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  • Concurrent WCF calls via shared channel

    - by Kent Boogaart
    I have a web tier that forwards calls onto an application tier. The web tier uses a shared, cached channel to do so. The application tier services in question are stateless and have concurrency enabled. But they are not being called concurrently. If I alter the web tier to create a new channel on every call, then I do get concurrent calls onto the application tier. But I wanted to avoid that cost since it is functionally unnecessary for my scenario. I have no session state, and nor do I need to re-authenticate the caller each time. I understand that the creation of the channel factory is far more expensive than than the creation of the channels, but it is still a cost I'd like to avoid if possible. I found this article on MSDN that states: While channels and clients created by the channels are thread-safe, they might not support writing more than one message to the wire concurrently. If you are sending large messages, particularly if streaming, the send operation might block waiting for another send to complete. Firstly, I'm not sending large messages (just a lot of small ones since I'm doing load testing) but am still seeing the blocking behavior. Secondly, this is rather open-ended and unhelpful documentation. It says they "might not" support writing more than one message but doesn't explain the scenarios under which they would support concurrent messages. Can anyone shed some light on this?

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  • Selective JQuery validation

    - by TenaciousImpy
    Hi, I'm using JQuery Validation to validate a particular textbox in my form. The textbox is an optional website section, which uses the url validation method. This works fine and validates accordingly. I would like to have http:// preset into the textbox, to save the user having to type it. However, when the text is set, the validator becomes 'active', and prevents anything on the form being submitted until either the http:// is manually removed, or a valid website is entered. Is there a way of preseting text into the textbox, which won't cause the validator to start validating? I tried to use $("[id$='tbWebsite']").val("http://"); just before I call form.validate(), but it doesn't work (i.e. it still gets checked). I've never used JQuery Validator before, so hopefully there's a fix for this that I'm missing! An alternate solution for my case in particular, could be to activate the validator if a certain button is pressed (instead of any button on the form). Would that be possible? Thanks

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  • Could my forms be hacked.

    - by Mike Sandman
    Hi there, I posted a question yesterday, which I intend to get back to today however I wrote some JavaScript as a first line of prevention against XSS. However when testing this on my live server I catch some invalid input as the javascript catches the php section. My form uses post and php isn't in my form items (i haven't typed it in). Could this be picking up the form action or something? I'm baffeled, Any ideas Here is my code, it is triggered on the submit button. function validateForBadNess(){ var theShit = new Array("*","^", "$", "(",")","{", "}","[", "]","\", "|", "'","/","?",",","=","","gt","lt", "<","script","`","´","php"); var tagName = new Array(); tagName[0] = "input"; tagName[1] = "select"; tagName[2] = "textbox"; tagName[3] = "textarea"; for (ms=0;ms // loop through the elements of the form var formItems = document.getElementsByTagName(tagName[ms]); for (var xs=0;xs var thisString = formItems[xs].value; // loop through bad array for (zs in theShit){ //alert(thisString + " " + thisString.indexOf(theShit[zs])) if(thisString.indexOf(theShit[zs]) >= 0){ alert("Sorry but the following character: " + theShit[zs] + " is not permitted. Please omit it from your input.\nIf this is part of your password please contact us to heave your password reset.") return false; } } // loop for formitems } // tagName toop } // original condition }

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  • [android] Is it possible to receive SMS message on appWidget?

    - by cappuccino
    [Android] Hi, everyone. Is it possible to receive SMS message on appWidget? I saw android sample soucrce(API Demos). In API Demos, ExampleAppWidgetProvider class extends AppWidgetProvider, not Activity. So, I guess it is impossible to regist SMS Receiver like this, rcvIncoming = new BroadcastReceiver() { @Override public void onReceive(Context context, Intent intent) { Log.i("telephony", "SMS received"); Bundle data = intent.getExtras(); if (data != null) { // SMS uses a data format known as a PDU Object pdus[] = (Object[]) data.get("pdus"); String message = "New message:\n"; String sender = null; for (Object pdu : pdus) { SmsMessage part = SmsMessage.createFromPdu((byte[])pdu); message += part.getDisplayMessageBody(); if (sender == null) { sender = part.getDisplayOriginatingAddress(); } } Log.i(sender, message); } } }; registerReceiver(rcvIncoming, new IntentFilter("android.provider.Telephony.SMS_RECEIVED")); My goal is to receive SMS message on my custom appWidget. any help would be appreciated!!

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  • PHP News Feed Database & Design

    - by pws5068
    I'm designing a News Feed system using PHP/MySQL similar to facebook's. I have asked a similar question before but now I've changed the design and I'm looking for feedback. Example News: User_A commented on User_B's new album. "Hey man nice pictures!" User_B added a new Photo to [his/her] profile. [show photo thumbnail] Initially, I implemented this using excessive columns for Obj1:Type1 | Obj2:Type2 | etc.. Now the design is set up using a couple special keywords, and actor/receiver relationships. My database uses a table of messages joined on a table containing userid,actionid,receiverid,receiverObjectTypeID, Here's a condensed version of what it will look like once joined: News_ID | User_ID | Message | Timestamp 2643 A %a commented on %o's new %r. SomeTimestamp 2644 B %a added a new %r to [his/her] profile. SomeTimestamp %a = the User_ID of the person doing the action %r = the receiving object %o = the owner of the receiving object (for example the owner of the album) (NULL if %r is a user) Questions: Is this a smart (efficient/scalable) way to move forward? How can I show messages like: "User_B added 4 new photos to his profile."?

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  • Password hashing, salt and storage of hashed values

    - by Jonathan Leffler
    Suppose you were at liberty to decide how hashed passwords were to be stored in a DBMS. Are there obvious weaknesses in a scheme like this one? To create the hash value stored in the DBMS, take: A value that is unique to the DBMS server instance as part of the salt, And the username as a second part of the salt, And create the concatenation of the salt with the actual password, And hash the whole string using the SHA-256 algorithm, And store the result in the DBMS. This would mean that anyone wanting to come up with a collision should have to do the work separately for each user name and each DBMS server instance separately. I'd plan to keep the actual hash mechanism somewhat flexible to allow for the use of the new NIST standard hash algorithm (SHA-3) that is still being worked on. The 'value that is unique to the DBMS server instance' need not be secret - though it wouldn't be divulged casually. The intention is to ensure that if someone uses the same password in different DBMS server instances, the recorded hashes would be different. Likewise, the user name would not be secret - just the password proper. Would there be any advantage to having the password first and the user name and 'unique value' second, or any other permutation of the three sources of data? Or what about interleaving the strings? Do I need to add (and record) a random salt value (per password) as well as the information above? (Advantage: the user can re-use a password and still, probably, get a different hash recorded in the database. Disadvantage: the salt has to be recorded. I suspect the advantage considerably outweighs the disadvantage.) There are quite a lot of related SO questions - this list is unlikely to be comprehensive: Encrypting/Hashing plain text passwords in database Secure hash and salt for PHP passwords The necessity of hiding the salt for a hash Clients-side MD5 hash with time salt Simple password encryption Salt generation and Open Source software I think that the answers to these questions support my algorithm (though if you simply use a random salt, then the 'unique value per server' and username components are less important).

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  • How to pass multiple different records (not class due to delphi limitations) to a function?

    - by mingo
    Hi to all. I have a number of records I cannot convert to classes due to Delphi limitation (all of them uses class operators to implement comparisons). But I have to pass to store them in a class not knowing which record type I'm using. Something like this: type R1 = record begin x :Mytype; class operator Equal(a,b:R1) end; type R2 = record begin y :Mytype; class operator Equal(a,b:R2) end; type Rn = record begin z :Mytype; class operator Equal(a,b:Rn) end; type TC = class begin x : TObject; y : Mytype; function payload (n:TObject) end; function TC.payload(n:TObject) begin x := n; end; program: c : TC; x : R1; y : R2; ... c := TC.Create(): n:=TOBject(x); c.payload(n); Now, Delphi do not accept typecast from record to TObject, and I cannot make them classes due to Delphi limitation. Anyone knows a way to pass different records to a function and recognize their type when needed, as we do with class: if x is TMyClass then TMyClass(x) ... ???

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  • Mysql Database Question about Large Columns

    - by murat
    Hi, I have a table that has 100.000 rows, and soon it will be doubled. The size of the database is currently 5 gb and most of them goes to one particular column, which is a text column for PDF files. We expect to have 20-30 GB or maybe 50 gb database after couple of month and this system will be used frequently. I have couple of questions regarding with this setup 1-) We are using innodb on every table, including users table etc. Is it better to use myisam on this table, where we store text version of the PDF files? (from memory usage /performance perspective) 2-) We use Sphinx for searching, however the data must be retrieved for highlighting. Highlighting is done via sphinx API but still we need to retrieve 10 rows in order to send it to Sphinx again. This 10 rows may allocate 50 mb memory, which is quite large. So I am planning to split these PDF files into chunks of 5 pages in the database, so these 100.000 rows will be around 3-4 million rows and couple of month later, instead of having 300.000-350.000 rows, we'll have 10 million rows to store text version of these PDF files. However, we will retrieve less pages, so again instead of retrieving 400 pages to send Sphinx for highlighting, we can retrieve 5 pages and it will have a big impact on the performance. Currently, when we search a term and retrieve PDF files that have more than 100 pages, the execution time is 0.3-0.35 seconds, however if we retrieve PDF files that have less than 5 pages, the execution time reduces to 0.06 seconds, and it also uses less memory. Do you think, this is a good trade-off? We will have million of rows instead of having 100k-200k rows but it will save memory and improve the performance. Is it a good approach to solve this problem and do you have any ideas how to overcome this problem? The text version of the data is used only for indexing and highlighting. So, we are very flexible. Thanks,

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  • Screen capture doesn't work on MFC application in Vista

    - by David Thornley
    We've got some in-house applications built in MFC, with OpenGL drawing routines. They all use the same code to draw on the screen and either print the screen or save it to a JPEG file. Everything's been working fine in Windows XP, and I need to find a way to make them work on Vista. In three of our applications, everything works. In the remaining one, I can get the window border, title bar, menus, and task bar, but the interior never shows up. As I said, these applications use the exact same code to write to the screen and capture the window image, and the only difference I see that looks like it might be relevant is that the problem application uses the MFC multiple document interface, while the ones that work use the single document interface. Either the answer isn't on the net, or I'm worse at Googling than I thought. I asked on the MSDN forums, and the only practical suggestion I got was to use GDI+ rather than GDI, and that did nothing different. I have tried different things with every part of the code that captures and prints or save, given a pointer to the window, so apparently it's a matter of the window itself. I haven't rebuilt the offending application using SDI yet, and I really don't have any other ideas. Has anybody seen anything like this?

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  • Is there a way to programmatically tell if particular block of memory was not freed by FastMM?

    - by Wodzu
    I am trying to detect if a block of memory was not freed. Of course, the manager tells me that by dialog box or log file, but what if I would like to store results in a database? For example I would like to have in a database table a names of routines which allocated given blocks. After reading a documentation of FastMM I know that since version 4.98 we have a possibility to be notified by manager about memory allocations, frees and reallocations as they occur. For example OnDebugFreeMemFinish event is passing to us a PFullDebugBlockHeader which contains useful informations. There is one thing that PFullDebugBlockHeader is missing - the information if the given block was freed by the application. Unless OnDebugFreeMemFinish is called only for not freed blocks? This is which I do not know and would like to find out. The problem is that even hooking into OnDebugFreeMemFinish event I was unable to find out if the block was freed or not. Here is an example: program MemLeakTest; {$APPTYPE CONSOLE} uses FastMM4, ExceptionLog, SysUtils; procedure MemFreeEvent(APHeaderFreedBlock: PFullDebugBlockHeader; AResult: Integer); begin //This is executed at the end, but how should I know that this block should be freed //by application? Unless this is executed ONLY for not freed blocks. end; procedure Leak; var MyObject: TObject; begin MyObject := TObject.Create; end; begin OnDebugFreeMemFinish := MemFreeEvent; Leak; end. What I am missing is the callback like: procedure OnMemoryLeak(APointer: PFullDebugBlockHeader); After browsing the source of FastMM I saw that there is a procedure: procedure LogMemoryLeakOrAllocatedBlock(APointer: PFullDebugBlockHeader; IsALeak: Boolean); which could be overriden, but maybe there is an easier way?

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  • Three20 TTSectionedDataSource row height

    - by Ward
    Hey there, I'm using Three20 to create a table with several textfields for user registration. I've found two possible methods using Three20. The first uses the TTSectionedDataSource's tableDidLoadModel method to manually add UI components and the second adds custom items that contains pre formatted UI components. The second option seems way more complex and I'm having a difficult time accessing the individual fields. So if one field is a textfield for the username, I need to access the field to submit the username and it doesn't seem like there's an easy answer. The first option gives me a lot of flexibility, but I can't figure out how to set the individual row heights. One row may have a label above a text field, another may have an image, etc. Is there a method that can be used in TTSectionedDataSource that will allow me to set the height for each row? Thus far, I'm using method one and creating UIViews to hold a label field and a text field. I've tried changing the frame of the uiview before it is added to the items array, but it has no affect. Any ideas?

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  • Can I copy an entire Magento application to a new server?

    - by Gapton
    I am quite new to Magento and I have a case where a client has a running ecommerce website built with Magento and is running on Amazon AWS EC2 server. If I can locate the web root (/var/www/) and download everything from it (say via FTP), I should be able to boot up my virtual machine with LAMP installed, put every single files in there and it should run, right? So I did just that, and Magento is giving me an error. I am guessing there are configs somewhere that needs to be changed in order to make it work, or even a lot of paths need to be changed etc. Also databases to be replicated. What are the typical things I should get right? Database is one, and the EC2 instance uses nginx while I use plain Apache, I guess that won't work straight out of the box, and I probably will have to install nginx and a lot of other stuffs. But basically, if I setup the environment right, it should run. Is my assumption correct? Thanks for answering!

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  • Python to C# with openSSL requirement

    - by fonix232
    Hey there again! Today I ran into a problem when I was making a new theme creator for chrome. As you may know, Chrome uses a "new" file format, called CRX, to manage it's plugins and themes. It is a basic zip file, but a bit modified: "Cr24" + derkey + signature + zipFile And here comes the problem. There are only two CRX creators, written in Ruby or Python. I don't know neither language too much (had some basic experience in Python though, but mostly with PyS60), so I would like to ask you to help me convert this python app to a C# class. Also, here is the source of crxmake.py: #!/usr/bin/python # Cribbed from http://github.com/Constellation/crxmake/blob/master/lib/crxmake.rb # and http://src.chromium.org/viewvc/chrome/trunk/src/chrome/tools/extensions/chromium_extension.py?revision=14872&content-type=text/plain&pathrev=14872 # from: http://grack.com/blog/2009/11/09/packing-chrome-extensions-in-python/ import sys from array import * from subprocess import * import os import tempfile def main(argv): arg0,dir,key,output = argv # zip up the directory input = dir + ".zip" if not os.path.exists(input): os.system("cd %(dir)s; zip -r ../%(input)s . -x '.svn/*'" % locals()) else: print "'%s' already exists using it" % input # Sign the zip file with the private key in PEM format signature = Popen(["openssl", "sha1", "-sign", key, input], stdout=PIPE).stdout.read(); # Convert the PEM key to DER (and extract the public form) for inclusion in the CRX header derkey = Popen(["openssl", "rsa", "-pubout", "-inform", "PEM", "-outform", "DER", "-in", key], stdout=PIPE).stdout.read(); out=open(output, "wb"); out.write("Cr24") # Extension file magic number header = array("l"); header.append(2); # Version 2 header.append(len(derkey)); header.append(len(signature)); header.tofile(out); out.write(derkey) out.write(signature) out.write(open(input).read()) os.unlink(input) print "Done." if __name__ == '__main__': main(sys.argv) Please could you help me?

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  • Why "Not an ARRAY reference" error?

    - by Sandra Schlichting
    I have this script #!/usr/bin/perl use strict; use warnings; use yy; my $data = [ ["aax", "ert", "ddd"], ["asx", "eer", "kkk"], ["xkk", "fff", "lll"], ["xxj", "vtt", "lle"], ]; use Test::More tests => 4; is(yy::type1_to_type2(\$data, 'aax'), 'ert'); is(yy::type1_to_type3(\$data, 'asx'), 'kkk'); is(yy::type2_to_type3(\$data, 'fff'), 'lll'); is(yy::type3_to_type1(\$data, 'lle'), 'xxj'); which uses this module package yy; sub typeX_to_typeY { my ($x, $y, $data, $str) = @_; foreach (@$data) { if ($_->[$x - 1] eq $str) { return $_->[$y - 1]; } } return; } sub type1_to_type2 { typeX_to_typeY(1, 2, @_) } sub type1_to_type3 { typeX_to_typeY(1, 3, @_) } sub type2_to_type1 { typeX_to_typeY(2, 1, @_) } sub type2_to_type3 { typeX_to_typeY(2, 3, @_) } sub type3_to_type1 { typeX_to_typeY(3, 1, @_) } sub type3_to_type2 { typeX_to_typeY(3, 2, @_) } 1; and gives this error Not an ARRAY reference at yy.pm line 6. # Looks like your test died before it could output anything. The line it complains about is foreach (@$data) { Isn't this the way to pass an array reference? What am I doing wrong?

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  • When to use certain optimizations such as -fwhole-program and -fprofile-generate with several shared libraries

    - by James
    Probably a simple answer; I get quite confused with the language used in the GCC documentation for some of these flags! Anyway, I have three libraries and a programme which uses all these three. I compile each of my libraries seperately with individual (potentially) different sets of warning flags. However, I compile all three libraries with the same set of optimisation flags. I then compile my main programme linking in these three libraries with its own set of warning flags and the same optimisation flags used during the libraries' compilation. 1) Do I have to compile the libraries with optimisation flags present or can I just use these flags when compiling the final programme and linking to the libraries? If the latter, will it then optimise all or just some (presumably that which is called) of the code in these libraries? 2) I would like to use -fwhole-program -flto -fuse-linker-plugin and the linker plugin gold. At which stage do I compile with these on ... just the final compilation or do these flags need to be present during the compilation of the libraries? 3) Pretty much the same as 2) however with, -fprofile-generate -fprofile-arcs and -fprofile-use. I understand one first runs a programme with generate, and then with use. However, do I have to compile each of the libraries with generate/use etc. or just the final programme? And if it is just the last programme, when I then compeil with -fprofile-use will it also optimise the libraries functionality? Many thanks, James

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  • Version Control: multiple version hell, file synchronization

    - by SigTerm
    Hello. I would like to know how you normally deal with this situation: I have a set of utility functions. Say..5..10 files. And technically they are static library, cross-platform - SConscript/SConstruct plus Visual Studio project (not solution). Those utility functions are used in multiple small projects (15+, number increases over time). Each project has a copy of a few files or of an entire library, not a link into one central place. Sometimes project uses one file, two files, some use everything. Normally, utility functions are included as a copy of every file and SConscript/SConstruct or Visual Studio Project (depending on the situation). Each project has a separate git repository. Sometimes one project is derived from other, sometimes it isn't. You work on every one of them, in random order. There are no other people (to make things simpler) The problem arises when while working on one project you modify those utility function files. Because each project has a copy of file, this introduces new version, which leads to the mess when you try later (week later, for example) to guess which version has a most complete functionality (i.e. you added a function to a.cpp in one project, and added another function to a.cpp in another project, which created a version fork) How would you handle this situation to avoid "version hell"? One way I can think of is using symbolic links/hard links, but it isn't perfect - if you delete one central storage, it will all go to hell. And hard links won't work on dual-boot system (although symbolic links will). It looks like what I need is something like advanced git repository, where code for the project is stored in one local repository, but is synchronized with multiple external repositories. But I'm not sure how to do it or if it is possible to do this with git. So, what do you think?

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  • Is it possible from Spring to inject the result of calling a method on a ref bean?

    - by Alex Worden
    Hi, Is it possible from Spring to inject the result of calling a method on a ref bean? I'm trying to refactor some cut/pasted code from two separate projects into a common class. In one of the projects, the code lives in a class I'll call "MyClient" that is being instantiated from Spring. It is injected with another spring-instantiated class "MyRegistry", then the MyClient class uses that class to look up an endpoint. All I really need is the endpoint String in my refactored class, which can be initialized via a Setter. I really cannot have a dependency on MyRegistry from MyClient in the refactored code. So, my question is this... is there a way I can inject the endpoint String from spring that was looked up in the MyRegistry class. So, I currently have: <bean id="registryService" class="foo.MyRegistry"> ...properties set etc... </bean> <bean id="MyClient" class="foo.MyClient"> <property name="registry" ref="registryService"/> </bean> But I'd like to have (and I know this is imaginary Spring syntax) <bean id="MyClient" class="foo.MyClient"> <property name="endPoint" value="registryService.getEndPoint('bar')"/> </bean> where MyRegistry will have a method getEndPoint(Stirng endPointName) Hope that makes sense from a the standpoint of what I'm trying to achieve. Please let me know if something like this is possible in Spring!

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  • How does this Singleton Web Class persists session data, even though session is not updated in the p

    - by Micah Burnett
    Ok, I've got this singleton-like web class which uses session to maintain state. I initially thought I was going to have to manipulate the session variables on each "set" so that the new values were updated in the session. However I tried using it as-is, and somehow, it remembers state. For example, if run this code on one page: UserContext.Current.User.FirstName = "Micah"; And run this code in a different browser tab, FirstName is displayed correctly: Response.Write(UserContext.Current.User.FirstName); Can someone tell me (prove) how this data is getting persisted in the session? Here is the class: using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Web; public class UserContext { private UserContext() { } public static UserContext Current { get { if (System.Web.HttpContext.Current.Session["UserContext"] == null) { UserContext uc = new UserContext(); uc.User = new User(); System.Web.HttpContext.Current.Session["UserContext"] = uc; } return (UserContext)System.Web.HttpContext.Current.Session["UserContext"]; } } private string HospitalField; public string Hospital { get { return HospitalField; } set { HospitalField = value; ContractField = null; ModelType = null; } } private string ContractField; public string Contract { get { return ContractField; } set { ContractField = value; ModelType = string.Empty; } } private string ModelTypeField; public string ModelType { get { return ModelTypeField; } set { ModelTypeField = value; } } private User UserField; public User User { get { return UserField; } set { UserField = value; } } public void DoSomething() { } } public class User { public int UserId { get; set; } public string FirstName { get; set; } }

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  • Querying datetime.datetime on appengine acts different then dev server help!

    - by Alon Carmel
    Hey, I'm having some trouble with stuff that work locally and dont work on the app engine python environment: Basically, i want to get a program from an epg between ranges of date and time. i know i cannot do two where < so i saw a suggestion to save the dates as list as datetime.datetime which i did. [datetime.datetime(2010, 5, 10, 14, 25), datetime.datetime(2010, 5, 10, 15, 0)] This is ok. but when i try to compare to it: progranon = get_object(Programs2Channel, 'channel_id =', channelobj.key(), 'endstartdate >', programstart_minex, 'endstartdate <', programstart_minex ) This for some reason works locally, but fails to retrieve the data on the app engine. *Im using Google app engine django patch which uses the get_object to retrieve data in transactions. Please help. Here are more details: this is the LIST: [datetime.datetime(2010, 5, 13, 10, 45), datetime.datetime(2010, 5, 13, 11, 30)] #this is the query: programstart = ""+year+"-"+month+"-"+day+" "+hour+":"+minute programstart_minex = datetime.strptime(programstart, "%Y-%m-%d %H:%M") progranon = Programs2Channel.gql('WHERE channel_id = :channelid AND endstartdate > :programstartx AND endstartdate < :programstartx',channelid = channelobj.key(),programstartx=programstart_minex).get()

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  • CSS Multiple multi-column divs

    - by accelerate
    I have a bunch of items (text, image, mixed content, etc) that I want to display. The user can define what row and what column that item appears in. For example, in row 1, there could be two items/columns, both images. In row two, there could be three items / columns, one with an image, two others as pure text. Oh, and the user may specify the width of any particular column/image/item. I have a solution that uses multiple tables that works. In essence, each row is a new table. This works for the most part. I'm wondering if I can use just divs? Now my CSS foo is lacking, and I tried to copy examples from the web, and I haven't been able to get it working. Right now I have something like this: `[for each row] [for each column] [content] ` But everything is overlapping each other. I've also tried using "position: relative", but things look even more borked. So can divs actually be used for multiple rows and different number of columns?

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  • Get Function Pointer to function in a shared library I didn't directly load

    - by bdk
    My Linux application (A) links against a Third Party shared Library (B) which I don't have source code to. This library makes use of another third party shared library that I don't have source code to (C). I believe that (B) uses dlopen to access (C) instead of directly linking. My reasoning for this is that 'ldd' on (B) does not show (C) and objdump -X (B) shows references to dlopen/dlclose/dlsym. My requirement is that I need to in my code for (A) get a function pointer to a function foo() located in (C). Normally I'd use dlsym for this, but I need to pass it the handle returned from dlopen which I don't have since (B) does not expose this. - For the larger context: I need to modify the function in (C) such that everytime it calls its helper function bar() (also located in (C)), it also calls a function with the same signature located in (A) with the same parameters (Basically inject my code into the codepath of (C) foo()-bar(). I believe I've found a way to accomplish this using gdb, but in order to port my gdb command list, but I'm stuck on the step of getting the function pointer. I'm also open to alternatives to accomplish the same task rather than the exact problem as stated above Edit: After writing this I realized I can probably just do another dlopen on the file in my code and the symbols returned via dlsym on that handle should be the same as received via the original dlopen, If I'm reading the dlopen man page correctly. However I'm still interested in advice or assistance with the my larger context, If theres a better way to go about this

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  • Bilinear interpolation - DirectX vs. GDI+

    - by holtavolt
    I have a C# app for which I've written GDI+ code that uses Bitmap/TextureBrush rendering to present 2D images, which can have various image processing functions applied. This code is a new path in an application that mimics existing DX9 code, and they share a common library to perform all vector and matrix (e.g. ViewToWorld/WorldToView) operations. My test bed consists of DX9 output images that I compare against the output of the new GDI+ code. A simple test case that renders to a viewport that matches the Bitmap dimensions (i.e. no zoom or pan) does match pixel-perfect (no binary diff) - but as soon as the image is zoomed up (magnified), I get very minor differences in 5-10% of the pixels. The magnitude of the difference is 1 (occasionally 2)/256. I suspect this is due to interpolation differences. Question: For a DX9 ortho projection (and identity world space), with a camera perpendicular and centered on a textured quad, is it reasonable to expect DirectX.Direct3D.TextureFilter.Linear to generate identical output to a GDI+ TextureBrush filled rectangle/polygon when using the System.Drawing.Drawing2D.InterpolationMode.Bilinear setting? For this (magnification) case, the DX9 code is using this (MinFilter,MipFilter set similarly): Device.SetSamplerState(0, SamplerStageStates.MagFilter, (int)TextureFilter.Linear); and the GDI+ path is using: g.InterpolationMode = InterpolationMode.Bilinear; I thought that "Bilinear Interpolation" was a fairly specific filter definition, but then I noticed that there is another option in GDI+ for "HighQualityBilinear" (which I've tried, with no difference - which makes sense given the description of "added prefiltering for shrinking") Followup Question: Is it reasonable to expect pixel-perfect output matching between DirectX and GDI+ (assuming all external coordinates passed in are equal)? If not, why not? Finally, there are a number of other APIs I could be using (Direct2D, WPF, GDI, etc.) - and this question generally applies to comparing the output of "equivalent" bilinear interpolated output images across any two of these. Thanks!

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  • Doubts about .NET Garbage Collector

    - by Smjert
    I've read some docs about the .NET Garbage Collector but i still have some doubts (examples in C#): 1)Does GC.Collect() call a partial or a full collection? 2)Does a partial collection block the execution of the "victim" application? If yes.. then i suppose this is a very "light" things to do since i'm running a game server that uses 2-3GB of memory and i "never" have execution stops (or i can't see them..). 3)I've read about GC roots but still can't understand how exactly they works. Suppose that this is the code (C#): MyClass1: [...] public List<MyClass2> classList = new List<MyClass2>(); [...] Main: main() { MyClass1 a = new MyClass1(); MyClass2 b = new MyClass2(); a.classList.Add(b); b = null; DoSomeLongWork(); } Will b ever be eligible to be garbage collected(before the DoSomeLongWork finishes)? The reference to b that classList contains, can it be considered a root? Or a root is only the first reference to the instance? (i mean, b is the root reference because the instantiation happens there).

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  • Is it OK to use WPF assemblies in a web app?

    - by Chris
    I have an ASP.NET MVC 2 app targeting .NET 4 that needs to be able to resize images on the fly and write them to the response. I have code that does this and it works. I am using System.Drawing.dll. However, I want to enhance my code so that not only am I resizing the image, but I am dropping it from 24bpp down to 4bit grayscale. I could not, for the life of me, find code on how to do this with System.Drawing.dll. But I did find a bunch of WPF stuff. This is my working/sample code (runs in LinqPad). // Load the original 24 bit image var bitmapImage = new BitmapImage(); bitmapImage.BeginInit(); bitmapImage.UriSource = new Uri(@"C:\Temp\Resized\18_appa2_015.png", UriKind.Absolute); //bitmapImage.DecodePixelWidth = 600; bitmapImage.EndInit(); // Create the destination image var formatConvertedBitmap = new FormatConvertedBitmap(); formatConvertedBitmap.BeginInit(); formatConvertedBitmap.Source = bitmapImage; formatConvertedBitmap.DestinationFormat = PixelFormats.Gray4; formatConvertedBitmap.EndInit(); // Encode and dump the image to disk var encoder = new PngBitmapEncoder(); encoder.Frames.Add(BitmapFrame.Create(formatConvertedBitmap)); using (var fileStream = File.Create(@"C:\Temp\Resized\18_appa2_015_s2.png")) { encoder.Save(fileStream); } It uses System.Xaml.dll, WindowsBase.dll, PresentationCore.dll, and PresentationFramework.dll. The namespaces used are: System.Windows.Controls, System.Windows.Media, and System.Windows.Media.Imaging. Is there any problem using these namespaces in my web application? It doesn't seem right. If anyone knows how to drop the bit depth without all this WPF stuff (which I barely understand, BTW) I would be thrilled to see that too.

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  • How do I programmatically insert rows into a Silverlight DataGrid without binding?

    - by j0rd4n
    I am using a common Silverlight DataGrid to display results from a search. The "schema" of the search can vary from query to query. To accommodate this, I am trying to dynamically populate the DataGrid. I can set explicitly set the columns, but I am having trouble setting the ItemSource. All of the MSDN examples set the ItemSource to a collection with a strong type (e.g. a Custom type with public properties matching the schema). The DataGrid then uses reflection to scour the strong type for public properties that will match the columns. Since my search results are dynamic, I cannot create a strong type to represent what comes back. Can I not just give the DataGrid an arbitrary list of objects so long as the number of objects in each list matches the number of columns? Anyone know if this is possible? I would like to do something similar to this: List<List<object>> myResults = <voodoo that populates the result list> myDataGrid.ItemsSource = myResults;

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