulted file, taken the resulted DLL file to Reflector and inspected the embedded resources. It only contains the default resource!! Going back to the two resource files I am now inspecting their properties : Build action : Embedded Resource Copy to output directory : Do not copy Custom tool : ResXFileCodeGenerator Custom tool namespace : [empty] Both resource (.resx) files have these settings. The .Designer.cs resulted files are as follows : Statuses.Designer.cs : //------------------------------------------------------------------------------ // <auto-generated> // This code was generated by a tool. // Runtime Version:4.0.30319.1 // // Changes to this file may cause incorrect behavior and will be lost if // the code is regenerated. // </auto-generated> //------------------------------------------------------------------------------ namespace SilverlightApplication5.Resources { using System; /// <summary> /// A strongly-typed resource class, for looking up localized strings, etc. /// </summary> // This class was auto-generated by the StronglyTypedResourceBuilder // class via a tool like ResGen or Visual Studio. // To add or remove a member, edit your .ResX file then rerun ResGen // with the /str option, or rebuild your VS project. [global::System.CodeDom.Compiler.GeneratedCodeAttribute("System.Resources.Tools.StronglyTypedResourceBuilder", "4.0.0.0")] [global::System.Diagnostics.DebuggerNonUserCodeAttribute()] [global::System.Runtime.CompilerServices.CompilerGeneratedAttribute()] internal class Statuses { // ... yadda-yadda Statuses.ro.Designer.cs [empty] I've taken both files and put them in a console application and they behave as expected in it, not like in this silverlight application. What is wrong?

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  • LINQ to SQL: To Attach or Not To Attach

    - by bradhe
    So I'm have a really hard time figuring out when I should be attaching to an object and when I shouldn't be attaching to an object. First thing's first, here is a small diagram of my (very simplified) object model. Edit: Okay, apparently I'm not allowed to post images...here you go: http://i.imgur.com/2ROFI.png In my DAL I create a new DataContext every time I do a data-related operation. Say, for instance, I want to save a new user. In my business layer I create a new user. var user = new User(); user.FirstName = "Bob"; user.LastName = "Smith"; user.Username = "bob.smith"; user.Password = StringUtilities.EncodePassword("MyPassword123"); user.Organization = someOrganization; // Assume that someOrganization was loaded and it's data context has been garbage collected. Now I want to go save this user. var userRepository = new RepositoryFactory.GetRepository<UserRepository>(); userRepository.Save(user); Neato! Here is my save logic: public void Save(User user) { if (!DataContext.Users.Contains(user)) { user.Id = Guid.NewGuid(); user.CreatedDate = DateTime.Now; user.Disabled = false; //DataContext.Organizations.Attach(user.Organization); DataContext.Users.InsertOnSubmit(user); } else { DataContext.Users.Attach(user); } DataContext.SubmitChanges(); // Finished here as well. user.Detach(); } So, here we are. You'll notice that I comment out the bit where the DataContext attachs to the organization. If I attach to the organization I get the following exception: NotSupportedException: An attempt has been made to Attach or Add an entity that is not new, perhaps having been loaded from another DataContext. This is not supported. Hmm, that doesn't work. Let me try it without attaching (i.e. comment out that line about attaching to the organization). DuplicateKeyException: Cannot add an entity with a key that is already in use. WHAAAAT? I can only assume this is trying to insert a new organization which is obviously false. So, what's the deal guys? What should I do? What is the proper approach? It seems like L2S makes this quite a bit harder than it should be...

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  • How can this C and PHP programmer learn Ruby and Rails?

    - by Winston
    I came from a C, php and bash background, it was easy to learn because they all have the same C structure, which I can associate with what I already know. Then 2 years ago I learned Python and I learned it quite well, Python is easier for me to learn than Ruby. Then since last year, I was trying to learn Ruby, then Rails, and I admit, until now I still couldn't get it, the irony is that those are branded as easy to learn, but for a seasoned programmer like me, I just couldn't associate it with what I learned before, I have 2 books on both Ruby and Rails, and when I'm reading it nothing is absorbed into my mind, and I'm close to giving up... In ruby, I'm having a hard time grasping the concepts of blocks, and why there's @variables that can be accessed by other functions, and what does $variable and :variable do? And in Rails, why there's function like this_is_another_function_that_do_this, so thus ruby, is it just a naming convention or it's auto-generated with thisvariable _can_do_this_function. I'm still puzzled that where all those magic concepts and things came from? And now, 1 year of trying and absorbing, but still no progress... Edit: To summarize: How can I learn about blocks, and how can it be related to concepts from PHP/C? Variables, what does does it mean when a variable is prefixed with: @ $ : "Magic concepts", suchs as rails declarations of Records, what happens behind the scenes when I write has_one X OK so, bear with me with my confusion, at least I'm honest with myself, and it's over a year now since I first trying to learn ruby, and I'm not getting younger.. so I learned this in Bash/C/PHP solve_problem($problem) { if [ -e $problem == "trivial" ]; then write_solution(); else breakdown_problem_into_N_subproblems(\; define_relationship_between_subproblems; for i in $( command $each_subproblem ); do solve_problem $i done fi } write_solution(problem) { some_solution=$(command <parameters> "input" | command); command | command $some_solution > output_solved_problem_to_file } breakdown_problem_into_N_subproblems($problems) { for i in $problems; do command $i | command > i_can_output_a_file_right_away done } define_relationship_between_subproblems($problems) { if [ -e $problem == "relationship" ]; then relationship=$(command; command | command; command;) elsif [ -e $problem == "another_relationship" ]; relationship=$(command; command | command; command;) fi } In C/PHP is something like this solve_problem(problem) { if (problem == trivial) write_solution; else { breakdown_problem_into_N_subproblems; define_relationship_between_subproblems; for (each_subproblem) solve_problems(subproblem); } } And now, I just couldn't connect the dots with Ruby, |b|{ blocks }, using @variables, :variables, and variables_with_this_things..

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  • How would you organize a large complex web application (see basic example)?

    - by Anurag
    How do you usually organize complex web applications that are extremely rich on the client side. I have created a contrived example to indicate the kind of mess it's easy to get into if things are not managed well for big apps. Feel free to modify/extend this example as you wish - http://jsfiddle.net/NHyLC/1/ The example basically mirrors part of the comment posting on SO, and follows the following rules: Must have 15 characters minimum, after multiple spaces are trimmed out to one. If Add Comment is clicked, but the size is less than 15 after removing multiple spaces, then show a popup with the error. Indicate amount of characters remaining and summarize with color coding. Gray indicates a small comment, brown indicates a medium comment, orange a large comment, and red a comment overflow. One comment can only be submitted every 15 seconds. If comment is submitted too soon, show a popup with appropriate error message. A couple of issues I noticed with this example. This should ideally be a widget or some sort of packaged functionality. Things like a comment per 15 seconds, and minimum 15 character comment belong to some application wide policies rather than being embedded inside each widget. Too many hard-coded values. No code organization. Model, Views, Controllers are all bundled together. Not that MVC is the only approach for organizing rich client side web applications, but there is none in this example. How would you go about cleaning this up? Applying a little MVC/MVP along the way? Here's some of the relevant functions, but it will make more sense if you saw the entire code on jsfiddle: /** * Handle comment change. * Update character count. * Indicate progress */ function handleCommentUpdate(comment) { var status = $('.comment-status'); status.text(getStatusText(comment)); status.removeClass('mild spicy hot sizzling'); status.addClass(getStatusClass(comment)); } /** * Is the comment valid for submission */ function commentSubmittable(comment) { var notTooSoon = !isTooSoon(); var notEmpty = !isEmpty(comment); var hasEnoughCharacters = !isTooShort(comment); return notTooSoon && notEmpty && hasEnoughCharacters; } // submit comment $('.add-comment').click(function() { var comment = $('.comment-box').val(); // submit comment, fake ajax call if(commentSubmittable(comment)) { .. } // show a popup if comment is mostly spaces if(isTooShort(comment)) { if(comment.length < 15) { // blink status message } else { popup("Comment must be at least 15 characters in length."); } } // show a popup is comment submitted too soon else if(isTooSoon()) { popup("Only 1 comment allowed per 15 seconds."); } });

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  • Google Chrome audit on caching

    - by Álvaro G. Vicario
    If I run an audit on my sites with Google Chrome, I get this message in the Leverage browser caching section: The following resources are missing a cache expiration. Resources that do not specify an expiration may not be cached by browsers: A list of all the pictures follows. I get a similar notice in Leverage proxy caching: Consider adding a "Cache-Control: public" header to the following resources: Apart from pictures, I also get a notice about HTML, CSS and JavaScript files: The following resources are explicitly non-cacheable. Consider making them cacheable if possible: Its funny because I've worked hard to cache all static contents (except for pictures, where I just left Apache's default settings). Firefox does indeed store all these items in cache. Is there anything I should improve in my HTTP headers? Here's the complete header set of some items as loaded after removing the browser caché. Pictures use default settings I didn't really check before, the rest should be cachéd for three hours. I can set headers with both .htaccess and PHP. PNG HTTP/1.1 200 OK Date: Sat, 31 Jul 2010 12:46:14 GMT Server: Apache Last-Modified: Thu, 18 Mar 2010 21:40:54 GMT Etag: "c48024-230-4821a15d6c580" Accept-Ranges: bytes Content-Length: 560 Keep-Alive: timeout=4 Connection: Keep-Alive Content-Type: image/png HTML HTTP/1.1 200 OK Date: Sat, 31 Jul 2010 12:46:13 GMT Server: Apache X-Powered-By: PHP/5.2.11 Expires: Sat, 31 Jul 2010 15:46:13 GMT Cache-Control: max-age=10800, s-maxage=10800, must-revalidate, proxy-revalidate Content-Encoding: gzip Vary: Accept-Encoding Last-Modified: Wed, 24 Mar 2010 20:30:36 GMT Keep-Alive: timeout=4 Connection: Keep-Alive Transfer-Encoding: chunked Content-Type: text/html; charset=ISO-8859-15 CSS HTTP/1.1 200 OK Date: Sat, 31 Jul 2010 12:48:21 GMT Server: Apache X-Powered-By: PHP/5.2.11 Expires: Sat, 31 Jul 2010 15:48:21 GMT Cache-Control: max-age=10800, s-maxage=10800, must-revalidate, proxy-revalidate Content-Encoding: gzip Vary: Accept-Encoding Last-Modified: Thu, 18 Mar 2010 21:40:12 GMT Keep-Alive: timeout=4 Connection: Keep-Alive Transfer-Encoding: chunked Content-Type: text/css JavaScript HTTP/1.1 200 OK Date: Sat, 31 Jul 2010 12:48:21 GMT Server: Apache X-Powered-By: PHP/5.2.11 Expires: Sat, 31 Jul 2010 15:48:21 GMT Cache-Control: max-age=10800, s-maxage=10800, must-revalidate, proxy-revalidate Content-Encoding: gzip Vary: Accept-Encoding Last-Modified: Thu, 18 Mar 2010 21:40:12 GMT Keep-Alive: timeout=4 Connection: Keep-Alive Transfer-Encoding: chunked Content-Type: application/x-javascript Update I've tested Jumby's suggestion and set my CSS's expire to 1 year: Cache-Control:max-age=31536000, s-maxage=31536000, must-revalidate, proxy-revalidate Connection:Keep-Alive Content-Encoding:gzip Content-Length:4198 Content-Type:text/css Date:Mon, 02 Aug 2010 20:48:56 GMT Expires:Tue, 02 Aug 2011 20:48:56 GMT Keep-Alive:timeout=5, max=99 Last-Modified:Thu, 18 Mar 2010 20:40:12 GMT Server:Apache/2.2.14 (Win32) PHP/5.3.1 Vary:Accept-Encoding X-Powered-By:PHP/5.3.1 However, Chrome still claims "explicitly non-cacheable".

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  • do you want try ? [closed]

    - by gemxia
    Only with time and hard work, that can you get an IT certification. Although there are hundreds of certifications for you to pick from, the basic steps to get certified are the same. The following steps are certain to clear your puzzles about the preparation process of your <. The first step to take is choosing a certification. It is simple but at the same time very important. Make sure to choose the certifications that are respected in your industries. The second step you should take is to evaluate your experience. Find out what skills and experience the IBM certification is expecting. Then, decide what type of training is suitable for you. Preparation books will certainly not make you an expert in subjects you’re not already an expert in. But, for the subject areas you know little or nothing about, a study guide provides you clues and guidance about what the important information from those subjects is when it comes to passing the Examkiller IBM examination exam. Visit certification forums during your 000-M62 certification exam preparation. In this way, you can learn from others’ mistakes and example, meanwhile help your own studies. Achieving your goals without proper training is a sure road to failure. Knowing about a topic and having special expertise in it are completely different. One cannot be an expert in the IT industry without the proper foundation. Taking a training class for Examkiller IBM exam might be a guaranteed way. When the economy dips and budgets get tightened, one of the first things to go from corporate spending is training. There are plenty of courses, boot camps and cram sessions that promise to prepare you for the IBM exam, but they are exceptionally expensive. As much as possible, for your own benefit, you should look for resources that are free. Vendor of IBM offers free resource in their sites. These practice exams are the closest to the real exams. If you think that you have got ready for the exam, you can take the fourth now, which is registering your exam. Even if you have passed your <, yet you can’t relax, since there are still so many certifications ahead. If you have just memorized some questions and answers, excepting a fluke, then, don’t take the IBM test exam, until you really have the experience and skills the certification requires.

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  • Would Ruby on Rails be appropriate for this Foreign Language project?

    - by Lynne Overesch-Maister
    I'm a Spanish professor & computer groupie. About 15 years ago, I authored in HyperCard a series of verb conjugation programs that are now completely out of date with respect to System OS X. I would like to redo these programs myself because I had a lot of fun doing them last time (mostly I coded while my son played in Leaps and Bounds, you know, one of those places where parents take their kids & let them run wild through the tubes...). Colleagues have mentioned using Flash, Director, and various other solutions, but I saw a presentation on RoR at our SIDLIT conference today, and was inspired. I will be parsing and comparing strings (and there are other features on top of that, but that is the main one), "adding" strings relationally indexed in some kind of database(s). It will also have to handle various foreign characters (accents, upside down question marks, etc.). On top of the main process of the program, it will have to provide a practice vs. test mode, keep track of specific answers as well as totals right/wrong, and print a report. Would this be either easier and/or more efficiently done in RoR than in other languages. I am pretty sure that it will work on a Microsoft server, right? Because I think that is where most of our stuff is. I would be programming either on a Mac or a PC, whichever you think is easier. So, in summary, is RoR the way for me to go with this project? If I have some (little) experience programming in Hypercard and C, should I be able to pick RoR up fairly quickly? What things will I need to start (I already saw something called Redhills foreign key migration plugin, which I assume would be beneficial)? I still have my old scripts from hypercard, however what I would really like to do is to combine all six of my former tense-specific programs into one larger program. I figure that it wouldn't be too hard to reference the individual tenses in some way--could that be a class? Many thanks for any help you can give me on this forum.

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  • How can I troubleshoot an APPCRASH in Internet Explorer?

    - by Schnapple
    I'm writing an ActiveX control using the firebreath framework (hi taxilian!) and while it technically works, I'm running into a weird issue that appears to be unique to me. I've followed the instructions to create a simple plugin and then I ran it in Internet Explorer 8 on Windows 7 x64 (firebreath sets up a test page for the control). But as soon as I try to test it (clicking on a link that fires off JavaScript to interact with the control), IE crashes. Hard. "Internet Explorer has stopped working" style. If I try the control in Firefox (the resulting registered DLL can also be called as a Firefox plugin using a MIME type), it works fine. If I try it on my XP box, it works fine. I emailed the DLL and the testing page to a coworker in the next cube who is like me also running Windows 7 x64 and it works for him just fine as well, so it's not something unique to Windows 7 or x64. When it crashes I get this message: Problem signature: Problem Event Name: APPCRASH Application Name: iexplore.exe Application Version: 8.0.7600.16385 Application Timestamp: 4a5bc69e Fault Module Name: RPCRT4.dll Fault Module Version: 6.1.7600.16385 Fault Module Timestamp: 4a5bdb3b Exception Code: c0000005 Exception Offset: 000220b1 OS Version: 6.1.7600.2.0.0.256.1 Locale ID: 1033 Additional Information 1: 0a9e Additional Information 2: 0a9e372d3b4ad19135b953a78882e789 Additional Information 3: 0a9e Additional Information 4: 0a9e372d3b4ad19135b953a78882e789 Which tells me nothing extremely useful. I can have it attach to a debugger but it just tells me a long list of DLL's, none of which are the ActiveX control in question. It's almost like it's not even getting there. I did a sfc /scannow yesterday to see if anything on my system is corrupt and nothing came up as wrong. I tried various different security levels in IE, but nothing seems to have any effect. As this is a development machine there has been all matter of crap installed on it, so I figure it's bound to be something I've installed since October (when Win7 was released) but I cannot figure out what it is. I presume the information it's giving me when I attach to Visual Studio is useful somehow but I don't know how to interpret it. Admittedly I'm mainly a C#/.NET developer who's a bit out of his element with C/C++ and troubleshooting native code, but does anyone have any advice on how to proceed on figuring out why this very simple ActiveX control crashes IE on my machine and nowhere else?

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  • Occasional Date or timezone discrepancy in hudson or maven with jodatime

    - by TheStijn
    hi, I hope following explanation will make sense because it's a weird problem we're facing and hard to describe. We have a maven project which gets build in hudson and that contains some unit tests where dates are used and asserted. The hudson server runs on solaris. Now, occasionally (like 30% of the times) the unit tests using dates fail because 3,5 hours are deducted from the specified time in the unit test and hence asserts start failing. The other 70% everything works fine although nothing at all changed in the code and we run the hudson job several times an hour. I add following code to a unittest to check the time: @Test public void testDate() { System.out.println("new DateMidnight(2011, 1, 5).toDate();"); System.out.println(new DateMidnight(2011, 1, 5).toDate()); System.out.println(new DateMidnight(2011, 1, 5).toDate().getTime()); Calendar cal = Calendar.getInstance(); cal.set(Calendar.YEAR, 2011); cal.set(Calendar.MONTH, 0); cal.set(Calendar.DAY_OF_MONTH, 5); cal.set(Calendar.HOUR, 0); cal.set(Calendar.MINUTE, 0); cal.set(Calendar.SECOND, 0); cal.set(Calendar.MILLISECOND, 0); System.out.println("cal.getTime();"); System.out.println(cal.getTime()); System.out.println(cal.getTime().getTime()); } So basically it should print the same thing when using jodatime or plain old Calendar. This is the case in 70% of the runs; for the other 30% I get following printouts: Running TestSuite new DateMidnight(2011, 1, 5).toDate(); Tue Jan 04 21:30:00 MET 2011 1294173000000 cal.getTime(); Wed Jan 05 12:00:00 MET 2011 1294225200000 Local maven tests never appear the pose this problem and we can't figure out what could be the cause of it. Especially, we can't think of a single reason why the tests sometimes pass and sometimes fail without changing any code nor hudson or server setting. Also, we run the maven install with cobertura which means that the unit tests are run twice. It happens also that they pass the first time and fail the second time or the other way around or that they fail both times. Thanks for any help, Stijn

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