Search Results

Search found 24609 results on 985 pages for 'private ip'.

Page 483/985 | < Previous Page | 479 480 481 482 483 484 485 486 487 488 489 490  | Next Page >

  • How can I 'git clone' from another machine

    - by hap497
    Hi, In 1 machine (ip 192.168.1.2), I create a git repository by $ cd /home/hap/working $ git init $ (add some files) $ git add . $ git commit -m 'Initial commit' And I have another machine in the same WiFi network, How can I get clone from the other machine? Thank you

    Read the article

  • .net: does anyone know a free library to download nntp messages

    - by stighy
    hi folks, i'm using ip*works for download newsgroup message and insert them into a database... ipworks is "comfortable" to use because it automatically split nntp data return into different object (or variable). So i've "author" "date" "topic" "messagge" already splitted to my use. However ipworks isn't free and it cost a lot for my use.. so i'm asking you some component or code snippet to use to download and "manage" nntp messagges. Thanks in advance and regards!

    Read the article

  • Web User Control og Event

    - by Mcoroklo
    I have a web user control, CreateQuestion.ascx, in ASP.NET. I want an event "QuestionAdded" to fire when a specific button is clicked. I don't want to send any data, I just want to know WHEN the button is fired. My implementation: CreateQuestion.ascx: public event EventHandler QuestionAdded; protected virtual void OnQuestionAdded(EventArgs e) { if (QuestionAdded != null) QuestionAdded(this, e); } /// This is the button I want to know when is fired protected void SubmitButton_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { //question.Save(); this.OnQuestionAdded(new EventArgs()); } On the page AnswerQuestion.aspx, I use this: private void SetupControls(int myId) { CreateQuestionControl.QuestionAdded += new EventHandler(QuestionAdded); } private void QuestionAdded(object sender, EventArgs e) { Response.Write("HEJ KARL?"); } My problem No matter what, the event is never fired. I know that both SetupControls() is being run, and the code behind the button which should fire the event is run. When I debug, I can see the event QuestionAdded always are null. How do I make this work? Thanks a lot

    Read the article

  • How do I change the base class at runtime in C#?

    - by MatthewMartin
    I may be working on mission impossible here, but I seem to be getting close. I want to extend a ASP.NET control, and I want my code to be unit testable. Also, I'd like to be able to fake behaviors of a real Label (namely things like ID generation, etc), which a real Label can't do in an nUnit host. Here a working example that makes assertions on something that depends on a real base class and something that doesn't-- in a more realistic unit test, the test would depend on both --i.e. an ID existing and some custom behavior. Anyhow the code says it better than I can: public class LabelWrapper : Label //Runtime //public class LabelWrapper : FakeLabel //Unit Test time { private readonly LabelLogic logic= new LabelLogic(); public override string Text { get { return logic.ProcessGetText(base.Text); } set { base.Text=logic.ProcessSetText(value); } } } //Ugh, now I have to test FakeLabelWrapper public class FakeLabelWrapper : FakeLabel //Unit Test time { private readonly LabelLogic logic= new LabelLogic(); public override string Text { get { return logic.ProcessGetText(base.Text); } set { base.Text=logic.ProcessSetText(value); } } } [TestFixture] public class UnitTest { [Test] public void Test() { //Wish this was LabelWrapper label = new LabelWrapper(new FakeBase()) LabelWrapper label = new LabelWrapper(); //FakeLabelWrapper label = new FakeLabelWrapper(); label.Text = "ToUpper"; Assert.AreEqual("TOUPPER",label.Text); StringWriter stringWriter = new StringWriter(); HtmlTextWriter writer = new HtmlTextWriter(stringWriter); label.RenderControl(writer); Assert.AreEqual(1,label.ID); Assert.AreEqual("<span>TOUPPER</span>", stringWriter.ToString()); } } public class FakeLabel { virtual public string Text { get; set; } public void RenderControl(TextWriter writer) { writer.Write("<span>" + Text + "</span>"); } } //System Under Test internal class LabelLogic { internal string ProcessGetText(string value) { return value.ToUpper(); } internal string ProcessSetText(string value) { return value.ToUpper(); } }

    Read the article

  • Create a Task list, with tasks without executing

    - by Ernesto Araya Eguren
    I have an async method private async Task DoSomething(CancellationToken token) a list of Tasks private List<Task> workers = new List<Task>(); and I have to create N threads that runs that method public void CreateThreads(int n) { tokenSource = new CancellationTokenSource(); token = tokenSource.Token; for (int i = 0; i < n; i++) { workers.Add(DoSomething(token)); } } but the problem is that those have to run at a given time public async Task StartAllWorkers() { if (0 < workers.Count) { try { while (0 < workers.Count) { Task finishedWorker = await Task.WhenAny(workers.ToArray()); workers.Remove(finishedWorker); finishedWorker.Dispose(); } if (workers.Count == 0) { tokenSource = null; } } catch (OperationCanceledException) { throw; } } } but actually they run when i call the CreateThreads Method (before the StartAllWorkers). I searched for keywords and problems like mine but couldn't find anything about stopping the task from running. I've tried a lot of different aproaches but anything that could solve my problem entirely. For example, moving the code from DoSomething into a workers.Add(new Task(async () => { }, token)); would run the StartAllWorkers(), but the threads will never actually start. There is another method for calling the tokenSource.Cancel().

    Read the article

  • powershell function output to variable

    - by tommy
    I have a function in powershell 2.0 named getip which gets the IP address(es) of a remote system. function getip { $strComputer = "computername" $colItems = GWMI -cl "Win32_NetworkAdapterConfiguration" -name "root\CimV2" -comp $strComputer -filter "IpEnabled = TRUE" ForEach ($objItem in $colItems) {Write-Host $objItem.IpAddress} } The problem I'm having is with getting the output of this function to a variable. The folowing doesn't work... $ipaddress = (getip) $ipaddress = getip set-variable -name ipaddress -value (getip) any help with this problem would be greatly appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Question about cloning in Java

    - by devoured elysium
    In Effective Java, the author states that: If a class implements Cloneable, Object's clone method returns a field-by-field copy of the object; otherwise it throws CloneNotSupportedException. What I'd like to know is what he means with field-by-field copy. Does it mean that if the class has X bytes in memory, it will just copy that piece of memory? If yes, then can I assume all value types of the original class will be copied to the new object? class Point { private int x; private int y; @Override public Point clone() { return (Point)super.clone(); } } If what Object.clone() does is a field by field copy of the Point class, I'd say that I wouldn't need to explicitly copy fields x and y, being that the code shown above will be more than enough to make a clone of the Point class. That is, the following bit of code is redundant: @Override public Point clone() { Point newObj = (Point)super.clone(); newObj.x = this.x; //redundant newObj.y = this.y; //redundant } Am I right? I know references of the cloned object will point automatically to where the original object's references pointed to, I'm just not sure what happens specifically with value types. If anyone could state clearly what Object.clone()'s algorithm specification is (in easy language) that'd be great. Thanks

    Read the article

  • Selectively disabling WebControl elements

    - by NeilD
    I have an ASP.Net MasterPage with a PlaceHolder element. The contents of the PlaceHolder can be viewed in two modes: read-write, and read-only. To implement read only, I wanted to disable all inputs inside the PlaceHolder. I decided to do this by recursively looping through the controls collection of the PlaceHolder, finding all the ones which inherit from WebControl, and setting control.Enabled = false;. Here's what I originally wrote: private void DisableControls(Control c) { if (c.GetType().IsSubclassOf(typeof(WebControl))) { WebControl wc = c as WebControl; wc.Enabled = false; } //Also disable all child controls. foreach (Control child in c.Controls) { DisableControls(child); } } This worked fine, and all controls are disabled... But then the requirement changed ;) NOW, we want to disable all controls except ones which have a certain CssClass. So, my first attempt at the new version: private void DisableControls(Control c) { if (c.GetType().IsSubclassOf(typeof(WebControl))) { WebControl wc = c as WebControl; if (!wc.CssClass.ToLower().Contains("someclass")) wc.Enabled = false; } //Also disable all child controls. foreach (Control child in c.Controls) { DisableControls(child); } } Now I've hit a problem. If I have (for example) an <ASP:Panel> which contains an <ASP:DropDownList>, and I want to keep the DropDownList enabled, then this isn't working. I call DisableControls on the Panel, and it gets disabled. It then loops through the children, and calls DisableControls on the DropDownList, and leaves it enabled (as intended). However, because the Panel is disabled, when the page renders, everything inside the <div> tag is disabled! Can you think of a way round this? I've thought about changing c.GetType().IsSubclassOf(typeof(WebControl)) to c.GetType().IsSubclassOf(typeof(SomeParentClassThatAllInputElementsInheritFrom)), but I can't find anything appropriate!

    Read the article

  • When do instance variables get initialized and values assigned?

    - by AKh
    When doees the instance variable get initialized? Is it after the constructor block is done or before it? Consider this example: public abstract class Parent { public Parent(){ System.out.println("Parent Constructor"); init(); } public void init(){ System.out.println("parent Init()"); } } public class Child extends Parent { private Integer attribute1; private Integer attribute2 = null; public Child(){ super(); System.out.println("Child Constructor"); } public void init(){ System.out.println("Child init()"); super.init(); attribute1 = new Integer(100); attribute2 = new Integer(200); } public void print(){ System.out.println("attribute 1 : " +attribute1); System.out.println("attribute 2 : " +attribute2); } } public class Tester { public static void main(String[] args) { Parent c = new Child(); ((Child)c).print(); } } OUTPUT: Parent Constructor Child init() parent Init() Child Constructor attribute 1 : 100 attribute 2 : null When the memory for the atribute 1 & 2 are allocated in the heap ? Curious to know why is attribute 2 is NULL ? Are there any design flaws?

    Read the article

  • How can a link within a WebView load another layout using javascript?

    - by huffmaster
    So I have 2 layout files (main.xml, featured.xml) and both each have a single WebView. When the application starts "main.xml" loads a html file into it's WebView. In this html file I have a link that calls javascript that runs code in the Activity that loaded the html. Once back in this Activity code though I try running setContentView(R.layout.featured) but it just bombs out on me. If I debug it just dies without any real error and if I run it the application just Force closes. Am I going about this correctly or should I be doing something differently? final private int MAIN = 1; final private int FEATURED = 2; /** Called when the activity is first created. */ @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.main); webview = (WebView) findViewById(R.id.wvMain); webview.getSettings().setJavaScriptEnabled(true); webview.getSettings().setSupportZoom(false); webview.addJavascriptInterface(new EHJavaScriptInterface(), "eh"); webview.loadUrl("file:///android_asset/default.html"); } final class EHJavaScriptInterface { EHJavaScriptInterface() { } public void loadLayout(final String lo) { int i = Integer.parseInt(lo.trim()); switch (i) { /****** THIS IS WHERE I'M BOMBING OUT *********/ case FEATURED: setContentView(R.layout.featured);break; case MAIN: setContentView(R.layout.main);break; } } }

    Read the article

  • Git + GitHub + Heroku

    - by Haseeb Khan
    Hi All, I am new to the world of Git, GitHub and Heroku. So far, I am enjoying this paradigm but coming from a background with SVN, things seems a bit complicated to me in the world of Git. I am facing a problem for which I am looking for a solution. Scenario: I have setup a new private project on GitHub. I forked the private project and now I have the following structure in my branch: /project /apps /my-apps /my-app-1 .... /my-app-2 .... /your-apps /your-app-1 .... /your-app-2 .... /plugins .... I can commit the code in my Fork on GitHub from my machine in any of the folders I want. Later on, these would be pulled into the master repository by the admin of the project. For every individual application in the apps folder, I have setup an app on Heroku which is a Git Repo in itself where I push my changes when I am done with the user stories from my local machine. In short, every app in the apps folder is a Rails App hosted on Heroku. Problem: What I want is that when I push my changes into Heroku, they can be committed into my project fork on GitHub as well, so, it also has the latest code all the time. The issue I see is that the code on Heroku is a Git Repo while the folders which I have on GitHub are part of a Repo. So far, what I have researched is that there is something known as Submodule in the Git World which can come to the rescue, however, I have not been able to find some newbie instructions. Can someone in the community be kind enough to share thoughts and help me to identify the solution of this problem? Thanks in advance. Regards, Haseeb Khan haseeb [AT] tkxel.com TkXel

    Read the article

  • ManyToOne annotation fails with Hibernate 4.1: MappingException

    - by barelas
    Using Hibernate 4.1.1.Final. When I try to add @ManyToOne, schema creation fails with: org.hibernate.MappingException: Could not instantiate persister org.hibernate.persister.entity.SingleTableEntityPersister User.java: @Entity public class User { @Id private int id; public int getId() {return id;} public void setId(int id) {this.id = id;} @ManyToOne Department department; public Department getDepartment() {return department;} public void setDepartment(Department department) {this.department = department;} } Department.java @Entity public class Department { @Id private int departmentNumber; public int getDepartmentNumber() {return departmentNumber;} public void setDepartmentNumber(int departmentNumber) {this.departmentNumber = departmentNumber;} } hibernate.properties: hibernate.connection.driver_class=com.mysql.jdbc.Driver hibernate.connection.url=jdbc:mysql://localhost:3306/dbname hibernate.connection.username=user hibernate.connection.password=pass hibernate.connection.pool_size=5 hibernate.dialect=org.hibernate.dialect.MySQL5InnoDBDialect hibernate.hbm2ddl.auto=create init (throwing exception): ServiceRegistry serviceRegistry = new ServiceRegistryBuilder().buildServiceRegistry(); sessionFactory = new MetadataSources( serviceRegistrY.addAnnotatedClass(Department.class).addAnnotatedClass(User.class).buildMetadata().buildSessionFactory(); exception throwed at init: org.hibernate.MappingException: Could not instantiate persister org.hibernate.persister.entity.SingleTableEntityPersister at org.hibernate.persister.internal.PersisterFactoryImpl.create(PersisterFactoryImpl.java:174) at org.hibernate.persister.internal.PersisterFactoryImpl.createEntityPersister(PersisterFactoryImpl.java:148) at org.hibernate.internal.SessionFactoryImpl.<init>(SessionFactoryImpl.java:820) at org.hibernate.metamodel.source.internal.SessionFactoryBuilderImpl.buildSessionFactory(SessionFactoryBuilderImpl.java:65) at org.hibernate.metamodel.source.internal.MetadataImpl.buildSessionFactory(MetadataImpl.java:340) I have tried adding some other annotations, but shouldn't the defaults work and create the tables and foreign key? If I remove the department from User, tables get generated fine. Thanks in advance!

    Read the article

  • Processing: popen() call to start subprocess?

    - by Mark Harrison
    Here's an example of opening and reading data from a TCP socket. Is there a a popen() call or equivalent that can start a child process and read its output? void setup() { c = new Client(this, "127.0.0.1", 12345); // Replace with your server's IP and port } void draw() { if (c.available() > 0) { input = c.readString(); http://www.processing.org/learning/libraries/sharedcanvasclient.html

    Read the article

  • Which technology should I use to pop up a simple form in my add-in DLL?

    - by Decker
    I'm building an assembly that runs as an "add-on" to a vendor's Outlook add-in. When it is time for me to execute my "action", I have to put up a simple window with a few simple controls. The vendor's add-in provides me with the parent window's integer handle. I am able to put up a form pretty easily with WinForms by adding are reference to System.Windows.Forms from my assembly and with the following code: FrmHistoryDisplay frm = new FrmHistoryDisplay(); frm.ShowDialog(new ParentWindowWrapper(_parentWindowHandle)); where ParentWindowWrapper is a shim class around the window handle I'm given private class ParentWindowWrapper : IWin32Window { private int _parentWindowHandle; public ParentWindowWrapper(int parentWindowHandle) { _parentWindowHandle = parentWindowHandle; } public IntPtr Handle { get { return new IntPtr(_parentWindowHandle); } } } The Form's ShowDialog method takes an IWin32Window implementor to wrap the parent's window handle. This all works and seems simple enough. I was just wondering whether something similar can be done with a WPF window rather than a WinForm Form? Should I care?

    Read the article

  • Disposing ActiveX resources owned by another thread

    - by Stefan Teitge
    I've got a problem problem with threading and disposing resources. I've got a C# Windows Forms application which runs expensive operation in a thread. This thread instantiates an ActiveX control (AxControl). This control must be disposed as it uses a high amount of memory. So I implemented a Dispose() method and even a destructor. After the thread ends the destructor is called. This is sadly called by the UI thread. So invoking activexControl.Dispose(); fails with the message "COM object that has been separated from its underlying RCW", as the object belongs to another thread. How to do this correctly or is it just a bad design I use? (I stripped the code down to the minimum including removing any safety concerns.) class Program { [STAThread] static void Main() { // do stuff here, e.g. open a form new Thread(new ThreadStart(RunStuff); // do more stuff } private void RunStuff() { DoStuff stuff = new DoStuff(); stuff.PerformStuff(); } } class DoStuff : IDisposable { private AxControl activexControl; DoStuff() { activexControl = new AxControl(); activexControl.CreateControl(); // force instance } ~DoStuff() { Dispose(); } public void Dispose() { activexControl.Dispose(); } public void PerformStuff() { // invent perpetuum mobile here, takes time } }

    Read the article

  • problem with converting simple code to silverlight app.

    - by Sara
    Hi. I have this code for window form application and I have been attempting to convert it to a Silverlight application but it does not work!. There is a Textbox and I attached KeyDown event handler to it. when the user press the arrow key ( left or right) while the focus on the textbox, it will write . or -. When it is window form i used e.KeyCode and Keys.Right and its works great but when it is silverlight I used e.Key and key.Right and the program doesn't work good because the arrows do the 2 functions moving and write ./-. How I can work this out in Silverlight? (My English not good) The code ( window form): private void textBox1_KeyDown(object sender, KeyEventArgs e) { if (sender is TextBox) { TextBox textBox = (TextBox)sender; if (e.KeyCode == Keys.Left || e.KeyCode == Keys.Right) { e.Handled = true; char insert; if (e.KeyCode == Keys.Left) { insert = '.'; } else { insert = '-'; } int i = textBox.SelectionStart; textBox.Text = textBox.Text.Insert(i, insert.ToString()); textBox.Select(i + 1, 0); } } } (and Silverlight): private void textBox1_KeyDown(object sender, KeyEventArgs e) { if (sender is TextBox) { TextBox textBox = (TextBox)sender; if (e.Key == Key.Left || e.Key == Key.Right) { e.Handled = true; char insert; if (e.Key == Key.Left) { insert = '.'; } else { insert = '-'; } int i = textBox.SelectionStart; textBox.Text = textBox.Text.Insert(i, insert.ToString()); textBox.Select(i + 1, 0); } } } I don't understand, is there huge different effect between using Keycode/Keys and Key/Key or because something else?

    Read the article

  • Weird camera Intent behavior

    - by David Erosa
    Hi all. I'm invoking the MediaStore.ACTION_IMAGE_CAPTURE intent with the MediaStore.EXTRA_OUTPUT extra so that it does save the image to that file. On the onActivityResult I can check that the image is being saved in the intended file, which is correct. The weird thing is that anyhow, the image is also saved in a file named something like "/sdcard/Pictures/Camera/1298041488657.jpg" (epoch time in which the image was taken). I've checked the Camera app source (froyo-release branch) and I'm almost sure that the code path is correct and wouldn't have to save the image, but I'm a noob and I'm not completly sure. AFAIK, the image saving process starts with this callback (comments are mine): private final class JpegPictureCallback implements PictureCallback { ... public void onPictureTaken(...){ ... // This is where the image is passed back to the invoking activity. mImageCapture.storeImage(jpegData, camera, mLocation); ... public void storeImage(final byte[] data, android.hardware.Camera camera, Location loc) { if (!mIsImageCaptureIntent) { // Am i an intent? int degree = storeImage(data, loc); // THIS SHOULD NOT BE CALLED WITHIN THE CAPTURE INTENT!! ....... // An finally: private int storeImage(byte[] data, Location loc) { try { long dateTaken = System.currentTimeMillis(); String title = createName(dateTaken); String filename = title + ".jpg"; // Eureka, timestamp filename! ... So, I'm receiving the correct data, but it's also being saved in the "storeImage(data, loc);" method call, which should not be called... It'd not be a problem if I could get the newly created filename from the intent result data, but I can't. When I found this out, I found about 20 image files from my tests that I didn't know were on my sdcard :) I'm getting this behavior both with my Nexus One with Froyo and my Huawei U8110 with Eclair. Could please anyone enlight me? Thanks a lot.

    Read the article

  • Redirect to a web server depending on location with nginx

    - by fceruti
    Im working on a web site that has to be reachable from many countries under the same domain. Id like to know how can I receive a request with nginx (or any other static file server), and send it to different web servers depending on IP's location. I mean, what is the point on having multiple db machines on country A and B, if the server that serves you the page is chosen by round robin. Maybe theres another solution to my problem, and I would be very happy if someone can explain it to me.

    Read the article

  • In a class with no virtual methods or superclass, is it safe to assume (address of first member vari

    - by Jeremy Friesner
    Hi all, I made a private API that assumes that the address of the first member-object in the class will be the same as the class's this-pointer... that way the member-object can trivially derive a pointer to the object that it is a member of, without having to store a pointer explicitly. Given that I am willing to make sure that the container class won't inherit from any superclass, won't have any virtual methods, and that the member-object that does this trick will be the first member object declared, will that assumption hold valid for any C++ compiler, or do I need to use the offsetof() operator (or similar) to guarantee correctness? To put it another way, the code below does what I expect under g++, but will it work everywhere? class MyContainer { public: MyContainer() {} ~MyContainer() {} // non-virtual dtor private: class MyContained { public: MyContained() {} ~MyContained() {} // Given that the only place Contained objects are declared is m_contained // (below), will this work as expected on any C++ compiler? MyContainer * GetPointerToMyContainer() { return reinterpret_cast<MyContainer *>(this); } }; MyContained m_contained; // MUST BE FIRST MEMBER ITEM DECLARED IN MyContainer int m_foo; // other member items may be declared after m_contained float m_bar; };

    Read the article

  • Generating a field setter and getter with ASM

    - by ng
    I would like to avoid reflection in an open source project I am developing. Here I have classes like the following. public class PurchaseOrder { @Property private Customer customer; @Property private String name; } I scan for the @Property annotation to determine what I can set and get from the PurchaseOrder reflectively. There are many such classes all using java.lang.reflect.Field.get() and java.lang.reflect.Field.set(). Ideally I would like to generate for each property an invoker like the following. public interface PropertyAccessor<S, V> { public void set(S source, V value); public V get(S source); } Now when I scan the class I can create a static inner class of PurchaseOrder like so. static class customer_Field implements PropertyAccessor<PurchaseOrder, Customer> { public void set(PurchaseOrder order, Customer customer) { order.customer = customer; } public Customer get(PurchaseOrder order) { return order.customer; } } With these I totally avoid the cost of reflection. I can now set and get from my instances with native performance. Can anyone tell me how I would do this. A code example would be great. I have searched the net for a good example but can find nothing like this. The ASM examples are pretty poor also. The key here is that I have an interface that I can pass around. So I can have various implementations, perhaps one with Java Reflection as a default, one with ASM, and maybe one with Javassist? Any help would be greatly appreciated.

    Read the article

  • How to add active directory with sharepoint in the Virutal server ?

    - by pointlesspolitics
    I have a main server with windows server 2008 with active directory installed. Additionally, I have created the hyper-v virtual server with MOSS 2007 installed with dynamic ip address. I can access the sharepoint site as an intranet. How can I assign the access of all the active directory users and their profile to MOSS without adding them up manually ? If I am missing any information to provide please mention.

    Read the article

  • Cannot Call WordPress Plugin Files Under wp-content

    - by Volomike
    I have a client who has many blog customers. Each of these WordPress blogs calls a plugin that provides a product link. The way that link is composed looks like this: {website}/wp-content/plugins/prodx/product?id=432320 This works fine on all blogs except two. On those two, when you try to call the URL, you get a 404. So, I disabled all plugins except prodx and reverted the theme to default (Kubrick), thinking perhaps a plugin intercept with add_action() API was doing this, such as intercepting URLs and redirecting them. However, this did not help. So, I upgraded the WordPress to the latest version. Again, didn't fix. So, I checked permissions, comparing with a blog that worked just fine. Again, didn't fix. So I replaced the .htaccess, using one from a working blog. Again, didn't fix. So I replaced all the files using some from a working blog that was identical to this one, and then restored the wp-config.php file back so that it talked to the right blog database. Again, didn't fix. Again I checked permissions meticulously, comparing to a perfectly working blog. Again, didn't fix. So, I created a test.php that looks like so: <?php print_r($_GET); echo "hello world"; I then copied it into another plugin folder and used my browser to get to it -- again, 404. So I copied it into the root of wp-content/plugins and tried to call it there -- again, 404. So I copied it into wp-content -- again, 404. Last, I copied it into the root of the WordPress blog website, and this time, it worked! Doesn't make sense. I started to think that perhaps something was going on with /etc/httpd/conf/httpd.conf for this customer, but the only thing I saw different in their for this customer was the IP address was different than the customer's blog that worked. Each customer gets their own IP in this environment my client has built. My client sysop is baffled too. What do you think is going on? Is there something wrong in the WP database for this customer? Is there something wrong in httpd.conf?

    Read the article

  • Moq.Mock<T> - how to setup a method that takes an expression

    - by Paul
    I am Mocking my repository interface and am not sure how to setup a method that takes an expression and returns an object? I am using Moq and NUnit Interface: public interface IReadOnlyRepository : IDisposable { IQueryable<T> All<T>() where T : class; T Single<T>(Expression<Func<T, bool>> expression) where T : class; } Test with IQueryable already setup, but don't know how to setup the T Single: private Moq.Mock<IReadOnlyRepository> _mockRepos; private AdminController _controller; [SetUp] public void SetUp() { var allPages = new List<Page>(); for (var i = 0; i < 10; i++) { allPages.Add(new Page { Id = i, Title = "Page Title " + i, Slug = "Page-Title-" + i, Content = "Page " + i + " on page content." }); } _mockRepos = new Moq.Mock<IReadOnlyRepository>(); _mockRepos.Setup(x => x.All<Page>()).Returns(allPages.AsQueryable()); //Not sure what to do here??? _mockRepos.Setup(x => x.Single<Page>() //---- _controller = new AdminController(_mockRepos.Object); }

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 479 480 481 482 483 484 485 486 487 488 489 490  | Next Page >