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  • [android] How to center buttons on screen horizontally and vertically plus equidistant apart?

    - by marc
    I've been racking my brain (android newbie here, so not hard to do) for awhile trying to figure out how to accomplish this: Desired Layout using a RelativeLayout or something other than AbsoluteLayout which is what this was created with. I'm coming from a Windows programming background where the device adjusts the 'absolute' positioning for you and GUI layout was a non-issue. The first layout works great in the emulator, but doesn't format for my Nexus One or any other screen that differs from the emulator size. I expected this because it's absolutely positioned, but haven't found a solution that will format correctly for different screen sizes. My goal is to have the layout work for different screen sizes and in portrait / landscape. Here's the Code that I'm currently using: [main.xml] <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <AbsoluteLayout android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="fill_parent" xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" > <Button android:id="@+id/Button01" android:layout_width="188px" android:layout_height="100px" android:text="A" android:layout_y="50px" android:layout_x="65px" android:textSize="48sp"/> <Button android:id="@+id/Button02" android:layout_width="188px" android:layout_height="100px" android:text="B" android:layout_y="175px" android:layout_x="65px" android:textSize="48sp"/> <Button android:id="@+id/Button03" android:layout_width="188px" android:layout_height="100px" android:text="C" android:layout_y="300px" android:layout_x="65px" android:textSize="48sp"/> </AbsoluteLayout> Using tidbits from other questions here, I came up with this, it’s closer, but not there yet. <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <TableLayout android:gravity="center" android:id="@+id/widget49" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="fill_parent" android:orientation="vertical" xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" > <Button android:id="@+id/Button01" android:layout_width="0dip" android:layout_weight="1" android:text="A" android:textSize="48sp"/> <Button android:id="@+id/Button02" android:layout_width="0dip" android:layout_weight="1" android:text="B" android:textSize="48sp"/> <Button android:id="@+id/Button03" android:layout_width="0dip" android:layout_weight="1" android:text="C" android:textSize="48sp"/> </TableLayout> Here’s a picture of the TableLayout: Another Attempt Any help / guidance would be greatly appreciated.

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  • IE7 not digesting JSON: "parse error" [resolved]

    - by Kenny Leu
    While trying to GET a JSON, my callback function is NOT firing. $.ajax({ type:"GET", dataType:'json', url: myLocalURL, data: myData, success: function(returned_data){alert('success');} }); The strangest part of this is that my JSON(s) validates on JSONlint this ONLY fails on IE7...it works in Safari, Chrome, and all versions of Firefox, (EDIT: and even in IE8). If I use 'error', then it reports "parseError"...even though it validates! Is there anything that I'm missing? Does IE7 not process certain characters, data structures (my data doesn't have anything non-alphanumeric, but it DOES have nested JSONs)? I have used tons of other AJAX calls that all work (even in IE7), but with the exception of THIS call. An example data return (EDIT: This is a structurally-complete example, meaning it is only missing a few second-tier fields, but follows this exact hierarchy)here is: {"question":{ "question_id":"19", "question_text":"testing", "other_crap":"none" }, "timestamp":{ "response":"answer", "response_text":"the text here" } } I am completely at a loss. Hopefully someone has some insight into what's going on...thank you! EDIT Here's a copy of the SIMPLEST case of dummy data that I'm using...it still doesn't work in IE7. { "question":{ "question_id":"20", "question_text":"testing :", "adverse_party":"none", "juris":"California", "recipients":"Carl Chan" } } EDIT 2 I am starting to doubt that it is a JSON issue...but I have NO idea what else it could be. Here are some other resources that I've found that could be the cause, but they don't seem to work either: http://firelitdesign.blogspot.com/2009/07/jquerys-getjson.html (Django uses Unicode by default, so I don't think this is causing it) Anybody have any other ideas? ANSWER I finally managed to figure it out...mostly via tedious trial-and-error. I want to thank everyone for their suggestions...as soon as I have 15 rep, I'll upvote you, I promise. :) There was basically no way that you guys could have figured it out, because the issue turned out to be a strange bug between IE7 and Django (my research didn't bring up any similar issues). We were basically using Django template language to generate our JSON...and in the midst of this particular JSON, we were using custom template tags: {% load customfilter %} { "question":{ "question_id":"{{question.id}}", "question_text":"{{question.question_text|customfilterhere}}" } } As soon as I deleted anything related to the customfilter, IE7 was able to parse the JSON perfectly! We still don't have a workaround yet, but at least we now know what's causing it. Has anyone seen any similar issues? Once again, thank you everyone for your contributions.

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  • How to solve QPixmap::fromImage memory leak?

    - by dodoent
    Hello everyone! I have a problem with Qt. Here is a part of code that troubles me: void FullScreenImage::QImageIplImageCvt(IplImage *input) { help=cvCreateImage(cvGetSize(input), input->depth, input->nChannels); cvCvtColor(input, help, CV_BGR2RGB); QImage tmp((uchar *)help->imageData, help->width, help->height, help->widthStep, QImage::Format_RGB888); this->setPixmap(QPixmap::fromImage(tmp).scaled(this->size(), Qt::IgnoreAspectRatio, Qt::SmoothTransformation)); cvReleaseImage(&help); } void FullScreenImage::hideOnScreen() { this->hide(); this->clear(); } void FullScreenImage::showOnScreen(IplImage *slika, int delay) { QImageIplImageCvt(slika); this->showFullScreen(); if(delay>0) QTimer::singleShot(delay*1000, this, SLOT(hideOnScreen())); } So, the method showOnScreen uses private method QImageIplImageCvt to create QImage from IplImage (which is used by the openCV), which is then used to create QPixmap in order to show the image in full screen. FullScreenImage class inherits QLabel. After some delay, the fullscreen picture should be hidden, so I use QTimer to trigger an event after some delay. The event handler is the hideOnScreen method which hides the label and should clear the memory. The problem is the following: Whenever I call QPixmap::fromImage, it allocates the memory for the pixmap data and copies the data from QImage memory buffer to the QPixmap memory buffer. After the label is hidden, the QPixmap data still remains allocated, and even worse, after the new QPixmap::fromImage call the new chunk of memory is allocated for the new picture, and the old data is not freed from memory. This causes a memory leak (cca 10 MB per method call with my testing pictures). How can I solve that leak? I've even tried to create a private QPixmap variable, store pixmap created by the QPixmap::fromImage to it, and then tried to call its destructor in hideOnScreen method, but it didn't help. Is there a non-static way to create QPixmap from QImage? Or even better, is there a way to create QPixmap directly from IplImage* ? Thank you in advance for your answers.

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  • Calling a javascript-method causes IE 8 to crash

    - by Andreas Niedermair
    good morning! some basic infos: engine is asp.net (specific version is not relevant) runs on iis (specific version is not relevant) asp-button is hidden why?! wtf?!: this example is used in some modal-confirmation: user clicks delete, ui shows modal-dialog. so, the visible button would be the yes-button, when clicked one, would cause a postback of the original asp-button (as i'm using the jquery-dialog plugin). and i have this html: <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.1//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml11/DTD/xhtml11.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head> // head tags go here </head> <body> <div style="display: none;"> <asp:Button runat="server" ID="hiddenBt" /> </div> <button id="visibleBt">Yes</button> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { var visibleButton = $('#visibleBt'); var hiddenButton = $('#<%= this.hiddenBt.ClientID %>'); visibleButton.click(function() { __doPostBack(hiddenButton.attr('name'); }); }); </script> </body> </html> so ... if i'm running IE8 and non-compatiblity view, hitting the yes-button will crash the ie8-rendering-engine Version=1 EventType=MSHTMLLAYOUTHARDASSERT EventTime=129197590067237499 Consent=1 UploadTime=129197590067257499 ReportIdentifier=4b752ddb-6c79-11df-8bf6-001aa0b266a7 WOW64=1 Response.BucketId=1064991109 Response.BucketTable=5 Response.type=4 Sig[0].Name=AppName Sig[0].Value=iexplore.exe Sig[1].Name=AppVer Sig[1].Value=8.00.7600.16385 (win7_rtm.090713-1255) Sig[2].Name=ModName Sig[2].Value=mshtml.dll Sig[3].Name=ModVer Sig[3].Value=8.00.7600.16385 (win7_rtm.090713-1255) Sig[4].Name=Offset Sig[4].Value=0x002B5031 DynamicSig[1].Name=OS Version DynamicSig[1].Value=6.1.7600.2.0.0.256.48 DynamicSig[2].Name=Locale ID DynamicSig[2].Value=3079 State[0].Key=Transport.DoneStage1 State[0].Value=1 FriendlyEventName=Webpage display problem ConsentKey=MSHTMLLAYOUTHARDASSERT AppName=Internet Explorer AppPath=C:\Program Files (x86)\Internet Explorer\iexplore.exe ReportDescription=A problem displaying a webpage caused Internet Explorer to refresh the page using Compatibility View. any help would be appreciated!

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  • The parameters dictionary contains a null entry for parameter

    - by ognjenb
    <%using (Html.BeginForm("OrderDevice", "ImportXML", FormMethod.Post)) { %> <table id="OrderDevices" class="data-table"> <tr> <th> DeviceId </th> <th> Id </th> <th> OrderId </th> </tr> <% foreach (var item in Model) { %> <tr> <td> <input readonly="readonly" class="" id="DeviceId" type="text" name="<%= Html.Encode(item.DeviceId) %>" value="<%= Html.Encode(item.DeviceId) %>" style="width: 61px" /> </td> <td> <input readonly="readonly" class="" id="c" type="text" name= "<%= Html.Encode(item.Id) %>" value=" <%= Html.Encode(item.Id) %>" style="width: 50px" /> </td> <td> <input readonly="readonly" class="" id="OrderId" type="text" name= " <%= Html.Encode(item.OrderId) %>" value="<%= Html.Encode(item.OrderId) %> " style="width: 49px" /> </td> </tr> <% } %> </table> <input type="submit" value="Create"/> <%} %> My controller action: [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult OrderDevice(int id) { try { // TODO: Add insert logic here orderdevice ord = new orderdevice(); ord.Id = System.Convert.ToInt32(Request.Form["Id"]); ord.OrderId = System.Convert.ToInt32(Request.Form["OrderId"]); ord.DeviceId = System.Convert.ToInt32(Request.Form["DeviceId"]); XMLEntities.AddToorderdevice(ord); XMLEntities.SaveChanges(); return RedirectToAction("Index"); } catch { return View("Index"); } } When post a form I have this error: The parameters dictionary contains a null entry for parameter 'id' of non-nullable type 'System.Int32' for method 'System.Web.Mvc.ActionResult OrderDevice(Int32)' in 'MvcKVteam.Controllers.ImportXMLController'. An optional parameter must be a reference type, a nullable type, or be declared as an optional parameter. Parameter name: parameters How fix it?

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  • Entity Framework SaveChanges error details

    - by Marek Karbarz
    When saving changes with SaveChanges on a data context is there a way to determine which Entity causes an error? For example, sometimes I'll forget to assign a date to a non-nullable date field and get "Invalid Date Range" error, but I get no information about which entity or which field it's caused by (I can usually track it down by painstakingly going through all my objects, but it's very time consuming). Stack trace is pretty useless as it only shows me an error at the SaveChanges call without any additional information as to where exactly it happened. Note that I'm not looking to solve any particular problem I have now, I would just like to know in general if there's a way to tell which entity/field is causing a problem. Quick sample of a stack trace as an example - in this case an error happened because CreatedOn date was not set on IAComment entity, however it's impossible to tell from this error/stack trace [SqlTypeException: SqlDateTime overflow. Must be between 1/1/1753 12:00:00 AM and 12/31/9999 11:59:59 PM.] System.Data.SqlTypes.SqlDateTime.FromTimeSpan(TimeSpan value) +2127345 System.Data.SqlTypes.SqlDateTime.FromDateTime(DateTime value) +232 System.Data.SqlClient.MetaType.FromDateTime(DateTime dateTime, Byte cb) +46 System.Data.SqlClient.TdsParser.WriteValue(Object value, MetaType type, Byte scale, Int32 actualLength, Int32 encodingByteSize, Int32 offset, TdsParserStateObject stateObj) +4997789 System.Data.SqlClient.TdsParser.TdsExecuteRPC(_SqlRPC[] rpcArray, Int32 timeout, Boolean inSchema, SqlNotificationRequest notificationRequest, TdsParserStateObject stateObj, Boolean isCommandProc) +6248 System.Data.SqlClient.SqlCommand.RunExecuteReaderTds(CommandBehavior cmdBehavior, RunBehavior runBehavior, Boolean returnStream, Boolean async) +987 System.Data.SqlClient.SqlCommand.RunExecuteReader(CommandBehavior cmdBehavior, RunBehavior runBehavior, Boolean returnStream, String method, DbAsyncResult result) +162 System.Data.SqlClient.SqlCommand.RunExecuteReader(CommandBehavior cmdBehavior, RunBehavior runBehavior, Boolean returnStream, String method) +32 System.Data.SqlClient.SqlCommand.ExecuteReader(CommandBehavior behavior, String method) +141 System.Data.SqlClient.SqlCommand.ExecuteDbDataReader(CommandBehavior behavior) +12 System.Data.Common.DbCommand.ExecuteReader(CommandBehavior behavior) +10 System.Data.Mapping.Update.Internal.DynamicUpdateCommand.Execute(UpdateTranslator translator, EntityConnection connection, Dictionary`2 identifierValues, List`1 generatedValues) +8084396 System.Data.Mapping.Update.Internal.UpdateTranslator.Update(IEntityStateManager stateManager, IEntityAdapter adapter) +267 [UpdateException: An error occurred while updating the entries. See the inner exception for details.] System.Data.Mapping.Update.Internal.UpdateTranslator.Update(IEntityStateManager stateManager, IEntityAdapter adapter) +389 System.Data.EntityClient.EntityAdapter.Update(IEntityStateManager entityCache) +163 System.Data.Objects.ObjectContext.SaveChanges(SaveOptions options) +609 IADAL.IAController.Save(IAHeader head) in C:\Projects\IA\IADAL\IAController.cs:61 IA.IAForm.saveForm(Boolean validate) in C:\Projects\IA\IA\IAForm.aspx.cs:198 IA.IAForm.advance_Click(Object sender, EventArgs e) in C:\Projects\IA\IA\IAForm.aspx.cs:287 System.Web.UI.WebControls.Button.OnClick(EventArgs e) +118 System.Web.UI.WebControls.Button.RaisePostBackEvent(String eventArgument) +112 System.Web.UI.WebControls.Button.System.Web.UI.IPostBackEventHandler.RaisePostBackEvent(String eventArgument) +10 System.Web.UI.Page.RaisePostBackEvent(IPostBackEventHandler sourceControl, String eventArgument) +13 System.Web.UI.Page.RaisePostBackEvent(NameValueCollection postData) +36 System.Web.UI.Page.ProcessRequestMain(Boolean includeStagesBeforeAsyncPoint, Boolean includeStagesAfterAsyncPoint) +5019

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  • Python: nonblocking read from stdout of threaded subprocess

    - by sberry2A
    I have a script (worker.py) that prints unbuffered output in the form... 1 2 3 . . . n where n is some constant number of iterations a loop in this script will make. In another script (service_controller.py) I start a number of threads, each of which starts a subprocess using subprocess.Popen(stdout=subprocess.PIPE, ...); Now, in my main thread (service_controller.py) I want to read the output of each thread's worker.py subprocess and use it to calculate an estimate for the time remaining till completion. I have all of the logic working that reads the stdout from worker.py and determines the last printed number. The problem is that I can not figure out how to do this in a non-blocking way. If I read a constant bufsize then each read will end up waiting for the same data from each of the workers. I have tried numerous ways including using fcntl, select + os.read, etc. What is my best option here? I can post my source if needed, but I figured the explanation describes the problem well enough. Thanks for any help here. EDIT Adding sample code I have a worker that starts a subprocess. class WorkerThread(threading.Thread): def __init__(self): self.completed = 0 self.process = None self.lock = threading.RLock() threading.Thread.__init__(self) def run(self): cmd = ["/path/to/script", "arg1", "arg2"] self.process = subprocess.Popen(cmd, stdout=subprocess.PIPE, bufsize=1, shell=False) #flags = fcntl.fcntl(self.process.stdout, fcntl.F_GETFL) #fcntl.fcntl(self.process.stdout.fileno(), fcntl.F_SETFL, flags | os.O_NONBLOCK) def get_completed(self): self.lock.acquire(); fd = select.select([self.process.stdout.fileno()], [], [], 5)[0] if fd: self.data += os.read(fd, 1) try: self.completed = int(self.data.split("\n")[-2]) except IndexError: pass self.lock.release() return self.completed I then have a ThreadManager. class ThreadManager(): def __init__(self): self.pool = [] self.running = [] self.lock = threading.Lock() def clean_pool(self, pool): for worker in [x for x in pool is not x.isAlive()]: worker.join() pool.remove(worker) del worker return pool def run(self, concurrent=5): while len(self.running) + len(self.pool) > 0: self.clean_pool(self.running) n = min(max(concurrent - len(self.running), 0), len(self.pool)) if n > 0: for worker in self.pool[0:n]: worker.start() self.running.extend(self.pool[0:n]) del self.pool[0:n] time.sleep(.01) for worker in self.running + self.pool: worker.join() and some code to run it. threadManager = ThreadManager() for i in xrange(0, 5): threadManager.pool.append(WorkerThread()) threadManager.run() I have stripped out a log of the other code in hopes to try to pinpoint the issue.

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  • SQLiteDataAdapter Fill exception

    - by Lirik
    I'm trying to use the OleDb CSV parser to load some data from a CSV file and insert it into a SQLite database, but I get an exception with the OleDbAdapter.Fill method and it's frustrating: An unhandled exception of type 'System.Data.ConstraintException' occurred in System.Data.dll Additional information: Failed to enable constraints. One or more rows contain values violating non-null, unique, or foreign-key constraints. Here is the source code: public void InsertData(String csvFileName, String tableName) { String dir = Path.GetDirectoryName(csvFileName); String name = Path.GetFileName(csvFileName); using (OleDbConnection conn = new OleDbConnection("Provider=Microsoft.Jet.OLEDB.4.0;Data Source=" + dir + @";Extended Properties=""Text;HDR=No;FMT=Delimited""")) { conn.Open(); using (OleDbDataAdapter adapter = new OleDbDataAdapter("SELECT * FROM " + name, conn)) { QuoteDataSet ds = new QuoteDataSet(); adapter.Fill(ds, tableName); // <-- Exception here InsertData(ds, tableName); // <-- Inserts the data into the my SQLite db } } } class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { SQLiteDatabase target = new SQLiteDatabase(); string csvFileName = "D:\\Innovations\\Finch\\dev\\DataFeed\\YahooTagsInfo.csv"; string tableName = "Tags"; target.InsertData(csvFileName, tableName); Console.ReadKey(); } } The "YahooTagsInfo.csv" file looks like this: tagId,tagName,description,colName,dataType,realTime 1,s,Symbol,symbol,VARCHAR,FALSE 2,c8,After Hours Change,afterhours,DOUBLE,TRUE 3,g3,Annualized Gain,annualizedGain,DOUBLE,FALSE 4,a,Ask,ask,DOUBLE,FALSE 5,a5,Ask Size,askSize,DOUBLE,FALSE 6,a2,Average Daily Volume,avgDailyVolume,DOUBLE,FALSE 7,b,Bid,bid,DOUBLE,FALSE 8,b6,Bid Size,bidSize,DOUBLE,FALSE 9,b4,Book Value,bookValue,DOUBLE,FALSE I've tried the following: Removing the first line in the CSV file so it doesn't confuse it for real data. Changing the TRUE/FALSE realTime flag to 1/0. I've tried 1 and 2 together (i.e. removed the first line and changed the flag). None of these things helped... One constraint is that the tagId is supposed to be unique. Here is what the table look like in design view: Can anybody help me figure out what is the problem here? Update: I changed the HDR property from HDR=No to HDR=Yes and now it doesn't give me an exception: OleDbConnection conn = new OleDbConnection("Provider=Microsoft.Jet.OLEDB.4.0;Data Source=" + dir + @";Extended Properties=""Text;HDR=Yes;FMT=Delimited"""); I assumed that if HDR=No and I removed the header (i.e. first line), then it should work... strangely it didn't work. In any case, now I'm no longer getting the exception. The new problem is here: public void InsertData(QuoteDataSet data, String tableName) { using (SQLiteConnection conn = new SQLiteConnection(_connectionString)) { conn.Open(); using (SQLiteDataAdapter sqliteAdapter = new SQLiteDataAdapter("SELECT * FROM " + tableName, conn)) { Console.WriteLine("Num rows updated is " + sqliteAdapter.Update(data, tableName)); } } } Now the Num rows updated is 0... any hints?

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  • SSRS Report from Oracle DB - Use stored procedure

    - by Emtucifor
    I am developing a report in Sql Server Reporting Services 2005, connecting to an Oracle 11g database. As you post replies perhaps it will help to know that I'm skilled in MSSQL Server and inexperienced in Oracle. I have multiple nested subreports and need to use summary data in outer reports and the same data but in detail in the inner reports. In order to spare the DB server from multiple executions, I thought to populate some temp tables at the beginning and then query just them the multiple times in the report and the subreports. In SSRS, Datasets are evidently executed in the order they appear in the RDL file. And you can have a dataset that doesn't return a rowset. So I created a stored procedure to populate my four temp tables and made this the first Dataset in my report. This SP works when I run it from SQLDeveloper and I can query the data from the temp tables. However, this didn't appear to work out because SSRS was apparently not reusing the same session, so even though the global temporary tables were created with ON COMMIT PRESERVE ROWS my Datasets were empty. I switched to using "real" tables and am now passing in an additional parameter, a GUID in string form, uniquely generated on each new execution, that is part of the primary key of each table, so I can get back just the rows for this execution. Running this from Sql Developer works fine, example: DECLARE ActivityCode varchar2(15) := '1208-0916 '; ExecutionID varchar2(32) := SYS_GUID(); BEGIN CIPProjectBudget (ActivityCode, ExecutionID); END; Never mind that in this example I don't know the GUID, this simply proves it works because rows are inserted to my four tables. But in the SSRS report, I'm still getting no rows in my Datasets and SQL Developer confirms no rows are being inserted. So I'm thinking along the lines of: Oracle uses implicit transactions and my changes aren't getting committed? Even though I can prove that the non-rowset returning SP is executing (because if I leave out the parameter mapping it complains at report rendering time about not having enough parameters) perhaps it's not really executing. Somehow. Wrong execution order isn't the problem or rows would appear in the tables, and they aren't. I'm interested in any ideas about how to accomplish this (especially the part about not running the main queries multiple times). I'll redesign my whole report. I'll stop using a stored procedure. Suggest anything you like! I just need help getting this working and I am stuck. If you want more details, in my SSRS report I have a List object (it's a container that repeats once for each row in a Dataset) that has some header values and then contains a subreport. Eventually, there will be four total reports: one main report, with three nested subreports. Each subreport will be in a List on the parent report.

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  • iPhone 3DES encryption key length issue

    - by Russell Hill
    Hi, I have been banging my head on a wall with this one. I need to code my iPhone application to encrypt a 4 digit "pin" using 3DES in ECB mode for transmission to a webservice which I believe is written in .NET. + (NSData *)TripleDESEncryptWithKey:(NSString *)key dataToEncrypt:(NSData*)encryptData { NSLog(@"kCCKeySize3DES=%d", kCCKeySize3DES); char keyBuffer[kCCKeySize3DES+1]; // room for terminator (unused) bzero( keyBuffer, sizeof(keyBuffer) ); // fill with zeroes (for padding) [key getCString: keyBuffer maxLength: sizeof(keyBuffer) encoding: NSUTF8StringEncoding]; // encrypts in-place, since this is a mutable data object size_t numBytesEncrypted = 0; size_t returnLength = ([encryptData length] + kCCBlockSize3DES) & ~(kCCBlockSize3DES - 1); // NSMutableData* returnBuffer = [NSMutableData dataWithLength:returnLength]; char* returnBuffer = malloc(returnLength * sizeof(uint8_t) ); CCCryptorStatus ccStatus = CCCrypt(kCCEncrypt, kCCAlgorithm3DES , kCCOptionECBMode, keyBuffer, kCCKeySize3DES, nil, [encryptData bytes], [encryptData length], returnBuffer, returnLength, &numBytesEncrypted); if (ccStatus == kCCParamError) NSLog(@"PARAM ERROR"); else if (ccStatus == kCCBufferTooSmall) NSLog(@"BUFFER TOO SMALL"); else if (ccStatus == kCCMemoryFailure) NSLog(@"MEMORY FAILURE"); else if (ccStatus == kCCAlignmentError) NSLog(@"ALIGNMENT"); else if (ccStatus == kCCDecodeError) NSLog(@"DECODE ERROR"); else if (ccStatus == kCCUnimplemented) NSLog(@"UNIMPLEMENTED"); if(ccStatus == kCCSuccess) { NSLog(@"TripleDESEncryptWithKey encrypted: %@", [NSData dataWithBytes:returnBuffer length:numBytesEncrypted]); return [NSData dataWithBytes:returnBuffer length:numBytesEncrypted]; } else return nil; } } I do get a value encrypted using the above code, however it does not match the value from the .NET web service. I believe the issue is that the encryption key I have been supplied by the web service developers is 48 characters long. I see that the iPhone SDK constant "kCCKeySize3DES" is 24. So I SUSPECT, but don't know, that the commoncrypto API call is only using the first 24 characters of the supplied key. Is this correct? Is there ANY way I can get this to generate the correct encrypted pin? I have output the data bytes from the encryption PRIOR to base64 encoding it and have attempted to match this against those generated from the .NET code (with the help of a .NET developer who sent the byte array output to me). Neither the non-base64 encoded byte array nor the final base64 encoded strings match.

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  • Can't get gitosis and ssh to play nice on cygwin

    - by Noel Kennedy
    I have followed this guide to setting up gitosis on a windows 2003 server via cygwin. I have now got to a point where it largely works. I can clone, pull and push. The problem I am having is that I think I have not got the ssh bit right at all. When I connect via msysgit from machines and accounts where I have not created or uploaded ssh keys it works. Every time I clone, pull or push I get a password challenge for the 'git' user running on the server but basically I can execute git commands. When I connect with users with an ssh key in the ~/.ssh folder, I don't get the password challange and instead I get a permissions failure: DEBUG:gitosis.serve.main:Got command "git-upload-pack '/cris.git'" DEBUG:gitosis.access.haveAccess:Access check for 'teamcity@hhit24808' as 'writable' on 'cris.git'... DEBUG:gitosis.access.haveAccess:Stripping .git suffix from 'cris.git', new value 'cris' DEBUG:gitosis.access.haveAccess:Access check for 'teamcity@hhit24808' as 'writeable' on 'cris.git'... DEBUG:gitosis.access.haveAccess:Stripping .git suffix from 'cris.git', new value 'cris' DEBUG:gitosis.access.haveAccess:Access check for 'teamcity@hhit24808' as 'readonly' on 'cris.git'... DEBUG:gitosis.access.haveAccess:Stripping .git suffix from 'cris.git', new value 'cris' ERROR:gitosis.serve.main:Repository read access denied fatal: The remote end hung up unexpectedly I have uploaded the public rsa key into the key_dir folder. Here is my conf file: [gitosis] loglevel = DEBUG [group gitosis-admin] writable = gitosis-admin members = myemail@mydomain [group cris-developers] members = myemail@mydomain TeamCity@HHIT24808 writable = cris If it matters, I have generated a key without a passphrase as I believe this is necessary to enable ssh for automated scripts. When I use keys with a passphrase, I get challanged for the phrase but then get the same permissions problem. I have tried 'writable' and 'writeable' for permissions. Help!! Update 1: When I try to clone a non-existant repo, I get the same error message, co-incidence? Update 2: Wierd, I've got one machine and one login working. It seems to be something to do with the syntax for addressing git over ssh. This now works on one machine for one login: git clone git@servername:cris.git The same command fails for a user on another machine without an uploaded ssh key. But this command works (after being challanged for git@servername's password) git clone git@servername:/home/git/repositories/cris.git neither command works on a 2nd login whose ssh key has been uploaded

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  • jQuery doesn't work in IE8?

    - by Wade D Ouellet
    Hi, I am working on a site here: mfm.treethink.net All the jquery works fine in Firefox, Chrome and Safari but on IE8 it gives me errors and the banner at the top doesn't work (which uses the crossSlide jQuery plugin) and as well the image rollovers don't work with the colour change. IE8 is telling me that the errors are on lines 53, 134 and 149 in the source, all of those lines are where the jquery function is declared. $(document).ready(function(){ I am running jquery 1.4. Oddly enough, the other piece of jQuery I have on that page works, the artist browse/select menu on the right. But the banner and image rollovers don't. Here are all the scripts I'm running: 1: the banner - doesn't work in IE8 <script type="text/javascript"> $(function() { $('#banner').crossSlide({ sleep: 5, fade: 1 }, [ <?php $pages = get_posts('numberposts=2000&post_type=artist&post_status=publish'); $i = 1; foreach( $pages as $page ) { $content = $page->post_title; if( empty($content) ) continue; $content = apply_filters('the_content', $content); ?> { src: '/wp-content/uploads/<?php echo $page->post_name ?>.jpg' }, <?php $i++; } ?> ]); }); </script> 2 - image rollovers - doesn't work in IE8 <script type="text/javascript"> $(function(){ $("ul#artists li").hover(function() { /* On hover */ var thumbOver = $(this).find("img").attr("src"); /* Find image source */ /* Swap background */ $(this).find("a.thumb").css({'background' : 'url(' + thumbOver + ') center bottom no-repeat'}); $(this).find("span").stop().fadeTo('fast', 0 , function() { $(this).hide() }); } , function() { $(this).find("span").stop().fadeTo('fast', 1).show(); }); }); </script> 3 - the artist select - works in IE 8 <script> $("#browse-select").change(function() { window.location.href = $(this).val(); }); </script> These scripts were done by referencing previously made scripts, like I said I'm still new to jQuery. The second works in IE8 and the first one is the one that doesn't. I noticed the third one, the only one working, is written differently than the first two non-working ones without a function declaration at the top. Could this have anything to do with it? Any help figuring out this problem would be so appreciated. Thanks a lot, Wade

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  • Long-running ASP.NET tasks

    - by John Leidegren
    I know there's a bunch of APIs out there that do this, but I also know that the hosting environment (being ASP.NET) puts restrictions on what you can reliably do in a separate thread. I could be completely wrong, so please correct me if I am, this is however what I think I know. A request typically timeouts after 120 seconds (this is configurable) but eventually the ASP.NET runtime will kill a request that's taking too long to complete. The hosting environment, typically IIS, employs process recycling and can at any point decide to recycle your app. When this happens all threads are aborted and the app restarts. I'm however not sure how aggressive it is, it would be kind of stupid to assume that it would abort a normal ongoing HTTP request but I would expect it to abort a thread because it doesn't know anything about the unit of work of a thread. If you had to create a programming model that easily and reliably and theoretically put a long running task, that would have to run for days, how would you accomplish this from within an ASP.NET application? The following are my thoughts on the issue: I've been thinking a long the line of hosting a WCF service in a win32 service. And talk to the service through WCF. This is however not very practical, because the only reason I would choose to do so, is to send tasks (units of work) from several different web apps. I'd then eventually ask the service for status updates and act accordingly. My biggest concern with this is that it would NOT be a particular great experience if I had to deploy every task to the service for it to be able to execute some instructions. There's also this issue of input, how would I feed this service with data if I had a large data set and needed to chew through it? What I typically do right now is this SELECT TOP 10 * FROM WorkItem WITH (ROWLOCK, UPDLOCK, READPAST) WHERE WorkCompleted IS NULL It allows me to use a SQL Server database as a work queue and periodically poll the database with this query for work. If the work item completed with success, I mark it as done and proceed until there's nothing more to do. What I don't like is that I could theoretically be interrupted at any point and if I'm in-between success and marking it as done, I could end up processing the same work item twice. I might be a bit paranoid and this might be all fine but as I understand it there's no guarantee that that won't happen... I know there's been similar questions on SO before but non really answers with a definitive answer. This is a really common thing, yet the ASP.NET hosting environment is ill equipped to handle long-running work. Please share your thoughts.

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  • Best ASP.NET E-Commerce Framework (aspDotNetStoreFront, AbleCommerce, BVCommerce, MediaChase,...)

    - by EfficionDave
    I need a full-featured asp.net E-Commerce solution for a project. It needs to be easily extensible as I need to extend it to integrate with a custom Flash based personalization engine. It should also have a great administrative back-end that handles inventory tracking, report, labels, shipping, ... so that the client can really use it as the basis for their business. I've used quite a few different E-Commerce systems including OSCommerce, Zen Cart, Catalook, and eTailer. While I was impressed with Zen Cart and eTailer, this project is big enough that I want to try a more serious, commercial offering. I'm particularly interested in thoughts on aspdotnetstorefront, BVCommerce, AbleCommerce, and MediaChase. [UPDATE] I've done quite a bit of evaluation since I posted this question and will give some of my findings below: BVCommerce - The price point is nice, the product seems fairly well regarded, and I've heard good things about customizing/extending it, it just doesn't seem like it's going to meet my needs as an Top Tier ECommerce solution. After viewing the tutorial videos, the Admin interface just seems too basic and outdated. aspDotNetStorefront - The integration with DotNetNuke was it's biggest selling point for me but after reading peoples opinions, it's integration seems quite weak. It's sounds like there's a significant learning curve and the architecture just doesn't sound like it's as clean as it should be. AbleCommerce - After a rather thorough evaluation, I have selected AbleCommerce for at least my next project. The Admin interface is beautiful and has a nice list of features. The E-Commerce portion of the user side is very well done, highly skin-able (using Master Pages and a couple other techniques), and the checkout workflow has all the features I need while still being very clean. Source to the API can be bought for $500 but you generally won't need it. There are some 3rd party modules available but there's not currently a large market for these. The biggest glaring weakness of AbleCommerce I've found is their CMS capabilities are very limited and not at all well suited for a non-technical user to make most site content updates. But I have a good solution for that that I plan adapting into AbleCommerce. They will automatically generate a site for you to play with to your heart's content for 30 days. It is defniitely worth checking out.

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  • How to get dropdown value using jsp:useBean and jsp:setProperty?

    - by littlevahn
    I have a rather simple form in JSP that looks like this: <form action="response.jsp" method="POST"> <label>First Name:</label><input type="text" name="firstName" /><br> <label>Last Name:</label><input type="text" name="lastName" /><br> <label>Email:</label><input type="text" name="email" /><br> <label>Re-enter Email:</label><input type="text" name="emailRe" /><br> <label>Address:</label><input type="text" name="address" /><br> <label>Address 2:</label><input type="text" name="address2" /><br> <label>City:</label><input type="text" name="city" /><br> <label>Country:</label> <select name="country"> <option value="0">--Country--</option> <option value="1">United States</option> <option value="2">Canada</option> <option value="3">Mexico</option> </select><br> <label>Phone:</label><input type="text" name="phone" /><br> <label>Alt Phone:</label><input type="text" name="phoneAlt" /><br> <input type="submit" value="submit" /> </form> But when I try and access the value of the select box in my Java class I get null. Ive tried reading it in as a String and an Array of strings neither though seems to be grabbing the right value. The response.jsp looks like this: <%@ page language="java" %> <%@ page import="java.util.*" %> <%@page contentType="text/html" pageEncoding="UTF-8"%> <%! %> <jsp:useBean id="formHandler" class="validation.RegHandler" scope="request"> <jsp:setProperty name="formHandler" property="*" /> </jsp:useBean> <% if (formHandler.validate()) { %> <jsp:forward page="success.jsp"/> <% } else { %> <jsp:forward page="retryReg.jsp"/> <% } %> I already have Java script validation in place but I wanted to make sure I covered validation and checking for non-JS users. The RegHandler just uses the name field to refer to the value in the form. Any Idea how I could access the select box's value?

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  • Login failed for user 'DOMAIN\MACHINENAME$'

    - by sah302
    I know this is almost duplicate of : http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1269706/the-error-login-failed-for-user-nt-authority-iusr-in-asp-net-and-sql-server-2 and http://stackoverflow.com/questions/97594/login-failed-for-user-username-system-data-sqlclient-sqlexception-with-linq-i but some things don't add up compared to other appliations on my server and I am not sure why. Boxes being used: Web Box SQL Box SQL Test Box My Application: I've got aASP.NET Web Application, which references a class library that uses LINQ-to-SQL. Connection string set up properly in the class library. As per http://stackoverflow.com/questions/97594/login-failed-for-user-username-system-data-sqlclient-sqlexception-with-linq-i I also added this connection string to the Web Application. The connection string uses SQL credentials as so (in both web app and class library): <add name="Namespace.My.MySettings.ConnectionStringProduction" connectionString="Data Source=(SQL Test Box);Initial Catalog=(db name);Persist Security Info=True;User ID=ID;Password=Password" providerName="System.Data.SqlClient" /> This connection confirmed as working via adding it to server explorer. This is the connection string my .dbml file is using. The problem: I get the following error: System.Data.SqlClient.SqlException: Login failed for user 'DOMAIN\MACHINENAME$'. Now referencing this http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1269706/the-error-login-failed-for-user-nt-authority-iusr-in-asp-net-and-sql-server-2 it says that's really the local network service and using any other non-domain name will not work. But I am confused because I've checked both SQL Box and SQL Test Box SQL Management Studio and both have NT AUTHORITY/NETWORK SERVICE under Security - Logins, at the database level, that isn't listed under Security - Users, but at the database level Security - Users I have the user displayed in the connection string. At NTFS level on web server, the permissions have NETWORK SERVICE has full control. The reason why I am confused is because I have many other web applications on my Web Server, that reference databases on both SQL Box and SQL Test Box, and they all work. But I cannot find a difference between them and my current application, other than I am using a class library. Will that matter? Checking NTFS permissions, setup of Security Logins at the server and databases levels, connection string and method of connecting (SQL Server credentials), and IIS application pool and other folder options, are all the same. Why do these applications work without adding the machinename$ to the permissions of either of my SQL boxes? But that is what the one link is telling me to do to fix this problem.

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  • Automatically extracting inline XSD from WSDL into XSD file(s)

    - by Steven Geens
    I am using a third party Web Service whose definition and implementation are beyond my control. This web service will change in the future. The Web Service should be used to generate an XML file which contains some of the same data (represented by the same XSD types) as the Web Service plus some extra information generated by the program. My approach: create my own XSD referring to the XSD definitions of the WSDL of the called web service (This XSD also includes XSD types for the extra information obviously.) use a Java XML databinding framework (like ADB or JiXB) to generate the databinding classes from my own XSD file from step 1 use a Java SOAP framework (like Axis2 or CXF) with the same databinding framework to generate the databinding classes from the WSDL (This would enable me to use the objects retrieved by the web service directly in the generation of the XML.) The XSD types I am going to use in my own XSD file, but are defined in the WSDL, are subject to change. Whenever they change, I would like to automatically process the XSD and WSDL databinding again. (If the change is significant enough, this might trigger some development effort.(But usually not.)) My problem: In step 1 I need an XSD referring to the same types as used by the Web Service. The WSDL is referring to another WSDL, which is referring to another WSDL etc. Eventually there is an WSDL with the needed inline XSD types. As far as I know there is no way to directly reference the inline XSD types of a WSDL from an XSD. The approach I would think most viable, is to include an extra step in the automatic processing (before the databinding) that extracts the inline XSD from the WSDL into other XSD file(s). These other XSD file(s) can then be referred to by my own XSD file. Things I'd like to avoid: Manually copy pasting the inline XSD into an XSD file (I am looking for an automatic process.) Any manual steps.(Like the determining the WSDL that contains the inline types manually.(The location of that WSDL does change as well.)) Using xsd:any in my own XSD. I would like my own XSD file to be correct. Using a non-Java technology(like .NET) Huge amounts of implementation (but hints on how you would implement such an extraction are welcome anyway) PS: I found some similar questions, but they all had responses like: WTH would you want to do that? That is the reason for my rather large background story.

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  • Glassfish v3 / JNDI entry cannot be found problems!

    - by REMP
    I've been having problems trying to call an EJB's method from a Java Application Client. Here is the code. EJB Remote Interface package com.test; import javax.ejb.Remote; @Remote public interface HelloBeanRemote { public String sayHello(); } EJB package com.test; import javax.ejb.Stateless; @Stateless (name="HelloBeanExample" , mappedName="ejb/HelloBean") public class HelloBean implements HelloBeanRemote { @Override public String sayHello(){ return "hola"; } } Main class (another project) import com.test.HelloBeanRemote; import javax.naming.Context; import javax.naming.InitialContext; public class Main { public void runTest()throws Exception{ Context ctx = new InitialContext(); HelloBeanRemote bean = (HelloBeanRemote)ctx.lookup("java:global/Test/HelloBeanExample!com.test.HelloBeanRemote"); System.out.println(bean.sayHello()); } public static void main(String[] args)throws Exception { Main main = new Main(); main.runTest(); } } Well, what is my problem? JNDI entry for this EJB cannot be found! java.lang.NullPointerException at com.sun.enterprise.naming.impl.SerialContext.getRemoteProvider(SerialContext.java:297) at com.sun.enterprise.naming.impl.SerialContext.getProvider(SerialContext.java:271) at com.sun.enterprise.naming.impl.SerialContext.lookup(SerialContext.java:430) at javax.naming.InitialContext.lookup(InitialContext.java:392) at testdesktop.Main.runTest(Main.java:22) at testdesktop.Main.main(Main.java:31) Exception in thread "main" javax.naming.NamingException: Lookup failed for 'java:global/Test/HelloBeanExample!com.test.HelloBeanRemote' in SerialContext [Root exception is javax.naming.NamingException: Unable to acquire SerialContextProvider for SerialContext [Root exception is java.lang.NullPointerException]] at com.sun.enterprise.naming.impl.SerialContext.lookup(SerialContext.java:442) at javax.naming.InitialContext.lookup(InitialContext.java:392) at testdesktop.Main.runTest(Main.java:22) at testdesktop.Main.main(Main.java:31) Caused by: javax.naming.NamingException: Unable to acquire SerialContextProvider for SerialContext [Root exception is java.lang.NullPointerException] at com.sun.enterprise.naming.impl.SerialContext.getProvider(SerialContext.java:276) at com.sun.enterprise.naming.impl.SerialContext.lookup(SerialContext.java:430) ... 3 more Caused by: java.lang.NullPointerException at com.sun.enterprise.naming.impl.SerialContext.getRemoteProvider(SerialContext.java:297) at com.sun.enterprise.naming.impl.SerialContext.getProvider(SerialContext.java:271) ... 4 more Java Result: 1 I've trying with different JNDI entries but nothing works (I got this entries from NetBeans console): INFO: Portable JNDI names for EJB HelloBeanExample : [java:global/Test/HelloBeanExample, java:global/Test/HelloBeanExample!com.test.HelloBeanRemote] INFO: Glassfish-specific (Non-portable) JNDI names for EJB HelloBeanExample : [ejb/HelloBean, ejb/HelloBean#com.test.HelloBeanRemote] So I tried with the following entries but I got the same exception : java:global/Test/HelloBeanExample java:global/Test/HelloBeanExample!com.test.HelloBeanRemote ejb/HelloBean ejb/HelloBean#com.test.HelloBeanRemote I'm using Netbeans 6.8 and Glassfish v3!

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  • Right-click context menu for Java JTree?

    - by arcanex
    I'm trying to implement pop-up menus in Java JTree. I've sub-classed DefaultTreeCellRenderer (to change node appearance) and DefaultTreeCellEditor (to create Components to attach event listeners to, since apparently the Components that DefaultTreeCellRenderer.getTreeCellRendererComponent() returns can't do it?). I don't really want to "edit" the nodes, just be able to pop-up a menu when a node gets right-clicked, but this is the only way I can think of doing it right now... Below is the code that I have so far-- I'm just trying to figure out how to capture MouseEvents. It sort of works, but badly. What's a better way to accomplish what I'm trying to do here? private class My_TreeCellRenderer extends DefaultTreeCellRenderer { My_TreeCellRenderer() { super (); } public Component getTreeCellRendererComponent(JTree tree, Object value, boolean selected, boolean expanded, boolean leaf, int row, boolean hasFocus) { super.getTreeCellRendererComponent(tree, value, selected, expanded, leaf, row, hasFocus); // set label text and tool tips setText(((My_Object)value).getTreeLabel()); setToolTipText(((My_Object)value).getTreeToolTip()); return this; } } private class My_TreeCellEditor extends DefaultTreeCellEditor { private MouseAdapter ma; My_TreeCellEditor(JTree tree, DefaultTreeCellRenderer renderer) { super (tree, renderer); ma = new MouseAdapter() { public void mousePressed(MouseEvent e) { if (e.isPopupTrigger()) { System.out.println("My Popup"); } } public void mouseReleased(MouseEvent e) { if (e.isPopupTrigger()) { System.out.println("My Popup"); } } }; } public Component getTreeCellEditorComponent(JTree tree, Object value, boolean selected, boolean expanded, boolean leaf, int row) { String src_filename = null; // return non-editing component Component c = renderer.getTreeCellRendererComponent(tree, value, selected, expanded, leaf, row, true); // add mouse listener if it's not listening already MouseListener mouseListeners[] = c.getMouseListeners(); int i; for (i=0; i < mouseListeners.length && mouseListeners[i] != ma; i++); if (i >= mouseListeners.length) c.addMouseListener(ma); return c; } protected boolean canEditImmediately(EventObject event) { if (event instanceof MouseEvent && ((MouseEvent)event).getClickCount() == 1) return true; else return false; } }

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  • Detecting 'stealth' web-crawlers

    - by Jacco
    What options are there to detect web-crawlers that do not want to be detected? (I know that listing detection techniques will allow the smart stealth-crawler programmer to make a better spider, but I do not think that we will ever be able to block smart stealth-crawlers anyway, only the ones that make mistakes.) I'm not talking about the nice crawlers such as googlebot and Yahoo! Slurp. I consider a bot nice if it: identifies itself as a bot in the user agent string reads robots.txt (and obeys it) I'm talking about the bad crawlers, hiding behind common user agents, using my bandwidth and never giving me anything in return. There are some trapdoors that can be constructed updated list (thanks Chris, gs): Adding a directory only listed (marked as disallow) in the robots.txt, Adding invisible links (possibly marked as rel="nofollow"?), style="display: none;" on link or parent container placed underneath another element with higher z-index detect who doesn't understand CaPiTaLiSaTioN, detect who tries to post replies but always fail the Captcha. detect GET requests to POST-only resources detect interval between requests detect order of pages requested detect who (consistently) requests https resources over http detect who does not request image file (this in combination with a list of user-agents of known image capable browsers works surprisingly nice) Some traps would be triggered by both 'good' and 'bad' bots. you could combine those with a whitelist: It trigger a trap It request robots.txt? It doest not trigger another trap because it obeyed robots.txt One other important thing here is: Please consider blind people using a screen readers: give people a way to contact you, or solve a (non-image) Captcha to continue browsing. What methods are there to automatically detect the web crawlers trying to mask themselves as normal human visitors. Update The question is not: How do I catch every crawler. The question is: How can I maximize the chance of detecting a crawler. Some spiders are really good, and actually parse and understand html, xhtml, css javascript, VB script etc... I have no illusions: I won't be able to beat them. You would however be surprised how stupid some crawlers are. With the best example of stupidity (in my opinion) being: cast all URLs to lower case before requesting them. And then there is a whole bunch of crawlers that are just 'not good enough' to avoid the various trapdoors.

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  • Java ReentrantReadWriteLocks - how to safely acquire write lock?

    - by Andrzej Doyle
    I am using in my code at the moment a ReentrantReadWriteLock to synchronize access over a tree-like structure. This structure is large, and read by many threads at once with occasional modifications to small parts of it - so it seems to fit the read-write idiom well. I understand that with this particular class, one cannot elevate a read lock to a write lock, so as per the Javadocs one must release the read lock before obtaining the write lock. I've used this pattern successfully in non-reentrant contexts before. What I'm finding however is that I cannot reliably acquire the write lock without blocking forever. Since the read lock is reentrant and I am actually using it as such, the simple code lock.getReadLock().unlock(); lock.getWriteLock().lock() can block if I have acquired the readlock reentrantly. Each call to unlock just reduces the hold count, and the lock is only actually released when the hold count hits zero. EDIT to clarify this, as I don't think I explained it too well initially - I am aware that there is no built-in lock escalation in this class, and that I have to simply release the read lock and obtain the write lock. My problem is/was that regardless of what other threads are doing, calling getReadLock().unlock() may not actually release this thread's hold on the lock if it acquired it reentrantly, in which case the call to getWriteLock().lock() will block forever as this thread still has a hold on the read lock and thus blocks itself. For example, this code snippet will never reach the println statement, even when run singlethreaded with no other threads accessing the lock: final ReadWriteLock lock = new ReentrantReadWriteLock(); lock.getReadLock().lock(); // In real code we would go call other methods that end up calling back and // thus locking again lock.getReadLock().lock(); // Now we do some stuff and realise we need to write so try to escalate the // lock as per the Javadocs and the above description lock.getReadLock().unlock(); // Does not actually release the lock lock.getWriteLock().lock(); // Blocks as some thread (this one!) holds read lock System.out.println("Will never get here"); So I ask, is there a nice idiom to handle this situation? Specifically, when a thread that holds a read lock (possibly reentrantly) discovers that it needs to do some writing, and thus wants to "suspend" its own read lock in order to pick up the write lock (blocking as required on other threads to release their holds on the read lock), and then "pick up" its hold on the read lock in the same state afterwards? Since this ReadWriteLock implementation was specifically designed to be reentrant, surely there is some sensible way to elevate a read lock to a write lock when the locks may be acquired reentrantly? This is the critical part that means the naive approach does not work.

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  • What is required to use LODSB in assembly?

    - by Harvey
    What is the minimum set of steps required to use LODSB to load a relative address to a string in my code? I have the following test program that I'm using PXE to boot. I boot it two ways: via pxelinux.0 and directly. If I boot it directly, my program prints both strings. If I boot via pxelinux.0, it only prints the first string. Why? Working technique (for both): Set the direction flag to increment, cld Set ds to cs Put the address (from start) of string in si Add the starting offset to si Non-working technique (just for pxelinux): Calculate a new segment address based on (((cs << 4) + offset) >> 4) Set ds to that. (either A000 or 07C0) text here to fix bug in markdown // Note: If you try this code, don't forget to set // the "#if 0" below appropriately! .text .globl start, _start start: _start: _start1: .code16 jmp real_start . = _start1 + 0x1fe .byte 0x55, 0xAA // Next sector . = _start1 + 0x200 jmp real_start test1_str: .asciz "\r\nTest: 9020:fe00" test2_str: .asciz "\r\nTest: a000:0000" real_start: cld // Make sure %si gets incremented. #if 0 // When loaded by pxelinux, we're here: // 9020:fe00 ==> a000:0000 // This works. movw $0x9020, %bx movw %bx, %ds movw $(test1_str - _start1), %si addw $0xfe00, %si call print_message // This does not. movw $0xA000, %bx movw %bx, %ds movw $(test2_str - _start1), %si call print_message #else // If we are loaded directly without pxelinux, we're here: // 0000:7c00 ==> 07c0:0000 // This works. movw $0x0000, %bx movw %bx, %ds movw $(test1_str - _start1), %si addw $0x7c00, %si call print_message // This does, too. movw $0x07c0, %bx movw %bx, %ds movw $(test2_str - _start1), %si call print_message #endif // Hang the computer sti 1: jmp 1b // Prints string DS:SI (modifies AX BX SI) print_message: pushw %ax jmp 2f 3: movb $0x0e, %ah /* print char in AL */ int $0x10 /* via TTY mode */ 2: lodsb (%si), %al /* get token */ cmpb $0, %al /* end of string? */ jne 3b popw %ax ret .balign 0x200 Here's the compilation: /usr/bin/ccache gcc -Os -fno-stack-protector -fno-builtin -nostdinc -DSUPPORT_SERIAL=1 -DSUPPORT_HERCULES=1 -DSUPPORT_GRAPHICS=1 -DHAVE_CONFIG_H -I. -Wall -ggdb3 -Wmissing-prototypes -Wunused -Wshadow -Wpointer-arith -falign-jumps=1 -falign-loops=1 -falign-functions=1 -Wundef -g -c -o ds_teststart_exec-ds_teststart.o ds_test.S /usr/bin/ccache gcc -g -o ds_teststart.exec -nostdlib -Wl,-N -Wl,-Ttext -Wl,8000 ds_teststart_exec-ds_teststart.o objcopy -O binary ds_teststart.exec ds_teststart

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  • EJB3 - using 2 persistence units within a transaction (Exception: Local transaction already has 1 no

    - by Sorcha
    I am trying to use 2 persistence units within the same transaction in a JEE application deployed on Glassfish. The 2 persistence units are defined in persistence.xml, as follows: <persistence-unit name="BeachWater"> <jta-data-source>jdbc/BeachWater</jta-data-source> ... <persistence-unit name="LIMS"> <jta-data-source>jdbc/BeachWaterLIMS</jta-data-source> ... These persistence units correspond to JDBC resources and connection pools which I had defined in Glassfish as follows (include one here as both are identical apart from names & database connection info): JDBC Resource: JNDI Name: jdbc/BeachWaterLIMS Pool Name: BEACHWATER_LIMS Connection Pool: Name: BEACHWATER_LIMS Datasource Classname: com.microsoft.sqlserver.jdbc.SQLServerConnectionPoolDataSource Resource Type: javax.sql.ConnectionPoolDataSource There are 3 stateless session beans, LimsServiceBean, AnalysisServiceBean and AnalysisDataTransformationServiceBean. Here are the relevant snippets from LimsServiceBean: @PersistenceContext(unitName = "LIMS") EntityManager em; ... public ArrayList<Sample> getLatestLIMSData() { Query q = em.createNamedQuery("Sample.findBySubTypeStatus"); return new ArrayList<Sample>(q.getResultList()); } From AnalysisServiceBean: @PersistenceContext(unitName = "BeachWater") EntityManager em; ... public ArrayList<AnalysisType> getAllAnalysisTypes() { Query q = em.createNamedQuery("AnalysisType.findAll"); return new ArrayList<AnalysisType>(q.getResultList()); } And from AnalysisDataTransformationServiceBean: @EJB private AnalysisService analysisService; @EJB private LimsService limsService; public void transformData() { List<AnalysisType> analysisTypes = analysisService.getAllAnalysisTypes(); ArrayList<Sample> samples = limsService.getLatestLIMSData(); This call to limsService.getLatestLIMSData() caused the following exception: [exec] Caused by: javax.ejb.TransactionRolledbackLocalException: Exception thrown from bean; nested exception is: Exception [TOPLINK-4002] (Oracle TopLink Essentials - 2.1 (Build b60e-fcs (12/23/2008))): oracle.toplink.essentials.exceptions.DatabaseException [exec] Internal Exception: java.sql.SQLException: Error in allocating a connection. Cause: java.lang.IllegalStateException: Local transaction already has 1 non-XA Resource: cannot add more resources. Having consulted this page, http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms378484.aspx (among many others), I tried changing the definition of the connection pools to: Connection Pool: Name: BEACHWATER_LIMS Datasource Classname: com.microsoft.sqlserver.jdbc.SQLServerXADataSource Resource Type: javax.sql.XADataSource Ping via the Glassfish admin console succeeds, but call to analysisService.getAllAnalysisTypes() now throws an exception: Caused by: javax.ejb.TransactionRolledbackLocalException: Exception thrown from bean; nested exception is: Exception [TOPLINK-4002] (Oracle TopLink Essentials - 2.1 (Build b60e-fcs (12/23/2008))): oracle.toplink.essentials.exceptions.DatabaseException Internal Exception: java.sql.SQLException: Error in allocating a connection. Cause: javax.transaction.SystemException Any ideas?

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  • RuntimeBinderException with dynamic in C# 4.0

    - by Terence Lewis
    I have an interface: public abstract class Authorizer<T> where T : RequiresAuthorization { public AuthorizationStatus Authorize(T record) { // Perform authorization specific stuff // and then hand off to an abstract method to handle T-specific stuff // that should happen when authorization is successful } } Then, I have a bunch of different classes which all implement RequiresAuthorization, and correspondingly, an Authorizer<T> for each of them (each business object in my domain requires different logic to execute once the record has been authorized). I'm also using a UnityContainer, in which I register various Authorizer<T>'s. I then have some code as follows to find the right record out of the database and authorize it: void Authorize(RequiresAuthorization item) { var dbItem = ChildContainer.Resolve<IAuthorizationRepository>() .RetrieveRequiresAuthorizationById(item.Id); var authorizerType = type.GetType(String.Format("Foo.Authorizer`1[[{0}]], Foo", dbItem.GetType().AssemblyQualifiedName)); dynamic authorizer = ChildContainer.Resolve(type) as dynamic; authorizer.Authorize(dbItem); } Basically, I'm using the Id on the object to retrieve it out of the database. In the background NHibernate takes care of figuring out what type of RequiresAuthorization it is. I then want to find the right Authorizer for it (I don't know at compile time what implementation of Authorizer<T> I need, so I've got a little bit of reflection to get the fully qualified type). To accomplish this, I use the non-generic overload of UnityContainer's Resolve method to look up the correct authorizer from configuration. Finally, I want to call Authorize on the authorizer, passing through the object I've gotten back from NHibernate. Now, for the problem: In Beta2 of VS2010 the above code works perfectly. On RC and RTM, as soon as I make the Authorize() call, I get a RuntimeBinderException saying "The best overloaded method match for 'Foo.Authorizer<Bar>.Authorize(Bar)' has some invalid arguments". When I inspect the authorizer in the debugger, it's the correct type. When I call GetType().GetMethods() on it, I can see the Authorize method which takes a Bar. If I do GetType() on dbItem it is a Bar. Because this worked in Beta2 and not in RC, I assumed it was a regression (it seems like it should work) and I delayed sorting it out until after I'd had a chance to test it on the RTM version of C# 4.0. Now I've done that and the problem still persists. Does anybody have any suggestions to make this work? Thanks Terence

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  • Can/should one disable namespace validation in Axis2 clients using ADB databinding?

    - by RJCantrell
    I have an document/literal Axis 1 service which I'm consuming with an Axis 2 client (ADB databinding, generated from WSDL2Java). It receives a valid XML response, but in parsing that XML, I get the error "Unexpected Subelement" for any type which doesn't have a namespace defined in the response. I can resolve the error by manually changing the (auto-generated by Axis2) type-validation line to only check the type name and not the namespace as well, but is there a non-manual way to skip this? This service is consumed properly by other Axis 1 clients. Here's the response, with bits in ALL CAPS having been anonymized. Some types have namespaces, some have empty-string namespaces, and some have none at all. Can I control this via the service's WSDL, or in Axis2's WSDL2Java handling of the WSDL? Is there a fundamental mismatch between Axis 1 and Axis2? The response below looks correct, except perhaps for where that type (anonymized as TWO below) is nested within itself. <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <soapenv:Envelope xmlns:soapenv="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/envelope/" xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance"> <soapenv:Body> <SERVICENAMEResponse xmlns="http://service.PROJECT.COMPANY.com"> <SERVICENAMEReturn xmlns=""> <ONE></ONE> <TWO><TWO> <THREE>2</THREE> <FOUR>-10</FOUR> <FIVE>6</FIVE> <SIX>1</SIX> </TWO></TWO> <fileName></fileName> </SERVICENAMEReturn></SERVICENAMEResponse> </soapenv:Body></soapenv:Envelope> I did not have to modify the validation of the "SERVICENAMEResponse" object because it has the correct namespace specified, but I have to so for all its subelements. The manual modification that I can make (one per type) to fix this is to change: if (reader.isStartElement() && new javax.xml.namespace.QName("http://dto.PROJECT.COMPANY.com","ONE").equals(reader.getName())){ to: if (reader.isStartElement() && new javax.xml.namespace.QName("ONE").equals(reader.getName())){

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