Search Results

Search found 14799 results on 592 pages for 'instance eval'.

Page 489/592 | < Previous Page | 485 486 487 488 489 490 491 492 493 494 495 496  | Next Page >

  • x86_64 assembler: only one call per subroutine?

    - by zneak
    Hello everyone, I decided yesterday to start doing assembler. Most of it is okay (well, as okay as assembler can be), but I'm getting some problems with gas. It seems that I can call functions only once. After that, any subsequent call opcode with the same function name will fail. I must be doing something terribly wrong, though I can't see what. Take this small C function for instance: void path_free(path_t path) { if (path == NULL) return; free(((point_list_t*)path)->points); free(path); } I "translated" it to assembler like that: .globl _path_free _path_free: push rbp mov rbp, rsp cmp rdi, 0 jz byebye push rdi mov rdi, qword ptr [rdi] call _free pop rdi sub rsp, 8 call _free byebye: leave ret This triggers the following error for the second call _free: suffix or operands invalid for ``call''. And if I change it to something else, like free2, everything works (until link time, that is). Assembler code gcc -S gave me looks very similar to what I've done (except it's in AT&T syntax), so I'm kind of lost. I'm doing this on Mac OS X under the x86_64 architecture.

    Read the article

  • Why are virtual methods considered early bound?

    - by AspOnMyNet
    One definition of binding is that it is the act of replacing function names with memory addresses. a) Thus I assume early binding means function calls are replaced with memory addresses during compilation process, while with late binding this replacement happens during runtime? b) Why are virtual methods also considered early bound (thus the target method is found at compile time, and code is created that will call this method)? As far as I know, with virtual methods the call to actual method is resolved only during runtime and not compile time?! thanx EDIT: 1) A a=new A(); a.M(); As far as I know, it is not known at compile time where on the heap (thus at which memory address ) will instance a be created during runtime. Now, with early binding the function calls are replaced with memory addresses during compilation process. But how can compiler replace function call with memory address, if it doesn’t know where on the heap will object a be created during runtime ( here I’m assuming the address of method a.M will also be at same memory location as a )? 2) v-table calls are neither early nor late bound. Instead there's an offset into a table of function pointers. The offset is fixed at compile time, but which table the function pointer is chosen from depends on the runtime type of the object (the object contains a hidden pointer to its v-table), so the final function address is found at runtime. But assuming the object of type T is created via reflection ( thus app doesn’t even know of existence of type T ), then how can at compile time exist an entry point for that type of object?

    Read the article

  • Time complexity to fill hash table (homework)?

    - by Heathcliff
    This is a homework question, but I think there's something missing from it. It asks: Provide a sequence of m keys to fill a hash table implemented with linear probing, such that the time to fill it is minimum. And then Provide another sequence of m keys, but such that the time fill it is maximum. Repeat these two questions if the hash table implements quadratic probing I can only assume that the hash table has size m, both because it's the only number given and because we have been using that letter to address a hash table size before when describing the load factor. But I can't think of any sequence to do the first without knowing the hash function that hashes the sequence into the table. If it is a bad hash function, such that, for instance, it hashes every entry to the same index, then both the minimum and maximum time to fill it will take O(n) time, regardless of what the sequence looks like. And in the average case, where I assume the hash function is OK, how am I suppossed to know how long it will take for that hash function to fill the table? Aren't these questions linked to the hash function stronger than they are to the sequence that is hashed? As for the second question, I can assume that, regardless of the hash function, a sequence of size m with the same key repeated m-times will provide the maximum time, because it will cause linear probing from the second entry on. I think that will take O(n) time. Is that correct? Thanks

    Read the article

  • MVC 3, View Model for user registration process. Password validation not working properly

    - by sec_goat
    I am trying to create a user registration page using MVC 3, so that I can better understand the process of how it works, what's going on behind the scenes etc. I am running into some issues when trying to use [Compare] to check to see that the user entered the same password twice. I tried adding the ComparePassword field to my user model first, and found that would not work the way I wanted as I did not have the field in the database, so the obvious answer was to create a View Model using the same information including the ComparePassword field. So I now have created a User model and a RegistrationViewModel, however it appears that the [Compare] on the password is not returning anything, for instance no matter what I put in the two boxes, when I click create it gives no error, which seems to me to mean it was successfully validated. I am not sure what I am doing or not doing to make this work properly. I have tried updating the jQuery.Validate to the newest version as there were some bugs reported in older version, this has not helped my efforts. Below is a wall of code, that is what I am working with. } public class RegistrationViewModel { [Required] [StringLength(15, MinimumLength = 3)] [Display(Name = "User Name")] [RegularExpression(@"(\S)+", ErrorMessage = " White Space is not allowed in User Names")] [ScaffoldColumn(false)] public String Username { get; set; } [Required] [StringLength(15, MinimumLength = 3)] [Display(Name = "First Name")] public String firstName { get; set; } [Required] [StringLength(15, MinimumLength = 3)] [Display(Name = "Last Name")] public String lastName { get; set; } [Required] [Display(Name = "Email")] public String email { get; set; } [Required] [Display(Name = "Password")] [DataType(DataType.Password)] public String password { get; set; } [Required] [DataType(DataType.Password)] [Display(Name = "Re-enter Password")] [Compare("Password", ErrorMessage = "Passwords do not match.")] public String comparePassword { get; set; } }

    Read the article

  • Adding jQuery event handler to expand div when a link is clicked

    - by hollyb
    I'm using a bit of jQuery to expand/hide some divs. I need to add an event handler so that when a link is clicked, it opens a corrisponding div. Each toggled div will have a unique class assigned to it. I am looking for some advice about how to build the event handler. The jQuery $(document).ready(function(){ $(".toggle_container:not(:first)").hide(); $(".toggle_container:first").show(); $("h6.trigger:first").addClass("active"); $("h6.trigger").click(function(){ $(this).toggleClass("active"); $(this).next(".toggle_container").slideToggle(300); }); The css: // uses a background image with an on (+) and off (-) state stacked on top of each other h6.trigger { background: url(buttonBG.gif) no-repeat;height: 46px;line-height: 46px;width: 300px;font-size: 2em;font-weight: normal;} h6.trigger a {color: #fff;text-decoration: none; display: block;} h6.active {background-position: left bottom;} .toggle_container { overflow: hidden; } .toggle_container .block {padding: 20px;} The html has a list of links, such as: <a href="#">One</a> <a href="#">Two</a> and the coorisponding divs to open: <h6 class="trigger">Container one</h6> <div class="toggle_container"> div one </div> <h6 class="trigger">Container two</h6> <div class="toggle_container Open"> div one </div> As I mentioned, I will be assigning a unique class to facilitate this. Any advice? Thanks! To clarify, i'm looking for some advice to build an event handler to toggle open a specific div when a link is clicked from a different part of the page, from a nav for instance.

    Read the article

  • C# Configuration Manager . ConnectionStrings

    - by Yoda
    I have a console app containing an application configuration file containing one connection string as shown below: <configuration> <connectionStrings> <add name="Target" connectionString="server=MYSERVER; Database=MYDB; Integrated Security=SSPI;" /> </connectionStrings> </configuration> When I pass this to my Connection using: ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings[1].ToString() I have two values in there, hence using the second in the collection, my question is where is this second coming from? I have checked the Bin version and original and its not mine! Its obviously a system generated one but I have not seen this before? Can anyone enlighten me? The mystery connection string is: data source=.\SQLEXPRESS;Integrated Security=SSPI;AttachDBFilename=|DataDirectory|aspnetdb.mdf;User Instance=true This isn't a problem as such I would just like to know why this is occuring? Thanks in advance! For future reference to those who may or may not stumble on this, after discovering the machine.config its become apparent it is bad practice to refer to a config by its index as each stack will potentially be different, which is why "Keys" are used. Cheers all!

    Read the article

  • Deploying ASP.Net MVC application

    - by a_m0d
    I've recently reached the stage where an ASP.net MVC application I am developing is ready to be deployed to the production server. I've worked out how to publish the application - I've got all the files on the server, and can access them over the internet. However, I can't work out how to deploy my database. The server has the SQL Server Management Studio Express installed, as the database used is a SQL Server Express database. I have the server instance up and running - I just don't know how to add the tables, etc. to the database. I have created the "CREATE TABLE" scripts on the development machine, but as far as I can see, Management Studio does not provide any way to actually run these scripts. I have looked through all the menu items that I could see, and none of them worked. Even using the "Create new query..." option and pasting the script in didn't work. When I try "File-Open..." and select a script to run, set the correct database from the dropdown list on the toolbar, and then execute the script, it complains about not finding the database file (even when I set the USE [...] statement to the correct path. Deleting the USE [...] statement, the script complains that it can't find the [dbo].[Invoices] object; however, it shouldn't be able to find it, because its trying to create it! tl;dr: What's the best way to make sure that the database on the production machine matches the database on my development machine?

    Read the article

  • Project management: Implementing custom errors in VS compilation process

    - by David Lively
    Like many architects, I've developed coding standards through years of experience to which I expect my developers to adhere. This is especially a problem with the crowd that believes that three or four years of experience makes you a senior-level developer.Approaching this as a training and code review issue has generated limited success. So, I was thinking that it would be great to be able to add custom compile-time errors to the build process to more strictly enforce this and other guidelines. For instance, we use stored procedures for ALL database access, which provides procedure-level security, db encapsulation (table structure is hidden from the app), and other benefits. (Note: I am not interested in starting a debate about this.) Some developers prefer inline SQL or parametrized queries, and that's fine - on their own time and own projects. I'd like a way to add a compilation check that finds, say, anything that looks like string sql = "insert into some_table (col1,col2) values (@col1, @col2);" and generates an error or, in certain circumstances, a warning, with a message like Inline SQL and parametrized queries are not permitted. Or, if they use the var keyword var x = new MyClass(); Variable definitions must be explicitly typed. Do Visual Studio and MSBuild provide a way to add this functionality? I'm thinking that I could use a regular expression to find unacceptable code and generate the correct error, but I'm not sure what, from a performance standpoint, is the best way to to integrate this into the build process. We could add a pre- or post-build step to run a custom EXE, but how can I return line- and file-specifc errors? Also, I'd like this to run after compilation of each file, rather than post-link. Is a regex the best way to perform this type of pattern matching, or should I go crazy and run the code through a C# parser, which would allow node-level validation via the parse tree? I'd appreciate suggestions and tales of prior experience.

    Read the article

  • Php index page utitlizing an idea for a superswitch...

    - by Matt
    I dont know if this is a great idea...or a crap one. But I was thinking I may use one page to display all my pages using includes. Here is what my index.php would look like...on the functions include there is a function called "superSwitch" which will determine what requested page will be included....for instance if I do a get ?a=a it will goto the function superSwitch(a) superSwitch will take it and associate it with (login.php) then respond with such... here is the code for the index.php...please let me know if this makes sense and might work, or should I just stick to long blocks of code (which is why I am trying this because I hate long pages full of code...) of course as you can tell it is not actually including anything yet...the print is for debugging purposes. :) Thanks, Matt <?php //includes Functions include_once('inc/func.inc.php'); //set superget variable $superget = @$_GET['a']; //check if superget is set or null if (!$superget) { echo "Nothing Requested :)"; } else { //sanitizes the superget request $supergetr = supergetSanitize($superget) //uses the result "good" or "nogood" to determine what happens if ( $supergetr == "good" ) { //pulls superSwitch value of the request $ssresult = superSwitch($superget); print_r ($ssresult); } //if the sanitize is nogood else { //the superSwitch is instructed to respond with a 404 page $superget = "404" $ssresult = superSwitch($superget); print_r ($ssresult); } } ?>

    Read the article

  • Throwing a C++ exception after an inline-asm jump

    - by SoapBox
    I have some odd self modifying code, but at the root of it is a pretty simple problem: I want to be able to execute a jmp (or a call) and then from that arbitrary point throw an exception and have it caught by the try/catch block that contained the jmp/call. But when I do this (in gcc 4.4.1 x86_64) the exception results in a terminate() as it would if the exception was thrown from outside of a try/catch. I don't really see how this is different than throwing an exception from inside of some far-flung library, yet it obviously is because it just doesn't work. How can I execute a jmp or call but still throw an exception back to the original try/catch? Why doesn't this try/catch continue to handle these exceptions as it would if the function was called normally? The code: #include <iostream> #include <stdexcept> using namespace std; void thrower() { cout << "Inside thrower" << endl; throw runtime_error("some exception"); } int main() { cout << "Top of main" << endl; try { asm volatile ( "jmp *%0" // same thing happens with a call instead of a jmp : : "r"((long)thrower) : ); } catch (exception &e) { cout << "Caught : " << e.what() << endl; } cout << "Bottom of main" << endl << endl; } The expected output: Top of main Inside thrower Caught : some exception Bottom of main The actual output: Top of main Inside thrower terminate called after throwing an instance of 'std::runtime_error' what(): some exception Aborted

    Read the article

  • How to get more detail from an exception?

    - by cusimar9
    I have a .NET 4.0 web application which implements an error handler within the Application_Error event of Global.asax. When an exception occurs this intercepts it and sends me an email including a variety of information like the logged in user, the page the error occurred on, the contents of the session etc. This is all great but there is some fundamental detail missing which I seem unable to locate. For instance, this is a subset of an error I would receive and the associated stack trace: Source: Telerik.Web.UI Message: Selection out of range Parameter name: value Stack trace: at Telerik.Web.UI.RadComboBox.PerformDataBinding(IEnumerable dataSource) at Telerik.Web.UI.RadComboBox.OnDataSourceViewSelectCallback(IEnumerable data) at System.Web.UI.DataSourceView.Select(DataSourceSelectArguments arguments, DataSourceViewSelectCallback callback) at Telerik.Web.UI.RadComboBox.OnDataBinding(EventArgs e) at Telerik.Web.UI.RadComboBox.PerformSelect() at System.Web.UI.WebControls.BaseDataBoundControl.DataBind() at Telerik.Web.UI.RadComboBox.DataBind() at System.Web.UI.WebControls.BaseDataBoundControl.EnsureDataBound() at Telerik.Web.UI.RadComboBox.OnPreRender(EventArgs e) at System.Web.UI.Control.PreRenderRecursiveInternal() at System.Web.UI.Control.PreRenderRecursiveInternal() at System.Web.UI.Control.PreRenderRecursiveInternal() at System.Web.UI.Control.PreRenderRecursiveInternal() at System.Web.UI.Control.PreRenderRecursiveInternal() at System.Web.UI.Control.PreRenderRecursiveInternal() at System.Web.UI.Control.PreRenderRecursiveInternal() at System.Web.UI.Control.PreRenderRecursiveInternal() at System.Web.UI.Control.PreRenderRecursiveInternal() at System.Web.UI.Page.ProcessRequestMain(Boolean includeStagesBeforeAsyncPoint, Boolean includeStagesAfterAsyncPoint) Now as lovely as this is I could do with knowing a) the name of the control and b) the value which caused the control to be 'out of range'. Any suggestions about how I could get this sort of information? I've run this in debug mode and the objects passed to Global.asax don't seem to hold any more detail that I can see.

    Read the article

  • Reverse search in Hibernate Search

    - by Javi
    Hello, I'm using Hibernate Search (which uses Lucene) for searching some Data I have indexed in a directory. It works fine but I need to do a reverse search. By reverse search I mean that I have a list of queries stored in my database I need to check which one of these queries match with a Data object each time Data Object is created. I need it to alert the user when a Data Object matches with a Query he has created. So I need to index this single Data Object which has just been created and see which queries of my list has this object as a result. I've seen Lucene MemoryIndex Class to create an index in memory so I can do something like this example for every query in a list (though iterating in a Java list of queries would not be very efficient): //Iterating over my list<Query> MemoryIndex index = new MemoryIndex(); //Add all fields index.addField("myField", "myFieldData", analyzer); ... QueryParser parser = new QueryParser("myField", analyzer); float score = index.search(query); if (score > 0.0f) { System.out.println("it's a match"); } else { System.out.println("no match found"); } The problem here is that this Data Class has several Hibernate Search Annotations @Field,@IndexedEmbedded,... which indicated how fields should be indexed, so when I invoke index() method on the FullTextEntityManager instance it uses this information to index the object in the directory. Is there a similar way to index it in memory using this information? Is there a more efficient way of doing this reverse search? Thanks

    Read the article

  • Designing DAOs around a JSON API for iPhone Development

    - by Bob Spryn
    So I've been trying to design a clean way of grabbing data for my models in iPhone land. All the data for my application is coming from JSON API's. So right now when a VC needs some models, it does the JSON call itself (asynch) and when it receives the data, it builds the models. It works, but I'm trying to think of a cleaner method whereby the DAO's retrieve the information for me and return the models, all in an async manner. My initial thought is build a protocol for my DAOs, such that the VC would instantiate a DAO and make itself the delegate. When you requested data [DAOinstance getAllUsers] the DAO would do all the network request stuff, and then when it had the data, it would call a method on its delegate (the VC) to pass the data. So I think that's a cool solution, but realized that if I needed to use the same DAO for different purposes in the same VC, my delegate method would have to branch logic depending on which DAO instance initiated the request. So my second thought was to be able to pass 'handler' selectors to the DAO object a la typical javascript patterns. So instead of an official protocol, I would say something like [DAOinstance getAllUsersWithSelector:"TheHandlerFunctionOnMyVC:"] Then when the DAO completed its network activities, it would call the passed selector on the VC, and pass the data back. So am I headed in the wrong direction entirely here? Seems like maybe an ok way to go. Any pointers or articles on designing this kind of data layer would be sweet. Thanks! Bob

    Read the article

  • Modelbinding using Interfaces in ASP.NET MVC 2

    - by Thomas
    I have the following View Data: public class ShoppingCartViewData { public IList<IShoppingCartItem> Cart { get; set; } } I populate the viewdata in my controller: viewData.Cart = CurrentSession.CartItems; return View(viewData); And send the data to the view and display it using: <% for (int i = 0; i < Model.Cart.Count; i++ ) { %> <%= Html.TextBoxFor(m => m.Cart[i].Quantity)%> <%= Html.HiddenFor(m => m.Cart[i].Id) %> <% } %> I want to be able to catch the viewdata on the post. When I try: [HttpPost] public ActionResult UpdateCart(ShoppingCartViewData viewData) { ... } When I run this I get a: System.MissingMethodException: Cannot create an instance of an interface. Can anyone shed some light on this. What would I have to do to get this to work? Many Thanks

    Read the article

  • Can I detect whether an object has called GC.SuppressFinalize?

    - by Joe White
    Is there a way to detect whether or not an object has called GC.SuppressFinalize? I have an object that looks something like this (full-blown Dispose pattern elided for clarity): public class ResourceWrapper { private readonly bool _ownsResource; private readonly UnmanagedResource _resource; public ResourceWrapper(UnmanagedResource resource, bool ownsResource) { _resource = resource; _ownsResource = ownsResource; if (!ownsResource) GC.SuppressFinalize(this); } ~ResourceWrapper() { if (_ownsResource) // clean up the unmanaged resource } } If the ownsResource constructor parameter is false, then the finalizer will have nothing to do -- so it seems reasonable (if a bit quirky) to call GC.SuppressFinalize right from the constructor. However, because this behavior is quirky, I'm very tempted to note it in an XML doc comment... and if I'm tempted to comment it, then I ought to write a unit test for it. But while System.GC has methods to set an object's finalizability (SuppressFinalize, ReRegisterForFinalize), I don't see any methods to get an object's finalizability. Is there any way to query whether GC.SuppressFinalize has been called on a given instance, short of buying Typemock or writing my own CLR host?

    Read the article

  • Basic Question on storing variables c# for use in other classes

    - by Calibre2010
    Ok guys I basically have a class which takes in 3 strings through the parameter of one of its method signatures. I've then tried to map these 3 strings to global variables as a way to store them. However, when I try to call these global variables from another class after instantiating this class they display as null values. this is the class which gets the 3 strings through the method setDate, and the mapping.. public class DateLogic { public string year1; public string month1; public string day1; public DateLogic() { } public void setDate(string year, string month, string day) { year1 = year; month1 = month; day1 = day; // getDate(); } public string getDate() { return year1 + " " + month1 + " " + day1; } } After this I try call this class from here public static string TimeLine2(this HtmlHelper helper, string myString2) { DateLogic g = new DateLogic(); string sday = g.day1; string smonth = g.month1; string syr = g.year1; } I've been debugging and the values make it all the way to the global variables but when called from this class here it doesnt show them, just shows null. Is this cause I'm creating a brand new instance, how do i resolve this?

    Read the article

  • LINQ to SQL - How to efficiently do either an AND or an OR search for multiple criteria

    - by Dan Diplo
    I have an ASP.NET MVC site (which uses Linq To Sql for the ORM) and a situation where a client wants a search facility against a bespoke database whereby they can choose to either do an 'AND' search (all criteria match) or an 'OR' search (any criteria match). The query is quite complex and long and I want to know if there is a simple way I can make it do both without having to have create and maintain two different versions of the query. For instance, the current 'AND' search looks something like this (but this is a much simplified version): private IQueryable<SampleListDto> GetSampleSearchQuery(SamplesCriteria criteria) { var results = from r in Table where (r.Id == criteria.SampleId) && (r.Status.SampleStatusId == criteria.SampleStatusId) && (r.Job.JobNumber.StartsWith(criteria.JobNumber)) && (r.Description.Contains(criteria.Description)) select r; } I could copy this and replace the && with || operators to get the 'OR' version, but feel there must be a better way of achieving this. Does anybody have any suggestions how this can be achieved in an efficient and flexible way that is easy to maintain? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • C# creating a Class, having objects as member variables? I think the objects are garbage collecte

    - by Bryan
    So I have a class that has the following member variables. I have get and set functions for every piece of data in this class. public class NavigationMesh { public Vector3 node; int weight; bool isWall; bool hasTreasure; public NavigationMesh(int x, int y, int z, bool setWall, bool setTreasure) { //default constructor //Console.WriteLine(x + " " + y + " " + z); node = new Vector3(x, y, z); //Console.WriteLine(node.X + " " + node.Y + " " + node.Z); isWall = setWall; hasTreasure = setTreasure; weight = 1; }// end constructor public float getX() { Console.WriteLine(node.X); return node.X; } public float getY() { Console.WriteLine(node.Y); return node.Y; } public float getZ() { Console.WriteLine(node.Z); return node.Z; } public bool getWall() { return isWall; } public void setWall(bool item) { isWall = item; } public bool getTreasure() { return hasTreasure; } public void setTreasure(bool item) { hasTreasure = item; } public int getWeight() { return weight; } }// end class In another class, I have a 2-Dim array that looks like this NavigationMesh[,] mesh; mesh = new NavigationMesh[502,502]; I use a double for loop to assign this, my problem is I cannot get the data I need out of the Vector3 node object after I create this object in my array with my "getters". I've tried making the Vector3 a static variable, however I think it refers to the last instance of the object. How do I keep all of these object in memory? I think there being garbage collected. Any thoughts?

    Read the article

  • Sending and receiving IM messages via controller in Rails

    - by Grnbeagle
    Hi, I need a way to handle XMPP communication in my Rails app. My requirements are: Keep an instance of XMPP client running and logged in as one specific user (my bot user) Trigger an event from a controller to send a message and wait for a reply. The message is sent to another machine equipped with a bot so that the reply is supposed to be returned quickly. I installed xmpp4r and backgrounDrb similar to what's described here, but backgrounDrb seems to have evolved and I couldn't get it to wait for a reply. If it has to happen asynchronously, I am willing to use a server-push technology to notify the browser when the reply arrives. To give you a better idea, here are snippets of my code: (In controller) class ServicesController < ApplicationController layout 'simple' def index render :text => "index" end def show @my_service = Service.find(params[:id]) worker = MiddleMan.worker(:jabber_agent_worker) worker.send_request(:arg => {:jid => "someuser@someserver", :cmd => "help"}) render :text => "testing" end end (In worker script) require 'xmpp4r' require 'logger' class JabberAgentWorker < BackgrounDRb::MetaWorker set_worker_name :jabber_agent_worker def create(args = nil) jid = Jabber::JID.new('myagent@myserver') @client = Jabber::Client.new(jid) @client.connect @client.auth('pass') @client.send(Jabber::Presence.new.set_show(:chat).set_status('BackgrounDRb')) @client.add_message_callback do |message| logger.info("**** messaged received: #{message}") # never reaches here end end def send_request(args = nil) to_jid = Jabber::JID.new(args[:jid]) message = Jabber::Message::new(to_jid, args[:cmd]).set_type(:normal).set_id('1') @client.send(message) end end If anyone can tell me any of the following, I'd much appreciate it: issue with my backgrounDrb usage other background process alternatives appropriate for XMPP interactions other ways of achieving this Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • From where starts the process' memory space and where does it end?

    - by nhaa123
    Hi, I'm trying to dump memory from my application where the variables lye. Here's the function: void MyDump(const void *m, unsigned int n) { const unsigned char *p = reinterpret_cast<const unsigned char *(m); char buffer[16]; unsigned int mod = 0; for (unsigned int i = 0; i < n; ++i, ++mod) { if (mod % 16 == 0) { mod = 0; std::cout << " | "; for (unsigned short j = 0; j < 16; ++j) { switch (buffer[j]) { case 0xa: case 0xb: case 0xd: case 0xe: case 0xf: std::cout << " "; break; default: std::cout << buffer[j]; } } std::cout << "\n0x" << std::setfill('0') << std::setw(8) << std::hex << (long)i << " | "; } buffer[i % 16] = p[i]; std::cout << std::setw(2) << std::hex << static_cast<unsigned int(p[i]) << " "; if (i % 4 == 0 && i != 1) std::cout << " "; } } Now, how can I know from which address starts my process memory space, where all the variables are stored? And how do I now, how long the area is? For instance: MyDump(0x0000 /* <-- Starts from here? */, 0x1000 /* <-- This much? */); Best regards, nhaa123

    Read the article

  • capture delete key in CListCtrl and do soem processing

    - by user333422
    Hi, I have a class which inherits from CListCtrl class, say class list. I have another class dlg, which inherits from CDialog. Class dlg contains an instance of class list. I have got a delete button in class dlg, on which I delete the selected item in listCtrl and do lots of other processing. I want the same functionality on delete key. I added OnKeyDown() fn is my class list, where I can capture VK_DELETE key. But my problem is that, how do I do otehr processing that I need to do in dialog class. All that processing is dlg class based not list class based. I have many such dlg classes with different data and in every dlg class processing is different. I tried capturing VK_DELETE in dialog class, but it doesn't capture it if focus is on list class. I am totally stuck and have no idea, how to do this. Please give me some idea how i can do this. Thanks, SG

    Read the article

  • Is there a good way to execute MySQL statements atomically via JDBC?

    - by javanix
    Suppose I have a table that contains valid data. I would like to modify this data in some way, but I'd like to make sure that if any errors occur with the modification, the table isn't changed and the method returns something to that effect. For instance, (this is kind of a dumb example, but it illustrates the point so bear with me) suppose I want to edit all the entries in a "name" column so that they are properly capitalized. For some reason, I want either ALL of the names to have proper capitalization, or NONE of them to have proper capitalization (and the starting state of the table is that NONE of them do). Is there an already-implemented way to run a batch update on the table and be assured that, if any one of the updates fails, all changes are rolled back and the table remains unchanged? I can think of a few ways to do this by hand (though suggestions are welcomed), but it'd be nice if there was some method I could use that would function this way. I looked at the java.sql.statement.executeBatch() command, but I'm not convinced by the documentation that my table wouldn't be changed if it failed in some manner.

    Read the article

  • Improve Log Exceptions

    - by Jaider
    I am planning to use log4net in a new web project. In my experience, I see how big the log table can get, also I notice that errors or exceptions are repeated. For instance, I just query a log table that have more than 132.000 records, and I using distinct and found that only 2.500 records are unique (~2%), the others (~98%) are just duplicates. so, I came up with this idea to improve logging. Having a couple of new columns: counter and updated_dt, that are updated every time try to insert same record. If want to track the user that cause the exception, need to create a user_log or log_user table, to map N-N relationship. Create this model may made the system slow and inefficient trying to compare all these long text... Here the trick, we should also has a hash column of binary of 16 or 32, that hash the message and the exception, and configure an index on it. We can use HASHBYTES to help us. I am not an expert in DB, but I think that will made the faster way to locate a similar record. And because hashing doesn't guarantee uniqueness, will help to locale those similar record much faster and later compare by message or exception directly to make sure that are unique. This is a theoretical/practical solution, but will it work or bring more complexity? what aspects I am leaving out or what other considerations need to have? the trigger will do the job of insert or update, but is the trigger the best way to do it?

    Read the article

  • coredata using old file version on device

    - by Martin KS
    This is a follow on from my previous problems here. Resetting the simulator solved all my troubles before, and I've gone on to complete my App. I now have the exact same problem when installing the app onto my iPhone device. It picks up an old version of my database, which doesn't have the second entity in it, and crashes when I try to access the second entity: 2010-04-22 23:52:18.860 albumCloud[135:207] *** Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSInternalInconsistencyException', reason: '+entityForName: could not locate an NSManagedObjectModel for entity name 'Image'' 2010-04-22 23:52:18.874 albumCloud[135:207] Stack: ( 843263261, 825818644, 820669213, 20277, 844154820, 16985, 14633, 844473760, 844851728, 862896011, 843011267, 843009055, 860901832, 843738160, 843731504, 11547, 11500 ) terminate called after throwing an instance of 'NSException' I have two questions: 1) How on earth do I delete my app thoroughly enough from my phone that it removes the old data? (I've so far tried regular app deletion, deleting and then holding home and power for a reboot, cursing at and threatening the app while running it... everything) 2) How do I prevent this happening when my application is in the App store, and I for some reason decide that I want to add another entity to the store, or another attribute to the existing entities? is there an "if x doesn't exist then create it" method?

    Read the article

  • Technical choices in unmarshaling hash-consed data

    - by Pascal Cuoq
    There seems to be quite a bit of folklore knowledge floating about in restricted circles about the pitfalls of hash-consing combined with marshaling-unmarshaling of data. I am looking for citable references to these tidbits. For instance, someone once pointed me to library aterm and mentioned that the authors had clearly thought about this and that the representation on disk was bottom-up (children of a node come before the node itself in the data stream). This is indeed the right way to do things when you need to re-share each node (with a possible identical node already in memory). This re-sharing pass needs to be done bottom-up, so the unmarshaling itself might as well be, too, so that it's possible to do everything in a single pass. I am in the process of describing difficulties encountered in our own context, and the solutions we found. I would appreciate any citable reference to the kind of aforementioned folklore knowledge. Some people obviously have encountered the problems before (the aterm library is only one example). But I didn't find anything in writing. Even the little piece of information I have about aterm is hear-say. I am not worried it's not reliable (you can't make this up), but "personal communication" and "look how it's done in the source code" are considered poor form in citations. I have enough references on hash-consing alone. I am only interested in references where it interferes with other aspects of programming, such as marshaling or distribution.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 485 486 487 488 489 490 491 492 493 494 495 496  | Next Page >