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• How do bots access directories on a server that are not DocumentRoot of public IP address? How do I stop them?

  - by tmsimont

  I have a local network set up with apache2 and "named" running on OpenSuse 13.1 Linux. I used the "named" service to use my computer as a domain server. I set up my router to point to ask my computer for domain lookups, so I have a chance to have it rewrite a bunch of domains on my network to its own local IP, 192.168.0.111 This works great. I use virtual host configuration to allow various domains and subdomains (re-routed to the same IP via named) to pull up different directories in my computer. For example: <VirtualHost *:80> ServerName 192.168.0.111 ServerAlias fmb.wa.net DocumentRoot /home/work/wa.net/fmb </VirtualHost> <VirtualHost *:80> ServerName 192.168.0.111 ServerAlias postrecord.wa.net DocumentRoot /home/work/wa.net/postrecord </VirtualHost> <VirtualHost *:80> ServerName 192.168.0.111 ServerAlias cvalley.wa.net DocumentRoot /home/work/wa.net/cvalley_local </VirtualHost> This makes it possible for me to hit cvalley.wa.net from any device in my network and get the site that lives in /home/work/wa.net/cvalley_local I decided to forward port 80 to this computer, so I could share a few development sites with coworkers. I can't control which site they see with the same named service, because they'd have to use my computer as their domain name server... So I added a line like this: <VirtualHost *:80> ServerName 192.168.0.111 ServerAlias MY.IP.XXX.XX DocumentRoot /home/work/wa.net/cvalley </VirtualHost> Where "MY.IP.XXX.XX" is my public IP address. This works as expected, when you hit my IP address from a public network you see the site that lives in /home/work/wa.net/cvalley. The point of confusion that I have is that there are public IP addresses in my logs in other sites. I would have expected it to be impossible to access other sites in my network, unless the public user somehow figured out what I'm calling my ServerAliases, and is mimicing my domain set up... How can public traffic be hitting my other local sites? How can I recreate this kind of access? Here are some examples of public IP's hitting my VirtualHost sites: 162.253.66.76 - - [15/Aug/2014:19:20:47 -0600] "GET /xmlrpc.php HTTP/1.0" 404 1004 "-" "-" 162.253.66.74 - - [16/Aug/2014:10:50:28 -0600] "GET / HTTP/1.0" 200 262 "-" "masscan/1.0 (https://github.com/robertdavidgraham/masscan)" 185.4.227.194 - - [16/Aug/2014:11:16:45 -0600] "GET http://24x7-allrequestsallowed.com/?PHPSESSID=1rysxtj500143WQMVT%5E_NAZ%5BQ HTTP/1.1" 200 262 "-" "-" 101.226.254.138 - - [16/Aug/2014:13:32:14 -0600] "HEAD / HTTP/1.0" 200 - "-" "-" 162.253.66.74 - - [16/Aug/2014:14:26:19 -0600] "GET / HTTP/1.0" 200 262 "-" "masscan/1.0 (https://github.com/robertdavidgraham/masscan)" 212.129.2.119 - - [16/Aug/2014:16:00:51 -0600] "HEAD / HTTP/1.0" 200 - "-" "-" 91.240.163.111 - - [16/Aug/2014:18:34:32 -0600] "GET / HTTP/1.0" 200 262 "-" "masscan/1.0 (https://github.com/robertdavidgraham/masscan)" 162.253.66.74 - - [16/Aug/2014:19:02:53 -0600] "GET / HTTP/1.0" 200 262 "-" "masscan/1.0 (https://github.com/robertdavidgraham/masscan)" 122.226.223.69 - - [17/Aug/2014:05:53:09 -0600] "GET http://www.k2proxy.com//hello.html HTTP/1.1" 404 1006 "-" "Mozilla/4.0 (compatible; MSIE 7.0; Windows NT 6.1; WOW64; Trident/6.0; SLCC2; .NET CLR 2.0.50727; .NET CLR 3.5.30729; .NET CLR 3.0.30729; Media Center PC 6.0; .NET4.0C; .NET4.0E)" ::1 - - [17/Aug/2014:10:19:26 -0600] "OPTIONS * HTTP/1.0" 200 - "-" "Apache/2.4.6 (Linux/SUSE) OpenSSL/1.0.1e PHP/5.4.20 (internal dummy connection)" 162.209.65.196 - - [17/Aug/2014:15:31:53 -0600] "HEAD / HTTP/1.0" 200 - "-" "-" 111.206.199.163 - - [18/Aug/2014:11:12:56 -0600] "HEAD / HTTP/1.0" 200 - "-" "-" 37.187.180.168 - - [18/Aug/2014:15:40:00 -0600] "HEAD / HTTP/1.0" 200 - "-" "-" 62.210.38.226 - - [18/Aug/2014:18:35:16 -0600] "HEAD / HTTP/1.0" 200 - "-" "-" Is there anything that I can do to reliably deny public access by default, but allow it only in one VirtualHost?

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• SQL 2008 R2 login/network issue

  - by martinjd

  I have a Windows Server 2008 R2 new clean install , not a VM, that I have added to a Windows Server 2003 based domain using my account which has domain admin rights. The domain functional level is 2003. I performed a clean install of SQL Server 2008 R2 using my account which has domain admin rights. The installation completed without any errors. I logged into SSMS locally and attempted to add another domain account by clicking Search, Advanced and finding the user in the domain. When I return to the "Dialog - New" window and click OK I receive the following error: Create failed for Login 'Domain\User'. (Microsoft.SqlServer.Smo) An exception occurred while executing a Transact-SQL statement or batch. (Microsoft.SqlServer.ConnectionInfo) Windows NT user or group 'Domain\User' not found. Check the name again. (Microsoft SQL Server, Error: 15401) I have verified that the firewall is off, tried adding a different domain user, tried using SA to add a user, installed the hotfix for KB 976494 and verified that the Local Security Policy for Domain Member: Digitally encrypt or sign secure channel Domain Member: Digitally encrypt secure channel Domain Member: Digitally sign secure channel are disabled none of which have made a difference. I can RDP to a Server 2003 server running SQL 2008 and add the same domain user without issue. Also if I try to connect with SSMS to the sql server from another system on the domain using my account I get the following error: Login failed. The login is from an untrusted domain and cannot be used with Windows authentication. (Microsoft SQL Server, Error: 18452) and on the database server I see the following in the security event log: An account failed to log on. Subject: Security ID: NULL SID Account Name: - Account Domain: - Logon ID: 0x0 Logon Type: 3 Account For Which Logon Failed: Security ID: NULL SID Account Name: myUserName Account Domain: MYDOMAIN Failure Information: Failure Reason: An Error occured during Logon. Status: 0xc000018d Sub Status: 0x0 Process Information: Caller Process ID: 0x0 Caller Process Name: - Network Information: Workstation Name: MYWKS Source Network Address: - Source Port: - Detailed Authentication Information: Logon Process: NtLmSsp Authentication Package: NTLM Transited Services: - Package Name (NTLM only): - Key Length: 0 I am sure that the "NULL SID" has some significant meaning but have no idea at this point what the issue could be.

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• Binding from View-Model to View-Model of a child User Control in Silverlight? 2 sources - 1 target..

  - by andrej351

  Hi there, So i have a UserControl for one of my Views and have another 'child' UserControl inside that. The outer 'parent' UserControl has a Collection on its View-Model and a Grid control on it to display a list of Items. I want to place another UserControl inside this UserControl to display a form representing the details of one Item. The outer / parent UserControl's View-Model already has a property on it to hold the currently selected Item and i would like to bind this to a DependancyProperty on the inner / child UserControl. I would then like to bind that DependancyProperty to a property on the child UserControl's View-Model. I can then set the DependancyProperty once in XAML with a binding expression and have the child UserControl do all its work in its View-Model like it should. The code i have looks like this.. Parent UserControl: <UserControl x:Class="ItemsListView" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" DataContext="{Binding Source={StaticResource ServiceLocator}, Path=ItemsListViewModel}"> <!-- Grid Control here... --> <ItemDetailsView Item="{Binding Source={StaticResource ServiceLocator}, Path=ItemsListViewModel.SelectedItem}" /> </UserControl> Child UserControl: <UserControl x:Class="ItemDetailsView" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" DataContext="{Binding Source={StaticResource ServiceLocator}, Path=ItemDetailsViewModel}" ItemDetailsView.Item="{Binding Source={StaticResource ServiceLocator}, Path=ItemDetailsViewModel.Item, Mode=TwoWay}"> <!-- Form controls here... --> </UserControl> The selected Item is bound to the DependancyProperty fine. However from the DependancyProperty to the child View-Model does not. It appears to be a situation where there are two concurrent bindings which need to work but with the same target for two sources. Why won't the second (in the child UserControl) binding work?? Is there a way to acheive the behaviour I'm after?? Cheers.

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• Json Jackson deserialization without inner classes

  - by Eto Demerzel

  Hi everyone, I have a question concerning Json deserialization using Jackson. I would like to deserialize a Json file using a class like this one: (taken from http://wiki.fasterxml.com/JacksonInFiveMinutes) public class User { public enum Gender { MALE, FEMALE }; public static class Name { private String _first, _last; public String getFirst() { return _first; } public String getLast() { return _last; } public void setFirst(String s) { _first = s; } public void setLast(String s) { _last = s; } } private Gender _gender; private Name _name; private boolean _isVerified; private byte[] _userImage; public Name getName() { return _name; } public boolean isVerified() { return _isVerified; } public Gender getGender() { return _gender; } public byte[] getUserImage() { return _userImage; } public void setName(Name n) { _name = n; } public void setVerified(boolean b) { _isVerified = b; } public void setGender(Gender g) { _gender = g; } public void setUserImage(byte[] b) { _userImage = b; } } A Json file can be deserialized using the so called "Full Data Binding" in this way: ObjectMapper mapper = new ObjectMapper(); User user = mapper.readValue(new File("user.json"), User.class); My problem is the usage of the inner class "Name". I would like to do the same thing without using inner classes. The "User" class would became like that: import Name; import Gender; public class User { private Gender _gender; private Name _name; private boolean _isVerified; private byte[] _userImage; public Name getName() { return _name; } public boolean isVerified() { return _isVerified; } public Gender getGender() { return _gender; } public byte[] getUserImage() { return _userImage; } public void setName(Name n) { _name = n; } public void setVerified(boolean b) { _isVerified = b; } public void setGender(Gender g) { _gender = g; } public void setUserImage(byte[] b) { _userImage = b; } } This means to find a way to specify to the mapper all the required classes in order to perform the deserialization. Is this possible? I looked at the documentation but I cannot find any solution. My need comes from the fact that I use the Javassist library to create such classes, and it does not support inner or anonymous classes. Thank you in advance

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• Matching blank entries in django queryset for optional field with corresponding ones in a required

  - by gramware

  I have a django queryset in my views whose values I pack before passing to my template. There is a problem when the queryset returns none since associated values are not unpacked. the quersyet is called comments. Here is my views.py def forums(request ): post_list = list(forum.objects.filter(child='0')&forum.objects.filter(deleted='0').order_by('postDate')) user = UserProfile.objects.get(pk=request.session['_auth_user_id']) newpostform = PostForm(request.POST) deletepostform = PostDeleteForm(request.POST) DelPostFormSet = modelformset_factory(forum, exclude=('child','postSubject','postBody','postPoster','postDate','childParentId')) readform = ReadForumForm(request.POST) comments =list( forum.objects.filter(deleted='0').filter(child='1').order_by('childParentId').values('childParentId').annotate(y=Count('childParentId'))) if request.user.is_staff== True : staff = 1 else: staff = 0 staffis = 1 if newpostform.is_valid(): topic = request.POST['postSubject'] poster = request.POST['postPoster'] newpostform.save() return HttpResponseRedirect('/forums') else: newpostform = PostForm(initial = {'postPoster':user.id}) if request.GET: form = SearchForm(request.GET) if form.is_valid(): query = form.cleaned_data['query'] post_list = list((forum.objects.filter(child='0')&forum.objects.filter(deleted='0')&forum.objects.filter(Q(postSubject__icontains=query)|Q(postBody__icontains=query)|Q(postDate__icontains=query)))or(forum.objects.filter(deleted='0')&forum.objects.filter(Q(postSubject__icontains=query)|Q(postBody__icontains=query)|Q(postDate__icontains=query)).values('childParentId'))) if request.method == 'POST': delpostformset = DelPostFormSet(request.POST) if delpostformset.is_valid(): delpostformset.save() return HttpResponseRedirect('/forums') else: delpostformset = DelPostFormSet(queryset=forum.objects.filter(child='0', deleted='0')) """if readform.is_valid(): user=get_object_or_404(UserProfile.objects.all()) readform.save() else: readform = ReadForumForm()""" post= zip( post_list,comments, delpostformset.forms) paginator = Paginator(post, 10) # Show 10 contacts per page # Make sure page request is an int. If not, deliver first page. try: page = int(request.GET.get('page', '1')) except ValueError: page = 1 # If page request (9999) is out of range, deliver last page of results. try: post = paginator.page(page) except (EmptyPage, InvalidPage): post = paginator.page(paginator.num_pages) return render_to_response('forum.html', {'post':post, 'newpostform': newpostform,'delpost':delpostformset, 'username':user.username, 'comments':comments, 'user':user, },context_instance = RequestContext( request )) I realised that the issue was with the comments queryset comments =list( forum.objects.filter(deleted='0').filter(child='1').order_by('childParentId').values('childParentId').annotate(y=Count('childParentId'))) which will only returns values for posts that have comments. so i now need a way to return 0 comments when a value in post-list post_list = list(forum.objects.filter(child='0')&forum.objects.filter(deleted='0').order_by('postDate')) does not have any comments (optional field). Here is my models.py class forum(models.Model): postID = models.AutoField(primary_key=True) postSubject = models.CharField(max_length=100) postBody = models.TextField() postPoster = models.ForeignKey(UserProfile) postDate = models.DateTimeField(auto_now_add=True) child = models.BooleanField() childParentId = models.ForeignKey('self',blank=True, null=True) deleted = models.BooleanField() def __unicode__(self): return u' %d' % ( self.postID)

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• C# Nested Property Accessing overloading OR Sequential Operator Overloading

  - by Tim

  Hey, I've been searching around for a solution to a tricky problem we're having with our code base. To start, our code resembles the following: class User { int id; int accountId; Account account { get { return Account.Get(accountId); } } } class Account { int accountId; OnlinePresence Presence { get { return OnlinePresence.Get(accountId); } } public static Account Get(int accountId) { // hits a database and gets back our object. } } class OnlinePresence { int accountId; bool isOnline; public static OnlinePresence Get(int accountId) { // hits a database and gets back our object. } } What we're often doing in our code is trying to access the account Presence of a user by doing var presence = user.Account.Presence; The problem with this is that this is actually making two requests to the database. One to get the Account object, and then one to get the Presence object. We could easily knock this down to one request if we did the following : var presence = UserPresence.Get(user.id); This works, but sort of requires developers to have an understanding of the UserPresence class/methods that would be nice to eliminate. I've thought of a couple of cool ways to be able to handle this problem, and was wondering if anyone knows if these are possible, if there are other ways of handling this, or if we just need to think more as we're coding and do the UserPresence.Get instead of using properties. Overload nested accessors. It would be cool if inside the User class I could write some sort of "extension" that would say "any time a User object's Account property's Presence object is being accessed, do this instead". Overload the . operator with knowledge of what comes after. If I could somehow overload the . operator only in situations where the object on the right is also being "dotted" it would be great. Both of these seem like things that could be handled at compile time, but perhaps I'm missing something (would reflection make this difficult?). Am I looking at things completely incorrectly? Is there a way of enforcing this that removes the burden from the user of the business logic? Thanks! Tim

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• Prism Commands - binding error when binding to list element ?

  - by Maciek

  I've got a ItemsControl (to be replaced by listbox) which has it's ItemsSource bound to an ObservableCollection<User> which is located in the view model. The View Model contains some DelegateCommand<T> delegates for handling commands (for instance UpdateUserCommand and RemoveUserCommand). All works fine if the buttons linked to those commands are placed outside of the DataTemplate of the control which is presenting the items. <ItemsControl ItemsSource="{Binding Users, Mode=TwoWay}" HorizontalContentAlignment="Stretch"> <ItemsControl.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate> <Grid> <Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <ColumnDefinition Width="0.2*"/> <ColumnDefinition Width="0.2*"/> <ColumnDefinition Width="0.2*"/> <ColumnDefinition Width="0.2*"/> <ColumnDefinition Width="0.2*"/> </Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <TextBlock Grid.Column="0" Text="{Binding UserName}"/> <PasswordBox Grid.Column="1" Password="{Binding UserPass}"/> <TextBox Grid.Column="2" Text="{Binding UserTypeId}"/> <Button Grid.Column="3" Content="Update" cal:Click.Command="{Binding UpdateUserCommand}" cal:Click.CommandParameter="{Binding}"/> <Button Grid.Column="4" Content="Remove" cal:Click.Command="{Binding RemoveUserCommand}" cal:Click.CommandParameter="{Binding}"/> </Grid> </DataTemplate> </ItemsControl.ItemTemplate> </ItemsControl> What I'm trying to achieve, is : Have each row - generated by the ListView/ItemsControl - contain buttons to manage the item represented that particular row. During the runtime, the VS's output panel generated the following messages for each listbox element System.Windows.Data Error: BindingExpression path error: 'UpdateUserCommand' property not found on 'ModuleAdmin.Services.User' 'ModuleAdmin.Services.User' (HashCode=35912612). BindingExpression: Path='UpdateUserCommand' DataItem='ModuleAdmin.Services.User' (HashCode=35912612); target element is 'System.Windows.Controls.Button' (Name=''); target property is 'Command' (type 'System.Windows.Input.ICommand').. System.Windows.Data Error: BindingExpression path error: 'RemoveUserCommand' property not found on 'ModuleAdmin.Services.User' 'ModuleAdmin.Services.User' (HashCode=35912612). BindingExpression: Path='RemoveUserCommand' DataItem='ModuleAdmin.Services.User' (HashCode=35912612); target element is 'System.Windows.Controls.Button' (Name=''); target property is 'Command' (type 'System.Windows.Input.ICommand').. Which would imply that there are binding errors present. Is there any way to make this right? or is this not the way?

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• Help organising controllers logically

  - by kenny99

  Hi guys, I'm working on a site which i'm developing using an MVC structure. My models will represent all of data in the site, but i'm struggling a bit to decide on a good controller structure. The site will allow users to login/register and see personal data on a number of pages, but also still have access to public pages, e.g FAQs, Contact page etc. This is what I have at the moment... A Template Controller which handles main template display. The basic template for the site will remain the same whether or not you are logged in. A main Website Controller which extends the Template Controller and handles basic authentication. If the user is logged in, a User::control_panel() method is called from the constructor and this builds the control panel which will be present throughout the authenticated session. If user is not logged in, then a different view is loaded instead of the control panel, e.g with a login form. All protected/public page related controllers will extend the website controller. The user homepage has a number of widgets I want to display, which I'm doing via a Home Controller which extends the Website Controller. This controller generates these widgets via the following static calls: $this->template->content->featured_pet = Pet::featured(); $this->template->content->popular_names = Pet::most_popular(); $this->template->content->owner_map = User::generate_map(); $this->template->content->news = News::snippet(); I suppose the first thing I'm unsure about is if the above static calls to controllers (e.g Pet and User) are ok to remain static - these static methods will return views which are loaded into the main template. This is the way I've done things in the past but I'm curious to find out if this is a sensible approach. Other protected pages for signed in users will be similar to the Home Controller. Static pages will be handled by a Page Controller which will also extend the Website Controller, so that it will know whether or not the user control panel or login form should be shown on the left hand side of the template. The protected member only pages will not be routed to the Page Controller, this controller will only handle publicly available pages. One problem I have at the moment, is that if both public and protected pages extend the Website Controller, how do I avoid an infinite loop - for example, the idea is that the website controller should handle authentication then redirect to the requested controller (URL), but this will cause an infinite redirect loop, so i need to come up with a better way of dealing with this. All in all, does this setup make any sense?! Grateful for any feedback.

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• Authlogic openid: getting undefined method openid_identifier? error in functional test

  - by usr

  I use Authlogic with the Authlogic-openid addon (I gem installed ruby- openid and script/plugin install git://github.com/rails/open_id_authentication.git) and get two errors. First when running functional test, I get an undefined method openid_identifier? message on a line in my new.html.erb file when running the UsersControllerTest. The line is: <% if @user.openid_identifier? %> When running script/console I can access this method without any problem. Second when testing the openid functionality and registering a new user to my application using openid and using my blogspot account for that I get the following in my log file: Generated checkid_setup request to http://www.blogger.com/openid-server.g with assocication ... Redirected to http://www.blogger.com/openid-server.g?openid.assoc_handle=... NoMethodError (You have a nil object when you didn't expect it! The error occurred while evaluating nil.call): app/controllers/users_controller.rb:44:in `create' /usr/lib/ruby/1.8/webrick/httpserver.rb:104:in `service' /usr/lib/ruby/1.8/webrick/httpserver.rb:65:in `run' /usr/lib/ruby/1.8/webrick/server.rb:173:in `start_thread' /usr/lib/ruby/1.8/webrick/server.rb:162:in `start' /usr/lib/ruby/1.8/webrick/server.rb:162:in `start_thread' /usr/lib/ruby/1.8/webrick/server.rb:95:in `start' /usr/lib/ruby/1.8/webrick/server.rb:92:in `each' /usr/lib/ruby/1.8/webrick/server.rb:92:in `start' /usr/lib/ruby/1.8/webrick/server.rb:23:in `start' /usr/lib/ruby/1.8/webrick/server.rb:82:in `start' The code in the users_controller is straight forward: def create respond_to do |format| @user.save do |result| if result flash[:notice] = t('Thanks for signing up!') format.html { redirect_to :action => 'index' } format.xml { render :xml => @user, :status => :created, :location => @user } else format.html { render :action => "new" } format.xml { render :xml => @user.errors, :status => :unprocessable_entity } end end end end The line giving the error being @user.save do |result|... I feel I'm missing something pretty basic but I have been staring at this for too long because I can't find what it is. I checked with the code on Railscasts episodes 160 and 170 and the bones GitHub project but found nothing. Thanks for your help, usr

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• How do you handle EF Data Contexts combined with asp.net custom membership/role providers

  - by KallDrexx

  I can't seem to get my head around how to implement a custom membership provider with Entity Framework data contexts into my asp.net MVC application. I understand how to create a custom membership/role provider by itself (using this as a reference). Here's my current setup: As of now I have a repository factory interface that allows different repository factories to be created (right now I only have a factory for EF repositories and and in memory repositories). The repository factory looks like this: public class EFRepositoryFactory : IRepositoryFactory { private EntitiesContainer _entitiesContext; /// <summary> /// Constructor that generates the necessary object contexts /// </summary> public EFRepositoryFactory() { _entitiesContext = new EntitiesContainer(); } /// <summary> /// Generates a new entity framework repository for the specified entity type /// </summary> /// <typeparam name="T">Type of entity to generate a repository for </typeparam> /// <returns>Returns an EFRepository</returns> public IRepository<T> GenerateRepository<T>() where T : class { return new EFRepository<T>(_entitiesContext); } } Controllers are passed an EF repository factory via castle Windsor. The controller then creates all the service/business layer objects it requires and passes in the repository factory into it. This means that all service objects are using the same EF data contexts and I do not have to worry about objects being used in more than one data context (which of course is not allowed and causes an exception). As of right now I am trying to decide how to generate my user and authorization service layers, and have run against a design roadblock. The User/Authization service will be a central class that handles the logic for logging in, changing user details, managing roles and determining what users have access to what. The problem is, using the current methodology the asp.net mvc controllers will initialize it's own EF repository factory via Windsor and the asp.net membership/role provider will have to initialize it's own EF repository factory. This means that each part of the site will then have it's own data context. This seems to mean that if asp.net authenticates a user, that user's object will be in the membership provider's data context and thus if I try to retrieve that user object in the service layer (say to change the user's name) I will get a duplication exception. I thought of making the repository factory class a singleton, but I don't see a way for that to work with castle Windsor. How do other people handle asp.net custom providers in a MVC (or any n-tier) architecture without having object duplication issues?

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• JVM throws OutOfMemory during gc though there are plenty memory left...

  - by Shu L.

  I have my java application configured to use 5G memory. I got an OutOfMemory out of blue. I inspected the gc log and found plenty of memory left: young generation occupies 4% allocated space, tenure generation occupancy is 5% and perm generation is 43%. I am puzzled why JVM throws an OutOfMemory at the gc time. Does anyone know why this is happening? Your help is greatly appreciated. JVM memory and gc settings: -server -Xms5g -Xmx5g -Xss256k -XX:NewSize=2g -XX:MaxNewSize=2g -XX:+UseParallelOldGC -XX:+UseTLAB -XX:SurvivorRatio=8 -XX:TargetSurvivorRatio=90 -XX:+DisableExplicitGC gc.log 2009-09-19T03:34:59.741+0000: 92836.778: [GC Desired survivor size 152567808 bytes, new threshold 1 (max 15) [PSYoungGen: 1941492K-144057K(1947072K)] 3138022K-1340830K(5092800K), 0.1947640 secs] [Times: user=0.61 sys=0.01, real=0.19 secs] 2009-09-19T03:35:29.918+0000: 92866.954: [GC Desired survivor size 152109056 bytes, new threshold 1 (max 15) [PSYoungGen: 1941625K-144049K(1948608K)] 3138398K-1341080K(5094336K), 0.1942000 secs] [Times: user=0.61 sys=0.01, real=0.20 secs] 2009-09-19T03:35:56.883+0000: 92893.920: [GC Desired survivor size 156565504 bytes, new threshold 1 (max 15) [PSYoungGen: 1567994K-115427K(1915072K)] 2765026K-1312820K(5060800K), 0.1586320 secs] [Times: user=0.50 sys=0.01, real=0.16 secs] 2009-09-19T03:35:57.042+0000: 92894.079: [GC Desired survivor size 179961856 bytes, new threshold 1 (max 15) [PSYoungGen: 115427K-0K(1898560K)] 1312820K-1313987K(5044288K), 0.0775650 secs] [Times: user=0.42 sys=0.19, real=0.08 secs] 2009-09-19T03:35:57.120+0000: 92894.157: [Full GC [PSYoungGen: 0K-0K(1898560K)] [ParOldGen: 1313987K-159522K(3145728K)] 1313987K-159522K(5044288K) [PSPermGen: 20025K-19942K(40256K)], 0.56923 00 secs] [Times: user=2.18 sys=0.05, real=0.57 secs] 2009-09-19T03:35:57.690+0000: 92894.726: [GC Desired survivor size 197066752 bytes, new threshold 1 (max 15) [PSYoungGen: 0K-0K(1745728K)] 159522K-159522K(4891456K), 0.0072590 secs] [Times: user=0.01 sys=0.00, real=0.00 secs] 2009-09-19T03:35:57.698+0000: 92894.734: [Full GC [PSYoungGen: 0K-0K(1745728K)] [ParOldGen: 159522K-158627K(3145728K)] 159522K-158627K(4891456K) [PSPermGen: 19942K-19934K(45504K)], 0.3280480 secs] [Times: user=1.46 sys=0.00, real=0.33 secs] Heap PSYoungGen total 1745728K, used 87233K [0x00002aab73650000, 0x00002aabf3650000, 0x00002aabf3650000) eden space 1745664K, 4% used [0x00002aab73650000,0x00002aab78b80778,0x00002aabddf10000) from space 64K, 0% used [0x00002aabddf10000,0x00002aabddf10000,0x00002aabddf20000) to space 192448K, 0% used [0x00002aabe7a60000,0x00002aabe7a60000,0x00002aabf3650000) ParOldGen total 3145728K, used 158627K [0x00002aaab3650000, 0x00002aab73650000, 0x00002aab73650000) object space 3145728K, 5% used [0x00002aaab3650000,0x00002aaabd138d28,0x00002aab73650000) PSPermGen total 45504K, used 19965K [0x00002aaaae250000, 0x00002aaab0ec0000, 0x00002aaab3650000) object space 45504K, 43% used [0x00002aaaae250000,0x00002aaaaf5cf668,0x00002aaab0ec0000) I am on 64-bit Linux and JRE 1.6.0_10: $uname -a Linux x 2.6.24-etchnhalf.1-amd64 #1 SMP Tue Oct 14 03:11:45 UTC 2008 x86_64 GNU/Linux $java -version java version "1.6.0_10" Java(TM) SE Runtime Environment (build 1.6.0_10-b33) Java HotSpot(TM) 64-Bit Server VM (build 11.0-b15, mixed mode)

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• How to code a keyboard button to switch between 2 modes?

  - by le.shep20

  Hi! i'm doing a project, i'm not going to details but i will simplify my idea, i'm using Morse Code ( dot and dash) and i have 2 methods: convert_MorseToChar() and Convert_MorseTonum() in the convert_MorseToChar() method there is swich to compare the input from a user which will be Morse codes and mapping it to characters: private String convert_MorseToChar(ref string Ch) { switch (Ch) { Case ".-": MorsetoChar = "a" break; Case "-...": MorsetoChar = "b" break; Case "-.-.": MorsetoChar = "c" break; Case "-..": MorsetoChar = "d" break; Case ".": MorsetoChar = "e" break; } } and the other method Convert_MorseToNum(), ues the SAME combinations of Morse codes but mapping them to numbers: private String Convert_MorseToNum(ref string Ch) { switch (Ch) { Case ".-": MorsetoChar = "1" break; Case "-...": MorsetoChar = "2" break; Case "-.-.": MorsetoChar = "3" break; Case "-..": MorsetoChar = "4" break; Case ".": MorsetoChar = "5" break; } } now the senario is: there are 2 Textbox, one the user will write Morse codes in it and the other is for the output. The user will write dot "." and dash "-" from the keyboard and press Enter then the program will go to ONE of the 2 methods to convert the Morse codes. Now what tells the program where to go to convert?? my question is: I want to create mode key to swich between 2 modes: MorseTochar and MorseToNum. i want the down arrow key to act like a mode, when a user press the down arrow then it the program will be in MorseToChar mode, when ever the user input the program directly use the method convert_MorseToChar to convert to characters. and when the user press the down arrow agian, the prohram will swich to MorseToNum mode here when ever the user input as morsecode, the program will directly use the method Convert_MorseToNum() to convert to numbers. HOW I CAN DO THAT Pleaaaas!!! help me! Please excuse my English, English is not my native language :)

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• WCF Duplex Interaction with Web Server

  - by Mark Struzinski

  Here is my scenario, and it is causing us a considerable amount of grief at the moment: We have a vendor web service which provides base level telephony functionality. This service has a SOAP api, which we are leveraging to build up a custom UI that is integrated into our in house web apps. The api functions on 2 levels. You make standard client calls into the service to initiate actions, such as Login, Place Call, Hang Up, etc. On a different thread, the service sends events back to the client to alert the user of things that are occurring on the system (agent successfully logged in, call was disconnected, etc). I implemented a WCF service to sit between the web server and the vendor service. This WCF service operates in duplex mode, establishing a 2 way connection with the web server. The web server makes outbound calls to the WCF service, which routes them to the vendor's web service. Events are received back to the WCF service, which passes them onto the web server via a callback channel on the WCF client. As events are received on the web server, they are placed into a hash table with the user's name as the key, and a .NET queue as the value to hold the event. Each event is enqueued to the agent who owns it. On a 2 second interval, the web page polls the web server via an ajax request to get new events for the logged in user. It hits the hash table for the user key, dequeues any events that are present, and serializes them back up to the web page. From there, they are processed in order and appropriate messages are displayed to the user. This implementation performs well in a single user scenario. The second I put more than 1 user on the system, I start getting frequent timeouts with the following CommunicationException: A connection attempt failed because the connected party did not properly respond after a period of time, or established connection failed because connected host has failed to respond We are running Windows Server 2008 R2 both servers. Both the web app and WCF service are running on .NET 3.5. The WCF service is running under the net.tcp protocol in duplex mode. The web app is ASP.NET MVC 2. Has anyone dealt with anything like this scenario? Is there a more efficient way (or a widely accepted pattern) to implement this?

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• MySQL table organization and optimization (Rails)

  - by aguynamedloren

  I've been learning Ruby on Rails over the past few months with no prior programming experience. Lately, I've been thinking about database optimization and table organization. I know there are great books on the subject, but I typically learn by example / as I go. Here's a hypothetical situation: Let's say I am building a social network for a niche community with 250,000 members (users). The users have the ability to attend events. Let's say there are 50,000 past/present/future events. Much like Facebook events, a user can attend any number of events and an event can have any number of attendees. In the database, there would be a table for users and a table for events. Somehow I would have to create an association between the users and events. I could create an "events" column in the users table such that each user row would contain a hash of event IDs, or I could create an "attendees" column in the events table such that each event row would contain a hash of user IDs. Neither of these solutions seem ideal, however. On a users profile page, I want to display the list of events they are associated with, which would require scanning the 50,000 event rows for the user ID of said user if I include an "attendees" column in the events table. Likewise, on an event page, I want to display a list of attendees for the event, which would require scanning the 250,000 user rows for the event ID of said event if I include an "events" column in the users table. Option 3 would be to create a third table that contains the attendee information for each and every event - but I don't see how this would solve any problems. Are these non-issues? Rails makes accessing all of this information easy, but I guess I'm worried about scale. It is entirely possible that I am under-estimating the speed and processing power of modern databases / servers / etc. How long would it take to scan 250,000 user rows for specific event IDs - 10ms? 100ms? 1,000ms? I guess that's not that bad. Am I just over-thinking this?

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• FluentNhibernate many-to-many mapping - resolving record is not inserted

  - by Dmitriy Nagirnyak

  Hi, I have a many-to-many mapping defined (only relevant fields included): // MODEL: public class User : IPersistentObject { public User() { Permissions = new HashedSet<Permission>(); } public virtual int Id { get; protected set; } public virtual ISet<Permission> Permissions { get; set; } } public class Permission : IPersistentObject { public Permission() { } public virtual int Id { get; set; } } // MAPPING: public class UserMap : ClassMap<User> { public UserMap() { Id(x => x.Id); HasManyToMany(x => x.Permissions).Cascade.All().AsSet(); } } public class PermissionMap : ClassMap<Permission> { public PermissionMap() { Id(x => x.Id).GeneratedBy.Assigned(); Map(x => x.Description); } } The following test fails as there is no record inserted into User_Permission table: [Test] public void AddingANewUserPrivilegeShouldSaveIt() { var p1 = new Permission { Id = 123, Description = "p1" }; Session.Save(p1); var u = new User { Email = "[email protected]" }; u.Permissions.Add(p1); Session.Save(u); var userId = u.Id; Session.Evict(u); Session.Get<User>(userId).Permissions.Should().Not.Be.Empty(); } The SQL executed is (SQLite): INSERT INTO "Permission" (Description, Id) VALUES (@p0, @p1);@p0 = 'p1', @p1 = 1 INSERT INTO "User" (Email) VALUES (@p0); select last_insert_rowid();@p0 = '[email protected]' SELECT user0_.Id as Id2_0_, user0_.Email as Email2_0_ FROM "User" user0_ WHERE user0_.Id=@p0;@p0 = 1 SELECT permission0_.UserId as UserId1_, permission0_.PermissionId as Permissi2_1_, permission1_.Id as Id4_0_, permission1_.Description as Descript2_4_0_ FROM User_Permissions permission0_ left outer join "Permission" permission1_ on permission0_.PermissionId=permission1_.Id WHERE permission0_.UserId=@p0;@p0 = 1 We can clearly see that there is no record inserted into the User_Permissions table where it should be. Not sure what I am doing wrong and need an advice. So can you please help me to pass this test. Thanks, Dmitriy.

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• Rails Joins and include columns from joins table

  - by seth.vargo

  I don't understand how to get the columns I want from rails. I have two models - A User and a Profile. A User :has_many Profile (because users can revert back to an earlier version of their profile): > DESCRIBE users; +----------------+--------------+------+-----+---------+----------------+ | Field | Type | Null | Key | Default | Extra | +----------------+--------------+------+-----+---------+----------------+ | id | int(11) | NO | PRI | NULL | auto_increment | | username | varchar(255) | NO | UNI | NULL | | | password | varchar(255) | NO | | NULL | | | last_login | datetime | YES | | NULL | | +----------------+--------------+------+-----+---------+----------------+   > DESCRIBE profiles; +----------------+--------------+------+-----+---------+----------------+ | Field | Type | Null | Key | Default | Extra | +----------------+--------------+------+-----+---------+----------------+ | id | int(11) | NO | PRI | NULL | auto_increment | | user_id | int(11) | NO | MUL | NULL | | | first_name | varchar(255) | NO | | NULL | | | last_name | varchar(255) | NO | | NULL | | | . . . . . . | | . . . . . . | | . . . . . . | +----------------+--------------+------+-----+---------+----------------+ In SQL, I can run the query: > SELECT * FROM profiles JOIN users ON profiles.user_id = users.id LIMIT 1; +----+-----------+----------+---------------------+---------+---------------+-----+ | id | username | password | last_login | user_id | first_name | ... | +----+-----------+----------+---------------------+---------+---------------+-----+ | 1 | john | ****** | 2010-12-30 18:04:28 | 1 | John | ... | +----+-----------+----------+---------------------+---------+---------------+-----+ See how I get all the columns for BOTH tables JOINED together? However, when I run this same query in Rails, I don't get all the columns I want - I only get those from Profile: # in rails console >> p = Profile.joins(:user).limit(1) >> [#<Profile ...>] >> p.first_name >> NoMethodError: undefined method `first_name' for #<ActiveRecord::Relation:0x102b521d0> from /Library/Ruby/Gems/1.8/gems/activerecord-3.0.1/lib/active_record/relation.rb:373:in `method_missing' from (irb):8 # I do NOT want to do this (AKA I do NOT want to use "includes") >> p.user >> NoMethodError: undefined method `user' for #<ActiveRecord::Relation:0x102b521d0> from /Library/Ruby/Gems/1.8/gems/activerecord-3.0.1/lib/active_record/relation.rb:373:in method_missing' from (irb):9 I want to (efficiently) return an object that has all the properties of Profile and User together. I don't want to :include the user because it doesn't make sense. The user should always be part of the most recent profile as if they were fields within the Profile model. How do I accomplish this?

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• How to make this sub-sub-query work?

  - by Josh Weissbock

  I am trying to do this in one query. I asked a similar question a few days ago but my personal requirements have changed. I have a game type website where users can attend "classes". There are three tables in my DB. I am using MySQL. I have four tables: hl_classes (int id, int professor, varchar class, text description) hl_classes_lessons (int id, int class_id, varchar lessonTitle, varchar lexiconLink, text lessonData) hl_classes_answers (int id, int lesson_id, int student, text submit_answer, int percent) hl_classes stores all of the classes on the website. The lessons are the individual lessons for each class. A class can have infinite lessons. Each lesson is available in a specific term. hl_classes_terms stores a list of all the terms and the current term has the field active = '1'. When a user submits their answers to a lesson it is stored in hl_classes_answers. A user can only answer each lesson once. Lessons have to be answered sequentially. All users attend all "classes". What I am trying to do is grab the next lesson for each user to do in each class. When the users start they are in term 1. When they complete all 10 lessons in each class they move on to term 2. When they finish lesson 20 for each class they move on to term 3. Let's say we know the term the user is in by the PHP variable $term. So this is my query I am currently trying to massage out but it doesn't work. Specifically because of the hC.id is unknown in the WHERE clause SELECT hC.id, hC.class, (SELECT MIN(output.id) as nextLessonID FROM ( SELECT id, class_id FROM hl_classes_lessons hL WHERE hL.class_id = hC.id ORDER BY hL.id LIMIT $term,10 ) as output WHERE output.id NOT IN (SELECT lesson_id FROM hl_classes_answers WHERE student = $USER_ID)) as nextLessonID FROM hl_classes hC My logic behind this query is first to For each class; select all of the lessons in the term the current user is in. From this sort out the lessons the user has already done and grab the MINIMUM id of the lessons yet to be done. This will be the lesson the user has to do. I hope I have made my question clear enough.

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• Mapping two tables 0..n in Hibernate

  - by simon

  I have a table Users CREATE TABLE "USERS" ( "ID" NUMBER NOT NULL , "LOGINNAME" VARCHAR2 (150) NOT NULL ) and I have a second table SpecialUsers. No UserId can occur twice in the SpecialUsers table, and only a small subset of the ids of users in the Users table are contained in the SpecialUsers table. CREATE TABLE "SPECIALUSERS" ( "USERID" NUMBER NOT NULL, CONSTRAINT "PK_SPECIALUSERS" PRIMARY KEY ("USERID") ) ALTER TABLE "SPECIALUSERS" ADD CONSTRAINT "FK_SPECIALUSERS_USERID" FOREIGN KEY ("USERID") REFERENCES "USERS" ("ID") / Mapping the Users table in Hibernate works ok <hibernate-mapping package="com.initech.domain"> <class name="com.initech.User" table="USERS"> <id name="id" column="ID" type="java.lang.Long"> <meta attribute="use-in-tostring">true</meta> <generator class="sequence"> <param name="sequence">SEQ_USERS_ID</param> </generator> </id> <property name="loginName" column="LOGINNAME" type="java.lang.String" not-null="true"> <meta attribute="use-in-tostring">true</meta> </property> </class> </hibernate-mapping> But I'm struggling in creating the mapping for the SpecialUsers table. All the examples (e.g. in Hibernate documentation) in Internet I found don't have this type of self-reference. I tried a mapping like this: <hibernate-mapping package="com.initech.domain"> <class name="com.initech.User" table="SPECIALUSERS"> <id name="id" column="USERID"> <meta attribute="use-in-tostring">true</meta> <generator class="foreign"> <param name="property">user</param> </generator> </id> <one-to-one name="user" class="User"/> </class> </hibernate-mapping> but got the error Invocation of init method failed; nested exception is org.hibernate.DuplicateMappingException: Duplicate class/entity mapping com.initech.User How should I map the SpecialUsers table? What I need on the application level is a list of the User objects contained in the SpecialUsers table.

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• Zend_Auth / Zend_Session error and storing objects in Auth Storage

  - by Martin

  Hi All, I have been having a bit of a problem with Zend_Auth and keep getting an error within my Acl. Within my Login Controller I setup my Zend_Auth storage as follows $auth = Zend_Auth::getInstance(); $result = $auth->authenticate($adapter); if ($result->isValid()) { $userId = $adapter->getResultRowObject(array('user_id'), null)->user_id; $user = new User_Model_User; $users = new User_Model_UserMapper; $users->find($userId, $user); $auth->getStorage()->write( $user ); } This seems to work well and I am able to use the object stored in the Zend_Auth storage within View Helpers without any problems. The problem that I seem to be having is when I try to use this within my Acl, below is a snippet from my Acl, as soon as it gets to the if($auth->hasIdentity()) { line I get the exception detailed further down. The $user->getUserLevel() is a methord within the User Model that allows me to convert the user_level_id that is stored in the database to a meaning full name. I am assuming that the auto loader sees these kind of methords and tries to load all the classes that would be required. When looking at the exception it appears to be struggling to find the class as it is stored in a module, I have the Auto Loader Name Space setup in my application.ini. Could anyone help with resolving this? class App_Controller_Plugin_Acl extends Zend_Controller_Plugin_Abstract { protected $_roleName; public function __construct() { $auth = Zend_Auth::getInstance(); if($auth->hasIdentity()) { $user = $auth->getIdentity(); $this->_roleName = strtolower($user->getUserLevel()); } else { $this->_roleName = 'guest'; } } } Fatal error: Uncaught exception 'Zend_Session_Exception' with message 'Zend_Session::start() - \Web\library\Zend\Loader.php(Line:146): Error #2 include_once() [&lt;a href='function.include'&gt;function.include&lt;/a&gt;]: Failed opening 'Menu\Model\UserLevel.php' for inclusion (include_path='\Web\application/../library;\Web\library;.;C:\php5\pear') Array' in \Web\library\Zend\Session.php:493 Stack trace: #0 \Web\library\Zend\Session\Namespace.php(143): Zend_Session::start(true) #1 \Web\library\Zend\Auth\Storage\Session.php(87): Zend_Session_Namespace-&gt;__construct('Zend_Auth') #2 \Web\library\Zend\Auth.php(91): Zend_Auth_Storage_Session-&gt;__construct() #3 \Web\library\Zend\A in \Web\library\Zend\Session.php on line 493 Thanks, Martin

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• Event sourcing: Write event before or after updating the model

  - by Magnus

  I'm reasoning about event sourcing and often I arrive at a chicken and egg problem. Would be grateful for some hints on how to reason around this. If I execute all I/O-bound processing async (ie writing to the event log) then how do I handle, or sometimes even detect, failures? I'm using Akka Actors so processing is sequential for each event/message. I do not have any database at this time, instead I would persist all the events in an event log and then keep an aggregated state of all the events in a model stored in memory. Queries are all against this model, you can consider it to be a cache. Example Creating a new user: Validate that the user does not exist in model Persist event to journal Update model (in memory) If step 3 breaks I still have persisted my event so I can replay it at a later date. If step 2 breaks I can handle that as well gracefully. This is fine, but since step 2 is I/O-bound I figured that I should do I/O in a separate actor to free up the first actor for queries: Updating a user while allowing queries (A0 = Front end/GUI actor, A1 = Processor Actor, A2 = IO-actor, E = event bus). (A0-E-A1) Event is published to update user 'U1'. Validate that the user 'U1' exists in model (A1-A2) Persist event to journal (separate actor) (A0-E-A1-A0) Query for user 'U1' profile (A2-A1) Event is now persisted continue to update model (A0-E-A1-A0) Query for user 'U1' profile (now returns fresh data) This is appealing since queries can be processed while I/O-is churning along at it's own pace. But now I can cause myself all kinds of problems where I could have two incompatible commands (delete and then update) be persisted to the event log and crash on me when replayed up at a later date, since I do the validation before persisting the event and then update the model. My aim is to have a simple reasoning around my model (since Actor processes messages sequentially single threaded) but not be waiting for I/O-bound updates when Querying. I get the feeling I'm modeling a database which in itself is might be a problem. If things are unclear please write a comment.

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• Need Help on OAuthException Code 2500

  - by Deepak

  I am trying to develop an Facebook application (apps.facebook.com/some_app) using PHP where I need to present some information based on user's music interests. I found that its under "user_likes games". My problems are as follows: To gain access, I have implemented the oauth dialog method as suggested in API in my index page. $auth_url = "http://www.facebook.com/dialog/oauth?client_id=" . $app_id . "&redirect_uri=" . urlencode($canvas_page) ."&scope=user_likes"; After successful authorization I come back to index page with "code" as parameters. http://MY_CANVAS_PAGE/?code=some base64 encoded letters Firstly I don't know if I need access_token just to read user's music interests but I have tried all the methods suggested. I couldn't move forward from this point I have a code like this (in my index page), which redirects for authorization if code parameters is not set. if(empty($code) && !isset($_REQUEST['error'])) { $_SESSION['state'] = md5(uniqid(rand(), TRUE)); //CSRF protection echo("<script> top.location.href='" . $auth_url . "'</script>"); } Currently I am just trying to get user's public information here but with no success. I have tried the signed_request method as suggested but no success $signed_request = $_REQUEST["signed_request"]; list($encoded_sig, $payload) = explode('.', $signed_request, 2); $data = json_decode(base64_decode(strtr($payload, '-_', '+/')), true); echo ("Welcome User: " . $data["user_id"]); Also tried the code found in http://developers.facebook.com/blog/post/500/ but I am getting error when trying to get the debug info using print_r($decoded_response); stdClass Object ( [error] => stdClass Object ( [message] => An active access token must be used to query information about the current user. [type] => OAuthException [code] => 2500 ) ) To get user's public info, I have tried also the suggested example in PHP SDK $facebook = new Facebook(array( 'appId' => MY_APP_ID, //registered facebook APP ID 'secret' => MY_SECRET, //secret key for APP )); $fb_user = $facebook->getUser(); if($fb_user){ try { $user_profile = $facebook->api('/me'); echo $user_profile['email']; } catch(FacebookApiException $e) { $fb_user = null; } } But no success. Can somebody explain me why I am getting this error and how to access the user's music interest properly. Probably I misunderstood the API. Thanks Deepak

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• A scheme for expiring downloaded content?

  - by Chad Johnson

  I am going to offer a web API service that allows users to download and "rent" content for a monthly subscription fee. The API will either be open to everyone or possibly just select parties (not sure yet). Each developer must agree to a license, and they receive a developer key for their person. Each software application will have its own key as well. So then end-users will download the software which will interact with my service's API. Each user will have a key for each application as well (probably using OAuth). Content will be cached on first download and accessible offline via just the third-party application that cached the content. If a user cancels their subscription, I plan on doing the following: Deactivate the user's OAuth key for all applications. Do not allow the user's account to download new content via the API (and subsequently any software that uses the API). Now, the big question is: how do I make content expire if they cancel their subscription? If they cancel, they should not have access to content anymore. Here are ideas I've thought of (some of these are half-solutions, not yet fully fleshed out): Require that applications encrypt downloaded content using the user's OAuth key, making it available to only the application. This will prevent most users from going to the cache directory and just copying and keeping files. Update the user's key once a month, forcing content to re-cache on a monthly basic. Users could then access content for a month after they cancel their subscription. Require applications to "phone home" [to the service] periodically and check whether the user's subscription has terminated. If so, require in the API developer license that applications expire cache. If it is found that applications do not comply, their keys (and possibly keys for all developers) are permanently deactivated as a consequence. One major worry is that some applications may blatantly ignore constraints of the license. Is it generally acceptable to rely on applications abiding by the licensing constraints? Bad idea? Any other ideas? Maybe a way to make content auto-expire after x days? Something else? I'm open to out-of-the-box ideas.

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• JavaScript - Cross Site Scripting - Permission Denied

  - by Villager

  Hello, I have a web application for which I am trying to use Twitter's OAuth functionality. This application has a link that prompts a user for their Twitter credentials. When a user clicks this link, a new window is opened via JavaScript. This window serves as a dialog. This is accomplished like such: MainPage: <div id="promptDiv"><a href="#" onclick="launchDialog('twitter/prompt.aspx');">Provide Credentials</a></div> ... function launchDialog(url) { var specs = "location=0,menubar=0,status=0,titlebar=0,toolbar=0"; var dialogWindow = window.open(url, "dialog", specs, true); } When a user clicks the link, they are redirected to Twitter's site from the prompt.aspx page. On the Twitter site, the user has the option to enter their Twitter credentials. When they have provided their credentials, they are redirected back to my site. This is accomplished through a callback url which can be set for applications on Twitter's site. When the callback happens, the user is redirected to "/twitter/confirm.aspx" on my site in the dialog window. When this happens I want to update the contents of "promptDiv" to say "You have successfully connected with Twitter" to replace the link and close the dialog. This serves the purpose of notifying the user they have successfully completed this step. I can successfully close the dialog window. However, when I am try to update the HTML DOM, I receive an error that says "Error: Permission denied to get property Window.document". In an attempt to update the HTML DOM, I tried using the following script in "/twitter/confirm.aspx": // Error is thrown on the first line. var confirmDiv = window.opener.document.getElementById("confirmDiv"); if (confirmDiv != null) { // Update the contents } window.close(); I then just tried to read the HTML to see if I could even access the DOM via the following script: alert(window.opener.document.body.innerHTML); When I attempted this, I still got a "Permission denied" error. I know this has something to do with cross-site scripting. However, I do not know how to resolve it. How do I fix this problem? Am I structuring my application incorrectly? How do I update the HTML DOM after a user has been redirected back to my site? Thank you for your help!

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• Grid sorting with persistent master sort

  - by MikeWyatt

  I have a UI with a grid. Each record in the grid is sorted by a "master" sort column, let's call it a page number. Each record is a story in a magazine. I want the user to be able to drag and drop a record to a new position in the grid and automatically update the page number field to reflect the updated position. Easy enough, right? Now imagine that I also want to have the grid sortable by any other column (story title, section, author name, etc.). How does the drag and drop operation work now? Revert to page number sort during or after the drag and drop operation? This could confuse the user (why did my sort just change?). It would also result in arbitrary row positioning. Would the story now be before the row that was after it when the user dropped it? Or, would it be after the row that was before it? Those rows may now be widely separated after the master order sort. Disable the drag and drop feature if the grid isn't currently sorted by the page number? This would be easy, but the user might wonder why he can't drag and drop at certain times. Knowing to first sort by page number may not be very intuitive. Let the user rearrange his rows, but not make any changes to the page number? Require the user to enter a "Arrange Stories" mode, in which the grid sort is temporarily switched to page number and drag and drop is enabled? They would then exit the mode, and the previous sort would be reapplied. The big difference between this and the second option is that it would be more explicit than simply clicking on a column header. Any other ideas, or reasons why one of the above is the way to go? EDIT I'd like to point out that any of the above is technically possible, and easy to implement. My question is design-related. What is the most intuitive way to solve this problem, from the user's perspective?

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• Is a many-to-many relationship with extra fields the right tool for my job?

  - by whichhand

  Previously had a go at asking a more specific version of this question, but had trouble articulating what my question was. On reflection that made me doubt if my chosen solution was correct for the problem, so this time I will explain the problem and ask if a) I am on the right track and b) if there is a way around my current brick wall. I am currently building a web interface to enable an existing database to be interrogated by (a small number of) users. Sticking with the analogy from the docs, I have models that look something like this: class Musician(models.Model): first_name = models.CharField(max_length=50) last_name = models.CharField(max_length=50) dob = models.DateField() class Album(models.Model): artist = models.ForeignKey(Musician) name = models.CharField(max_length=100) class Instrument(models.Model): artist = models.ForeignKey(Musician) name = models.CharField(max_length=100) Where I have one central table (Musician) and several tables of associated data that are related by either ForeignKey or OneToOneFields. Users interact with the database by creating filtering criteria to select a subset of Musicians based on data the data on the main or related tables. Likewise, the users can then select what piece of data is used to rank results that are presented to them. The results are then viewed initially as a 2 dimensional table with a single row per Musician with selected data fields (or aggregates) in each column. To give you some idea of scale, the database has ~5,000 Musicians with around 20 fields of related data. Up to here is fine and I have a working implementation. However, it is important that I have the ability for a given user to upload there own annotation data sets (more than one) and then filter and order on these in the same way they can with the existing data. The way I had tried to do this was to add the models: class UserDataSets(models.Model): user = models.ForeignKey(User) name = models.CharField(max_length=100) description = models.CharField(max_length=64) results = models.ManyToManyField(Musician, through='UserData') class UserData(models.Model): artist = models.ForeignKey(Musician) dataset = models.ForeignKey(UserDataSets) score = models.IntegerField() class Meta: unique_together = (("artist", "dataset"),) I have a simple upload mechanism enabling users to upload a data set file that consists of 1 to 1 relationship between a Musician and their "score". Within a given user dataset each artist will be unique, but different datasets are independent from each other and will often contain entries for the same musician. This worked fine for displaying the data, starting from a given artist I can do something like this: artist = Musician.objects.get(pk=1) dataset = UserDataSets.objects.get(pk=5) print artist.userdata_set.get(dataset=dataset.pk) However, this approach fell over when I came to implement the filtering and ordering of query set of musicians based on the data contained in a single user data set. For example, I could easily order the query set based on all of the data in the UserData table like this: artists = Musician.objects.all().order_by(userdata__score) But that does not help me order by the results of a given single user dataset. Likewise I need to be able to filter the query set based on the "scores" from different user data sets (eg find all musicians with a score 5 in dataset1 and < 2 in dataset2). Is there a way of doing this, or am I going about the whole thing wrong?

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