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  • Newbie question about controllers in ASP.Net MVC.

    - by Sergio Tapia
    I'm following a tutorial on creating the NerdDinner using ASP.Net MVC. However, I'm using Visual Studio 2010 Ultimate edition and there was only MVC2 to choose from. So I've following the tutorial so far, and everything is really clicking and being really well explained, until this little hitch. The guide is asking me to create new methods on a Controller file like so: using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Web; using System.Web.Mvc; namespace NerdDinner.Controllers { public class DinnersController : Controller { public void Index(){ Response.Write("<h1>Coming Soon: Dinners</h1>"); } public void Details(int id) { Response.Write("<h1>Details DinnerID: " + id + "</h1>"); } } } However, when I created the Controllers file, Visual Studio created an Index method already, but it looks vastly different to what the tutorial shows. Maybe this is the new way to do things using MVC2? using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Web; using System.Web.Mvc; namespace NerdDinner.Controllers { public class DinnersController : Controller { // // GET: /Dinners/ public ActionResult Index() { return View(); } } } My question is, how can I reproduce the Details and Index method (they're in MVC) to the MVC2 way? Is this even relevant? Thank you!

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  • TDD test data loading methods

    - by Dave Hanson
    I am a TDD newb and I would like to figure out how to test the following code. I am trying to write my tests first, but I am having trouble for creating a test that touches my DataAccessor. I can't figure out how to fake it. I've done the extend the shipment class and override the Load() method; to continue testing the object. I feel as though I end up unit testing my Mock objects/stubs and not my real objects. I thought in TDD the unit tests were supposed to hit ALL of the methods on the object; however I can never seem to test that Load() code only the overriden Mock Load My tests were write an object that contains a list of orders based off of shipment number. I have an object that loads itself from the database. public class Shipment { //member variables protected List<string> _listOfOrders = new List<string>(); protected string _id = "" //public properties public List<string> ListOrders { get{ return _listOfOrders; } } public Shipment(string id) { _id = id; Load(); } //PROBLEM METHOD // whenever I write code that needs this Shipment object, this method tries // to hit the DB and fubars my tests // the only way to get around is to have all my tests run on a fake Shipment object. protected void Load() { _listOfOrders = DataAccessor.GetOrders(_id); } } I create my fake shipment class to test the rest of the classes methods .I can't ever test the Real load method without having an actual DB connection public class FakeShipment : Shipment { protected new void Load() { _listOfOrders = new List<string>(); } } Any thoughts? Please advise. Dave

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  • Force Oracle error on fetch

    - by Dan
    I am trying to debug a strange behavior in my application. In order to do so, I need to reproduce a scenario where an SQL SELECT query will throw an error, but only while actually fetching from the cursor, not while executing the query itself. Can this be done? Any error will do, but ORA-01722: invalid number seems like the obvious one to try. I created a table with the follwing: KEYCOL INTEGER PRIMARY KEY OTHERCOL VARCHAR2(100) I then created a few hundred rows with unique values for the primary key and the value l for the othercol. I then ran a SELECT * query, picked a row somewhere in the middle, and updated it to the string abcd. I ran the query SELECT KEYCOL, TO_NUMBER(OTHERCOL) FROM SOMETABLE hoping to get some rows of good data an then an error later. But I keep getting ORA-01722: invalid number on the execute step itself. I have gotten this behavior programmatically using ADO (with server-side cursor) and JDBC, as well as from PL/SQL Developer. How can I get the result I'm looking for? thanks Edit - meant to add, when using ADO, I am only calling Command.Execute. I am not creating or opening a Recordset.

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  • C# trying to capture the KeyDown event on a form

    - by Patrick
    Hello! I am creating a small game, the game is printed onto a panel on a windows form. Now i want to capture the keydown event to see if its the arrow keys that has been pressed, the problem however is that i can't seem to capture it. Let me explain, on the form i have 4 buttons and various other controls and if the user for instance press one of the buttons (to trigger a game event) then the button has focus and i can't capture the movements with the arrow keys. I tried something like private void KeyDown(KeyEventArgs e) { if (e.KeyCode == Keys.Left) { game.MovePlayer(DonutWarsLibrary.GameObjects.Direction.E); game.DrawObjects(panel1.CreateGraphics()); } else if (e.KeyCode == Keys.Right) { game.MovePlayer(DonutWarsLibrary.GameObjects.Direction.W); game.DrawObjects(panel1.CreateGraphics()); } else if (e.KeyCode == Keys.Up) { game.MovePlayer(DonutWarsLibrary.GameObjects.Direction.N); game.DrawObjects(panel1.CreateGraphics()); } else if (e.KeyCode == Keys.Down) { game.MovePlayer(DonutWarsLibrary.GameObjects.Direction.S); game.DrawObjects(panel1.CreateGraphics()); } } and then when the form key down event was pressed, i used this private void MainForm_KeyDown(object sender, KeyEventArgs e) { KeyDown(e); } I also added keydown for the buttons and the various other controls on the windows form, but i am not getting any response back. I have setup a breakpoint inside the function to see if it's being called, but that breakpoint never triggers? Any ideas? The most optimal was to have a general KeyDown event that triggers (regardless of what control that currently has focus) and then calls the KeyDown method.

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  • How to create an Universal Binary for iTunes Connect Distribution?

    - by balexandre
    I created an app that was rejected because Apple say that my App was not showing the correct iPad window and it was showing the same iPhone screen but top left aligned. Running on simulator, I get my App to show exactly what it should, a big iPad View. my app as Apple referees that is showing on device: my app running the simulator (50% zoom only): my code in the Application Delegate is the one I published before - (BOOL)application:(UIApplication *)application didFinishLaunchingWithOptions:(NSDictionary *)launchOptions { // The default have the line below, let us comment it //MainViewController *aController = [[MainViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"MainView" bundle:nil]; // Our main controller MainViewController *aController = nil; // Is this OS 3.2.0+ ? #if __IPHONE_OS_VERSION_MAX_ALLOWED >= 30200 if (UI_USER_INTERFACE_IDIOM() == UIUserInterfaceIdiomPad) // It's an iPad, let's set the MainView to our MainView-iPad aController = [[MainViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"MainView-iPad" bundle:nil]; else // This is a 3.2.0+ but not an iPad (for future, when iPhone/iPod Touch runs with same OS than iPad) aController = [[MainViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"MainView" bundle:nil]; #else // It's an iPhone/iPod Touch (OS < 3.2.0) aController = [[MainViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"MainView" bundle:nil]; #endif // Let's continue our default code self.mainViewController = aController; [aController release]; mainViewController.view.frame = [UIScreen mainScreen].applicationFrame; [window addSubview:[mainViewController view]]; [window makeKeyAndVisible]; return YES; } on my target info I have iPhone/iPad My question is, how should I build the app? Use Base SDK iPhone Simulator 3.1.3 iPhone Simulator 3.2 my Active Configuration is Distribution and Active Architecture is arm6 Can anyone that already published app into iTunes Connect explain me the settings? P.S. I followed the Developer Guideline on Building and Installing your Development Application that is found on Creating and Downloading Development Provisioning Profiles but does not say anything regarding this, as I did exactly and the app was rejected.

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  • JAVA vs .NET - Choice for way to go further [closed]

    - by Sarang
    I have my subject .Net acedemically. I also learned core Java and did a project as well. I took training from a Java firm. Now, as a skill I do have knowledge as both language. But, it is creating a large problem to me that, which field I should chhose? Even if having better OOP fundamentals, will it be easier for me to transfer from one to another in the future ? Please suggest me a way. Also, we do have may technologies available at both side, like JSP, JSF, J2ME, Share Point, SilverLight etc. Which is better as per their reliabity point of view? Which are fast growing and useful technologies used mostly in current IT corporate world ? Are they easier to learn at fresher's point of view? Please answer. Perhaps, this answer may help me mostly to create my way to learn them and go further. Every IT developer, please help to find me my way.

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  • Remove CKEdit Instance

    - by Laramie
    I have an issue creating multiple instances of CKEdit with different toolbars wherein the second instance created is replacing the toolbar of the first. Unfortunately I can only reproduce it in a huge page containing update panels, which I suspect is the issue. That said, the issue at this point is I can't seem to destroy instances of CKEdit per the documentation. Consider the following: <input name="txt1" type="text" id="txt1" /><br /> <a href="javascript:void(0);" onclick="create()">Create</a><br /> <a href="javascript:void(0);" onclick="destroy()">Destroy</a> <script type= "text/javascript" > <!-- function create() { var hEd = CKEDITOR.instances['txt1']; if (hEd) { CKEDITOR.remove(hEd); } hEd = CKEDITOR.replace('txt1'); } function destroy(){ var hEd = CKEDITOR.instances['txt1']; if (hEd) { CKEDITOR.remove(hEd); } } --> </script> When destroy() runs, CKEDITOR.remove(hEd); is being called. Multiple clicks to create() produce multiple instances of CKEditor on screen, but their instances no longer appear in CKEDITOR.instances. Am I missing something?

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  • Problem with dropdownbox length

    - by vikitor
    Hello, I'm creating a javascript method that populates lists depending on a radio button selected previously. As it depends on animals or plants to populate it, my problem comes when I have to populate it after it's already been populated. I mean, the plants dropdownlist has 88 elements, and the animals is 888, when I try to come back from animals to plants, I get some of the animals. I know that my controller method is working properly because it returns the values I select, so the problem is the javascript method. Here is the code: if(selector == "sOrder") alert(document.getElementById(selector).options.length); for (i = 0; i < document.getElementById(selector).options.length; i++) { document.getElementById(selector).remove(i); } if (selector == "sOrder") alert(document.getElementById(selector).options.length); document.getElementById(selector).options[0] = new Option("-select-", "0", true, true); for (i = 1; i <= data.length; i++) { document.getElementById(selector).options[i] = new Option(data[i - 1].taxName, data[i - 1].taxRecID);} Here is the strange thing, when I enter the method I try to erase all the elements of the dropdownlist in order to populate it afterwards. As sOrder is the same selector I had previously selected, I get the elements, the thing is that the first alert I get the proper result, 888, but in the second alert, I should get a 0 right? It shows 444, so when I populate it again it just overrides the first 88 plants and then animals till 444. What am I doing wrong? Thank you all in advance, Victor

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  • Inserting "null" (literally) in to a stored procedure parameter.

    - by Nazadus
    I'm trying to insert the word "Null" (literally) in to a parameter for a stored procedure. For some reason SqlServer seems to think I mean NULL and not "Null". If I do a check for IF @LastName IS NULL // Test: Do stuff Then it bypasses that because the parameter isn't null. But when I do: INSERT INTO Person (<params>) VALUES (<stuff here>, @LastName, <more stuff here>); // LastName is 'Null' It bombs out saying that LastName doesn't accept nulls. I would seriously hate to have this last name, but someone does... and it's bombing the application. We're using SubSonic 2.0 (yeah, it's fairly old but upgrading is painful) as our DAL and stepping through it, I see it does create the parameters properly (for what I can tell). I've tried creating a temp table to see if I could replicate it manually but it seems to work just fine. Here is the example I create: DECLARE @myval VARCHAR(50) SET @myval = 'Null' CREATE TABLE #mytable( name VARCHAR(50)) INSERT INTO #mytable VALUES (@myval) SELECT * FROM #mytable DROP table #mytable Any thoughts on how I can fix this?

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  • Producing Mini Dumps for _caught_ SEH exceptions in mixed code DLL

    - by Assaf Lavie
    I'm trying to use code similar to clrdump to create mini dumps in my managed process. This managed process invokes C++/CLI code which invokes some native C++ static lib code, wherein SEH exceptions may be thrown (e.g. the occasional access violation). C# WinForms -> C++/CLI DLL -> Static C++ Lib -> ACCESS VIOLATION Our policy is to produce mini dumps for all SEH exceptions (caught & uncaught) and then translate them to C++ exceptions to be handled by application code. This works for purely native processes just fine; but when the application is a C# application - not so much. The only way I see to produce dumps from SEH exceptions in a C# process is to not catch them - and then, as unhandled exceptions, use the Application.ThreadException handler to create a mini dump. The alternative is to let the CLR translate the SEH exception into a .Net exception and catch it (e.g. System.AccessViolationException) - but that would mean no dump is created, and information is lost (stack trace information in Exception isn't as rich as the mini dump). So how can I handle SEH exceptions by both creating a minidump and translating the exception into a .Net exception so that my application may try to recover?

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  • Class; Struct; Enum confusion, what is better?

    - by Angel Brighteyes
    I have 46 rows of information, 2 columns each row ("Code Number", "Description"). These codes are returned to the client dependent upon the success or failure of their initial submission request. I do not want to use a database file (csv, sqlite, etc) for the storage/access. The closest type that I can think of for how I want these codes to be shown to the client is the exception class. Correct me if I'm wrong, but from what I can tell enums do not allow strings, though this sort of structure seemed the better option initially based on how it works (e.g. 100 = "missing name in request"). Thinking about it, creating a class might be the best modus operandi. However I would appreciate more experienced advice or direction and input from those who might have been in a similar situation. Currently this is what I have: class ReturnCode { private int _code; private string _message; public ReturnCode(int code) { Code = code; } public int Code { get { return _code; } set { _code = value; _message = RetrieveMessage(value); } } public string Message { get { return _message; } } private string RetrieveMessage(int value) { string message; switch (value) { case 100: message = "Request completed successfuly"; break; case 201: message = "Missing name in request."; break; default: message = "Unexpected failure, please email for support"; break; } return message; } }

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  • Programmatical Creation of NSMappingModel

    - by enchilada
    I want to programmatically (without Lightweight Migration) create a mapping model between two models that are exactly the same, except one of the entities (there are a bunch of entities) has different attributes. Let's call this entity "Person". And let's say the destination model has 1) added a new attribute called "address" 2) deleted an attribute called "eyeColor" 3) kept (i.e. not done anything with) an attribute called "name" How would you create an NSMappingModel between these models programmatically? I happen to have some explicit questions that might help me do this by myself: Q1) Do I have to create NSEntityMapping objects for all of the entities other than "Person", even if they remain unchanged? Q2) How do I deal with the "address" attribute in "Person", which is a new one being created? Should I create an NSPropertyMapping for that somehow, that turns nothing into something ("address")? Q3) How do I deal with the "name" attribute in "Person"? Do I have to create an NSPropertyMapping for that, even though it simply stays the same? Q4) For the NSEntityMapping corresponding to "Person", is not creating any NSPropertyMapping for "eyeColor" a proper way to get it deleted? Or should I create an NSPropertyMapping for "eyeColor"? If yes, how would this object be created, i.e. what would determine that its purpose is to get rid of "eyeColor"? Thank you in advance, and I apologize not being able to answer these questions myself, as the documenation really has no good example of how to create NSMappingModels programmatically. Note again that I'm not allowed to use Lightweight Migration. I must do this manually.

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  • Connect two client sockets

    - by Hernán Eche
    Good morning, let's say Java has two kind of sockets... server sockets "ServerSocket" client sockets or just "Socket" ////so Simple ! Imagine the situation of two processes: X Client <-- Y Server The server process Y : has a "ServerSocket", that is listening to a TCP port The client process X : send a connection request through a -client type- "Socket" X ////so Simple ! then the accept() method (in server Y) returns a new client type "Socket", when it occurs, great the two Sockets get "interconected", so the -client socket- in client process, is connected with the -client socket- in the server process then (reading/writing in socket X is like reading/writing in socket Y, and viceversa. ) TWO CLIENT SOCKETS GET INTERCONECTED!! ////so Simple ! BUT... (there is always a But..) What if I create the two CLIENT sockets in same process, and I want to get them "interconected" ? ////mmm Complex =(... even posible? Let's say how to have TWO CLIENT SOCKETS GET INTERCONECTED WITHOUT using an intermediate ServerSocket ? I 've solved it.. by creating two threads for continuously reading A and writing B, and other for reading B and writng A... but I think could be a better way..(or should!) (Those world-energy-consuming threads are not necessary with the client-server aproach) Any help or advice would be appreciated!! Thanks

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  • Sorting, Filtering and Paging in ASP.NET MVC

    - by ali62b
    What is the best approach to implement these features and which part of project would involved? I see some example of JavaScript grids, but I'm talking about a general approach which best fits the MVC architecture. I've considered configuring routes and models to implement these features but I don't have a clear idea that if this is the right approach to implementing such features. On the one hand, I think if we put logic in routes (item/page/sort/), we would have benefits like bookmarking and avoiding JavaScript. On the other hand if we use JavaScript grids, we can have behavior like the old school grid views in ASP.NET web forms. I find that using HTML helpers may be useful for paging, but have no idea if they are good for sorting or not. I've looked at jQuery, tableSorter and quick search plug-ins, but they work just on the currently-fetched data and won't help in real sorting and filtering that may need to touch the database. I have some thoughts on using these tools side by side with AJAX to get something which works, but I have no idea if there are similar efforts done yet anywhere. Another approach I looked at was using Dynamic Data on web forms, but I didn't find any suggestions out there as to whether or not it is a good idea to integrate MVC and DD. I know implementing filtering and sorting for an individual case is simple (although it has some issues like using Dynamic LINQ, which is not yet a standard approach), but creating a sorting or filtering tool which works in all cases is the idea I'm looking for. (Maybe this is because I want have something in hand when web form developers are wondering why I'm writing same code each time I want to implement a sort scenario for different Entities).

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  • Adding S3 metadata using jets3t

    - by billintx
    I'm just starting to use the jets3t API for S3, using version 0.7.2 I can't seem to save metadata with the S3Objects I'm creating. What am I doing wrong? The object is successfully saved when I putObject, but I don't see the metadata after I get the object. S3Service s3Service = new RestS3Service(awsCredentials); S3Bucket bucket = s3Service.getBucket(BUCKET_NAME); String key = "/1783c05a/p1"; String data = "This is test data at key " + key; S3Object object = new S3Object(key,data); object.addMetadata("color", "green"); for (Iterator iterator = object.getMetadataMap().keySet() .iterator(); iterator.hasNext();) { String type = (String) iterator.next(); System.out.println(type + "==" + object.getMetadataMap().get(type)); } s3Service.putObject(bucket, object); S3Object retreivedObject = s3Service.getObject(bucket, key); for (Iterator iterator = object.getMetadataMap().keySet() .iterator(); iterator.hasNext();) { String type = (String) iterator.next(); System.out.println(type + "==" + object.getMetadataMap().get(type)); } Here's the output before putObject Content-Length==37 color==green Content-MD5==AOdkk23V6k+rLEV03171UA== Content-Type==text/plain; charset=utf-8 md5-hash==00e764936dd5ea4fab2c4574df5ef550 Here's the output after putObject/getObject Content-Length==37 ETag=="00e764936dd5ea4fab2c4574df5ef550" request-id==9ED1633672C0BAE9 Date==Wed Mar 24 09:51:44 CDT 2010 Content-MD5==AOdkk23V6k+rLEV03171UA== Content-Type==text/plain; charset=utf-8

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  • Magento resource model for table with compound primary key

    - by sdek
    I am creating a custom module for a Magento ecommerce site, and the module will center around a new (ie, custom) table that has a compound/composite primary key, or rather the table has two columns that make up the primary key. Does anybody know how to create your models/resource models based on a table with a compound key? To give a few more details, I have looked up several tutorials and also used the excellent moduleCreator script. But it seems like all the tutorials revolve around the table having a PK with just one column in it. Something like this: class <Namespace>_<Module>_Model_Mysql4_<Module> extends Mage_Core_Model_Mysql4_Abstract { public function _construct(){ $this->_init('<module_alias>/<table_alias>', '<table_primary_key_id>'); } } Also, I just noticed that looking at the database model almost all tables have a single primary key. I understand this has much to do with the EAV-style db structure, but still is it possible to use a table with a compound PK? I want to stick with the Magento framework/conventions if possible. Is it discouraged? Should I just change the structure of my custom table to have some dummy id column? I do have the ability to do that, but geez! (Another side note that I thought I would mention is that it looks like the Zend Framework provides a way to base a class on a table with compound primary key (see Example #20 on this page - about half-way down), so it seems that the Magento framework should also provide for it... I just don't see how.)

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  • How to use bll, dal and model?

    - by bruno
    Dear all, In my company I must use a Bll, Dal and model layer for creating applications with a database. I've learned at school that every databasetable should be an object in my model. so I create the whole model of my database. Also I've learned that for every table (or model object) there should be a DAO created into the DAL. So I do this to. Now i'm stuck with the BLL classes. I can write a BLLclass for each DAO/ModelObject or I can write a BLLclass that combine some (logic) DAO's... Or i can write just one Bllclass that will manage everything. (this last one I'm sure it aint the best way..) What is the best practice to handle this Bll 'problem'? And a second question. If a bll is in need of tablecontent from an other table where it aint responsible for, whats the best way to get the content? Go ask on the responsible BLL or go directly to the DAO? I'm struggling with these questions the last 2 months, and i don't know what is the best way to handle it.

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  • Add data to Django form class using modelformset_factory

    - by dean
    I have a problem where I need to display a lot of forms for detail data for a hierarchical data set. I want to display some relational fields as labels for the forms and I'm struggling with a way to do this in a more robust way. Here is the code... class Category(models.Model): name = models.CharField(max_length=160) class Item(models.Model): category = models.ForeignKey('Category') name = models.CharField(max_length=160) weight = models.IntegerField(default=0) class Meta: ordering = ('category','weight','name') class BudgetValue(models.Model): value = models.IntegerField() plan = models.ForeignKey('Plan') item = models.ForeignKey('Item') I use the modelformset_factory to create a formset of budgetvalue forms for a particular plan. What I'd like is item name and category name for each BudgetValue. When I iterate through the forms each one will be labeled properly. class BudgetValueForm(forms.ModelForm): item = forms.ModelChoiceField(queryset=Item.objects.all(),widget=forms.HiddenInput()) plan = forms.ModelChoiceField(queryset=Plan.objects.all(),widget=forms.HiddenInput()) category = "" < assign dynamically on form creation > item = "" < assign dynamically on form creation > class Meta: model = BudgetValue fields = ('item','plan','value') What I started out with is just creating a dictionary of budgetvalue.item.category.name, budgetvalue.item.name, and the form for each budget value. This gets passed to the template and I render it as I intended. I'm assuming that the ordering of the forms in the formset and the querset used to genererate the formset keep the budgetvalues in the same order and the dictionary is created correctly. That is the budgetvalue.item.name is associated with the correct form. This scares me and I'm thinking there has to be a better way. Any help would be greatly appreciated.

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  • Synchronizing a collection of wrapped objects with a collection of unwrapped objects

    - by Kenneth Cochran
    I have two classes: Employee and EmployeeGridViewAdapter. Employee is composed of several complex types. EmployeeGridViewAdapter wraps a single Employee and exposes its members as a flattened set of system types so a DataGridView can handle displaying, editing, etc. I'm using VS's builtin support for turning a POCO into a data source, which I then attach to a BindingSource object. When I attach the DataGridView to the BindingSource it creates the expected columns and at runtime I can perform the expected CRUD operations. All is good so far. The problem is the collection of adapters and the collection of employees aren't being synchronized. So all the employees I create an runtime never get persisted. Here's a snippet of the code that generates the collection of EmployeeGridViewAdapter's: var employeeCollection = new List<EmployeeGridViewAdapter>(); foreach (var employee in this.employees) { employeeCollection.Add(new EmployeeGridViewAdapter(employee)); } this.view.Employees = employeeCollection; Pretty straight forward but I can't figure out how to synchronize changes back to the original collection. I imagine edits are already handled because both collections reference the same objects but creating new employees and deleting employees aren't happening so I can't be sure.

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  • Database design for sharing photos site?

    - by javaLearner.java
    I am using php and mysql. If I want to do a sharing photos website, whats the best database design for upload and display photos. This is what I have in mind: domain: |_> photos |_> user Logged in user will upload photo in [http://www.domain.com/user/upload.php] The photos are stored in filesystems, and the path-to-photos stored in database. So, in my photos folder would be like: photos/userA/subfolders+photos, photos/userB/subfolders+photos, photos/userC/subfolders+photos etc Public/others people may view his photo in: [http://www.domain.com/photos/user/?photoid=123] where 123 is the photoid, from there, I will query from database to fetch the path and display the image. My questions: Whats the best database design for photo-sharing website (like flickr)? Will there be any problems if I keep creating new folder in "photos" folder. What if hundreds of thousands users registered? Whats the best practices What size of photos should I keep? Currently I only stored thumbnail (100x100) and (max) 1600x1200 px photos. What others things I should take note when developing photos-sharing website?

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  • JQuery datepicker not working

    - by IniTech
    I'm completely new to JQuery and MVC. I'm working on a pet project that uses both to learn them and I've hit my first snag. I have a date field and I want to add the JQuery datepicker to the UI. Here is what I have done: Added <script src="../../Scripts/jquery-1.3.2.min.js" type="text/javascript"></script> to the site.master Inside my Create.aspx (View), I have <asp:Content ID="Create" ContentPlaceHolderID="MainContent" runat="server"> <h2> Create a Task</h2> <% Html.RenderPartial("TaskForm"); %> </asp:Content> and inside "TaskForm" (a user control) I have: <label for="dDueDate"> Due Date</label> <%= Html.TextBox("dDueDate",(Model.Task.TaskID > 0 ? string.Format("{0:g}",Model.Task.DueDate) : DateTime.Today.ToString("MM/dd/yyyy"))) %> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $("#dDueDate").datepicker(); }); </script> As you can see, the above checks to see if a task has an id 0 (we're not creating a new one) if it does, it uses the date on the task, if not it defaults to today. I would expect the datepicker UI element to show up, but instead I get: "Microsoft JScript runtime error: Object doesn't support this property or method" on the $("#dDueDate").datepicker(); Ideas? It is probably a very simple mistake, so don't over-analyze. As I said, this is the first time I've dealt with MVC or JQuery so I'm lost as to where to start.

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  • Custom UITableViewCell changing indexPath While Scrolling ?

    - by Chris
    I have a custom UITableViewCell which I created in Interface Builder. I am successfully Dequeuing cells, but as I scroll, the cells appear to begin calling different indexPaths. In this example, I am feeding the current indexPath.section and indexPath.row into the customCellLabel. As I scroll the table up and down, some of the cells will change. The numbers can be all over the place, but the cells are not skipping around visually. If I comment out the if(cell==nil), then the problem goes away. If I use a standard cell, the problem goes away. Ideas why this might be happening? // Customize the appearance of table view cells. - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { UITableViewCell *cell = (UITableViewCell *)[tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:@"CalendarEventCell"]; if (cell == nil) { NSLog(@"Creating New Cell !!!!!"); NSArray *nib = [[NSBundle mainBundle] loadNibNamed:@"CalendarEventCell" owner:self options:nil]; cell = (UITableViewCell *)[nib objectAtIndex:0]; cell.accessoryType = UITableViewCellAccessoryDisclosureIndicator; } // Set up the cell... [customCellLabel setText:[NSString stringWithFormat:@"%d - %d",indexPath.section, indexPath.row]]; return cell; }

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  • Running another process without GUI freezing

    - by Adam
    I'm having trouble getting my GUI to appear and not freeze while running (and waiting for) an outside process. In this case, drivers.exe is a very simply program where the user simply clicks "OK". So whenever I click OK, it exits. I am trying to simply make my status strip count numbers up (really fast) as drivers.exe is executing. But in practice, my GUI never appears at all until drivers.exe exits. private void run_drivers() { Console.WriteLine("Start Driver"); int driver_timeout_in_minutes = 20; System.Diagnostics.Process driverproc = System.Diagnostics.Process.Start(Application.StartupPath + "\\" + "drivers.exe"); driverproc.WaitForExit(driver_timeout_in_minutes * 1000 * 60); //uses milliseconds, we must convert } private void Form1_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { ThreadStart worker = new ThreadStart(run_drivers); Console.WriteLine("Main - Creating worker thread"); toolStripStatusLabel1.Text = "hi"; Thread t = new Thread(worker); t.IsBackground = true; t.Start(); Console.WriteLine("Main - Have requested the start of worker thread"); int i = 0; while (t.IsAlive) { i++; toolStripStatusLabel1.Text = i.ToString(); } Console.WriteLine("Dead"); }

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  • Transaction Isolation Level of Serializable not working for me

    - by Shahriar
    I have a website which is used by all branches of a store and what it does is that it records customer purchases into a table called myTransactions.myTransactions table has a column named SerialNumber.For each purchase i create a record in the transactions table and assign a serial to it.The stored procedure that does this calls a UDF function to get a new serialNumber before inserting the record.Like below : Create Procedure mytransaction_Insert as begin insert into myTransactions(column1,column2,column3,...SerialNumber) values( Value1 ,Value2,Value3,...., getTransactionNSerialNumber()) end Create function getTransactionNSerialNumber as begin RETURN isnull(SELECT TOP (1) SerialNumber FROM myTransactions READUNCOMMITTED ORDER BY SerialNumber DESC),0) + 1 end The website is being used by so many users in different stores at the same time and it is creating many duplicate serialNumbers(same SerialNumbers).So i added a Sql transaction with ReadCommitted level to the transaction and i still got duplicate transaction numbers.I changed it to SERIALIZABLE in order to lock the resources and i not only got duplicate transaction numbers(!!HOW!!) but i also got sporadic deadlocks between the same stored procedure calls.This is what i tried : (With ommissions of try catch blocks and rollbacks) Create Procedure mytransaction_Insert as begin SET TRANSACTION ISOLATION LEVEL SERIALIZABLE BEGIN TRASNACTION ins insert into myTransactions(column1,column2,column3,...SerialNumber) values( Value1 ,Value2 , Value3, ...., getTransactionNSerialNumber()) COMMIT TRANSACTION ins SET TRANSACTION ISOLATION READCOMMITTED end I even copied the function that gets the serial number directly into the stored procedure instead of the UDF function call and still got duplicate serialNumbers.So,How can a stored procedure line create something Like the c# lock() {} block. By the way,i have to implement the transaction serial number using the same pattern and i can't change the serialNumber to any other identity field or whatever.And for some reasons i need to generate the serialNumber inside the databse and i can't move SerialNumber generation to application level. Thank you.

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  • How to access a method on a generic datacontext which is only created at runtime

    - by Jeremy Holt
    I'm creating my generic DataContext using only the connectionString in the ctor. I have no issues in retrieving the table using DataContext.GetTable(). However, I need to also be able to retrieve entities of inline table functions. The dbml designer generates public IQueryable<testFunctionResult> testFunction() { return this.CreateMethodCallQuery<testFunctionResult>(this, ((MethodInfo)(MethodInfo.GetCurrentMethod()))); } The question is how do I get the MethodInfo.GetCurrentMethod() when the DataContext has no method called "testFunction", i.e.typeof(DataContext).GetMethod("testFunction") returns null? What I'm trying to achieve is something like: public class UnitofWork<T> { public UnitofWork(string connectionString) { this.DataContext = new DataContext(connectionString); } public UnitofWork(IQueryable<T> tableEntity) { _tableEntity = tableEntity; } public IQueryable<T> TableEntity { get { if (DataContext == null) return _tableEntity; var metaType = DataContext.Mapping.GetMetaType(typeof (T)); if (metaType.IsEntity) _tableEntity = DataContext.GetTable<T>(); else { var s = typeof(T).Name; string methodName = s.Substring(0, s.IndexOf("Result")) + "()"; // the designer automatically affixes "Result" to the type name // Make a method from methodName // _tableEntity = DataContext.CreateMethodCallQuery(DataContext, method, new object[]{}); } return _tableEntity; } set { _tableEntity = value; } } ) Thanks in advance for any insight Jeremy

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