Search Results

Search found 15591 results on 624 pages for 'problems'.

Page 488/624 | < Previous Page | 484 485 486 487 488 489 490 491 492 493 494 495  | Next Page >

  • NIS password mapping question

    - by papoyan
    I have NIS server with user "techsupport", which has uid/gid = 517 I've configured NIS and NFS on that server, as well as NFS/NIS client on the remote web server. Now I need to techsupport user to be able to login to web server using techsupport username, but HAVE root privileges. I need this, so I can easily track, which support agent doing what on the web server. Everything works fine, when from NIS server, I ssh to the web server with tech support user nisserver# ssh [email protected] I can authenticate against the NIS server just fine, and my home directory that is on NIS server, get's mounted on web server just fine. The Only two problems I have are : my GID on web server is webserver# id uid=517(techsupport) gid=517(client_jonny) groups=517(client_jonny) (as you can see, that it picked up gid of a client that exists on the web server, since it's same number) I need to make sure, that my "techsupport" user has ROOT privileges. How can I achieve this? I remember that I've seen identical results elsewhere, but LDAP was used, is there a way to achieve this with NIS/NFS setup? Thank you in advance,

    Read the article

  • Epoll in EPOLLET mode returning 2 EPOLLIN before reading from the socket

    - by Arkaitz Jimenez
    The epoll manpage says that a fd registered with EPOLLET(edge triggered) shouldn't notify twice EPOLLIN if no read has been done. So after an EPOLLIN you need to empty the buffer before epoll_wait being able to return a new EPOLLIN on new data. However I'm experiencing problems with this approach as I'm seeing duplicated EPOLLIN events for untouched fds. This is the strace output, 0x200 is EPOLLRDHUP that is not defined yet in my glibc headers but defined in the kernel. 30285 epoll_ctl(3, EPOLL_CTL_ADD, 9, {EPOLLIN|EPOLLPRI|EPOLLERR|EPOLLHUP|EPOLLET|0x2000, {u32=9, u64=9}}) = 0 30285 epoll_wait(3, {{EPOLLIN, {u32=9, u64=9}}}, 10, -1) = 1 30285 epoll_wait(3, {{EPOLLIN, {u32=9, u64=9}}}, 10, -1) = 1 30285 epoll_wait(3, <unfinished ...> 30349 epoll_ctl(3, EPOLL_CTL_DEL, 9, NULL) = 0 30306 recv(9, "7u\0\0\10\345\241\312\t\20\f\32\r\10\27\20\2\30\200\10 \31(C0\17\32\r\10\27\20\2\30"..., 20000, 0) = 20000 30349 epoll_ctl(3, EPOLL_CTL_DEL, 9, NULL) = -1 ENOENT (No such file or directory) 30305 recv(9, " \31(C0\17\32\r\10\27\20\2\30\200\10 \31(C0\17\32\r\10\27\20\2\30\200\10 \31("..., 20000, 0) = 10011 So, after adding fd number 9 I do receive 2 consecutive EPOLLIN events before having recving the file descriptor, the syscall trace shows how I do delete the fd before reading but it should only happen once, one per event. So either I am not reading the manpage properly or something is now working here.

    Read the article

  • Why use SQL database?

    - by martinthenext
    I'm not quite sure stackoverflow is a place for such a general question, but let's give it a try. Being exposed to the need of storing application data somewhere, I've always used MySQL or sqlite, just because it's always done like that. As it seems like the whole world is using these databases, most of all software products, frameworks, etc. It is rather hard for a beginning developer like me to ask a question - why? Ok, say we have some object-oriented logic in our application, and objects are related to each other somehow. We need to map this logic to the storage logic, so we need relations between database objects too. This leads us to using relational database and I'm ok with that - to put it simple, our database rows sometimes will need to have references to other tables' rows. But why do use SQL language for interaction with such a database? SQL query is a text message. I can understand this is cool for actually understanding what it does, but isn't it silly to use text table and column names for a part of application that no one ever seen after deploynment? If you had to write a data storage from scratch, you would have never used this kind of solution. Personally, I would have used some 'compiled db query' bytecode, that would be assembled once inside a client application and passed to the database. And it surely would name tables and colons by id numbers, not ascii-strings. In the case of changes in table structure those byte queries could be recompiled according to new db schema, stored in XML or something like that. What are the problems of my idea? Is there any reason for me not to write it myself and to use SQL database instead?

    Read the article

  • Execute SQL on CSV files via JDBC

    - by Markos Fragkakis
    Dear all, I need to apply an SQL query to CSV files (comma-separated text files). My SQL is predefined from another tool, and is not eligible to change. It may contain embedded selects and table aliases in the FROM part. For my task I have found two open-source (this is a project requirement) libraries that provide JDBC drivers: CsvJdbc XlSQL JBoss Teiid Create an Apache Derby DB, load all CSVs as tables and execute the query. These are the problems I encountered: it does not accept the syntax of the SQL (it uses internal selects and table aliases). Furthermore, it has not been maintained since 2004. I could not get it to work, as it has as dependency a SAX Parser that causes exception when parsing other documents. Similarly, no change since 2004. Have not checked if it supports the syntax, but seems like an overhead. It needs several entities defines (Virtual Databases, Bindings). From the mailing list they told me that last release supports runtime creation of required objects. Has anyone used it for such simple task (normally it can connect to several types of data, like CSV, XML or other DBS and create a virtual, unified one)? Can this even be done easily? From the 4 things I considered/tried, only 3 and 4 seem to me viable. Any advice on these, or any other way in which I can query my CSV files? Cheers

    Read the article

  • In git, how can I get the diff between two dates?

    - by Weidenrinde
    Basically, I am looking for something equivalent to cvs diff -D"1 day ago" -D"2010-02-29 11:11". While collecting more and more information, I found a solution. I paste it here, for others that might have similar problems. Things I have tried: In git, how can I get the diff between all the commits that occured between two dates? was ansered here with: git whatchanged --since="1 day ago" -p But this gives a diff for each commit, even if there are multiple commits in one file. I know that "date" is a bit of a loose concept in git, I thought there must be some way to do this. git diff 'master@{1 day ago}..master gives some warning warning: Log for 'master' only goes back to Tue, 16 Mar 2010 14:17:32 +0100. and does not show old diffs. git format-patch --since=yesterday --stdout does not give anything. revs=$(git log --pretty="format:%H" --since="1 day ago");git diff $(echo "$revs"|tail -n1) $(echo "$revs"|head -n1) works somehow, but seems complicated and does not restrict to the current branch. git diff $(git rev-list -n1 --before="1 day ago" master) seems to work and a default way to do similar things, although more complicated than I thought. Funnily, git-cvsserver does not support "cvs diff -D" (without that it is documented somewhere).

    Read the article

  • Open space sitting optimization algorithm

    - by Georgy Bolyuba
    As a result of changes in the company, we have to rearrange our sitting plan: one room with 10 desks in it. Some desks are more popular than others for number of reasons. One solution would be to draw a desk number from a hat. We think there is a better way to do it. We have 10 desks and 10 people. Lets give every person in this contest 50 hypothetical tokens to bid on the desks. There is no limit of how much you bid on one desk, you can put all 50, which would be saying "I want to sit only here, period". You can also say "I do not care" by giving every desk 5 tokens. Important note: nobody knows what other people are doing. Everyone has to decide based only on his/her best interest (sounds familiar?) Now lets say we obtained these hypothetical results: # | Desk# >| 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 | 5 | 6 | 7 | 8 | 9 | 10 | 1 | Alise | 30 | 2 | 2 | 1 | 0 | 0 | 0 | 15 | 0 | 0 | = 50 2 | Bob | 20 | 15 | 0 | 10 | 1 | 1 | 1 | 1 | 1 | 0 | = 50 ... 10 | Zed | 5 | 5 | 5 | 5 | 5 | 5 | 5 | 5 | 5 | 5 | = 50 Now, what we need to find is that one (or more) configuration(s) that gives us maximum satisfaction (i.e. people get desks they wanted taking into account all the bids and maximizing on the total of the group. Naturally the assumption is the more one bade on the desk the more he/she wants it). Since there are only 10 people, I think we can brute force it looking into all possible configurations, but I was wondering it there is a better algorithm for solving this kind of problems?

    Read the article

  • NHibernate Session per Call in WCF - How to Rollback

    - by Corey Coogan
    I've implemented some components to use WCF with both an IoC Container (StructureMap) and the Session per Call pattern. The NHibernate stuff is most taken from here: http://realfiction.net/Content/Entry/133. It seems to be OK, but I want to open a transaction with each call and commit at the end, rather than just Flush() which how its being done in the article. Here's where I am running into some problems and could use some advice. I haven't figured out a good way to rollback. I realize I can check the CommunicationState and if there's an exception, rollback, like so: public void Detach(InstanceContext owner) { if (Session != null) { try { if(owner.State == CommunicationState.Faulted) RollbackTransaction(); else CommitTransaction(); } finally { Session.Dispose(); } } } void CommitTransaction() { if(Session.Transaction != null && Session.Transaction.IsActive) Session.Transaction.Commit(); } void RollbackTransaction() { if (Session.Transaction != null && Session.Transaction.IsActive) Session.Transaction.Rollback(); } However, I almost never return a faulted state from a service call. I would typically handle the exception and return an appropriate indicator on my response object and rollback the transaction myself. The only way I can think of handling this would be to inject not only repositories into my WCF services, but also an ISession so I can rollback and handle the way I want. That doesn't sit well with me and seems kind of leaky. Anyone else handling the same problem?

    Read the article

  • Flex through Flash Builder 4; Connecting to a dynamic XML feed: "The response is not a valid XML or

    - by jtromans
    I am learning how to use Flex with Adobe Flash Builder 4 standalone. I am working my through the Adobe Flash Build 4 Bible by David Gassner. This has led me to create my own micro problems to try and solve. I am trying to connect to a dynamix XML feed created by the following aspx page: generate_xml.aspx When I create the data connection through the Data/Service panel, I can pick between XML and HTTP. I figured because the generate_xml.aspx has to generate the XML file first, I should use the HTTP service as opposed to the XML. The HTTP service offers GET, which seems to be the kinda thing I want. However, I am really struggling to do this. I keep getting: "The response is not a valid XML or a JSON string" The actual STATIC generated XML file that is created by this page works perfectly when I save it and manually connect with the XML service. Therefore I know my XML code is properly formatted and contains no other HTML of JavaScript. I figure my problem occurs because the page itself is .aspx, but I cannot work out how to successfully ask Flex to request the output of this page, rather than the page itself.

    Read the article

  • Declaration of arrays before "normal" variables in c?

    - by bjarkef
    Hi We are currently developing an application for a msp430 MCU, and are running into some weird problems. We discovered that declaring arrays withing a scope after declaration of "normal" variables, sometimes causes what seems to be undefined behavior. Like this: foo(int a, int *b); int main(void) { int x = 2; int arr[5]; foo(x, arr); return 0; } foo sometimes is passed a pointer as the second variable, that does not point to the arr array. We verify this by single stepping through the program, and see that the value of the arr variable in the main scope is not the same as the value of the b pointer variable in the foo scope. And no, this is not really reproduceable, we have just observed this behavior once in a while. Changing the example seems to solve the problem, like this: foo(int a, int *b); int main(void) { int arr[5]; int x = 2; foo(x, arr); return 0; } Does anybody have any input or hints as to why we experience this behavior? Or similar experiences? The MSP430 programming guide specifies that code should conform to the ANSI C89 spec. and so I was wondering if it says that arrays has to be declared before non-array variables? Any input on this would be appreciated.

    Read the article

  • twitter bootstrap typeahead (method 'toLowerCase' of undefined)

    - by mmoscosa
    I am trying to use twitter bootstrap to get the manufacturers from my DB. Because twitter bootstrap typeahead does not support ajax calls I am using this fork: https://gist.github.com/1866577 In that page there is this comment that mentions how to do exactly what I want to do. The problem is when I run my code I keep on getting: Uncaught TypeError: Cannot call method 'toLowerCase' of undefined I googled around and came tried changing my jquery file to both using the minified and non minified as well as the one hosted on google code and I kept getting the same error. My code currently is as follows: $('#manufacturer').typeahead({ source: function(typeahead, query){ $.ajax({ url: window.location.origin+"/bows/get_manufacturers.json", type: "POST", data: "", dataType: "JSON", async: false, success: function(results){ var manufacturers = new Array; $.map(results.data.manufacturers, function(data, item){ var group; group = { manufacturer_id: data.Manufacturer.id, manufacturer: data.Manufacturer.manufacturer }; manufacturers.push(group); }); typeahead.process(manufacturers); } }); }, property: 'name', items:11, onselect: function (obj) { } }); on the url field I added the window.location.origin to avoid any problems as already discussed on another question Also before I was using $.each() and then decided to use $.map() as recomended Tomislav Markovski in a similar question Anyone has any idea why I keep getting this problem?! Thank you

    Read the article

  • R plot- SGAM plot counts vs. time - how do I get dates on the x-axis?

    - by Nate
    I'd like to plot this vs. time, with the actual dates (years actually, 1997,1998...2010). The dates are in a raw format, ala SAS, days since 1960 (hence as.date conversion). If I convert the dates using as.date to variable x, and do the GAM plot, I get an error. It works fine with the raw day numbers. But I want the plot to display the years (data are not equally spaced). structure(list(site = c(928L, 928L, 928L, 928L, 928L, 928L, 928L, 928L, 928L, 928L, 928L, 928L, 928L, 928L, 928L, 928L, 928L, 928L, 928L, 928L, 928L, 928L, 928L, 928L, 928L, 928L), date = c(13493L, 13534L, 13566L, 13611L, 13723L, 13752L, 13804L, 13837L, 13927L, 14028L, 14082L, 14122L, 14150L, 14182L, 14199L, 16198L, 16279L, 16607L, 16945L, 17545L, 17650L, 17743L, 17868L, 17941L, 18017L, 18092L), y = c(7L, 7L, 17L, 18L, 17L, 17L, 10L, 3L, 17L, 24L, 11L, 5L, 5L, 3L, 5L, 14L, 2L, 9L, 9L, 4L, 7L, 6L, 1L, 0L, 5L, 0L)), .Names = c("site", "date", "y"), class = "data.frame", row.names = c(NA, -26L)) sgam1 <- gam(sites$y ~ s(sites$date)) sgam <- predict(sgam1, se=TRUE) plot(sites$date,sites$y,xaxt="n", xlab='Time', ylab='Counts') x<-as.Date(sites$date, origin="1960-01-01") axis(1, at=1:26,labels=x) lines(sites$date,sgam$fit, lty = 1) lines(sites$date,sgam$fit + 1.96* sgam$se, lty = 2) lines(sites$date,sgam$fit - 1.96* sgam$se, lty = 2) ggplot2 has a solution (it doesn't mind the as.date thing) but it gives me other problems...

    Read the article

  • Take most significant 8 bytes of the MD5 hash of a string as a long (in Ruby)

    - by Nate Murray
    Hey Friends, I'm trying to implement a java "hash" function in ruby. Here's the java side: import java.nio.charset.Charset; import java.security.MessageDigest; /** * @return most significant 8 bytes of the MD5 hash of the string, as a long */ protected long hash(String value) { byte[] md5hash; md5hash = md5Digest.digest(value.getBytes(Charset.forName("UTF8"))); long hash = 0L; for (int i = 0; i < 8; i++) { hash = hash << 8 | md5hash[i] & 0x00000000000000FFL; } return hash; } So far, my best guess in ruby is: # WRONG - doesn't work properly. #!/usr/bin/env ruby -wKU require 'digest/md5' require 'pp' md5hash = Digest::MD5.hexdigest("0").unpack("U*") pp md5hash hash = 0 0.upto(7) do |i| hash = hash << 8 | md5hash[i] & 0x00000000000000FF end pp hash Problem is, this ruby code doesn't match the java output. For reference, the above java code given these strings returns the corresponding long: "00038c53790ecedfeb2f83102e9115a522475d73" => -2059313900129568948 "0" => -3473083983811222033 "001211e8befc8ac22dd265ecaa77f8c227d0007f" => 3234260774580957018 Thoughts: I'm having problems getting the UTF8 bytes from the ruby string In ruby I'm using hexdigest, I suspect I should be using just digest instead The java code is taking the md5 of the UTF8 bytes whereas my ruby code is taking the bytes of the md5 (as hex) Any suggestions on how to get the exact same output in ruby?

    Read the article

  • Seam:token tag not being respected

    - by JBristow
    When I click a command button, and then hit the browser back button to the form and click it again, it submits a second time without throwing the proper exception... Even stranger, the form id itself is DIFFERENT when I come back, which implies it has regenerated a "valid" form id at some point. Here's the relevant code: Any ideas? <h:form id="accountActivationForm"> <s:token/> <a4j:commandButton id="cancelActivateAccountButton" action="#{controller[cancelAction]}" image="/images/button-Cancel-gray.gif" reRender="#{reRenderList}" oncomplete="#{onCancelComplete}" /> &#160; <a4j:commandButton id="activateAccountButton" action="#{controller[agreeAction]}" image="/images/button-i-agree-continue.gif" styleClass="activate-account-button" reRender="#{reRenderList}" oncomplete="#{onActivationComplete}"/> </h:form> Clarifications: I inherited this, so I'm trying to change it as little as possible. (It's used in a couple places.) Each action returns a view, not null. I have confirmed this by stepping through line-by-line. The reRenderList is empty in my current test-case. onActivationComplete is also empty. I'm going to be going template-by-template to see if someone made it with nested forms, because my coworkers have had unrelated problems due to that, so it couldn't hurt to eliminate that as a possible problem.

    Read the article

  • Registering custom webcontrol inside mvc view?

    - by kastermester
    I am in the middle of a project where I am migrating some code for a website from WebForms to MVC - unfortunatly there's not enough time to do it all at once, so I will have to do some... not so pretty solutions. I am though facing a problems with a custom control I have written that inherits from the standard GridView control namespace Controls { public class MyGridView : GridView { ... } } I have added to the web.config file as usual: <configuration> ... <system.web> ... <pages> ... <controls> ... <add tagPrefix="Xui" namespace="Controls"/> </controls> </pages> </system.web> </configuration> Then on the MVC View: <Xui:MyGridView ID="GridView1" runat="server" ...>...</Xui:MyGgridView> However I am getting a parser error stating that the control cannot be found. I am suspecting this has to do with the mix up of MVC and WebForms, however I am/was under the impression that such mixup should be possible, is there any kind of tweak for this? I realise this solution is far from ideal, however there's no time to "do the right thing". Thanks

    Read the article

  • wamp cannot load mysqli extension

    - by localhost
    WAMP installed fine, no problems, BUT... When going to phpMyAdmin, I get the error from phpMyAdmin as follows: "Cannot load mysqli extension. Please check your PHP configuration". Also, phpMyAdmin documentation explains this error message as follows: "To connect to a MySQL server, PHP needs a set of MySQL functions called "MySQL extension". This extension may be part of the PHP distribution (compiled-in), otherwise it needs to be loaded dynamically. Its name is probably mysql.so or php_mysql.dll. phpMyAdmin tried to load the extension but failed. Usually, the problem is solved by installing a software package called "PHP-MySQL" or something similar." Finally, the apache_error.log file has the following PHP warnings (see the mySQL warning): PHP Warning: Zend Optimizer does not support this version of PHP - please upgrade to the latest version of Zend Optimizer in Unknown on line 0 PHP Warning: Zend Platform does not support this version of PHP - please upgrade to the latest version of Zend Platform in Unknown on line 0 PHP Warning: Zend Debug Server does not support this version of PHP - please upgrade to the latest version of Zend Debug Server in Unknown on line 0 PHP Warning: gd wrapper does not support this version of PHP - please upgrade to the latest version of gd wrapper in Unknown on line 0 PHP Warning: java wrapper does not support this version of PHP - please upgrade to the latest version of java wrapper in Unknown on line 0 PHP Warning: mysql wrapper does not support this version of PHP - please upgrade to the latest version of mysql wrapper in Unknown on line 0 So, for some reason PHP is not recognizing the mysql extension. Anyone know why? Any solution or workaround?

    Read the article

  • Datastore performance, my code or the datastore latency

    - by fredrik
    I had for the last month a bit of a problem with a quite basic datastore query. It involves 2 db.Models with one referring to the other with a db.ReferenceProperty. The problem is that according to the admin logs the request takes about 2-4 seconds to complete. I strip it down to a bare form and a list to display the results. The put works fine, but the get accumulates (in my opinion) way to much cpu time. #The get look like this: outputData['items'] = {} labelsData = Label.all() for label in labelsData: labelItem = label.item.name if labelItem not in outputData['items']: outputData['items'][labelItem] = { 'item' : labelItem, 'labels' : [] } outputData['items'][labelItem]['labels'].append(label.text) path = os.path.join(os.path.dirname(__file__), 'index.html') self.response.out.write(template.render(path, outputData)) #And the models: class Item(db.Model): name = db.StringProperty() class Label(db.Model): text = db.StringProperty() lang = db.StringProperty() item = db.ReferenceProperty(Item) I've tried to make it a number of different way ie. instead of ReferenceProperty storing all Label keys in the Item Model as a db.ListProperty. My test data is just 10 rows in Item and 40 in Label. So my questions: Is it a fools errand to try to optimize this since the high cpu usage is due to the problems with the datastore or have I just screwed up somewhere in the code? ..fredrik

    Read the article

  • PostSharp when using DataContractSerializer?

    - by Dan Bryant
    I have an Aspect that implements INotifyPropertyChanged on a class. The aspect includes the following: [OnLocationSetValueAdvice, MethodPointcut("SelectProperties")] public void OnPropertySet(LocationInterceptionArgs args) { var currentValue = args.GetCurrentValue(); bool alreadyEqual = (currentValue == args.Value); // Call the setter args.ProceedSetValue(); // Invoke method OnPropertyChanged (ours, the base one, or the overridden one). if (!alreadyEqual) OnPropertyChangedMethod.Invoke(args.Location.Name); } This works fine when I instantiate the class normally, but I run into problems when I deserialize the class using a DataContractSerializer. This bypasses the constructor, which I'm guessing interferes with the way that PostSharp sets itself up. This ends up causing a NullReferenceException in an intercepted property setter, but before it has called the custom OnPropertySet, so I'm guessing it interferes with setting up the LocationInterceptionArgs. Has anyone else encountered this problem? Is there a way I can work around it? I did some more research and discovered I can fix the issue by doing this: [OnDeserializing] private void OnDeserializing(StreamingContext context) { AspectUtilities.InitializeCurrentAspects(); } I thought, okay, that's not too bad, so I tried to do this in my Aspect: private IEnumerable<MethodInfo> SelectDeserializing(Type type) { return type.GetMethods(BindingFlags.Instance | BindingFlags.NonPublic | BindingFlags.Public).Where( t => t.IsDefined(typeof (OnDeserializingAttribute), false)); } [OnMethodEntryAdvice, MethodPointcut("SelectDeserializing")] public void OnMethodEntry(MethodExecutionArgs args) { AspectUtilities.InitializeCurrentAspects(); } Unfortunately, even though it intercepts the method properly, it doesn't work. I'm thinking the call to InitializeCurrentAspects isn't getting transformed properly, since it's now inside the Aspect rather than directly inside the aspect-enhanced class. Is there a way I can cleanly automate this so that I don't have to worry about calling this on every class that I want to have the Aspect?

    Read the article

  • Django: How can I delete a formset entry if one of it's data is blank?

    - by mkret
    Hi, I have the following scenario: I have a form with data that does not need translation and a formset with a textfield that should be translated into an undefined amount of languages. Both parts are bound to a model. Each translated text is kept in a model with a foreign key that binds it to the untranslatable data. Something like: class Person(models.Model): name = models.CharField(max_length=60) birth_date = models.DateField() class PersonBio(models.Model): person = models.ForeignKey(Person) locale = models.CharField(max_length=10) bio = models.TextField() Each form in the formset has 2 fields: A textfield (with the translated text) A locale field (with the language into which the text was translated) I've got it working with no problems until I tryed to change it's normal behaviour. I wanted to eliminate the need for the DELETE field by deleting an instance of the translated text if the textfield was left blank. I've googled quite a lot now and read the whole documentation for forms, formsets and model validation but had no luck. To be honest, I couldn't even think of a solution. Where should I implement this? On a Form clean() method? On the view? Somewhere in the Fieldset? Fieldset's save() method, maybe? I'll keep trying to find a way to do that, but any help/tip/clue is appreciated. Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • How to test an application for correct encoding (e.g. UTF-8)

    - by Olaf
    Encoding issues are among the one topic that have bitten me most often during development. Every platform insists on its own encoding, most likely some non-UTF-8 defaults are in the game. (I'm usually working on Linux, defaulting to UTF-8, my colleagues mostly work on german Windows, defaulting to ISO-8859-1 or some similar windows codepage) I believe, that UTF-8 is a suitable standard for developing an i18nable application. However, in my experience encoding bugs are usually discovered late (even though I'm located in Germany and we have some special characters that along with ISO-8859-1 provide some detectable differences). I believe that those developers with a completely non-ASCII character set (or those that know a language that uses such a character set) are getting a head start in providing test data. But there must be a way to ease this for the rest of us as well. What [technique|tool|incentive] are people here using? How do you get your co-developers to care for these issues? How do you test for compliance? Are those tests conducted manually or automatically? Adding one possible answer upfront: I've recently discovered fliptitle.com (they are providing an easy way to get weird characters written "u?op ?pisdn" *) and I'm planning on using them to provide easily verifiable UTF-8 character strings (as most of the characters used there are at some weird binary encoding position) but there surely must be more systematic tests, patterns or techniques for ensuring UTF-8 compatibility/usage. Note: Even though there's an accepted answer, I'd like to know of more techniques and patterns if there are some. Please add more answers if you have more ideas. And it has not been easy choosing only one answer for acceptance. I've chosen the regexp answer for the least expected angle to tackle the problem although there would be reasons to choose other answers as well. Too bad only one answer can be accepted. Thank you for your input. *) that's "upside down" written "upside down" for those that cannot see those characters due to font problems

    Read the article

  • Using Git to work with subversion: Ignoring modifications to tracked files

    - by Chris Nicola
    I am currently working with a subversion repository but I am using git to work locally on my machine. It makes work much easier, but it also makes some of the bad behavior going on in the subversion repo quite glaring and that creates problems for me. There is a somewhat complex local build process after pulling down the code and it creates (and unfortunately modifies) a number of files. Obviously these changes are not meant to be committed back to the repository. Unfortunately the build process is actually modifying some tracked files (yes, most likely because someone mistakenly committed these build artifacts at some point to the subversion repository). Since these are modifications adding them to my ignore file does nothing for me. I can avoid checking these changes back it, I simple don't stage or commit them, but having unstaged local changes means I can't rebase without first cleaning them up. What I would like to know is if there any way to ignore future changes to a set of tracked files? Alternatively, is there another way to handle the problem I am having, or will I just have to tell whoever checked in these files to clean them up?

    Read the article

  • Sending solicited mass email

    - by Christian W
    Our company does work environment surveys, and these surveys are filled in online. All participants are sent a link to their survey in an email (personal code included). Some of our clients have employee counts in the hundreds and sometimes in the thousands. Our current solution is just using our SMTP-server to send this, without any form of throttling (VB6, CDO). (All recipients are usually "inside" the same domain, [email protected]) This is not a good solution, as you may imagine, this triggers every anti-spam/firewall/gatekeeper event in the clients environment. We are put in contact with their IT-department beforehand and get them to whitelist our sending server and sender-mail address. The most usual problems we run in to are: Receiving server only grabs the 20-50 first mails and rejects the rest (anti-spam measure). We sometimes can get by this by getting the it-company to whitelist us. Sometimes however, this does not work. It's getting more and more normal to disable bouncing of incorrect mail addresses. This gives us no indication of whether a mail has been delivered or not. And believe it or not, most clients gives us their email list from their HR-system, not their mailsystem. Does anyone have any suggestions for a better way to do this? We can't be the only company sending legitimate mass emails? :)

    Read the article

  • getting the list of all functions executed like call stack in asp.net

    - by sridhar
    Hi, I am having trouble with debugging one of the problems that I am having in our website. This is the problem. I have a webpage that contains the photo of an employee and information related to the employee. When the user logins to our website, we are storing the details of the employee in session. I am setting the image url for the photo of an employee as follows. imgEEPhoto.ImageUrl = imgPhoto.aspx?Company=XXXX&Empno=YYYY. Inside the page imgPhoto.aspx, I am checking if the session is alive for that user. when I login to the page that has the employee photo sometimes the photo is not displayed. It is because I am checking whether the session is alive inside the imgPhoto.aspx page. sometimes the session is alive and sometimes the session is not alive. It looks like there is some function that is setting the session to null asynchronously. I am not knowing how to track that function. so I am thinking that inside the imgPhoto.aspx page, if I can get the list of all functions that have been executed so far, I could track the function that is resetting the session. Is there a way to find this? If there is no another way to debug this problem, please let me know. Thanks, sridhar.

    Read the article

  • Sending mail with a Php with a pdf attachment

    - by Jake
    Hi, I'm trying to send an email from the php mail command. I've been able to what I've tried so far, but can't seem to get it to work with an attachment. I've looked around the web and the best code I've found led me to this: $fileatt_name = 'JuneFlyer.pdf'; $fileatt_type = 'application/pdf'; $fileatt = 'JuneFlyer.pdf'; $file = fopen($fileatt,'rb'); $data = fread($file,filesize($fileatt)); $data = chunk_split(base64_encode($data)); $MAEmail = "[email protected]"; mail("$email_address", "$subject", "$message", "From: ".$MAEmail."\n". "MIME-Version: 1.0\n". "Content-type: text/html; charset=iso-8859-1". "--{$mime_boundary}\n" . "Content-Type: {$fileatt_type};\n" . " name=\"{$fileatt_name}\"\n" . "Content-Disposition: attachment;\n" . " filename=\"{$fileatt_name}\"\n" . "Content-Transfer-Encoding: base64\n\n" .$data. "\n\n" ); There are two problems when I do this. First, the contents of the email dissappear. Second, there is an error on the attachment. "Adobe Reader could not open June_flyer.pdf because it is either not a supported file type or because the file has been damaged (for example it was sent as an email attachment and wasn't correctly decoded)" Any ideas of how to deal with this? Thanks, JB

    Read the article

  • Web Automation Tool

    - by Aaron
    I've realized I need a full-fledged browser automation tool for testing user interactions with our JavaScript widget library. I was using qunit, starting with unit testing and then I unwisely started incorporating more and more functional tests. That was a bad idea: trying to simulate a lot of user actions with JavaScript. The timing issues have gotten out of control and have made the suite too brittle. Now I spend more time fixing the tests, then I do developing. Is it possible to find a browser automation tool that works in: Windows XP: IE6,7,8, FF3 OSX: Safari, FF3 ? I've looked into SeleniumIDE and RC, but there seems to be some IE8 problems. I've also seen some things about Google's WebDriver, which confusingly seems to work with Selenium. Our organziation has licenses for IBM's Rational Functional Tester, but I don' think that will work on the MAC. The idea is to try to run tests on all the browsers our organization supports. Doable? Are my requirements unrealistic? Any recommendations as far as software to try? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Assembly reference from ASP.NET App_Code directory

    - by Gerald Schneider
    I have trouble getting a custom ObjectDataSource for an asp:ListView control to work. I have the class for the DataSource in the App_Code directory of the web application (as required by the asp:ListView control). using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.ComponentModel; using System.Configuration; using System.Data; using System.Data.Common; using System.Web; using System.DirectoryServices; [DataObject] public class UsersDAL { [DataObjectMethod(DataObjectMethodType.Select)] public List<User> LoadAll(int startIndex, int maxRows, string sortedBy) { List<User> users = new List<User>(); DirectoryEntry entry; return users; } } As soon as I add using System.DirectoryServices; the page crashes with this message: Compiler Error Message: CS0234: The type or namespace name 'DirectoryServices' does not exist in the namespace 'System' (are you missing an assembly reference?) Without the usage of System.DirectoryServices the page loads without problems. The reference is there, it is working in classes outside the App_Code directory.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 484 485 486 487 488 489 490 491 492 493 494 495  | Next Page >