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  • CakePHP HABTM: Editing one item casuses HABTM row to get recreated, destroys extra data

    - by leo-the-manic
    I'm having trouble with my HABTM relationship in CakePHP. I have two models like so: Department HABTM Location. One large company has many buildings, and each building provides a limited number of services. Each building also has its own webpage, so in addition to the HABTM relationship itself, each HABTM row also has a url field where the user can visit to find additional information about the service they're interested and how it operates at the building they're interested in. I've set up the models like so: <?php class Location extends AppModel { var $name = 'Location'; var $hasAndBelongsToMany = array( 'Department' => array( 'with' => 'DepartmentsLocation', 'unique' => true ) ); } ?> <?php class Department extends AppModel { var $name = 'Department'; var $hasAndBelongsToMany = array( 'Location' => array( 'with' => 'DepartmentsLocation', 'unique' => true ) ); } ?> <?php class DepartmentsLocation extends AppModel { var $name = 'DepartmentsLocation'; var $belongsTo = array( 'Department', 'Location' ); // I'm pretty sure this method is unrelated. It's not being called when this error // occurs. Its purpose is to prevent having two HABTM rows with the same location // and department. function beforeSave() { // kill any existing rows with same associations $this->log(__FILE__ . ": killing existing HABTM rows", LOG_DEBUG); $result = $this->find('all', array("conditions" => array("location_id" => $this->data['DepartmentsLocation']['location_id'], "department_id" => $this->data['DepartmentsLocation']['department_id']))); foreach($result as $row) { $this->delete($row['DepartmentsLocation']['id']); } return true; } } ?> The controllers are completely uninteresting. The problem: If I edit the name of a Location, all of the DepartmentsLocations that were linked to that Location are re-created with empty URLs. Since the models specify that unique is true, this also causes all of the newer rows to overwrite the older rows, which essentially destroys all of the URLs. I would like to know two things: Can I stop this? If so, how? And, on a less technical and more whiney note: Why does this even happen? It seems bizarre to me that editing a field through Cake should cause so much trouble, when I can easily go through phpMyAdmin, edit the Location name there, and get exactly the result I would expect. Why does CakePHP touch the HABTM data when I'm just editing a field on a row? It's not even a foreign key!

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  • casting, converting, and input from textbox controls

    - by Matt
    Working on some .aspx.cs code and decided I would forget how to turn a textbox value into a useable integer or decimal. Be warned I'm pretty new to .asp. Wish I could say the same for c sharp. So the value going into my textbox (strawberryp_textbox) is "1" which I presume I can access with the .text property. Which I then parse into a int. The Error reads Format Exception was unhandled by user code. My other question is can I do operations on a session variable? protected void submit_order_button_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { int strawberryp; int strawberrys; decimal money1 = decimal.Parse(moneybox1.Text); decimal money2 = decimal.Parse(moneybox2.Text); decimal money3 = decimal.Parse(moneybox3.Text); decimal money4 = decimal.Parse(moneybox4.Text); decimal money5 = decimal.Parse(moneybox5.Text); strawberryp = int.Parse(strawberryp_Textbox.Text); //THE PROBLEM RIGHT HERE! strawberrys = int.Parse(strawberrys_Textbox.Text); // Needs fixed int strawberryc = int.Parse(strawberryc_Textbox.Text); //fix int berryp = int.Parse(berryp_Textbox.Text); //fix int raspberryp = int.Parse(raspberryp_Textbox.Text); /fix decimal subtotal = (money1 * strawberryp) + (money2 * strawberrys) + (money3 * strawberryc) + (money4 * berryp) + (money5 * raspberryp); //check to see if you can multiply decimal and int to get a deciaml!! Session["passmysubtotal"] = subtotal; //TextBox2.Text; (strawberryp_Textbox.Text);//TextBox4.Text; add_my_order_button.Enabled = true; add_my_order_button.Visible = true; submit_order_button.Enabled = false; submit_order_button.Visible = false; strawberryp_Textbox.ReadOnly = false; strawberrys_Textbox.ReadOnly = false; strawberryc_Textbox.ReadOnly = false; berryp_Textbox.ReadOnly = false; raspberryp_Textbox.ReadOnly = false; Response.Redirect("reciept.aspx"); } Thanks for the help

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  • Sanity check on this idea for an Image Viewer in a web app

    - by Charlie Flowers
    I have an approach in mind for an image viewer in a web app, and want to get a sanity check and any thoughts you stackoverflowers might have. Here's the whirlwind nutshell summary: I'm working on an ASP.NET MVC application that will run in my company's retail stores. Even though it is a web application, we own the store machines and have control over them. We have a "windows agent" running on the store machine which we can talk to via http post (it is a WCF service, and our web app has permission to talk to it from the browser). One of the web pages needs to be an "image viewer" page with some common things like Rotate & Zoom. Now, there are some WebForms controls that offer Rotate and Zoom. However, they take up server resources and generate a good bit of traffic between the server and the browser. For example, the Rotate function would cause an ajax call to the server, which would then generate a new image written to a .NET Canvas object, which would then be written to a file on the server, which would then be returned from the ajax call and refreshed inside the browser. Normally, that's a pretty good way of doing things. But in our case, we have code running on the store machine that we can communicate with. This leads me to consider the following approach: When the user asks to view an image, we tell our "windows agent" to download it from our image server to the store machine. We then redirect our browser to our image viewer page, which will pull the image from the local file we just wrote to the store machine. When the user clicks "Rotate", we cause JavaScript code in the browser to call our "windows agent" software, asking it to perform the "Rotate" function. The "windows agent" does the rotation using the same kind of imaging control that would formerly have been used on the server, but it does so now on the store machine. Javascript in the browser then refreshes the image on the page to show the newly rotated image. Zoom and similar features would be implemented the same way. This seems to be much more efficient, scalable, and responsive for the end-users. However, I've never heard of anything like it being done, mostly because it's rare to have this combination of a web app plus a "windows agent" on the client machine. What do you think? Feasible? Reasonable? Any pitfalls I overlooked or improvements / suggestions you can see? Has anyone done anything like this who would like to offer the wisdom of experience? Thanks!

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  • WordPress: Display Online Users' Avatars

    - by Wade D Ouellet
    Hi, I'm using version 2.7.0 of this WordPress plugin to display which users are currently online (the latest version doesn't work): http://wordpress.org/extend/plugins/wp-useronline/ It's working great but I would love to be able to alter it quickly to display the users' avatars instead of their names. Hoping someone with pretty good knowledge of WordPress queries and functions can help. The part below seems to be the part that handles all this. If this isn't enough, here is the link to download the version I am using with the full php files: http://downloads.wordpress.org/plugin/wp-useronline.2.70.zip // If No Bot Is Found, Then We Check Members And Guests if ( !$bot_found ) { if ( $current_user->ID ) { // Check For Member $user_id = $current_user->ID; $user_name = $current_user->display_name; $user_type = 'member'; $where = $wpdb->prepare("WHERE user_id = %d", $user_id); } elseif ( !empty($_COOKIE['comment_author_'.COOKIEHASH]) ) { // Check For Comment Author (Guest) $user_id = 0; $user_name = trim(strip_tags($_COOKIE['comment_author_'.COOKIEHASH])); $user_type = 'guest'; } else { // Check For Guest $user_id = 0; $user_name = __('Guest', 'wp-useronline'); $user_type = 'guest'; } } // Check For Page Title if ( is_admin() && function_exists('get_admin_page_title') ) { $page_title = ' &raquo; ' . __('Admin', 'wp-useronline') . ' &raquo; ' . get_admin_page_title(); } else { $page_title = wp_title('&raquo;', false); if ( empty($page_title) ) $page_title = ' &raquo; ' . strip_tags($_SERVER['REQUEST_URI']); elseif ( is_singular() ) $page_title = ' &raquo; ' . __('Archive', 'wp-useronline') . ' ' . $page_title; } $page_title = get_bloginfo('name') . $page_title; // Delete Users $delete_users = $wpdb->query($wpdb->prepare(" DELETE FROM $wpdb->useronline $where OR timestamp < CURRENT_TIMESTAMP - %d ", self::$options->timeout)); // Insert Users $data = compact('user_type', 'user_id', 'user_name', 'user_ip', 'user_agent', 'page_title', 'page_url', 'referral'); $data = stripslashes_deep($data); $insert_user = $wpdb->insert($wpdb->useronline, $data); // Count Users Online self::$useronline = intval($wpdb->get_var("SELECT COUNT(*) FROM $wpdb->useronline"));

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  • C++ type-checking at compile-time

    - by Masterofpsi
    Hi, all. I'm pretty new to C++, and I'm writing a small library (mostly for my own projects) in C++. In the process of designing a type hierarchy, I've run into the problem of defining the assignment operator. I've taken the basic approach that was eventually reached in this article, which is that for every class MyClass in a hierarchy derived from a class Base you define two assignment operators like so: class MyClass: public Base { public: MyClass& operator =(MyClass const& rhs); virtual MyClass& operator =(Base const& rhs); }; // automatically gets defined, so we make it call the virtual function below MyClass& MyClass::operator =(MyClass const& rhs); { return (*this = static_cast<Base const&>(rhs)); } MyClass& MyClass::operator =(Base const& rhs); { assert(typeid(rhs) == typeid(*this)); // assigning to different types is a logical error MyClass const& casted_rhs = dynamic_cast<MyClass const&>(rhs); try { // allocate new variables Base::operator =(rhs); } catch(...) { // delete the allocated variables throw; } // assign to member variables } The part I'm concerned with is the assertion for type equality. Since I'm writing a library, where assertions will presumably be compiled out of the final result, this has led me to go with a scheme that looks more like this: class MyClass: public Base { public: operator =(MyClass const& rhs); // etc virtual inline MyClass& operator =(Base const& rhs) { assert(typeid(rhs) == typeid(*this)); return this->set(static_cast<Base const&>(rhs)); } private: MyClass& set(Base const& rhs); // same basic thing }; But I've been wondering if I could check the types at compile-time. I looked into Boost.TypeTraits, and I came close by doing BOOST_MPL_ASSERT((boost::is_same<BOOST_TYPEOF(*this), BOOST_TYPEOF(rhs)>));, but since rhs is declared as a reference to the parent class and not the derived class, it choked. Now that I think about it, my reasoning seems silly -- I was hoping that since the function was inline, it would be able to check the actual parameters themselves, but of course the preprocessor always gets run before the compiler. But I was wondering if anyone knew of any other way I could enforce this kind of check at compile-time.

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  • What's the standard algorithm for syncing two lists of objects?

    - by Oliver Giesen
    I'm pretty sure this must be in some kind of text book (or more likely in all of them) but I seem to be using the wrong keywords to search for it... :( A common task I'm facing while programming is that I am dealing with lists of objects from different sources which I need to keep in sync somehow. Typically there's some sort of "master list" e.g. returned by some external API and then a list of objects I create myself each of which corresponds to an object in the master list. Sometimes the nature of the external API will not allow me to do a live sync: For instance the external list might not implement notifications about items being added or removed or it might notify me but not give me a reference to the actual item that was added or removed. Furthermore, refreshing the external list might return a completely new set of instances even though they still represent the same information so simply storing references to the external objects might also not always be feasible. Another characteristic of the problem is that both lists cannot be sorted in any meaningful way. You should also assume that initializing new objects in the "slave list" is expensive, i.e. simply clearing and rebuilding it from scratch is not an option. So how would I typically tackle this? What's the name of the algorithm I should google for? In the past I have implemented this in various ways (see below for an example) but it always felt like there should be a cleaner and more efficient way. Here's an example approach: Iterate over the master list Look up each item in the "slave list" Add items that do not yet exist Somehow keep track of items that already exist in both lists (e.g. by tagging them or keeping yet another list) When done iterate once more over the slave list Remove all objects that have not been tagged (see 4.) Update Thanks for all your responses so far! I will need some time to look at the links. Maybe one more thing worthy of note: In many of the situations where I needed this the implementation of the "master list" is completely hidden from me. In the most extreme cases the only access I might have to the master list might be a COM-interface that exposes nothing but GetFirst-, GetNext-style methods. I'm mentioning this because of the suggestions to either sort the list or to subclass it both of which is unfortunately not practical in these cases unless I copy the elements into a list of my own and I don't think that would be very efficient. I also might not have made it clear enough that the elements in the two lists are of different types, i.e. not assignment-compatible: Especially, the elements in the master list might be available as interface references only.

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  • jQuery gallery turn over with next and previous buttons

    - by Ralf
    Hi, i'm trying to do some kind of Gallery-Turn Over Script with jQuery. Therefor i got an array with - let's say 13 - images: galleryImages = new Array( 'images/tb_01.jpg', 'images/tb_02.jpg', 'images/tb_03.jpg', 'images/tb_04.jpg', 'images/tb_05.jpg', 'images/tb_06.jpg', 'images/tb_07.jpg', 'images/tb_08.jpg', 'images/tb_09.jpg', 'images/tb_10.jpg', 'images/tb_11.jpg', 'images/tb_12.jpg', 'images/tb_13.jpg' ); My gallery looks like a grid showing only 9 images at once. My current script already counts the number of li-elements in #gallery, loads the first 9 images and displays them. The HTML looks like this: <ul id="gallery"> <li></li> <li></li> <li></li> <li></li> <li></li> <li></li> <li></li> <li></li> <li></li> </ul> <ul id="gallery-controls"> <li id="gallery-prev"><a href="#">Previous</a></li> <li id="gallery-next"><a href="#">Next</a></li> </ul> I'm pretty new to jQuery an my problem is that i can't figure out how to split the array in portions with 9 elements to attach it as a link on the control buttons. I need something like this: $('#gallery-next').click(function(){ $('ul#gallery li').children().remove(); $('ul#gallery li').each(function(index,el){ var img = new Image(); $(img).load(function () { $(this).css('display','none'); $(el).append(this); $(this).fadeIn(); }).attr('src', galleryImages[index]); //index for the next 9 images?!?! }); }); Thanks for help!

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  • Performance issue when querying a large xml file through php/ajax on Apache Server

    - by Niall
    Hey, I have a simple "live search" (results displayed while typing) web site. This make up is Ajax to PHP querying a pretty large XML document (10,000+ lines). This is all been hosted on a local Apache server (xamp). The scale of the xml document seems to be causing huge performance issue with results taking 10ish seconds to give the results. I'm very new to PHP (this actually being my first play about) so there below is a snippet of code in case there is something obvious for($i=0; $i<($foodListXML->length); $i++){ $type=$foodListXML->item($i)->getElementsByTagName('type'); $foodnote=$foodListXML->item($i)->getElementsByTagName('foodnote'); $style=$foodListXML->item($i)->getElementsByTagName('style'); if ($type->item(0)->nodeType==1) { //find a link matching the search text if (stristr($type->item(0)->childNodes->item(0)->nodeValue,$q)){ $currentFoodName = $type->item(0)->childNodes->item(0)->nodeValue; $currentFoodStyle = $style->item(0)->childNodes->item(0)->nodeValue; $currentFoodNote = $foodnote->item(0)->childNodes->item(0)->nodeValue; if ($hint==""){ $hint= $currentFoodName . " , " . $currentFoodNote . " , <b>" . $currentFoodStyle. "</b>" . "<br>" ; } else{ $hint=$hint . $currentFoodName . " , " . $currentFoodNote . " , <b>" . $currentFoodStyle. "</b>" . "<br>" ; } } } } } Also if having the data in a DB and accessing that is faster, then I'm open to that.. All ideas really!! Thanks.

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  • a question about rails general practice with REST, json, and ajax

    - by Nik
    Hi all, I have this question concerning REST I think: I have read a few rest tutorials and the feeling I get from them is that each action in a restful controller tends to be lean and almost single purpose: "Index gives off a collection of a model show gives off one model edit/new a prep place for changing/create a model update/create changes and makes new model deletes removes one model" After reading all these tutorials, rest seems to be to be a means to create an interface for a model, much like active resource type of thing. the mantra seems to be "controller provides data and data only and is also pretty convention over configuration, so expect projects_path to return a bunch of projects" I can understand that, and I like the cleanliness. But here's when I run into some trouble in reality in applying these guidelines: say three models, Project with attrib title, User with attrib name, and Location with attrib address. Say in views/users/index.html.erb, I want to use Ajax to fetch and display a project in a div#project_display when the user clicks on a project element, I know that I can use views/projects/show.js.rjs like this: page.replace_html 'project_display' "#{@project.name}" where in the projects_controller.rb def show @project = Project.find(params[:id]) repsond_to do |format| format.js and other formats... end end I have no problem in doing that for a couple of years now. BUT doesn't that mean that my JS response for the project#show action is LOCkED to present data to div#project_display element and show only whatever I that rjs template says it should show? That's very limiting and doesn't sound very "interface" like. I have never used JSON before or much XML, so I thought, maybe the JS response should send back raw stuff, like JSON and somehow the page on which the ajax request was called has the instruction on what do to with these raw data. That sounds a lot more flexible, doesn't it? Because look back at that exmpale, what if in the views/locations/index.html.erb, I want to do the exact same thing except I want to put the response in div#project_goes_here and the response should be #{project.name} I know this is a trivial change but that's the point: the RJS only allows one template at a time. So I think the JSON route is the way to go, but how does the already loaded page, the one that the ajax call came from, know when or how to "look forward" to incoming data? I read that PrototypeJS has this template thing, I wouldn't mind using it with JSON, but if you can demonstrate this or other means for displaying received-from-ajax data, I am all attention. Thank You

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  • Which MarkDown (WMD) javascript editor should I use?

    - by Edan Maor
    Background I'm working on an application which requires user-entered content, and I've decided to use a StackOverflow-style MarkDown editor. After researching this topic for the last few days, I realize there are numerous forks of the base WMD editor, some with a few basic enhancements and some with serious differences from the StackOverflow one. Since this will be the heart of the application, I'd like to start with the best code base I can. I'd be happy if anyone can recommend which one of the many solutions out there best fits my needs. Below is requirements, plus what I've managed to find already. I'm hoping this question will help me decide which version to go with, and maybe help me discover a port out there that's an even better fit for my needs. The requirements for my project Live Preview Multiple editors on the same page (not know how many in advance, since the user can dynamically add another editing box). Ability to extend with extra buttons (I'd like a button to upload a picture, instead of just adding an img url). Ability to dynamically show/hide the edit box (and only see the preview box). Not an absolute must, but I'd prefer to stick as close to StackOverflow's look and feel, since it's well known. Don't know if this matters, but the backend is written in Django. Editors I've looked at Here are a few of the code bases I've looked at, with thoughts. Obviously, I might be missing another solution out there. The derobins version. From what I can tell, this is the official StackOverflow version. Seems like it doesn't support multiple editors on one page. JQuery.MarkEdit. Looks very good, but is pretty different from the StackOverflow version. MooWMD. Looks like the winner right now, but I'm a little concerned since it looks less active/hackable than MarkEdit. The wmd-new version. Not sure, looks like an old codebase without much use. The SocialSite branch. Seems like it's not for public use.

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  • Can GPU capabilities impact virtual machine performance?

    - by Dave White
    While this many not seem like a programming question directly, it impacts my development activities and so it seems like it belongs here. It seems that more and more developers are turning to virtual environments for development activities on their computers, SharePoint development being a prime example. Also, as a trainer, I have virtual training environments for all of the classes that I teach. I recently purchased a new Dell E6510 to travel around with. It has the i7 620M (Dual core, HyperThreaded cpu running at 2.66GHz) and 8 GB of memory. Reading the spec sheet, it sounded like it would be a great laptop to carry around and run virtual machines on. Getting the laptop though, I've been pretty disappointed with the user experience of developing in a virtual machine. Giving the Virtual Machine 4 GB of memory, it was slow and I could type complete sentences and watch the VM "catchup". My company has training laptops that we provide for our classes. They are Dell Precision M6400 Intel Core 2 Duo P8700 running at 2.54Ghz with 8 GB of memory and the experience on this laptops is night and day compared to the E6510. They are crisp and you barely aware that you are running in a virtual environment. Since the E6510 should be faster in all categories than the M6400, I couldn't understand why the new laptop was slower, so I did a component by component comparison and the only place where the E6510 is less performant than the M6400 is the graphics department. The M6400 is running a nVidia FX 2700m GPU and the E6510 is running a nVidia 3100M GPU. Looking at benchmarks of the two GPUs suggest that the FX 2700M is twice as fast as the 3100M. http://www.notebookcheck.net/Mobile-Graphics-Cards-Benchmark-List.844.0.html 3100M = 111th (E6510) FX 2700m = 47th (Precision M6400) Radeon HD 5870 = 8th (Alienware) The host OS is Windows 7 64bit as is the guest OS, running in Virtual Box 3.1.8 with Guest Additions installed on the guest. The IDE being used in the virtual environment is VS 2010 Premium. So after that long setup, my question is: Is the GPU significantly impacting the virtual machine's performance or are there other factors that I'm not looking at that I can use to boost the vm's performance? Do we now have to consider GPU performance when purchasing laptops where we expect to use virtualized development environments? Thanks in advance. Cheers, Dave

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  • Available Coroutine Libraries in Java

    - by JUST MY correct OPINION
    I would like to do some stuff in Java that would be clearer if written using concurrent routines, but for which full-on threads are serious overkill. The answer, of course, is the use of coroutines, but there doesn't appear to be any coroutine support in the standard Java libraries and a quick Google on it brings up tantalising hints here or there, but nothing substantial. Here's what I've found so far: JSIM has a coroutine class, but it looks pretty heavyweight and conflates, seemingly, with threads at points. The point of this is to reduce the complexity of full-on threading, not to add to it. Further I'm not sure that the class can be extracted from the library and used independently. Xalan has a coroutine set class that does coroutine-like stuff, but again it's dubious if this can be meaningfully extracted from the overall library. It also looks like it's implemented as a tightly-controlled form of thread pool, not as actual coroutines. There's a Google Code project which looks like what I'm after, but if anything it looks more heavyweight than using threads would be. I'm basically nervous of something that requires software to dynamically change the JVM bytecode at runtime to do its work. This looks like overkill and like something that will cause more problems than coroutines would solve. Further it looks like it doesn't implement the whole coroutine concept. By my glance-over it gives a yield feature that just returns to the invoker. Proper coroutines allow yields to transfer control to any known coroutine directly. Basically this library, heavyweight and scary as it is, only gives you support for iterators, not fully-general coroutines. The promisingly-named Coroutine for Java fails because it's a platform-specific (obviously using JNI) solution. And that's about all I've found. I know about the native JVM support for coroutines in the Da Vinci Machine and I also know about the JNI continuations trick for doing this. These are not really good solutions for me, however, as I would not necessarily have control over which VM or platform my code would run on. (Indeed any bytecode manipulation system would suffer similar problems -- it would be best were this pure Java if possible. Runtime bytecode manipulation would restrict me from using this on Android, for example.) So does anybody have any pointers? Is this even possible? If not, will it be possible in Java 7? Edited to add: Just to ensure that confusion is contained, this is a related question to my other one, but not the same. This one is looking for an existing implementation in a bid to avoid reinventing the wheel unnecessarily. The other one is a question relating to how one would go about implementing coroutines in Java should this question prove unanswerable. The intent is to keep different questions on different threads.

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  • JavaScript Resource Management Design Pattern

    - by Adam
    As a web developer, a common problem I find myself tackling is waiting for something to load before doing something else. In particular, I often hide (using either display: none; or visibility: hidden; depending on the situation) elements while waiting for a background image or a CSS file to load. Consider this example from Last.FM. They overlay a semi-transparant PNG over each album art image so that it looks like it's inside a jewel-case. They let it load when it loads, so depending on your internet speed, you may see the art image by itself (without the overlay) temporarily. In this case, the album art looks fine without the jewel-case effect. But in similar situations, I have found that I don't want the user to see the site's design mangled as resources incrementally load. So, in rare cases I have hidden everything from the user until the whole kit and kaboodle has loaded. But this is often a pain to write out, and may force the user to wait for a pretty long time to see anything (besides "loading..." text). I can think of (and have used on occasion) some obvious solutions/compromises: Use some inline CSS so that as certain parts of the DOM load and render, they will immediately have the correct size/position/etc. Immediately render the navigation part of the site, so that if the user wanted to use the current page purely to get somewhere else, they don't have to wait for the rest to load. Load pixelated images first as placeholders for layout while lazy-loading higher quality images as replacements. Something quirky like using a cute animated gif to distract the user during a "loading..." phase. Show useful information as a reference while loading the full UI. (Something akin to Gmail Inbox Preview, etc.) (Sorry if my question was basically just asked and answered...) Despite all of these ideas, I still find myself hoping there are better ways of doing some of these things. So I guess what I'm looking for is some inspiration and/or any creative ways of dealing with this problem that you guys may have seen out in the wild.

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  • Django admin fails when using includes in urlpatterns

    - by zenWeasel
    I am trying to refactor out my application a little bit to keep it from getting too unwieldily. So I started to move some of the urlpatterns out to sub files as the documentation proposes. Besides that fact that it just doesn't seem to be working (the items are not being rerouted) but when I go to the admin, it says that 'urlpatterns has not been defined'. The urls.py I have at the root of my application is: if settings.ENABLE_SSL: urlpatterns = patterns('', (r'^checkout/orderform/onepage/(\w*)/$','checkout.views.one_page_orderform',{'SSL':True},'commerce.checkout.views.single_product_orderform'), ) else: urlpatterns = patterns('', (r'^checkout/orderform/onepage/(\w*)/$','commerce.checkout.views.single_product_orderform'), ) urlpatterns+= patterns('', (r'^$', 'alchemysites.views.route_to_home'), (r'^%s/' % settings.DAJAXICE_MEDIA_PREFIX, include('dajaxice.urls')), (r'^/checkout/', include('commerce.urls')), (r'^/offers',include('commerce.urls')), (r'^/order/',include('commerce.urls')), (r'^admin/', include(admin.site.urls)), (r'^accounts/login/$', login), (r'^accounts/logout/$', logout), (r'^(?P<path>.*)/$','alchemysites.views.get_path'), (r'^static/(?P<path>.*)$', 'django.views.static.serve', {'document_root':settings.MEDIA_ROOT}), The urls I have moved out so far are the checkout/offers/order which are all subapps of 'commerce' where the urls.py for the apps are so to be clear. /urls.py in questions (included here) /commerce/urls.py where the urls.py I want to include is: order_info = { 'queryset': Order.objects.all(), } urlpatterns+= patterns('', (r'^offers/$','offers.views.start_offers'), (r'^offers/([a-zA-Z0-9-]*)/order/(\d*)/add/([a-zA-Z0-9-]*)/(\w*)/next/([a-zA-Z0-9-)/$','offers.views.show_offer'), (r'^reports/orders/$', list_detail.object_list,order_info), ) and the applications offers lies under commerce. And so the additional problem is that admin will not work at all, so I'm thinking because I killed it somewhere with my includes. Things I have checked for: Is the urlpatterns variable accidentally getting reset somewhere (i.e. urlpatterns = patterns, instead of urlpatterns+= patterns) Are the patterns in commerce.urls valid (yes, when moved back to root they work). So from there I am stumped. I can move everything back into the root, but was trying to get a little decoupled, not just for theoretical reason but for some short terms ones. Lastly if I enter www.domainname/checkout/orderform/onepage/xxxjsd I get the correct page. However, entering www.domainname/checkout/ gets handled by the alchemysites.views.get_path. If not the answer (because this is pretty darn specific), then is there a good way for troubleshoot urls.py? It seems to just be trial and error. Seems there should be some sort of parser that will tell you what your urlpatterns will do.

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  • Django Encoding Issues with MySQL

    - by Jordan Reiter
    Okay, so I have a MySQL database set up. Most of the tables are latin1 and Django handles them fine. But, some of them are UTF-8 and Django does not handle them. Here's a sample table (these tables are all from django-geonames): DROP TABLE IF EXISTS `geoname`; SET @saved_cs_client = @@character_set_client; SET character_set_client = utf8; CREATE TABLE `geoname` ( `id` int(11) NOT NULL, `name` varchar(200) NOT NULL, `ascii_name` varchar(200) NOT NULL, `latitude` decimal(20,17) NOT NULL, `longitude` decimal(20,17) NOT NULL, `point` point default NULL, `fclass` varchar(1) NOT NULL, `fcode` varchar(7) NOT NULL, `country_id` varchar(2) NOT NULL, `cc2` varchar(60) NOT NULL, `admin1_id` int(11) default NULL, `admin2_id` int(11) default NULL, `admin3_id` int(11) default NULL, `admin4_id` int(11) default NULL, `population` int(11) NOT NULL, `elevation` int(11) NOT NULL, `gtopo30` int(11) NOT NULL, `timezone_id` int(11) default NULL, `moddate` date NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (`id`), KEY `country_id_refs_iso_alpha2_e2614807` (`country_id`), KEY `admin1_id_refs_id_a28cd057` (`admin1_id`), KEY `admin2_id_refs_id_4f9a0f7e` (`admin2_id`), KEY `admin3_id_refs_id_f8a5e181` (`admin3_id`), KEY `admin4_id_refs_id_9cc00ec8` (`admin4_id`), KEY `fcode_refs_code_977fe2ec` (`fcode`), KEY `timezone_id_refs_id_5b46c585` (`timezone_id`), KEY `geoname_52094d6e` (`name`) ) ENGINE=MyISAM DEFAULT CHARSET=utf8; SET character_set_client = @saved_cs_client; Now, if I try to get data from the table directly using MySQLdb and a cursor, I get the text with the proper encoding: >>> import MySQLdb >>> from django.conf import settings >>> >>> conn = MySQLdb.connect (host = "localhost", ... user = settings.DATABASES['default']['USER'], ... passwd = settings.DATABASES['default']['PASSWORD'], ... db = settings.DATABASES['default']['NAME']) >>> cursor = conn.cursor () >>> cursor.execute("select name from geoname where name like 'Uni%Hidalgo'"); 1L >>> g = cursor.fetchone() >>> g[0] 'Uni\xc3\xb3n Hidalgo' >>> print g[0] Unión Hidalgo However, if I try to use the Geoname model (which is actually a django.contrib.gis.db.models.Model), it fails: >>> from geonames.models import Geoname >>> g = Geoname.objects.get(name__istartswith='Uni',name__icontains='Hidalgo') >>> g.name u'Uni\xc3\xb3n Hidalgo' >>> print g.name Unión Hidalgo There's pretty clearly an encoding error here. In both cases the database is returning 'Uni\xc3\xb3n Hidalgo' but Django is (incorrectly?) translating the '\xc3\xb3n' to ó. What can I do to fix this?

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  • XPointers in SVG

    - by Nycto
    I've been trying to get XPointer URIs working in an SVG file, but haven't had any luck so far. After trying something more complicated and failing, I simplified it down to just referencing an ID. However, this still fails. The spec seems pretty clear about this implementation: http://www.w3.org/TR/SVG/struct.html#URIReference I found an example online of what should be a working XPointer reference within an svg document. Here is the Original. Here is the version I copied out: <?xml version="1.0" standalone="no"?> <!DOCTYPE svg PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD SVG 1.1//EN" "http://www.w3.org/Graphics/SVG/1.1/DTD/svg11.dtd"> <svg width="500" height="200" version="1.1" xmlns="http://www.w3.org/2000/svg" xmlns:xlink="http://www.w3.org/1999/xlink"> <defs> <rect id="simpleRect" width="100px" height="75px"/> </defs> <use xlink:href="#simpleRect" x="50" y="50" style="fill:red"/> <use xlink:href="#xpointer(id('simpleRect'))" x="250" y="50" style="fill:yellow"/> </svg> This should display two rectangles... one red and one yellow. I tried rendering with Firefox 3.6 and Inkscape 0.47. No success. Only the Red rectangle shows. What am I missing? Thanks for any help you can offer

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  • Recommendations for a free GIS library supporting raster images

    - by gspr
    Hi. I'm quite new to the whole field of GIS, and I'm about to make a small program that essentially overlays GPS tracks on a map together with some other annotations. I primarily need to allow scanned (thus raster) maps (although it would be nice to support proper map formats and something like OpenStreetmap in the long run). My first exploratory program uses Qt's graphics view framework and overlays the GPS points by simply projecting them onto the tangent plane to the WGS84 ellipsoid at a calibration point. This gives half-decent accuracy, and actually looks good. But then I started wondering. To get the accuracy I need (i.e. remove the "half" in "half-decent"), I have to correct for the map projection. While the math is not a problem in itself, supporting many map projection feels like needless work. Even though a few projections would probably be enough, I started thinking about just using something like the PROJ.4 library to do my projections. But then, why not take it all the way? Perhaps I might aswell use a full-blown map library such as Mapnik (edit: Quantum GIS also looks very nice), which will probably pay off when I start to want even more fancy annotations or some other symptom of featuritis. So, finally, to the question: What would you do? Would you use a full-blown map library? If so, which one? Again, it's important that it supports using (and zooming in and out with) raster maps and has pretty overlay features. Or would you just keep it simple, and go with Qt's own graphics view framework together with something like PROJ.4 to handle the map projections? I appreciate any feedback! Some technicalities: I'm writing in C++ with a Qt-based GUI, so I'd prefer something that plays relatively nicely with those. Also, the library must be free software (as in FOSS), and at least decently cross-platform (GNU/Linux, Windows and Mac, at least). Edit: OK, it seems I didn't do quite enough research before asking this question. Both Quantum GIS and Mapnik seem very well suited for my purpose. The former especially so since it's based on Qt.

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  • Good object/DB set-up for CMS-esque app for managing content and user permissions?

    - by sah302
    Hi all, so I am writing a big CMS-esque app to allow users to manage web content through web applications, I've got a pretty good db-driven user permission system going, but am having trouble coming up with a good way to handle content groups and pages, I've got a couple options and not sure which one to take. Furthermore, I am not sure how to handle static page updates that have no 'widgets' in them. My current set-up for permissions is this: Objects: User, UserGroup, UserUserGroup, UserGroupType Standard many to many relationship User -> UserUserGroup <- UserGroup each Usergroup has a UserGroupType, which could be anything from Title, Department, to PermissionGroup. PermissionGroup manages the permissions. Right now on a per page basis I check permissions based on their PermissionsGroups. So for a page which has CMS features for a news widget, I check for permission groups of "Site Admin" and "News Admin". Now the issue I am coming to is, the site has many different departments involved. No problem I think, I can just have a EntityContentGroup so any widget app can be used for any departments. So my HR department, each of their news items would be in the EntityContentGroup with the news item ID, and content group of "HR" or "HR News". But maybe this isn't the most efficient way to go about it? I don't want to put the content group simply as a NewsItemType because some news items could apply to multiple areas, so I want to be able to assign them to as many areas as I want. Likewise, all of my widget apps have this, so that's why I decided to choose EntityContentGroup and not just NewsItemContentGroup. I was also thinking well instead of doing a contentGroup do a Page object that says which page some entity should be on. It seems almost like the same thing, but would I want to use Page for something else? I was thinking Page would be used for static pages with no widgets, a simple Rich Text Editor can edit the content of that page and I save that item to a page?? And then instead of doing a page level check for UserGroup permissions, would it be better to associate a usergroup to a contentgroup, and then just depending on what contentGroup content on the page is displayed, determine the permissions through that relationship? Is that better? I am not sure at this point. I guess I am just getting a tad overwhelmed at this is the largest app in scope and size that I have ever written. What is the best approach for this based on my current user permission set-up?

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  • Looking for Fiddler2 help. connection to gateway refused? Just got rid of a virus

    - by John Mackey
    I use Fiddler2 for facebook game items, and it's been a great success. I accessed a website to download some dat files I needed. I think it was eshare, ziddu or megaupload, one of those. Anyway, even before the rar file had downloaded, I got this weird green shield in the bottom right hand corner of my computer. It said a Trojan was trying to access my computer, or something to that extent. It prompted me to click the shield to begin anti-virus scanning. It turns out this rogue program is called Antivirus System Pro and is pretty hard to get rid of. After discovering the rogue program, I tried using Fiddler and got the following error: [Fiddler] Connection to Gateway failed.Exception Text: No connection could be made because the target machine actively refused it 127.0.0.1:5555 I ended up purchasing SpyDoctor + Antivirus, which I'm told is designed specifically for getting rid of these types of programs. Anyway, I did a quick-scan last night with spydoctor and malware bytes. Malware picked up 2 files, and Spydoctor found 4. Most were insignificant, but it did find a worm called Worm.Alcra.F, which was labeled high-priority. I don’t know if that’s the Anti-Virus Pro or not, but SpyDoctor said it got rid of all of those successfully. I tried to run Fiddler again before leaving home, but was still getting the "gateway failed" error. Im using the newest version of firefox. When I initially set up the Fiddler 2.2.8.6, I couldn’t get it to run at first, so I found this faq on the internet that said I needed to go through ToolsOptionsSettings and set up an HTTP Proxy to 127.0.0.1 and my Port to 8888. Once I set that up and downloaded this fiddler helper as a firefox add-on, it worked fine. When I turn on fiddler, it automatically takes my proxy setting from no proxy (default) to the 127.0.0.1 with Port 8888 set up. It worked fine until my computer detected this virus. Anyway, hopefully I've given you sufficient information to offer me your best advice here. Like I said, Spydoctor says the bad stuff is gone, so maybe the rogue program made some type of change in my fiddler that I could just reset or uncheck or something like that? Or will I need to completely remove fiddler and those dat files and rar files I downloaded? Any help would be greatly appreciated. Thanks for your time.

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  • Google OAuthGetRequestToken returns "signature_invalid"

    - by M Schenkel
    Trying for hours to get a request token using Google OAuthGetRequestToken but it always returns "signature_invalid". For a test I use the oAuth Playground to successfully request the token. Here are the results: Signature base string GET&https%3A%2F%2Fwww.google.com%2Faccounts%2FOAuthGetRequestToken&oauth_callback%3Dhttp%253A%252F%252Fgooglecodesamples.com%252Foauth_playground%252Findex.php%26oauth_consumer_key%3Dwww.embeddedanalytics.com%26oauth_nonce%3D56aa884162ed21815a0406725c79cf79%26oauth_signature_method%3DRSA-SHA1%26oauth_timestamp%3D1321417095%26oauth_version%3D1.0%26scope%3Dhttps%253A%252F%252Fwww.google.com%252Fanalytics%252Ffeeds%252F Request/Response GET /accounts/OAuthGetRequestToken?scope=https%3A%2F%2Fwww.google.com%2Fanalytics%2Ffeeds%2F HTTP/1.1 Host: www.google.com Accept: */* Authorization: OAuth oauth_version="1.0", oauth_nonce="56aa884162ed21815a0406725c79cf79", oauth_timestamp="1321417095", oauth_consumer_key="www.embeddedanalytics.com", oauth_callback="http%3A%2F%2Fgooglecodesamples.com%2Foauth_playground%2Findex.php", oauth_signature_method="RSA-SHA1", oauth_signature="qRtorIaSFaQdOXW1u6eMQlY9LT2j7ThG5kgkcD6rDcW4MIvzluslFgYRNTuRvnaruraNpItjojtgsrK9deYRKoHBGOlU27SsWy6jECxKczcSECl3cVAcjk7dvbywFMDkgi1ZhTZ5Q%2BFoD60HoVQUYnGUbOO0jPXI48LfkiA5ZN4%3D" HTTP/1.1 200 OK Content-Type: text/plain; charset=UTF-8 Date: Wed, 16 Nov 2011 04:18:15 GMT Expires: Wed, 16 Nov 2011 04:18:15 GMT Cache-Control: private, max-age=0 X-Content-Type-Options: nosniff X-XSS-Protection: 1; mode=block Content-Length: 118 Server: GSE oauth_token=4%2FmO86qZzixayI2NoUc-hewC--D53R&oauth_token_secret=r0PReF9D83w1d6uP0nyQQm9c&oauth_callback_confirmed=true I am using Fiddler to trace my calls. It returns the Signature base string: GET&https%3A%2F%2Fwww.google.com%2Faccounts%2FOAuthGetRequestToken&oauth_callback%3Dhttp%253A%252F%252Fgooglecodesamples.com%252Foauth_playground%252Findex.php%26oauth_consumer_key%3Dwww.embeddedanalytics.com%26oauth_nonce%3Dl9Jydzjyzt2fJfM3ltY5yrxxYy2uh1U7%26oauth_signature_method%3DRSA-SHA1%26oauth_timestamp%3D1321417107%26oauth_version%3D1.0%26scope%3Dhttps%253A%252F%252Fwww.google.com%252Fanalytics%252Ffeeds%252F Aside from the oauth_timestamp and oauth_nonce (which should be different), the base string are pretty much identical. Anyone know what I am doing wrong? Update 11/20/2011 Thinking it might be something wrong with my RSA-SHA signing, I have since tried HMAC-SHA. It gives the same results. I thought it might be beneficial to include the Fiddler results (I added carriage returns to have it format better). GET https://www.google.com/accounts/OAuthGetRequestToken? scope=https%3A%2F%2Fwww.google.com%2Fanalytics%2Ffeeds%2F HTTP/1.1 Content-Type: application/x-www-form-urlencoded Authorization: OAuth oauth_version="1.0", oauth_nonce="7C4C900EAACC9C7B62E399A91B81D8DC", oauth_timestamp="1321845418", oauth_consumer_key="www.embeddedanalytics.com", oauth_signature_method="HMAC-SHA1", oauth_signature="ows%2BbFTNSR8jVZo53rGBB8%2BfwFM%3D" Host: www.google.com Accept: */* Accept-Encoding: identity Response HTTP/1.1 400 Bad Request Content-Type: text/plain; charset=UTF-8 Date: Mon, 21 Nov 2011 03:16:57 GMT Expires: Mon, 21 Nov 2011 03:16:57 GMT Cache-Control: private, max-age=0 X-Content-Type-Options: nosniff X-XSS-Protection: 1; mode=block Content-Length: 358 Server: GSE signature_invalid base_string:GET&https%3A%2F%2Fwww.google.com%2Faccounts%2FOAuthGetRequestToken &oauth_consumer_key%3Dwww.embeddedanalytics.com %26oauth_nonce%3D7C4C900EAACC9C7B62E399A91B81D8DC %26oauth_signature_method%3DHMAC-SHA1 %26oauth_timestamp%3D1321845418 %26oauth_version%3D1.0 %26scope%3Dhttps%253A%252F%252Fwww.google.com%252Fanalytics%252Ffeeds%252F

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  • Spring's EntityManager not persisting

    - by Fernando Camargo
    Well, my project was using EJB and JPA (with Hibernate), but I had to switch to Spring. Everything was working well before that. The EJB used to inject the EntityManager, controled the transaction, etc. Ok, when I switched to Spring, I had a lot of problems because I'm new on Spring. But after everything is running, I have the problem: the data is never saved on database. I configured my Spring to control the transactions, I have spring beans used in JSF, that has spring services that do the hard work. This services have a EntityManager injected and use @Transactional REQUIRED. This services pass the EntityManager to a DAO that call entityManager.persist(bean). The selects appears to work well, the JTA transaction appears to work well to (I saw in log), but the entity is not saved! Here is the log: INFO: [Pronatec] - 04/04/2012 11:30:20 - [DEBUG] org.springframework.orm.jpa.support.OpenEntityManagerInViewFilter: doFilterInternal() (linha 136): Opening JPA EntityManager in OpenEntityManagerInViewFilter INFO: [Pronatec] - 04/04/2012 11:30:20 - [DEBUG] org.springframework.beans.factory.support.DefaultListableBeanFactory: doGetBean() (linha 245): Returning cached instance of singleton bean 'transactionManager' INFO: [Pronatec] - 04/04/2012 11:30:20 - [DEBUG] org.springframework.orm.hibernate3.HibernateTransactionManager: getTransaction() (linha 365): Creating new transaction with name [br.org.cni.pronatec.controller.service.MontanteServiceImpl.adicionarValor]: PROPAGATION_REQUIRED,ISOLATION_DEFAULT; '' INFO: [Pronatec] - 04/04/2012 11:30:20 - [DEBUG] org.springframework.orm.hibernate3.HibernateTransactionManager: doBegin() (linha 493): Opened new Session [org.hibernate.impl.SessionImpl@2b2fe2f0] for Hibernate transaction INFO: [Pronatec] - 04/04/2012 11:30:20 - [DEBUG] org.springframework.orm.hibernate3.HibernateTransactionManager: doBegin() (linha 504): Preparing JDBC Connection of Hibernate Session [org.hibernate.impl.SessionImpl@2b2fe2f0] INFO: [Pronatec] - 04/04/2012 11:30:20 - [DEBUG] org.springframework.orm.hibernate3.HibernateTransactionManager: doBegin() (linha 569): Exposing Hibernate transaction as JDBC transaction [com.sun.gjc.spi.jdbc40.ConnectionHolder40@3bcd4840] INFO: [Pronatec] - 04/04/2012 11:30:20 - [DEBUG] org.springframework.orm.jpa.ExtendedEntityManagerCreator$ExtendedEntityManagerInvocationHandler: doJoinTransaction() (linha 383): Joined JTA transaction INFO: Hibernate: select hibernate_sequence.nextval from dual INFO: [Pronatec] - 04/04/2012 11:30:20 - [DEBUG] org.springframework.orm.hibernate3.HibernateTransactionManager: processCommit() (linha 752): Initiating transaction commit INFO: [Pronatec] - 04/04/2012 11:30:20 - [DEBUG] org.springframework.orm.hibernate3.HibernateTransactionManager: doCommit() (linha 652): Committing Hibernate transaction on Session [org.hibernate.impl.SessionImpl@2b2fe2f0] INFO: [Pronatec] - 04/04/2012 11:30:20 - [DEBUG] org.springframework.orm.hibernate3.HibernateTransactionManager: doCleanupAfterCompletion() (linha 734): Closing Hibernate Session [org.hibernate.impl.SessionImpl@2b2fe2f0] after transaction INFO: [Pronatec] - 04/04/2012 11:30:20 - [DEBUG] org.springframework.orm.hibernate3.SessionFactoryUtils: closeSession() (linha 800): Closing Hibernate Session INFO: [Pronatec] - 04/04/2012 11:30:20 - [DEBUG] org.springframework.orm.jpa.support.OpenEntityManagerInViewFilter: doFilterInternal() (linha 154): Closing JPA EntityManager in OpenEntityManagerInViewFilter INFO: [Pronatec] - 04/04/2012 11:30:20 - [DEBUG] org.springframework.orm.jpa.EntityManagerFactoryUtils: closeEntityManager() (linha 343): Closing JPA EntityManager In the log, I see it commiting the transaction, but I don't see the insert query (the Hibernate is printing any query). I also see that the Hibernate lookup to get the next value of the sequence ID. But after that, it never really inserts. Here is the spring context configuration: <bean id="entityManagerFactory" class="org.springframework.orm.jpa.LocalContainerEntityManagerFactoryBean"> <property name="persistenceUnitName" value="PronatecPU" /> <property name="persistenceXmlLocation" value="classpath:META-INF/persistence.xml" /> <property name="loadTimeWeaver"> <bean class="org.springframework.instrument.classloading.InstrumentationLoadTimeWeaver"/> </property> <property name="jpaProperties"> <props> <prop key="hibernate.transaction.factory_class">org.hibernate.transaction.JTATransactionFactory</prop> </props> </property> </bean> <bean id="transactionManager" class="org.springframework.orm.jpa.JpaTransactionManager" > <property name="transactionManagerName" value="java:/TransactionManager" /> <property name="userTransactionName" value="UserTransaction" /> <property name="entityManagerFactory" ref="entityManagerFactory" /> </bean> <bean class="org.springframework.orm.jpa.support.PersistenceAnnotationBeanPostProcessor" /> <tx:annotation-driven transaction-manager="transactionManager" /> Here is my persistence.xml: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <persistence version="1.0" xmlns="http://java.sun.com/xml/ns/persistence" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xsi:schemaLocation="http://java.sun.com/xml/ns/persistence http://java.sun.com/xml/ns/persistence/persistence_1_0.xsd"> <persistence-unit name="PronatecPU" transaction-type="JTA"> <provider>org.hibernate.ejb.HibernatePersistence</provider> <jta-data-source>jdbc/pronatec</jta-data-source> <class>br.org.cni.pronatec.model.bean.AgendamentoBuscaSistec</class> <class>br.org.cni.pronatec.model.bean.AgendamentoExportacaoZeus</class> <class>br.org.cni.pronatec.model.bean.AgendamentoImportacaoZeus</class> <class>br.org.cni.pronatec.model.bean.Aluno</class> <class>br.org.cni.pronatec.model.bean.Curso</class> <class>br.org.cni.pronatec.model.bean.DepartamentoRegional</class> <class>br.org.cni.pronatec.model.bean.Dof</class> <class>br.org.cni.pronatec.model.bean.Escola</class> <class>br.org.cni.pronatec.model.bean.Inconsistencia</class> <class>br.org.cni.pronatec.model.bean.Matricula</class> <class>br.org.cni.pronatec.model.bean.Montante</class> <class>br.org.cni.pronatec.model.bean.ParametrosVingentes</class> <class>br.org.cni.pronatec.model.bean.TipoCurso</class> <class>br.org.cni.pronatec.model.bean.Turma</class> <class>br.org.cni.pronatec.model.bean.UnidadeFederativa</class> <class>br.org.cni.pronatec.model.bean.ValorAssistenciaEstudantil</class> <class>br.org.cni.pronatec.model.bean.ValorHora</class> <exclude-unlisted-classes>true</exclude-unlisted-classes> <properties> <property name="current_session_context_class" value="thread"/> <property name="hibernate.show_sql" value="true"/> <property name="hibernate.format_sql" value="true"/> <property name="hibernate.dialect" value="org.hibernate.dialect.OracleDialect"/> <property name="hibernate.transaction.manager_lookup_class" value="org.hibernate.transaction.SunONETransactionManagerLookup"/> <property name="hibernate.hbm2ddl.auto" value="update"/> </properties> </persistence-unit> </persistence> Here is my service that is injected in the managed bean: @Service @Scope("prototype") @Transactional(propagation= Propagation.REQUIRED) public class MontanteServiceImpl { // more code @PersistenceContext(unitName="PronatecPU", type= PersistenceContextType.EXTENDED) private EntityManager entityManager; // more code // The method that is called by another public method that do something before private void salvarMontante(Montante montante) { montante.setDataTransacao(new Date()); MontanteDao montanteDao = new MontanteDao(entityManager); montanteDao.salvar(montante); } // more code } My MontanteDao inherits from a base DAO, like this: public class MontanteDao extends BaseDao<Montante> { public MontanteDao(EntityManager entityManager) { super(entityManager); } } And the method that is called in BaseDao is this: public void salvar(T bean) { entityManager.persist(bean); } Like you can see, it just pick the injected entityManager and call the persist() method. The transaction is being controlled by the Spring, like is printed in the log, but the insert query is never printed in log and it is never saved. I'm sorry about my bad english. Thanks in advance for who helps.

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  • Adding GestureOverlayView to my SurfaceView class, how to add to view hierarchy?

    - by Codejoy
    I was informed in a later answer that I have to add the GestureOverlayView I create in code to my view hierarchy, and I am not 100% how to do that. Below is the original question for completeness. I want my game to be able to recognize gestures. I have this nice SurfaceView class that I do an onDraw to draw my sprites, and I have a thread thats running it to call the onDraw etc . This all works great. I am trying to add the GestureOverlayView to this and it just isn't working. Finally hacked to where it doesn't crash but this is what i have public class Panel extends SurfaceView implements SurfaceHolder.Callback, OnGesturePerformedListener { public Panel(Context context) { theContext=context; mLibrary = GestureLibraries.fromRawResource(context, R.raw.myspells); GestureOverlayView gestures = new GestureOverlayView(theContext); gestures.setOrientation(gestures.ORIENTATION_VERTICAL); gestures.setEventsInterceptionEnabled(true); gestures.setGestureStrokeType(gestures.GESTURE_STROKE_TYPE_MULTIPLE); gestures.setLayoutParams(new LayoutParams(LayoutParams.FILL_PARENT, LayoutParams.FILL_PARENT)); //GestureOverlayView gestures = (GestureOverlayView) findViewById(R.id.gestures); gestures.addOnGesturePerformedListener(this); } ... ... onDraw... surfaceCreated(..); ... ... public void onGesturePerformed(GestureOverlayView overlay, Gesture gesture) { ArrayList<Prediction> predictions = mLibrary.recognize(gesture); // We want at least one prediction if (predictions.size() > 0) { Prediction prediction = predictions.get(0); // We want at least some confidence in the result if (prediction.score > 1.0) { // Show the spell Toast.makeText(theContext, prediction.name, Toast.LENGTH_SHORT).show(); } } } } The onGesturePerformed is never called. Their example has the GestureOverlay in the xml, I am not using that, my activity is simple: @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); requestWindowFeature(Window.FEATURE_NO_TITLE); Panel p = new Panel(this); setContentView(p); } So I am at a bit of a loss of the missing piece of information here, it doesn't call the onGesturePerformed and the nice pretty yellow "you are drawing a gesture" never shows up.

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  • Create Duplicate Records on SELECT for Calendar Date Range

    - by peterallcdn
    Hey all, I've built a pretty shnazzy calendar system but there is one tweak that I need to make so that I'm completely happy with it. My calendar has three tables: calevents - The calendared event. caldates - The occurrences and date-range of each occurrence for each event. calcats - The categories that can be applied to an event. The short: For each calevent, there can be many caldates, one for each occurrence of calevent. So a calevent that repeats weekly and spans 3 days might have caldates like this: date_id date_eid date_start date_end 2 37 2010-06-21 2010-06-23 3 37 2010-06-28 2010-06-30 7 37 2010-07-05 2010-07-07 9 37 2010-07-12 2010-07-14 What I want to do, is when selecting all the caldates for a specified month such as 2010-06, to return not just the two records above, but instead a record for each date in the range of date_start and date_end for each caldate. So if I searched for 2010-06, I would get: date_id date_eid date_start date_end date_day 2 37 2010-06-21 2010-06-23 2010-06-21 2 37 2010-06-21 2010-06-23 2010-06-22 2 37 2010-06-21 2010-06-23 2010-06-23 3 37 2010-06-28 2010-06-30 2010-06-28 3 37 2010-06-28 2010-06-30 2010-06-29 3 37 2010-06-28 2010-06-30 2010-06-30 The Long: The reason I want to do this, is so when displaying a list of events(calevents) for a specified month, an occurrence(caldates) of that event will be displayed for EACH of the days it spans. I could do this with php by looping through each day of the current month and displaying a copy of each caldate if the month day falls between date_start and date_end. But doing it this way will prevent me from using record pagination if needed. For example, if for a specified month the following caldates were returned: date_id date_eid date_start date_end 2 37 2010-06-21 2010-06-27 94 53 2010-06-09 2010-07-08 Doing record pagination would see this as only 2 records("rows"). But looping through them with PHP would generate 29 "rows". So, I figure if I use mysql to create each row instead of PHP, I can achieve the same thing AND still be able to use pagination if a month has a lot of events/dates. As far as performance goes, I'm not sure which option is more efficient. Both would send the same amount of info to the browser, so it's really only the work required to generate the info that matters. My current query which fetches all the occurrences for a specified month, and to make things just a little more complicated... joins them with their event and category, looks like this: $sql_to_execute = " SELECT date_id, date_eid, date_start, date_end, event_id, event_title, event_category, event_private, event_location, SUBSTRING_INDEX(event_detailsstripped, ' ', 40) AS event_detailsstripped, event_time, event_starttime, event_endtime, event_active, cat_colour FROM ( caldates LEFT JOIN calevents ON caldates.date_eid = calevents.event_id ) LEFT JOIN calcats ON calevents.event_category = calcats.cat_id WHERE date_start <= '".mysql_real_escape_string($dbi_list_end_date)."' AND date_end >= '".mysql_real_escape_string($dbi_list_start_date)."' ".$dbi_category." ORDER BY date_start ASC "; Any help or advice would be greatly appreciated! Thanks, Peter

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  • Web Services Primer for a WinForms Developer?

    - by Unicorns
    I've been writing client/server applications with Winforms for about six years now, but I have yet to venture into the web space (neither ASP.NET nor web services). Given the direction that the job market has been heading for some time and the fact that I have a basic curiosity, I'd like to get involved with writing web services, but I don't know where to start. I've read about various options (XML/SOAP vs. JSON, REST vs...well, actually I don't know what it's called, etc.), but I'm not sure what sort of criteria are in play when making the determination to use one or the other. Obviously, I'd like to leverage the tools that I have (Visual Studio, the .NET framework, etc.) without hamstringing myself into only targeting a particular audience (i.e. writing the service in such a way as to make it difficult to consume from a Windows Mobile/Android/iPhone client, for example). For the record, my plan--for now--is to use WCF for my web service development, but I'm open to using another .NET approach if that's advisable. I realize that this question is pretty open-ended so it may get closed, but here are some things I'm wondering: What are some things to consider when choosing the type of web service (REST, etc.) I intend to write? Is it possible (and, if so, feasible) to move from one approach to another? Can web services be written in an event-driven way? As I said I'm a Winforms developer, so I'm used to objects raising events for me to react to. For instance, if I have two clients connected to my service, is there a way for me to "push" information to one of them as a result of an action by the other? If this is possible, is this advisable or am I just not thinking about it correctly? What authentication mechanisms seem to work best for public-facing services? What about if I plan to have different types of OS'es and clients connecting to the service? Is there a generally accepted platform-agnostic approach? In the line of authentication, is this something that I should be doing myself (authenticating an managing sessions, etc.) or is this something should be handled at the framework level and I just define exactly how it should work? If that's the case, how do I tell who the requester has authenticated themselves as? I started writing an authentication mechanism (simple username/password combinations stored in the database and a corresponding session table with a GUID key) within my service and just requiring that key to be passed with every operation (other than logging in, of course), but I want to make sure that I'm not reinventing the wheel here. However, I also don't want to clutter up the server with a bunch of machine user accounts just to use Basic authentication. I'm also under the impression that Digest (and of course Windows) authentication requires a machine (or AD) user account.

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  • Fleunt NHibernate not working outside of nunit test fixtures

    - by thorkia
    Okay, here is my problem... I created a Data Layer using the RTM Fluent Nhibernate. My create session code looks like this: _session = Fluently.Configure(). Database(SQLiteConfiguration.Standard.UsingFile("Data.s3db")) .Mappings( m => { m.FluentMappings.AddFromAssemblyOf<ProductMap>(); m.FluentMappings.AddFromAssemblyOf<ProductLogMap>(); }) .ExposeConfiguration(BuildSchema) .BuildSessionFactory(); When I reference the module in a test project, then create a test fixture that looks something like this: [Test] public void CanAddProduct() { var product = new Product {Code = "9", Name = "Test 9"}; IProductRepository repository = new ProductRepository(); repository.AddProduct(product); using (ISession session = OrmHelper.OpenSession()) { var fromDb = session.Get<Product>(product.Id); Assert.IsNotNull(fromDb); Assert.AreNotSame(fromDb, product); Assert.AreEqual(fromDb.Id, product.Id); } My tests pass. When I open up the created SQLite DB, the new Product with Code 9 is in it. the tables for Product and ProductLog are there. Now, when I create a new console application, and reference the same library, do something like this: Product product = new Product() {Code = "10", Name = "Hello"}; IProductRepository repository = new ProductRepository(); repository.AddProduct(product); Console.WriteLine(product.Id); Console.ReadLine(); It doesn't work. I actually get pretty nasty exception chain. To save you lots of head aches, here is the summary: Top Level exception: An invalid or incomplete configuration was used while creating a SessionFactory. Check PotentialReasons collection, and InnerException for more detail.\r\n\r\n The PotentialReasons collection is empty The Inner exception: The IDbCommand and IDbConnection implementation in the assembly System.Data.SQLite could not be found. Ensure that the assembly System.Data.SQLite is located in the application directory or in the Global Assembly Cache. If the assembly is in the GAC, use element in the application configuration file to specify the full name of the assembly. Both the unit test library and the console application reference the exact same version of System.Data.SQLite. Both projects have the exact same DLLs in the debug folder. I even tried copying SQLite DB the unit test library created into the debug directory of the console app, and removed the build schema lines and it still fails If anyone can help me figure out why this won't work outside of my unit tests it would be greatly appreciated. This crazy bug has me at a stand still.

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