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  • MySQL: optimization of table (indexing, foreign key) with no primary keys

    - by Haradzieniec
    Each member has 0 or more orders. Each order contains at least 1 item. memberid - varchar, not integer - that's OK (please do not mention that's not very good, I can't change it). So, thera 3 tables: members, orders and order_items. Orders and order_items are below: CREATE TABLE `orders` ( `orderid` INT(11) UNSIGNED NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT, `memberid` VARCHAR( 20 ), `Time` TIMESTAMP NOT NULL DEFAULT CURRENT_TIMESTAMP , `info` VARCHAR( 3200 ) NULL , PRIMARY KEY (orderid) , FOREIGN KEY (memberid) REFERENCES members(memberid) ) ENGINE = InnoDB; CREATE TABLE `order_items` ( `orderid` INT(11) UNSIGNED NOT NULL, `item_number_in_cart` tinyint(1) NOT NULL , --- 5 items in cart= 5 rows `price` DECIMAL (6,2) NOT NULL, FOREIGN KEY (orderid) REFERENCES orders(orderid) ) ENGINE = InnoDB; So, order_items table looks like: orderid - item_number_in_cart - price: ... 1000456 - 1 - 24.99 1000456 - 2 - 39.99 1000456 - 3 - 4.99 1000456 - 4 - 17.97 1000457 - 1 - 20.00 1000458 - 1 - 99.99 1000459 - 1 - 2.99 1000459 - 2 - 69.99 1000460 - 1 - 4.99 ... As you see, order_items table has no primary keys (and I think there is no sense to create an auto_increment id for this table, because once we want to extract data, we always extract it as WHERE orderid='1000456' order by item_number_in_card asc - the whole block, id woudn't be helpful in queries). Once data is inserted into order_items, it's not UPDATEd, just SELECTed. The questions are: I think it's a good idea to put index on item_number_in_cart. Could anybody please confirm that? Is there anything else I have to do with order_items to increase the performance, or that looks pretty good? I could miss something because I'm a newbie. Thank you in advance.

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  • How can I run some common code from both (a) scheduled via Windows Task & (b) manually from within W

    - by Greg
    Hi, QUESTION - How can I run some common code from both (a) scheduled via Windows Task & (b) manually from within WinForms app? BACKGROUND: This follows on from the http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2489999/how-can-i-schedule-tasks-in-a-winforms-app thread REQUIREMENTS C# .NETv3.5 project using VS2008 There is an existing function which I want to run both (a) manually from within the WinForms application, and (b) scheduled via Windows Task. APPROACHES So what I'm trying to understand is what options are there to make this work eg Is it possible for a windows task to trigger a function to run within a running/existing WinForms application? (doesn't sound solid I guess) Split code out into two projects and duplicate for both console application that the task manager would run AND code that the winforms app would run Create a common library and re-use this for both the above-mentioned projects in the bullet above Create a service with an interface that both the task manager can access plus the winforms app can manage Actually each of these approaches sounds quite messy/complex - would be really nice to drop back to have the code only once within the one project in VS2008, the only reason I ask about this is I need to have a scheduling function and the suggestion has been to use http://taskscheduler.codeplex.com/ as the means to do this, which takes the scheduling out of my VS2008 project... thanks

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  • How do I tell whether my IE is 64-bit? (For that matter, Java too?)

    - by user225626
    Millions of questions already on the web about how to tell whether the OS is 64-bit, but not whether IE and/or Java runtime is 64-bit. Some background: I installed 64-bit Win 7, and IE installed automatically with it from CD; I didn't download IE. I did download Java runtime. Mouseover tips in Control Panel!Programs shows it as: "Java 32-bit Java(TM) Control Panel" Then I went to http://java.com/en/download/manual.jsp and that page says... We have detected you may be viewing this page in a 32-bit browser. If you use 32-bit and 64-bit browsers interchangeably, you will need to install both 32-bit and 64-bit Java in order to have the Java plug-in for both browsers. But I cannot tell in the aftermath whether my Java is 64-bit. Evidently the "Java(TM) Control Panel" is, but I don't know if that's the same as the runtime. (I'm afraid to ask on the offical Java forums, because they're such a-holes.) Also, How do I issue a command to the OS to tell whether this IE is 64-bit? Help!About doesn't say on that. Thanks.

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  • FBML wallpost by clicking on image or button

    - by psaha
    Hello, I'm creating one facebook application with FBML. What I want is: I have several images like, <fb:tag name="img"> <fb:tag-attribute name="src">http://My_Img_Url_1.jpg</fb:tag-attribute> </fb:tag> <fb:tag name="img"> <fb:tag-attribute name="src">http://My_Img_Url_2.jpg</fb:tag-attribute> </fb:tag> While I click on the image it should open one popup "post to wall" or "Post to your Friend's wall" with the corresponding image My_Img_Url_n.jpg. I can use FBML share button like: METHOD-1 <fb:share-button class="meta"> <meta name="title" content="Image_TITLE"/> <meta name="description" content="Image_Descrip"/> <link rel="image_src" href="http://My_Img_Url_1.jpg"/> <link rel="target_url" href="Some_Target_URL"/> </fb:share-button> OR, METHOD-2: I can call fb:ui <script> FB.init({ appId:'111111111111111', cookie:true, status:true, xfbml:true }); FB.ui({ method: 'feed', name: '', link: '', picture: 'http://My_Img_Url_1.jpg' }); </script> Now the questions are: If I click on any image it will call either METHOD-1 or METHOD-2 and it will popup with that image. How can I do that? If I use <fb:multi-friend-input /> for posting to friend's wall, How can I do?

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  • Practicing inserting data into an array by using binary search, few problems

    - by HelpNeeder
    I'm trying to create a method which inserts and then sort elements in form of binary form. The problem I am experiencing that my code doesn't insert data correctly which means that output does not appear to be in order at all. The list is not organized, and data is added in order that is being inserted. Now, 2 questions, what am I doing wrong here? And how to fix this? public void insertBinarySearch(long value) // put element into array { int j = 0; int lower = 0; int upper = elems-1; int cur = 0; while (cur < elems) { curIn = (lower + upper ) / 2; if(a[cur] < value) { j = cur + 1; break; } else if(a[cur] > value) { j = cur; break; } else { if(a[cur] < value) lower = cur + 1; else upper = cur - 1; } } for(int k = elems; k > j; k--) a[k] = a[k-1]; a[j] = value; elems++; }

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  • Jquery (non-gem) plugin won't work in my rails 3.2 app

    - by jfdimark
    I'm trying to equalize columns in my rails 3.2 app, and while there may be a better way to do it then my current attempt, after hours of trying to make it work I'd like to see if anyone can point out specifically why this jQuery plugin (which isn't a gem) is not working. I'm not getting any errors in the developer console, so it's hard to pin point. Here's the relevant code: The index view, where I've followed the plugin's instructions: div id="column-group"> <div class="equalize span5 offset1 UserProfile"> <% if user_signed_in? %> <h3>Hello <%= current_user.name %>!</h3> </div> <div class="equalize span5 MemberDisplay"> My application.js file, where I've also included the specific js code, so it would definitely be picked up by the application: //= require jquery //= require jquery_ujs //= require bootstrap //= require equalize_column_heights //= require_tree . $(document).ready(function() { $("#column-group").equalize_column_heights("equalize"); }); The jQuery plugin code, which is saved in my vendor/assets/javascripts folder: (function ($) { $.fn.equalize_column_heights = function (equalize_class) { var tallest_column=0; parent_id = "column-group" + $(this).attr("id") + " ." + equalize_class; $(parent_id).each(function(index, value) { if (tallest_column < $(this).height()){ tallest_column = $(this).height(); } }); $(parent_id).each(function(index, value) { $(this).css({'min-height': tallest_column}); }); } }(jQuery)); I've read all the rails guides documentation on the asset pipeline and all the relevant jQuery-rails3 questions on SO, but after several hours, I just can't seem to figure this one out. If anyone can point to other tutorials on how to get non-gem jQuery plugins to work in a Rails 3.2 app then I'd be glad to take a look!

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  • Strange response from WCF service, how to return json easily

    - by Exitos
    I want to get a service to respond with just JSON. I have written the following code: namespace BM.Security { [ServiceContract(Namespace = "")] [AspNetCompatibilityRequirements(RequirementsMode = AspNetCompatibilityRequirementsMode.Allowed)] public class AssocFileService { [OperationContract] [WebGet(ResponseFormat = WebMessageFormat.Json)] public List<Person> GetPeople(int message) { List<Person> myList = new List<Person>(); Person p = new Person() { Age = 28, Name="Name1" }; Person p2 = new Person() { Age = 26, Name = "Name2" }; myList.Add(p); myList.Add(p2); return myList; } } [DataContract] public class Person { [DataMember] public string Name { get; set; } [DataMember] public int Age { get; set; } } } But im getting the following JSON back which is really wierd... { "d" : [ { "Age" : 28, "Name" : "Name1", "__type" : "Person:#Bm.Security" }, { "Age" : 26, "Name" : "Name2", "__type" : "Person:#BM.Security" } ] } I'm totally stumped by the "d" no idea where that has come from. And also by the __type variable, no thanks don't really want that in my Json :-( How do I set the root node in my data to replace that d? Where did the d come from? So many questions... Hope someone can help....

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  • MySQL subquery and bracketing

    - by text
    Here are my tables respondents: field sample value respondentid : 1 age : 2 gender : male survey_questions: id : 1 question : Q1 answer : sample answer answers: respondentid : 1 question : Q1 answer : 1 --id of survey question I want to display all respondents who answered the certain survey, display all answers and total all the answer and group them according to the age bracket. I tried using this query: SELECT res.Age, res.Gender, answer.id, answer.respondentid, SUM(CASE WHEN res.Gender='Male' THEN 1 else 0 END) AS males, SUM(CASE WHEN res.Gender='Female' THEN 1 else 0 END) AS females, CASE WHEN res.Age < 1 THEN 'age1' WHEN res.Age BETWEEN 1 AND 4 THEN 'age2' WHEN res.Age BETWEEN 4 AND 9 THEN 'age3' WHEN res.Age BETWEEN 10 AND 14 THEN 'age4' WHEN res.Age BETWEEN 15 AND 19 THEN 'age5' WHEN res.Age BETWEEN 20 AND 29 THEN 'age6' WHEN res.Age BETWEEN 30 AND 39 THEN 'age7' WHEN res.Age BETWEEN 40 AND 49 THEN 'age8' ELSE 'age9' END AS ageband FROM Respondents AS res INNER JOIN Answers as answer ON answer.respondentid=res.respondentid INNER JOIN Questions as question ON answer.Answer=question.id WHERE answer.Question='Q1' GROUP BY ageband ORDER BY res.Age ASC I was able to get the data but the listing of all answers are not present. Do I have to subquery SELECT into my current SELECT statement to show the answers? I want to produce something like this: ex: # of Respondents is 3 ages: 2,3 and 6 Question: what are your favorite subjects? Ages 1-4: subject 1: 1 subject 2: 2 subject 3: 2 total respondents for ages 1-4 : 2 Ages 5-10: subject 1: 1 subject 2: 1 subject 3: 0 total respondents for ages 5-10 : 1

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  • C++ Returning Pointers/References

    - by m00st
    I have a fairly good understanding of the dereferencing operator, the address of operator, and pointers in general. I however get confused when I see stuff such as this: int* returnA() { int *j = &a; return j; } int* returnB() { return &b; } int& returnC() { return c; } int& returnC2() { int *d = &c; return *d; } In returnA() I'm asking to return a pointer; just to clarify this works because j is a pointer? In returnB() I'm asking to return a pointer; since a pointer points to an address, the reason why returnB() works is because I'm returning &b? In returnC() I'm asking for an address of int to be returned. When I return c is the & operator automatically "appended" c? In returnC2() I'm asking again for an address of int to be returned. Does *d work because pointers point to an address? Assume a, b, c are initialized as integers. Can someone validate if I am correct with all four of my questions?

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  • Populate JOIN into a list in one database query

    - by axio
    I am trying to get the records from the 'many' table of a one-to-many relationship and add them as a list to the relevant record from the 'one' table. I am also trying to do this in a single database request. Code derived from http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1580199/linq-to-sql-populate-join-result-into-a-list almost achieves the intended result, but makes one database request per entry in the 'one' table which is unacceptable. That failing code is here: var res = from variable in _dc.GetTable<VARIABLE>() select new { x = variable, y = variable.VARIABLE_VALUEs }; However if I do a similar query but loop through all the results, then only a single database request is made. This code achieves all goals: var res = from variable in _dc.GetTable<VARIABLE>() select variable; List<GDO.Variable> output = new List<GDO.Variable>(); foreach (var v2 in res) { List<GDO.VariableValue> values = new List<GDO.VariableValue>(); foreach (var vv in v2.VARIABLE_VALUEs) { values.Add(VariableValue.EntityToGDO(vv)); } output.Add(EntityToGDO(v2)); output[output.Count - 1].VariableValues = values; } However the latter code is ugly as hell, and it really feels like something that should be do-able in a single linq query. So, how can this be done in a single linq query that makes only a single database query? In both cases the table is set to preload using the following code: _dc = _db.CreateLinqDataContext(); var loadOptions = new DataLoadOptions(); loadOptions.LoadWith<VARIABLE>(v => v.VARIABLE_VALUEs); _dc.LoadOptions = loadOptions; I am using .NET 3.5, and the database back-end was generated using SqlMetal.

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  • Undefined Variable? But I defined it...

    - by Rob
    Well before anyone claims that theres a duplicate question... (I've noticed that people who can't answer the question tend to run and look for a duplicate, and then report it.) Here is the duplicate you are looking for: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2481382/php-claims-my-defined-variable-is-undefined However, this isn't quite a duplicate. It gives me a solution, but I'm not really looking for this particular solution. Here is my problem: Notice: Undefined variable: custom Now here is my code: $headers = apache_request_headers(); // Request the visitor's headers. $customheader = "Header: 7ddb6ffab28bb675215a7d6e31cfc759"; //This is what the header should be. foreach ($headers as $header => $value) { $custom .= "$header: $value"; } Clearly, $custom is defined. According to the other question, it's a global and should be marked as one. But how is it a global? And how can I make it a (non-global)? The script works fine, it still displays what its supposed to and acts correctly, but when I turn on error messages, it simply outputs that notice as well. I suppose its not currently necessary to fix it, but I'd like to anyway, as well as know why its doing this.

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  • How to call a method after asynchronous task is complete

    - by doctordoder
    I have a class called WikiWebView which is a subclass of UIWebView which loads Wikipedia subjects and is designed to fetch all the links of the webpage, in order to create a sort of site map for the subject. My problem is that I can only create the links once the web page has loaded, but the loading isn't done right after [self loadRequest:requestObj] is called. - (void)loadSubject:(NSString *)subject { // load the actual webpage NSString *wiki = @"http://www.wikipedia.org/wiki/"; NSString *fullURL = [wiki stringByAppendingString:subject]; NSURL *url = [NSURL URLWithString:fullURL]; NSURLRequest *requestObj = [NSURLRequest requestWithURL:url]; [self loadRequest:requestObj]; // [self createLinks]; // need this to be called after the view has loaded } - (void)createLinks { NSString *javascript = @"var string = \"\";" "var arr = document.getElementsByClassName(\"mw-redirect\");" "for (var i = 0; i < arr.length; ++i)" "{" "var redirectLink = arr[i].href;" "string = string + redirectLink + \" \";" "}" "string;"; NSString *links = [self stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString:javascript]; self.links = [links componentsSeparatedByString:@" "]; } I tried the normal delegation technique, which lead to this code being added: - (id)init { if (self = [super init]) { self.delegate = self; // weird } return self; } #pragma mark - UIWebViewDelegate - (void)webViewDidStartLoad:(UIWebView *)webView { ++_numProcesses; } - (void)webView:(UIWebView *)webView didFailLoadWithError:(NSError *)error { --_numProcesses; } - (void)webViewDidFinishLoad:(UIWebView *)webView { --_numProcesses; if (_numProcesses == 0) { [self createLinks]; } } However, the delegate methods are never called.. I've seen similar questions where the answers are to use blocks, but how would I do that in this case?

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  • Grails - Where to store properties related to domains

    - by GalmWing
    This is something I have been struggling about for some time now. The thing is: I have many (20 or so) static arrays of values. I say static because that is how I'm actually storing them, as static arrays inside some domains. For example, if I have a list of known websites, I do: class Website { ... static websites = ["web1", "web2" ...] } But I do this just while developing, because I can easily change the arrays if needed, but what I'm going to do when the application is ready for deployment? In my project it is very probable that, at some point, these arrays of values change. I've been researching on that matter, one can store application properties inside an external .properties file, but it will be impossible to store an array, even futile, because if some array gets an additional value, the application can't recognize it until the name of the new property is added where needed. Another approach is to store this information in the database, but for some reason it seems like a waste to add 20 or more tables that will have just two rows, an id and a name. And the last option, as far as I know, would be an XML, but I'm not very experienced with those. It seems groovy has a way of creating and reading XML files relatively easy, but I don't know how difficult would be to modify an XML whose layout is predefined in the application. Needless to say that storing them in the config.groovy is not an option since any change will require to recompile. I haven't come across some "standard" (maybe a best practice?) way of dealing with these. So the questions is: Where to store these arrays?

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  • Adding new records in Access without wrecking the form

    - by Matt Parker
    I'm working on a simple Access 2003 application to keep track of things that need to be done for clients for some colleagues. Each colleague has a set of clients, and each client has a set of actions that need to be taken by a certain date. I've set up a form that consists of a combobox for client ID (indexed), a drop-down for the person who is handling that client's case, and a button for adding new clients (a standard Access-created Add Record button). The actions are listed in a subform below these three elements. The problem I've run into is that the first person I tested this on clicked the button to add a new record, then didn't fill it out and tried to select another client from the drop-down list. Access interprets this as an attempt to set the selected Client ID as the ID for the new record and rightfully throws an error for duplicate primary keys. I can think of a couple of ways around this problem, but I'd much rather hear your elegant solutions than kludge together some junk in a language I don't know. Let me know if you have any questions. Thank you.

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  • Problem in mutiple :dependent=> :destroy when multiple polymorphic is true

    - by piemesons
    I have four models question, answer, comment and vote.Consider it same as stackoverflow. Question has_many comments Answers has_many comments Questions has_many votes answers has_many votes comments has_many votes Here are the models (only relevant things) class Comment < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :commentable, :polymorphic => true has_many :votes, :as => :votable, :dependent => :destroy end class Question < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :comments, :as => :commentable, :dependent => :destroy has_many :answers, :dependent => :destroy has_many :votes, :as => :votable, :dependent => :destroy end class Vote < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :votable, :polymorphic => true end class Answer < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :question, :counter_cache => true has_many :comments, :as => :commentable , :dependent => :destroy end Now the problem is whenever i am trying to delete any question/answer/comment its giving me an error NoMethodError in QuestionsController#destroy undefined method `each' for 0:Fixnum if i remove this line from any of the model (question/answer/comment) has_many :votes, :as => :votable, :dependent => :destroy then it works perfectly. It seems there is a problem while deleting the records active record is not able to find out the proper path because of multiple joins within the tables.

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  • Problem accessing private variables in jQuery like chainable design pattern

    - by novogeek
    Hi folks, I'm trying to create my custom toolbox which imitates jQuery's design pattern. Basically, the idea is somewhat derived from this post: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2061501/jquery-plugin-design-pattern-common-practice-for-dealing-with-private-function (Check the answer given by "David"). So here is my toolbox function: (function(window){ var mySpace=function(){ return new PrivateSpace(); } var PrivateSpace=function(){ var testCache={}; }; PrivateSpace.prototype={ init:function(){ console.log('init this:', this); return this; }, ajax:function(){ console.log('make ajax calls here'); return this; }, cache:function(key,selector){ console.log('cache selectors here'); testCache[key]=selector; console.log('cached selector: ',testCache); return this; } } window.hmis=window.m$=mySpace(); })(window) Now, if I execute this function like: console.log(m$.cache('firstname','#FirstNameTextbox')); I get an error 'testCache' is not defined. I'm not able to access the variable "testCache" inside my cache function of the prototype. How should I access it? Basically, what I want to do is, I want to cache all my jQuery selectors into an object and use this object in the future.

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  • Can I strictly evaluate a boolean expression stored as a string in Java?

    - by D Lawson
    I would like to be able to evaluate an boolean expression stored as a string, like the following: "hello" == "goodbye" && 100 < 101 I know that there are tons of questions like this on SO already, but I'm asking this one because I've tried the most common answer to this question, BeanShell, and it allows for the evaluation of statements like this one "hello" == 100 with no trouble at all. Does anyone know of a FOSS parser that throws errors for things like operand mismatch? Or is there a setting in BeanShell that will help me out? I've already tried Interpreter.setStrictJava(true). Here's the code that I'm using currently: Interpreter interpreter = new Interpreter(); interpreter.setStrictJava(true); String testableCondition = "100 == \"hello\""; try { interpreter.eval("boolean result = ("+ testableCondition + ")"); System.out.println("result: "+interpreter.get("result")); if(interpreter.get("result") == null){ throw new ValidationFailure("Result was null"); } } catch (EvalError e) { e.printStackTrace(); throw new ValidationFailure("Eval error while parsing the condition"); }

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  • Alternate colors on click with jQuery

    - by Jace Cotton
    I'm sure there is a simple solution to this, and I'm sure this is a duplicate question, though I have been unable to solve my solution particularly because I don't really know how to phrase it in order to search for other questions/solutions, so I'm coming here hoping for some help. Basically, I have spans with classes that assigns a background-color property, and inside those spans are words. I have three of these spans, and each time a user clicks on a span I want the class to change (thus changing the background color and inner text). HTML: <span class="alternate"> <span class="blue showing">Lorem</span> <span class="green">Ipsum</span> <span class="red">Dolor</span> </span> CSS: .alternate span { display : none } .alternate .showing { display : inline } .blue { background : blue } .green { background : green } .red { background : red } jQuery: $(".alternate span").each(function() { $(this).on("click", function() { $(this).removeClass("showing"); $(this).next().addClass("showing"); }); }); This solution works great using $.next until I get to the third click, whereafter .showing is removed, and is not added since there are no more $.next options. How do I, after getting to the last-child, add .showing to the first-child and then start over? I have tried various options including if($(".alternate span:last-child").hasClass("showing")) { etc. etc. }, and I attempted to use an array and for loop though I failed to make it work. Newb question, I know, but I can't seem to solve this so as a last resort I'm coming here.

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  • CI + Joomla 1.5

    - by DMin
    Hi, This is something that I just cooked up with Joomla and CodeIgniter(CI). I Wrote my database intensive application in CodeIgniter and frontend is Joomla. I'm using Jumi(Joomla Extention) so I can include the CI files inside joomla to basically insert the content generated by CI into Joomla articles. Problem is, you can't include CI files directly using JUMI from joomla because CI tends to route the pages so instead of seeing your joomla page with the CI content, you be redirected to the CI page itself. I did a little work around for this : Made an additional page that just basically does cURL to the CI page - gets the data and echos it out. From jumi, I include this cURL page instead. Couple of questions: I've seen at least a few posts that CI + Joomla is difficult to do(link). 1) Do you see any glaring security issues or possible performance issues? 2) Do you know of a better way to implement this? 3) What do you think of this? Do you think this is a good way to do this? There is one component out there that plugs CI with Joomla but it requires you to have a fresh CI install. It allows only one controller & the download link is down as well.

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  • Removing most inline styles and properties with PHP

    - by bakkelun
    This question is related to a similar case, namely http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2488950/removing-inline-styles-using-php The solution there does not remove i.e: <font face="Tahoma" size="4"> But let's say I have a mixed bag of inline styles and properties, like this: <ul style="padding: 5px; margin: 5px;"> <li style="padding: 2px;"><div style="border:2px solid green;">Some text</div></li> <li style="padding: 2px;"><font face="arial,helvetica,sans-serif" size="2">Some text</font></li> <li style="padding: 2px;"><font face="arial,helvetica,sans-serif" size="2">Some text</font></li> </ul> What regExp is needed to achieve this result? <ul> <li><div>Some text</div></li> <li><font>Some text</font></li> <li><font>Some text</font></li> </ul> Thanks for reading the question, any help is appreciated.

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  • Git Svn dcommit error - restart the commit

    - by Rob Wilkerson
    Last week, I made a number of changes to my local branch before leaving town for the weekend. This morning I wanted to dcommit all of those changes to the company's Svn repository, but I get a merge conflict in one file: Merge conflict during commit: Your file or directory 'build.properties.sample' is probably out-of-date: The version resource does not correspond to the resource within the transaction. Either the requested version resource is out of date (needs to be updated), or the requested version resource is newer than the transaction root (restart the commit). I'm not sure exactly why I'm getting this, but before attempting to dcommit, I did a git svn rebase. That "overwrote" my commits. To recover from that, I did a git reset --hard HEAD@{1}. Now my working copy seems to be where I expect it to be, but I have no idea how to get past the merge conflict; there's not actually any conflict to resolve that I can find. Any thoughts would be appreciated. EDIT: Just wanted to specify that I am working locally. I have a local branch for the trunk that references svn/trunk (the remote branch). All of my work was done on the local trunk: $ git branch maint-1.0.x master * trunk $ git branch -r svn/maintenance/my-project-1.0.0 svn/trunk Similarly, git log currently shows 10 commits on my local trunk since the last commit with a Svn ID. Hopefully that answers a few questions. Thanks again.

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  • Help me sort programing languages a bit

    - by b-gen-jack-o-neill
    Hi, so I asked here few days ago about C# and its principles. Now, if I may, I have some additional general questions about some languages, becouse for novice like me, it seems a bit confusing. To be exact I want to ask more about language functions capabilities than syntax and so. To be honest, its just these special functions that bothers me and make me so confused. For exmaple, C has its printf(), Pascal has writeln() and so. I know in basic the output in assembler of these funtions would be similiar, every language has more or less its special functions. For console output, for file manipulation, etc. But all these functions are de-facto part of its OS API, so why is for example in C distinguished between C standard library functions and (on Windows) WinAPI functions when even printf() has to use some Windows feature, call some of its function to actually show desired text on console window, becouse the actuall "showing" is done by OS. Where is the line between language functions and system API? Now languages I dont quite understand - Python, Ruby and similiar. To be more specific, I know they are similiar to java and C# in term they are compiled into bytecode. But, I do not unerstand what are its capabilities in term of building GUI applications. I saw tutorial for using Ruby to program GUI applications on Linux and Windows. But isn´t that just some kind of upgrade? I mean fram other tutorials It seemed like these languages was first intended for small scripts than building big applications. I hope you understand why I am confused. If you do, please help me sort it out a bit, I have no one to ask.

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  • Overlay an image over video using OpenGL ES shaders

    - by BlueVoodoo
    I am trying to understand the basic concepts of OpenGL. A week into it, I am still far from there. Once I am in glsl, I know what to do but I find getting there is the tricky bit. I am currently able to pass in video pixels which I manipulate and present. I have then been trying to add still image as an overlay. This is where I get lost. My end goal is to end up in the same fragment shader with pixel data from both my video and my still image. I imagine this means I need two textures and pass on two pixel buffers. I am currently passing the video pixels like this: glGenTextures(1, &textures[0]); //target, texture glBindTexture(GL_TEXTURE_2D, textures[0]); glTexParameteri(GL_TEXTURE_2D, GL_TEXTURE_MIN_FILTER, GL_LINEAR); glTexParameteri(GL_TEXTURE_2D, GL_TEXTURE_MAG_FILTER, GL_LINEAR); glTexParameteri(GL_TEXTURE_2D, GL_TEXTURE_WRAP_S, GL_CLAMP_TO_EDGE); glTexParameteri(GL_TEXTURE_2D, GL_TEXTURE_WRAP_T, GL_CLAMP_TO_EDGE); glTexImage2D(GL_TEXTURE_2D, 0, GL_RGBA, width, height, 0, GL_BGRA, GL_UNSIGNED_BYTE, buffer); Would I then repeat this process on textures[1] with the second buffer from the image? If so, do I then bind both GL_TEXTURE0 and GL_TEXTURE1? ...and would my shader look something like this? uniform sampler2D videoData; uniform sampler2D imageData; once I am in the shader? It seems no matter what combination I try, image and video always ends up being just video data in both these. Sorry for the many questions merged in here, just want to clear my many assumptions and move on. To clarify the question a bit, what do I need to do to add pixels from a still image in the process described? ("easy to understand" sample code or any types of hints would be appreciated).

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  • Is it still true, to make cross broswer layouts for desktop browsers using table+css is easier then

    - by metal-gear-solid
    My one of web designer friend still making sites with table but he use css very nicely and I also use css nicely but with <div> and i face cross browser problem in layout more than my friend. and i given some reason to my friend about cons of <table>. read my whole discussion with friend? I - you site will be problematic with screen reader My friend - OK, but i never got any call from any client regarding this. I - you will devote more time to make any changes in layout, if changes comes from client My friend - I don't think so, but if it is then show me how can i save time with <div>? I - your sites will not work well with search engine. My friend - it's not true. I've made many site and no problem with any site or client regarding this I - layout is old way, non w3c and non standard way. My friend - what is old and what is new, Who is W3C i don't know, What is standard? Whatever i make works in all browsers, it's enough for me and my client will not pay for standard and W3C guidelines rules I - Your site will not work in mobile browsers My friend - No problem for me, my client don't care about mobile phone I - Your sites are not accessible? My Friend - What do u mean not accessible? Whatever i make works in all browsers. my any client never asked about accessibility I - You will not get more work in future, with table? My friend - OK, no problem when clients will not accept site with table then i will learn about div based layouts in future. My questions? Is it still true, to make cross browser layouts for desktop browsers using table+css is easier then div+css? What is the benefit for developer to use DIV+CSS layout in place of <table> layouts if client would not mind if i use ?

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  • Python: Calling method A from class A within class B?

    - by Tommo
    There are a number of questions that are similar to this, but none of the answers hits the spot - so please bear with me. I am trying my hardest to learn OOP using Python, but i keep running into errors (like this one) which just make me think this is all pointless and it would be easier to just use methods. Here is my code: class TheGUI(wx.Frame): def __init__(self, title, size): wx.Frame.__init__(self, None, 1, title, size=size) # The GUI is made ... textbox.TextCtrl(panel1, 1, pos=(67,7), size=(150, 20)) button1.Bind(wx.EVT_BUTTON, self.button1Click) self.Show(True) def button1Click(self, event): #It needs to do the LoadThread function! class WebParser: def LoadThread(self, thread_id): #It needs to get the contents of textbox! TheGUI = TheGUI("Text RPG", (500,500)) TheParser = WebParser TheApp.MainLoop() So the problem i am having is that the GUI class needs to use a function that is in the WebParser class, and the WebParser class needs to get text from a textbox that exists in the GUI class. I know i could do this by passing the objects around as parameters, but that seems utterly pointless, there must be a more logical way to do this that doesn't using classes seem so pointless? Thanks in advance!

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