Search Results

Search found 14037 results on 562 pages for 'alter index'.

Page 487/562 | < Previous Page | 483 484 485 486 487 488 489 490 491 492 493 494  | Next Page >

  • placing pop up based on the mouse position(x,y)RSS Feed

    - by prince23
    hi, right now i am showing pop at the botton of the screen. i need to change them according to the value(x,y) whhere i have moved the mouse here i need to get the MouseEventArgs e postion that is its x:value and y:value based on that i need to place the pop up in the screen i need to get the mouse x, y postion? is it possiable to get its value? private void DG_LoadingRow(object sender, DataGridRowEventArgs e) { DataGridRow row = e.Row; int index = 0; foreach (DataGridColumn colGrid in DG.Columns) { if(colGrid .Header == "ID" || colGrid .Header == "Name") { FrameworkElement cellContent = colGrid .GetCellContent(e.Row); DataGridCell cell = cellContent.Parent as DataGridCell; cell.MouseEnter -= cell_MouseEnter; cell.MouseEnter += new MouseEventHandler(cell_MouseEnter); cell.MouseLeave -= cell_MouseLeave; cell.MouseLeave += new MouseEventHandler(cell_MouseLeave); } } } void cell_MouseLeave(object sender, MouseEventArgs e) { //Hide your popup } void cell_MouseEnter(object sender, MouseEventArgs e) { **// here i need to get the mouse position that is its x,y value based on that i can place my modal pop up in that postion. my pop is defined in xaml page here i will be assigning only its position where i need to place my modal pop up.** //

    Read the article

  • Performance: float to int cast and clipping result to range

    - by durandai
    I'm doing some audio processing with float. The result needs to be converted back to PCM samples, and I noticed that the cast from float to int is surprisingly expensive. Whats furthermore frustrating that I need to clip the result to the range of a short (-32768 to 32767). While I would normally instictively assume that this could be assured by simply casting float to short, this fails miserably in Java, since on the bytecode level it results in F2I followed by I2S. So instead of a simple: int sample = (short) flotVal; I needed to resort to this ugly sequence: int sample = (int) floatVal; if (sample > 32767) { sample = 32767; } else if (sample < -32768) { sample = -32768; } Is there a faster way to do this? (about ~6% of the total runtime seems to be spent on casting, while 6% seem to be not that much at first glance, its astounding when I consider that the processing part involves a good chunk of matrix multiplications and IDCT) EDIT The cast/clipping code above is (not surprisingly) in the body of a loop that reads float values from a float[] and puts them into a byte[]. I have a test suite that measures total runtime on several test cases (processing about 200MB of raw audio data). The 6% were concluded from the runtime difference when the cast assignment "int sample = (int) floatVal" was replaced by assigning the loop index to sample. EDIT @leopoldkot: I'm aware of the truncation in Java, as stated in the original question (F2I, I2S bytecode sequence). I only tried the cast to short because I assumed that Java had an F2S bytecode, which it unfortunately does not (comming originally from an 68K assembly background, where a simple "fmove.w FP0, D0" would have done exactly what I wanted).

    Read the article

  • JFLAP Turing Machine shortcut problem

    - by Robert Lamb
    In JFLAP (http://jflap.org), there are some shortcuts for Turing machine transitions. One of these shortcuts allows you to transition as long as the current tape symbol isn't the indicated symbol. For example, the transition !g,x;R basically says "Take this transition if the current tape symbol is not g". So far, so good. But the transition I want is !?,~;R which basically says "Move right as long as the current symbol is not the end-of-string (empty cell) symbol". The problem is I cannot figure out how to type in "!?". The JFLAP online documentation (http://www.jflap.org/tutorial/turing/one/index.html#syntax) has this to say: The first shortcut is that there exists the option of using the “!” character to convey the meaning of “any character but this character.” For example, concerning the transition (!a; x, R), if the head encounters any character but an “a”, it will replace the character with an “x” and move right. To write the expression “!?”, just type a “1” in when inputting a command. My question is...how do I actually do what that last sentence is trying to explain to me? Thanks for your help! Robert

    Read the article

  • Execute codes in a different page but remain on the same actual php page

    - by chupinette
    I have a complicated problem here..I have codes to send mail using PEAR which i have tested in a php page called testmail.php. Now i have my actual application an a page called Cart.php where i have a button called Place Order. When i click on this button, it actually redirects to a url called : http://localhost/final/index.php?OrderSuccessful which actually displays a message on the page and sends an email. The problem is that when i put the code for email in Cart.php, i get errors. But when i put the url http://localhost/final/testmail.php it actually works. So i was thinking, is there a way to execute the codes from that testmail.php by remaining on the page Cart.php? include('Mail.php'); $mail = Mail::factory("mail"); $headers = array("From"=>"[email protected]", "Subject"=>"Your order has been placed "); $body = "lol"; $mail->send("[email protected]", $headers, $body); I get the error Assigning the return value of new by reference is deprecated

    Read the article

  • Jquery draggable not working in chrome/safari

    - by jbatson
    I have created a page that uses ajax calls to load product images. The jquery code for drag, drop and clone would not work when in the index.php page so I moved it to the page that gets called to request the products as each product has drag, drop code created for it. Works fine in FF, even IE but not in Safari or Chrome. Below is the jquery code in load_products.php that gets created when the ajax call is made to load the products. http://tandyleatherfactory.net/ Anyone have any idea why wouldn't work in Safari? $(function() {$("#concho_4_2").draggable({ helper: 'clone', cursor: 'pointer', zIndex: '1001', stop: function(event, ui) { offsetElement = $(ui.helper).offset(); offNewContainer = $('#belts').offset(); var dataId = $(ui.helper).attr('id'); ajaxRequest('http://tandyleatherfactory.net/includes/ahah/add_product.php', 'product=4', '#conchos'); var randomnumber = Math.floor(Math.random()*1000000); var newId = 'concho_4_2_'+randomnumber; $(ui.helper).clone(true).removeAttr('id').attr('id',newId).css("left", offsetElement.left-offNewContainer.left-10).css("top", offsetElement.top-offNewContainer.top-10).appendTo('#belts'); $('#'+newId).draggable(); } });

    Read the article

  • Twitter O-Auth Callback url

    - by jtymann
    I am having a problem with Twitter's oauth authentication and using a callback url. I am coding in php and using the sample code referenced by the twitter wiki, http://github.com/abraham/twitteroauth I got that code, and tried a simple test and it worked nicely. However I want to programatically specify the callback url, and the example did not support that. So I quickly modified the getRequestToken() method to take in a parameter and now it looks like this: function getRequestToken($params = array()) { $r = $this->oAuthRequest($this->requestTokenURL(), $params); $token = $this->oAuthParseResponse($r); $this->token = new OAuthConsumer($token['oauth_token'], $token['oauth_token_secret']); return $token; } and my call looks like this $tok = $to->getRequestToken(array('oauth_callback' => 'http://127.0.0.1/twitter_prompt/index.php')); This is the only change I made, and the redirect works like a charm, however I am getting an error when I then try and use my newly granted access to try and make a call. I get a "Could not authenticate you" error. Also the application never actually gets added to the users authorized connections. Now I read the specs and I thought all I had to do was specify the parameter when getting the request token. Could someone a little more seasoned in oauth and twitter possibly give me a hand? Thank You

    Read the article

  • Algorithm detect repeating/similiar strings in a corpus of data -- say email subjects, in Python

    - by RizwanK
    I'm downloading a long list of my email subject lines , with the intent of finding email lists that I was a member of years ago, and would want to purge them from my Gmail account (which is getting pretty slow.) I'm specifically thinking of newsletters that often come from the same address, and repeat the product/service/group's name in the subject. I'm aware that I could search/sort by the common occurrence of items from a particular email address (and I intend to), but I'd like to correlate that data with repeating subject lines.... Now, many subject lines would fail a string match, but "Google Friends : Our latest news" "Google Friends : What we're doing today" are more similar to each other than a random subject line, as is: "Virgin Airlines has a great sale today" "Take a flight with Virgin Airlines" So -- how can I start to automagically extract trends/examples of strings that may be more similar. Approaches I've considered and discarded ('because there must be some better way'): Extracting all the possible substrings and ordering them by how often they show up, and manually selecting relevant ones Stripping off the first word or two and then count the occurrence of each sub string Comparing Levenshtein distance between entries Some sort of string similarity index ... Most of these were rejected for massive inefficiency or likelyhood of a vast amount of manual intervention required. I guess I need some sort of fuzzy string matching..? In the end, I can think of kludgy ways of doing this, but I'm looking for something more generic so I've added to my set of tools rather than special casing for this data set. After this, I'd be matching the occurring of particular subject strings with 'From' addresses - I'm not sure if there's a good way of building a data structure that represents how likely/not two messages are part of the 'same email list' or by filtering all my email subjects/from addresses into pools of likely 'related' emails and not -- but that's a problem to solve after this one. Any guidance would be appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Problem Render backbone collection using Mustache template

    - by RameshVel
    I am quite new to backbone js and Mustache. I am trying to load the backbone collection (Object array) on page load from rails json object to save the extra call . I am having troubles rendering the backbone collection using mustache template. My model & collection are var Item = Backbone.Model.extend({ }); App.Collections.Items= Backbone.Collection.extend({ model: Item, url: '/items' }); and view App.Views.Index = Backbone.View.extend({ el : '#itemList', initialize: function() { this.render(); }, render: function() { $(this.el).html(Mustache.to_html(JST.item_template(),this.collection )); //var test = {name:"test",price:100}; //$(this.el).html(Mustache.to_html(JST.item_template(),test )); } }); In the above view render, i can able to render the single model (commented test obeject), but not the collections. I am totally struck here, i have tried with both underscore templating & mustache but no luck. And this is the Template <li> <div> <div style="float: left; width: 70px"> <a href="#"> <img class="thumbnail" src="http://placehold.it/60x60" alt=""> </a> </div> <div style="float: right; width: 292px"> <h4> {{name}} <span class="price">Rs {{price}}</span></h4> </div> </div> </li> and my object array kind of looks like this

    Read the article

  • Improve speed of a JOIN in MySQL

    - by ran2
    Dear all, I know there a similar threads around, but this is really the first time I realize that query speed might affect me - so it´s not that easy for me to really make the transfer from other folks problems. That being said I have using the following query successfully with smaller data, but if I use it on what are mildly large tables (about 120,000 records). I am waiting for hours. INSERT INTO anothertable (id,someint1,someint1,somevarchar1,somevarchar1) SELECT DISTINCT md.id,md.someint1,md.someint1,md.somevarchar1,pd.somevarchar1 from table1 AS md JOIN table2 AS pd ON (md.id = pd.id); Tables 1 and 2 contain about 120,000 records. The query has been running for almost 2 hours right now. Is this normal? Do I just have to wait. I really have no idea, but I am pretty sure that one could do it better since it´s my very first try. I read about indexing, but dont know yet what to index in my case? Thanks for any suggestions - feel free to point my to the very beginners guides ! best matt

    Read the article

  • is an instance variable in an action of a controller available for all the controllers view?

    - by fenec
    I am just trying to printout the parameters that have been entered into my form. basically i create a new bet then i display the parameters: MIGRATION enter code here class CreateBets < ActiveRecord::Migration def self.up create_table :bets do |t| t.integer :accepted ,:default = 0 t.integer :user_1_id #proposer t.integer :user_2_id #receiver t.integer :team_1_id #proposer's team t.integer :team_2_id #receiver's team t.integer :game_id t.integer :winner t.integer :amount t.timestamps end end def self.down drop_table :bets end end CONTROLLER bets_controller.erb enter code here class BetsController < ApplicationController def index redirect_to new_bet_path end def new @b=Bet.new end def create @@points=params[:points] @@winner=params[:winner] end end VIEWS New.erb New Bet <% facebook_form_for Bet.new do |f| %> <%= f.text_field :amount, :label=>"points" %> <%= f.text_field :winner, :label=>"WinningTeam" %> <%= f.buttons "Bet" %> <% end %> create.erb enter code here points:<%= @@points %> <br> winner:<%= @@winner %>

    Read the article

  • Make accordeon/toggle menu using jquery or javascript

    - by Souza
    Found a solution: $('div.divname').not(':eq(0)').hide(); Check this page: http://www.iloja.pt/index.php?_a=viewDoc&docId=19 I would like to have ONLY the first text (faqtexto) open, and the one bellow, hidden on loading (by default) This is the HTML: <div class="agendarfaq"> <div class="topfaq"></div> <div class="faqtopics"><p class="textopics">Recolha e entrega, quanto tempo?</p></div> <div class="faqtexto"> Neque porro quisquam est, qui dolorem ipsum quia dolor sit amet, consectetur, adipisci velit, sed quia non numquam eius modi tempora incidunt ut labore et dolore magnam Quis autem vel eum iure reprehenderit qui in ea voluptate velit esse quam nihil molestiae consequatur, vel illum qui dolorem</div> <div class="faqtopics"><p class="textopics">Recolha e entrega, quanto tempo?</p></div> <div class="faqtexto"> Neque porro quisquam est, qui dolorem ipsum quia dolor sit amet, consectetur, adipisci velit, sed quia non numquam eius modi tempora incidunt ut labore et dolore magnam Quis autem vel eum iure reprehenderit qui in ea voluptate velit esse quam nihil molestiae consequatur, vel illum qui dolorem</div> </div> The jQuery I propose: $(".faqtopics").click(function(event) { $("div.faqtexto").slideUp(100); $(this).next("div.faqtexto").slideToggle(); }); Do you suggest any other cleaner jQuery code? Any help would be welcome! Thank you very much!

    Read the article

  • How to export Oracle statistics

    - by A_M
    Hi, I am writing some new SQL queries and want to check the query plans that the Oracle query optimiser would come up with in production. My development database doesn't have anything like the data volumes of the production database. How can I export database statistics from a production database and re-import them into a development database? I don't have access to the production database, so I can't simply generate explain plans on production without going through a third party hosting organisation. This is painful. So I want a local database which is in some way representative of production on which I can try out different things. Also, this is for a legacy application. I'd like to "improve" the schema, by adding appropriate indexes. constraints, etc. I need to do this in my development database first, before rolling out to test and production. If I add an index and re-generate statistics in development, then the statistics will be generated around the development data volumes, which makes it difficult to assess the impact my changes on production. Does anyone have any tips on how to deal with this? Or is it just a case of fixing unexpected behaviour once we've discovered it on production? I do have a staging database with production volumes, but again I have to go through a third party to run queries against this, which is painful. So I'm looking for ways to cut out the middle man as much as possible. All this is using Oracle 9i. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Controller class not available in Add View ASP.NET MVC

    - by Tassadaque
    Hi I have created the following controller i want to add view that should have the data access class UserMagnament.Controller.menuitems but when i add view by right clicking on view folder,it is not showing "UserMagnament.Controller.menuitems" in add data class using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Web; using System.Web.Mvc; using UserManagement.Models; namespace UserManagement.Controllers { public class menuitems { EvoLetDataContext db1 = new EvoLetDataContext(); public menuitems() { } public IQueryable<UMUserType> menuitems() { return db1.UMUserTypes; //this.Packages = _SysPackage; //this.Modules = _SysModule; } public List<SysPackage> Packages { get; private set; } public List<SysModule> Modules { get; private set; } } public class Default1Controller : Controller { // // GET: /Default1/ public ActionResult Index() { return View(new menuitems()); } } }

    Read the article

  • Flash won't load, embed error?

    - by Adrian M.
    Hello, I want to know why the flash movie in the header located here: http://www.dolphintemplate.com/demo/dolphin7/index.php?skin=dt_firestarter_red only loads in Firefox but NOT in IE and Chrome.. The flash movie resides in a iframe, this is the code of the iframe: <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" > <head> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=iso-8859-1" /> <title>header</title> </head> <body bgcolor="#000000" topmargin="0" leftmargin="0" marginwidth="0" marginheight="0"> <object data="header.swf" type="application/x-shockwave-flash" id="myflash" width="988" height="240"> <param name="movie" value="header.swf" /> <param name="bgcolor" value="#000000" /> <param name="height" value="988" /> <param name="width" value="240" /> <param name="quality" value="high" /> <param name="menu" value="false" /> <param name="allowscriptaccess" value="samedomain" /> <p>Adobe <a href="http://get.adobe.com/flashplayer/">Flash Player</a> is required to view this content.</p> </object> </body> </html> Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Why are symbols not frozen strings?

    - by Alex Chaffee
    I understand the theoretical difference between Strings and Symbols. I understand that Symbols are meant to represent a concept or a name or an identifier or a label or a key, and Strings are a bag of characters. I understand that Strings are mutable and transient, where Symbols are immutable and permanent. I even like how Symbols look different from Strings in my text editor. What bothers me is that practically speaking, Symbols are so similar to Strings that the fact that they're not implemented as Strings causes a lot of headaches. They don't even support duck-typing or implicit coercion, unlike the other famous "the same but different" couple, Float and Fixnum. The mere existence of HashWithIndifferentAccess, and its rampant use in Rails and other frameworks, demonstrates that there's a problem here, an itch that needs to be scratched. Can anyone tell me a practical reason why Symbols should not be frozen Strings? Other than "because that's how it's always been done" (historical) or "because symbols are not strings" (begging the question). Consider the following astonishing behavior: :apple == "apple" #=> false, should be true :apple.hash == "apple".hash #=> false, should be true {apples: 10}["apples"] #=> nil, should be 10 {"apples" => 10}[:apples] #=> nil, should be 10 :apple.object_id == "apple".object_id #=> false, but that's actually fine All it would take to make the next generation of Rubyists less confused is this: class Symbol < String def initialize *args super self.freeze end (and a lot of other library-level hacking, but still, not too complicated) See also: http://onestepback.org/index.cgi/Tech/Ruby/SymbolsAreNotImmutableStrings.red http://www.randomhacks.net/articles/2007/01/20/13-ways-of-looking-at-a-ruby-symbol Why does my code break when using a hash symbol, instead of a hash string? Why use symbols as hash keys in Ruby? What are symbols and how do we use them? Ruby Symbols vs Strings in Hashes Can't get the hang of symbols in Ruby

    Read the article

  • mod_rewrite if file exists

    - by Mathieu Parent
    Hi everyone, I already have two rewrite rules that work correctly for now but some more code has to be added to work perfectly. I have a website hosted at mydomain.com and all subdom.mydomain.com are rewrited to mydomain.com/subs/subdom . My CMS has to handle the request if the file being reached does not exist, the rewrite is done like so: RewriteCond $1 !^subs/ RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^([^.]+)\.mydomain\.com$ RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d RewriteRule ^(.*)$ subs/%1/index.php?page=$1 [L] My CMS handles the next part of the parsing as usual. The problem is if a file really exists, I need to link to it without passing through my CMS, I managed to do it like this: RewriteCond $1 !^subs/ RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^([^.]+)\.mydomain\.com$ RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} -f [OR] RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} -d RewriteRule ^(.*)$ subs/%1/$1 [L] So far it seems to work like a charm. Now I am being picky and I need to have default files that are stored in subs/default/. If the file exists in the subdomain folder, we should grab this one but if not, we need to get the file from the default subdomain. And if the file does not exist anywhere, we should be using the 404 page from the current subdomain unless there is none. I hope it describes well enough. Thank you for your time!

    Read the article

  • How can I use JSONP to download client-side javascript objects?

    - by Alex Mcp
    I'm trying to get client-side javascript objects saved as a file locally. I'm not sure if this is possible. The basic architecture is this: Ping an external API to get back a JSON object Work client-side with that object, and eventually have a "download me" link This link sends the data to my server, which processes it and sends it back with a mime type application/json, which (should) prompt the user to download the file locally. Right now here are my pieces: Server Side Code <?php $data = array('zero', 'one', 'two', 'testing the encoding'); $json = json_encode($data); //$json = json_encode($_GET['']); //eventually I'll encode their data, but I'm testing header("Content-type: application/json"); header('Content-Disposition: attachment; filename="backup.json"'); echo $_GET['callback'] . ' (' . $json . ');'; ?> Relevant Client Side Code $("#download").click(function(){ var json = JSON.stringify(collection); //serializes their object $.ajax({ type: "GET", url: "http://www.myURL.com/api.php?callback=?", //this is the above script dataType: "jsonp", contentType: 'jsonp', data: json, success: function(data){ console.log( "Data Received: " + data[3] ); } }); return false; }); Right now when I visit the api.php site with Firefox, it prompts a download of download.json and that results in this text file, as expected: (["zero","one","two","testing the encoding"]); And when I click #download to run the AJAX call, it logs in Firebug Data Received: testing the encoding which is almost what I'd expect. I'm receiving the JSON string and serializing it, which is great. I'm missing two things: The Actual Questions What do I need to do to get the same prompt-to-download behavior that I get when I visit the page in a browser (much simpler) How do I access, server-side, the json object being sent to the server to serialize it? I don't know what index it is in the GET array (silly, I know, but I've tried almost everything)

    Read the article

  • php funciton problem

    - by Holian
    Hello, i have this little script, which should ping the IPs in the host_to_ping array. This php is called with JS in the index.html. But somethin' wrong, 'coz the $rval is always 1 (which mean the host is unreachable). But i know that the first two host is alive. So i print the $res variable, and i see the message: Need to give the IP. I dont understand why dont replace the $host variable to the actual IP address in the function. <?php function ping($host) { exec(sprintf('ping -n 4', escapeshellarg($host)), $res, $rval); print_r($res); return $rval === 0; } $hosts_to_ping = array('10.54.23.254', '10.22.23.254', '10.23.66.134'); ?> <ul> <?php foreach ($hosts_to_ping as $host): ?> <li> <?php echo $host; ?> <?php $up = ping($host); ?> (<img src="<?php echo $up ? 'on' : 'off'; ?>" alt="<?php echo $up ? 'up' : 'down'; ?>">) </li> <?php endforeach; ?> </ul>

    Read the article

  • Alloy MVC Framework Titanium Network (Model)

    - by flyingDuck
    I'm trying to authenticate using the Model in Alloy. I have been trying to figure this problem out since yesterday. If anybody could help me, I'd really appreciate it. So, I have a view login.xml, then a controller login.js. The login.js contains the following function: var user = Alloy.Models.user; //my user.js model function login(e) { if($.username.value !== '' && $.password.value !== ''){ if(user.login($.username.value, $.password.value)){ Alloy.createController('home').getView().open(); $.login.close(); } }else{ alert('Username and/or Password required!'); } } Then in my user.js model, it's like this: extendModel : function(Model) { _.extend(Model.prototype, { login: function(username, password) { var first_name, last_name, email; var _this = this; var url = 'http://myurl.com/test.php'; var auth = Ti.Network.createHTTPClient({ onerror: function(e){ alert(e.error); }, onload: function(){ var json = this.responseText; var response = JSON.parse(json); if(response.logged == true){ first_name = response.f_name; last_name = response.l_name; email = response.email; _this.set({ loggedIn: 1, username: email, realname: first_name + ' ' + last_name, email: email, }); _this.save(); }else{ alert(response.message); } }, }); auth.open('POST', url); var params = { usernames: username, passwords: password, }; auth.send(params); alert(_this.get('email')); //alert email }, }); When I click on login in login.xml it calls the function login in index.js. So, now my problem is that, when I click the button for the first time, I get an empty alert from alert(_this.get('email')), but then when I click the button the second time, everything works fine, it alerts the email. I have no idea what's going on. Thank you for the help.

    Read the article

  • Ajax request using mootools not working

    - by benny
    Hi everyone, I try loading content into a div with this tutorial. Unfortunately, this simply loads the HTML file as a new page. This is the javascript that should do the job window.addEvent('domready', function() {      $('runAjax').addEvent('click', function(event) {          event.stop();          var req = new Request({              method: 'get',              url: $('runAjax').get('href'),              data: { 'do' : '1' },              onRequest: function() { alert('The request has been made, please wait until it has finished.'); },   onComplete: function(response) { alert('Response received.); $('container').set('html', response); }          }).send(); $('runAjax').removeEvent('click');      }); }); this is the link that should initiate the function <a href="about.html" id="runAjax" class="panel">Profil</a> and this is the div-structure of index.html. i want the content to be loaded into the "container"-div <div id="view"> <div id="sidebar"> mib </div> <div id="container"> <div id="logo"> <!--img src="img/logo.png"--> </div> <div align="center" id="tagline"> content </div> </div> </div> I dont really care what script i use as long as its compatible with MooTools 1.2, because i need it for a sliding top panel and it would be a lot more work to change it to a jquery panel for example.

    Read the article

  • Default update detailViewController, HELP.

    - by DrBeak1
    I've created an app that allows users to add information (from an addViewController), which is then displayed in a UITableView on the rootViewController. When the user taps the tableViewCell the detailViewController then displays, you guessed it, more details regarding the inputted user information. What I'm trying to accomplish is to setup an editViewController that will allow users to edit information they've already submitted. Currently, I'm trying to auto-populate the editViewController with the information that was previously submitted by the user (after which they can press save and update the info). However, I'm getting stuck trying to perform this auto-populating and I'm not sure this is even the best route to accomplish this. Here is the edit method that is called to load the editViewController from the detailViewController. -(IBAction)editDetails:(id)sender { editViewController *evc = [[editViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"editViewController" bundle:nil]; rootViewController *rvc = [[rootViewController alloc] init]; UINavigationController *navigationController = [[UINavigationController alloc] initWithRootViewController:evc]; [[self navigationController] presentModalViewController:navigationController animated:YES]; ///For Style NSInteger styleCount = [[rvc scoreTypeArray] count]; NSInteger styleRows = [rvc.scoreTypeArray objectAtIndex:indexPath.row]; ///HERE I GET AN ERROR MESSAGE SAYING THAT indexPath IS NOT DEFINED ///For Date NSInteger count = [[rvc dateArray] count]; NSInteger rows = [[rvc indexPath] row]; ///AND HERE I GET A WARNING MESSAGE SAYING rootViewController MAY NOT RESPOND TO INDEX PATH, AND OF COURSE IT DOESN'T WORK [[evc dateField] setText:[NSString stringWithFormat:@"%@", [[evc dateArray] objectAtIndex:(count-1-rows)]]]; [[evc styleField] setText:[NSString stringWithFormat:@"%@", [[rvc scoresArray] objectAtIndex:(styleCount-1-styleRows)]]]; [navigationController release]; [evc release]; [rvc release];} So here I'm trying to load the information from a saved array that is declared in my rootViewController. Any thoughts any body? Please and thank you : )

    Read the article

  • Advice Please: SQL Server Identity vs Unique Identifier keys when using Entity Framework

    - by c.batt
    I'm in the process of designing a fairly complex system. One of our primary concerns is supporting SQL Server peer-to-peer replication. The idea is to support several geographically separated nodes. A secondary concern has been using a modern ORM in the middle tier. Our first choice has always been Entity Framework, mainly because the developers like to work with it. (They love the LiNQ support.) So here's the problem: With peer-to-peer replication in mind, I settled on using uniqueidentifier with a default value of newsequentialid() for the primary key of every table. This seemed to provide a good balance between avoiding key collisions and reducing index fragmentation. However, it turns out that the current version of Entity Framework has a very strange limitation: if an entity's key column is a uniqueidentifier (GUID) then it cannot be configured to use the default value (newsequentialid()) provided by the database. The application layer must generate the GUID and populate the key value. So here's the debate: abandon Entity Framework and use another ORM: use NHibernate and give up LiNQ support use linq2sql and give up future support (not to mention get bound to SQL Server on DB) abandon GUIDs and go with another PK strategy devise a method to generate sequential GUIDs (COMBs?) at the application layer I'm leaning towards option 1 with linq2sql (my developers really like linq2[stuff]) and 3. That's mainly because I'm somewhat ignorant of alternate key strategies that support the replication scheme we're aiming for while also keeping things sane from a developer's perspective. Any insight or opinion would be greatly appreciated.

    Read the article

  • memcache is not storing data accross requests

    - by morpheous
    I am new to using memcache, so I may be doing something wrong. I have written a wrapper class around memcache. The wrapper class has only static methods, so is a quasi singleton. The class looks something like this: class myCache { private static $memcache = null; private static $initialized = false; public static function init() { if (self::$initialized) return; self::$memcache = new Memcache(); if (self::configure()) //connects to daemon { self::store('foo', 'bar'); } else throw ConnectionError('I barfed'); } public static function store($key, $data, $flag=MEMCACHE_COMPRESSED, $timeout=86400) { if (self::$memcache->get($key)!== false) return self::$memcache->replace($key, $data, $flag, $timeout); return self::$memcache->set($key, $data, $flag, $timeout); } public static function fetch($key) { return self::$memcache->get($key); } } //in my index.php file, I use the class like this require_once('myCache.php'); myCache::init(); echo 'Stored value is: '. myCache::fetch('foo'); The problem is that the myCache::init() method is being executed in full everytime a page is requested. I then remembered that static variables do not maintain state accross page requests. So I decided instead, to store the flag that indicates whether the server contains the start up data (for our purposes, the variable 'foo', with value 'bar') in memcache itself. Once the status flag is stored in memcache itself, It solves the problem of the initialisation data being loaded for every page request (which quite frankly, defeats the purpose of memcache). However, having solved that problem, when I come to fetch the data in memcache, it is empty. I dont understand whats going on. Can anyone clarify how I can store my data once and retrieve it accross page requests? BTW, (just to clarify), the get/set is working correctly, and if I allow memcache to load the initialisation data for each page request, (which is silly), then the data is available in memcache.

    Read the article

  • Lookup table size reduction

    - by Ryan
    Hello: I have an application in which I have to store a couple of millions of integers, I have to store them in a Look up table, obviously I cannot store such amount of data in memory and in my requirements I am very limited I have to store the data in an embebedded system so I am very limited in the space, so I would like to ask you about recommended methods that I can use for the reduction of the look up table. I cannot use function approximation such as neural networks, the values needs to be in a table. The range of the integers is not known at the moment. When I say integers I mean a 32 bit value. Basically the idea is use some copmpression method to reduce the amount of memory but without losing many precision. This thing needs to run in hardware so the computation overhead cannot be very high. In my algorithm I have to access to one value of the table do some operations with it and after update the value. In the end what I should have is a function which I pass an index to it and then I get a value, and after I have to use another function to write a value in the table. I found one called tile coding http://www.cs.ualberta.ca/~sutton/book/8/node6.html, this one is based on several look up tables, does anyone know any other method?. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • How to create an array of buttons in C++

    - by mangoman13
    Hi, I'm using C++ in VS2005 and have an 8x8 grid of buttons on a form. I want to have these buttons in an array, so when I click on any of them it will open the same event handler (I think that is what they are called), but I will know the index of which one was clicked on. I know how to do this in VB and C#, but I can't seem to figure it out with C++ Right now I have all my buttons labelled by their location, i.e. b00, b10, b21, etc. So I think what I am looking for is a way to do something like this: Button b[8][8]; //this causes me errors (error C2728: 'System::Windows::Forms::Button' : a native array cannot contain this managed type) and (error C2227: left of '->{ctor}' must point to class/struct/union/generic type) void Assignment(){ b[0][0] = b00; b[1][0] = b10; ... } and then in form1.h: private: System::Void b_Click(System::Object^ sender, System::EventArgs^ e) { //somehow read the coordinates into variables x and y //do something based on these values } Any help would be appreciated. Also let me know if I am going in the complete wrong direction with this. Thanks!

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 483 484 485 486 487 488 489 490 491 492 493 494  | Next Page >