Search Results

Search found 1637 results on 66 pages for 'ids'.

Page 49/66 | < Previous Page | 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56  | Next Page >

• Sharing session state between 2 ASP.NET applications using SQL Server

  - by Dave

  Hi I'm working on a site that has a requirement to share session between a cms application and an online store application on the same domain eg. mydomain.com and store.mydomain.com I've made some progress with it and it works on my local build between localhost/cms and localhost/store Basically I have done what is suggested in this article http://blogs.msdn.com/toddca/archive/2007/01/25/sharing-asp-net-session-state-across-applications.aspx and hacked the TempGetAppID Stored Procedure to return the same application id (1). This appears to work as it creates sessions with ids like 'abv5d2urx1asscfwuzw3wp4500000001', which is what I'd expect. My issue is that when I deploy it to our testing environment, it creates a new session when I navigate between the 2 sites. So when I start a session on the cms site, if I navigate to the store, it creates a new session. These are set up as 2 different websites in IIS7. In the web.config files for both sites, the and elements are both the same and are as follows (minus sensitive information) Has anyone got an ideas why this might not be working? I am sharing Forms Authentication across the 2 sites and that works fine. Any help or ideas would be greatly appreciated! Many thanks Dave

  Read the article

• DDD principlers and ASP.NET MVC project design

  - by kaivalya

  Two part questions I have a product aggregate that has; Prices PackagingOptions ProductDescriptions ProductImages etc I have modeled one product repository and did not create individual repositories for any of the child classes. All db operations are handled through product repository. Am I understanding the DDD concept correctly so far? Sometimes the question comes to my mind that having a repository for lets say packaging options could make my life easier by directly fetching a the packaging option from the DB by using its ID instead of asking the product repository to find it in its PackagingOptions collection and give it to me.. Second part is managing the edit create operations using ASP.MVC frame work I am currently trying to manage all add edit remove of these child collections of product through product controller(sound right?). One challenge I am now facing is; If I edit a specific packaging option of product through mydomain/product/editpackagingoption/10 I have access to the id of the packaging option But I don't have the ID of the product it self and this forces me to write a query to first find the product that has this specific packaging option then edit that product and the revelant packaging option. I can do this as all packaging option have their unique ID but this would fail if I have collections that don't have unique ID. That feels very wrong.. The next option I thought of is sending both the product and packaging option IDs on the url like; mydomain/product/editpackagingoption/3/10 But I am not sure if that is a good design either. So I am at a point that I am a bit confused. might be having fundamental misunderstandings around all of this... I would appreciate if you bear with the long question and help me put this together. thanks!

  Read the article

• Help with pregreplace and uniqid for jquery dialog boxes

  - by Scarface

  First of all, do not be overwhelmed by the long code, I just put it for reference...I have a function that runs preg_replace on each comment users post and puts matches in a jquery dialog box with a matching open-link. For example, if there is a paragraph with two matches, they will be put inside two divs, and a jquery dialog function will be echoed twice; one for each div. While this works for one match, if there are multiple matches, it does not. I am not sure how to distribute unique ids at a point in time for each of the divs and matching dialog open-scripts. Keep in mind, I removed the preg replace function since it kind of complicates the problem. If anyone has any ideas, they will be greatly appreciated. <?php $id=uniqid(); $id2=uniqid(); echo "<div id=\"$id2\"> </div>"; ?> $.ui.dialog.defaults.bgiframe = true; $(function() { $("<?php echo"#$id2"; ?>").dialog({hide: 'clip', modal: true ,width: 600,height: 350,position: 'center', show: 'clip',stack: true,title: 'title', minHeight: 25, minWidth: 100, autoOpen: false}); $('<?php echo"#$id"; ?>').click(function() { $('<?php echo"#$id2"; ?>').dialog('open'); }) .hover( function(){ $(this).addClass("ui-state-hover"); }, function(){ $(this).removeClass("ui-state-hover"); } ).mousedown(function(){ $(this).addClass("ui-state-active"); }) .mouseup(function(){ $(this).removeClass("ui-state-active"); }); });

  Read the article

• Jackson object mapping - map incoming JSON field to protected property in base class

  - by Pete

  We use Jersey/Jackson for our REST application. Incoming JSON strings get mapped to the @Entity objects in the backend by Jackson to be persisted. The problem arises from the base class that we use for all entities. It has a protected id property, which we want to exchange via REST as well so that when we send an object that has dependencies, hibernate will automatically fetch these dependencies by their ids. Howevery, Jackson does not access the setter, even if we override it in the subclass to be public. We also tried using @JsonSetter but to no avail. Probably Jackson just looks at the base class and sees ID is not accessible so it skips setting it... @MappedSuperclass public abstract class AbstractPersistable<PK extends Serializable> implements Persistable<PK> { @Id @GeneratedValue(strategy = GenerationType.AUTO) private PK id; public PK getId() { return id; } protected void setId(final PK id) { this.id = id; } Subclasses: public class A extends AbstractPersistable<Long> { private String name; } public class B extends AbstractPersistable<Long> { private A a; private int value; // getter, setter // make base class setter accessible @Override @JsonSetter("id") public void setId(Long id) { super.setId(id); } } Now if there are some As in our database and we want to create a new B via the REST resource: @POST @Consumes(MediaType.APPLICATION_JSON) @Produces(MediaType.APPLICATION_JSON) @Transactional public Response create(B b) { if (b.getA().getId() == null) cry(); } with a JSON String like this {"a":{"id":"1","name":"foo"},"value":"123"}. The incoming B will have the A reference but without an ID. Is there any way to tell Jackson to either ignore the base class setter or tell it to use the subclass setter instead? I've just found out about @JsonTypeInfo but I'm not sure this is what I need or how to use it. Thanks for any help!

  Read the article

• Lazy Loading Association and Casting

  - by Zuber

  I am using NHibernate 2.0.1 and .NET I am facing issues with Lazy loading an association I have a BusinessObject class that has associations to other BusinessObject in it, and it can go deeper. The following function is in the BusinessObject to read the values of a collection in the BusinessObject. public virtual object GetFieldValue(string fieldName) { var fieldItems = fieldName.Split(AppConstants.DotChar); var objectToRead = this; for (var i = 0; i < fieldItems.Length - 1; i++) { objectToRead = (BusinessObject) objectToRead.GetFieldValue(fieldItems[i]); } //if (objectToRead._data == null) return objectToRead.SystemId + " Error: _data was null"; return objectToRead.FieldValue(fieldName.LastItem()); } The FieldValue function is described below private object FieldValue(string fieldName) { return _data.Contains(fieldName) ? _data[fieldName] : null; } The BusinessObject has a dictionary_data which stores the field values. Assume the fieldName is BusinessDriver.Description and the BusinessObject which has this field is StrategyBusinessDriver This code breaks down the field name into two - BusinessDriver & Description. The first iteration reads the BusinessDriver object from StrategyBusinessDriver. It is cast into a BusinessObject type so that I can call the GetFieldValue again on it to read the next field i.e Description in the BusinessDriver. The problem is that when I read the BusinessDriver in the first iteration and cast it, I get the Ids and all other details of the BusinessObject but the field dictionary _data and other collections are not fetched. This should be fetched lazily when I read the _data of the BusinessObject. However, this does not happen and I get an error that _data is null. Is there something wrongly coded because of which the collection is not fetched lazily? Please ask for more clarifications if needed. Thanks in advance. UPDATE: It works when I don't do Lazy load.

  Read the article

• get parent elements in xml with simplexml in php?

  - by fayer

  with $element->children() i cant get all the child elements of current element. but how can i get all the parent elements for current element with simplexml? lets say it looks like this: <entity id=1> <name>apple</name> <entities> <entity id=2> <name>mac</name> <entities> <entity id=3> <name>safari</name> </entity> </entities> </entity> </entities> </entity> if my current $element is id=3, i want to get the mac and apple entity ids. is this possible with simplexml cause i cant find any function allowing me to do this?

  Read the article

• Using Oracle hint "FIRST_ROWS" to improve Oracle database performances

  - by bobetko

  I have a statement that runs on Oracle database server. The statement has about 5 joins and there is nothing unusual there. It looks pretty much like below: SELECT field1, field2, field3, ... FROM table1, table2, table3, table4, table5 WHERE table1.id = table2.id AND table2.id = table3.id AND ... table5.userid = 1 The problem (and what is interesting) is that statement for userid = 1 takes 1 second to return 590 records. Statement for userid = 2 takes around 30 seconds to return 70 records. I don't understand why is difference so big. It seems that different execution plan is chosen for statement with userid = 1 and different for userid = 2. After I implemented Oracle Hint FIRST_ROW, performance become significantly better. Both statements (for both ids 1 and 2) produce return in under 1 second. SELECT /*+ FIRST_ROWS */ field1, field2, field3, ... FROM table1, table2, table3, table4, table5 WHERE table1.id = table2.id AND table2.id = table3.id AND ... table5.userid = 1 Questions: 1) What are possible reasons for bad performance when userid = 2 (when hint is not used)? 2) Why would execution plan be different for one vs another statement (when hint is not used)? 3) Is there anything that I should be careful about when deciding to add this hint to my queries? Thanks

  Read the article

• Heroku and Refinerycms: Application failed to start ~ attachment_fu problem

  - by John Deely

  Ok so I'm trying to get Refinerycms working with Heroku, and I'm new at all of this. I've set up an amazon s3 account and added keys and ids to the amazon_s3.yml files. When launched on Heroku at gart.heroku.com I get the following error: App failed to start /disk1/home/slugs/141557_e8490b3_d5eb/mnt/vendor/plugins/attachment_fu/lib/technoweenie/attachment_fu/backends/s3_backend.rb:187:in read': No such file or directory - /disk1/home/slugs/141557_e8490b3_d5eb/mnt/config/amazon_s3.yml (Errno::ENOENT) from /disk1/home/slugs/141557_e8490b3_d5eb/mnt/vendor/plugins/attachment_fu/lib/technoweenie/attachment_fu/backends/s3_backend.rb:187:inincluded' from /disk1/home/slugs/141557_e8490b3_d5eb/mnt/vendor/plugins/attachment_fu/lib/technoweenie/attachment_fu.rb:123:in include' from /disk1/home/slugs/141557_e8490b3_d5eb/mnt/vendor/plugins/attachment_fu/lib/technoweenie/attachment_fu.rb:123:inhas_attachment' from /disk1/home/slugs/141557_e8490b3_d5eb/mnt/app/models/image.rb:13 from /usr/local/lib/ruby/site_ruby/1.8/rubygems/custom_require.rb:31:in gem_original_require' from /usr/local/lib/ruby/site_ruby/1.8/rubygems/custom_require.rb:31:inrequire' from /usr/local/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/activesupport-2.3.5/lib/active_support/dependencies.rb:158:in require' from /usr/local/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/activesupport-2.3.5/lib/active_support/dependencies.rb:265:inrequire_or_load' ... 42 levels... from /usr/local/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/rack-1.0.1/lib/rack/builder.rb:29:in instance_eval' from /usr/local/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/rack-1.0.1/lib/rack/builder.rb:29:ininitialize' from /home/heroku_rack/heroku.ru:1:in `new' from /home/heroku_rack/heroku.ru:1 The s3_backend.rb line 187 contains: @@s3_config = @@s3_config = YAML.load(ERB.new(File.read(@@s3_config_path)).result)[RAILS_ENV].symbolize_keys Any help would be great!

  Read the article

• C# Switch-case Loop for Datagridview cells

  - by Nail Yener

  Hi, I am working on a form with datagridview and webbrowser controls. I have three columns as URL, username and password in datagridview. What I want to do is to automate the login for some websites that I use frequently. For that reason I am not sure if this is the right approach but I created the below code. The problem is with the argument of switch. I will click the row on datagridview and then click the login_button so that the username and password info will be passed to the related fields on the webpage. Why I need a switch-case loop is because all the webpages have different element IDs for username and password fields. As I said, I am not sure if datagridview allows switch-case, I searched the net but couldn't find any samples. private void login_button_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { switch (dataGridView1.Rows[e.RowIndex].Cells[e.ColumnIndex].Value.ToString()) { case "http://www.website1.com": webBrowser1.Document.GetElementById("username").InnerText = dataGridView1.Rows[3].Cells[3].Value.ToString(); webBrowser1.Document.GetElementById("password").InnerText = dataGridView1.Rows[3].Cells[4].Value.ToString(); return; case "http://www.website2.com": webBrowser1.Document.GetElementById("uname").InnerText = dataGridView1.Rows[4].Cells[3].Value.ToString(); webBrowser1.Document.GetElementById("pswd").InnerText = dataGridView1.Rows[4].Cells[4].Value.ToString(); return; } HtmlElementCollection elements = this.webBrowser1.Document.GetElementsByTagName("Form"); foreach (HtmlElement currentElement in elements) { currentElement.InvokeMember("Login"); } }

  Read the article

• How to enable OutputCache with an IHttpHandler

  - by Joseph Kingry

  I have an IHttpHandler that I would like to hook into the OutputCache support so I can offload cached data to the IIS kernel. I know MVC must do this somehow, I found this in OutputCacheAttribute: public override void OnResultExecuting(ResultExecutingContext filterContext) { if (filterContext == null) { throw new ArgumentNullException("filterContext"); } // we need to call ProcessRequest() since there's no other way to set the Page.Response intrinsic OutputCachedPage page = new OutputCachedPage(_cacheSettings); page.ProcessRequest(HttpContext.Current); } private sealed class OutputCachedPage : Page { private OutputCacheParameters _cacheSettings; public OutputCachedPage(OutputCacheParameters cacheSettings) { // Tracing requires Page IDs to be unique. ID = Guid.NewGuid().ToString(); _cacheSettings = cacheSettings; } protected override void FrameworkInitialize() { // when you put the <%@ OutputCache %> directive on a page, the generated code calls InitOutputCache() from here base.FrameworkInitialize(); InitOutputCache(_cacheSettings); } } But not sure how to apply this to an IHttpHandler. Tried something like this, but of course this doesn't work: public class CacheTest : IHttpHandler { public void ProcessRequest(HttpContext context) { OutputCacheParameters p = new OutputCacheParameters { Duration = 3600, Enabled = true, VaryByParam = "none", Location = OutputCacheLocation.Server }; OutputCachedPage page = new OutputCachedPage(p); page.ProcessRequest(context); context.Response.ContentType = "text/plain"; context.Response.Write(DateTime.Now.ToString()); context.Response.End(); } public bool IsReusable { get { return true; } } }

  Read the article

• Create a VPN with Python

  - by user213060

  I want to make a device "tunnel box" that you plug an input ethernet line, and an output ethernet line, and all the traffic that goes through it gets modified in a special way. This is similar to how a firewall, IDS, VPN, or similar boxes are connected inline in a network. I think you can just assume that I am writing a custom VPN in Python for the purpose of this question: LAN computer <--\ LAN computer <---> [LAN switch] <--> ["tunnel box"] <--> [internet modem] <--> LAN computer <--/ My question is, what is a good way to program this "tunnel box" from python? My application needs to see TCP flows at the network layer, not as individual ethernet frames. Non-TCP/IP traffic such as ICPM and other types should just be passed through. Example Twisted-like Code for my "tunnel box" tunnel appliance: from my_code import special_data_conversion_function class StreamInterceptor(twisted.Protocol): def dataReceived(self,data): data=special_data_conversion_function(data) self.outbound_connection.send(data) My initial guesses: TUN/TAP with twisted.pair.tuntap.py - Problem: This seems to only work at the ethernet frame level, not like my example? Socks proxy - Problem: Not transparent as in my diagram. Programs have to be specifically setup for it. Thanks!

  Read the article

• C# Setting Properties using Index

  - by Guazz

  I have a business class that contains many properties for various stock-exchange price types. This is a sample of the class: public class Prices { public decimal Today {get; set} public decimal OneDay {get; set} public decimal SixDay {get; set} public decimal TenDay {get; set} public decimal TwelveDay {get; set} public decimal OneDayAdjusted {get; set;} public decimal SixDayAdjusted {get; set;} public decimal TenDayAdjusted {get; set;} public decimal OneHundredDayAdjusted {get; set;} } I have a legacy system that supplies the prices using string ids to identify the price type. E.g. Today = "0D" OneDay = "1D" SixDay = "6D" //..., etc. Firstly, I load all the values to an IDictionary() collection so we have: [KEY] VALUE [0D] = 1.23456 [1D] = 1.23456 [6D] = 1.23456 ...., etc. Secondly, I set the properties of the Prices class using a method that takes the above collection as a parameter like so: SetPricesValues(IDictionary<string, decimal> pricesDictionary) { // TODAY'S PRICE string TODAY = "D0"; if (true == pricesDictionary.ContainsKey(TODAY)) { this.Today = pricesDictionary[TODAY]; } // OneDay PRICE string ONE_DAY = "D1"; if (true == pricesDictionary.ContainsKey(ONE_DAY)) { this.OneDay = pricesDictionary[ONE_DAY]; } //..., ..., etc., for each other property } Is there a more elegant technique to set a large amount of properties? Thanks, j

  Read the article

• Jeditable with jQuery UI Datepicker

  - by BrynJ

  I need to have a click to edit element on a page, that will in turn invoke an instance of the jQuery UI Datepicker. Currently, I'm using JEditable to provide the in place editing, which is working fine. However, I have a date control input that I would like to have appear as a calendar, which is where the fun starts. I've found a Comment in the this blog by Calle Kabo (the page is a little mashed unfortunately) that details a way to do this: $.editable.addInputType("datepicker", { element: function(settings, original) { var input = $("<input type=\"text\" name=\"value\" />"); $(this).append(input); return(input); }, plugin: function(settings, original) { var form = this; $("input", this).filter(":text").datepicker({ onSelect: function(dateText) { $(this).hide(); $(form).trigger("submit"); } }); } }); However, I can't get the above to work - no errors, but no effect either. I've tried placing it within the jQuery document ready function and also outside of it - no joy. My UI Datepicker class is date-picker and my Jeditable class is ajaxedit, I'm sure the above inaction is due to the need to reference them somehow in the code, but I don't know how. Also, the Jeditable control is one of many element ids, if that has a bearing. Any ideas from those more in the know?

  Read the article

• SEO Friendly URL Rewriter Parameters

  - by Kristen

  I would appreciate you advice on how to incorporate parameters into SEO Friendly URLs We have decided to have the "techie" parameters first, followed by the "SEO Slug" \product\ABC123\fly-your-own-helicopter much like S.O. - if the SEO Slug changes, or is truncated, or missing, we still have the Product and ABC123 parameters; various articles say that having such extra data doesn't harm SEO ranking. We need to have additional parameters; we could use "-" to separate parameters as it makes them look similar to the SEO Slug, or we could/should use something else? \product\ABC123-BOYTOY-2\boys\toys\fly-your-own-helicopter This is product=ABC123, in Category=BOYTOY and Page=2. We also want to keep the hierarchy as flat as possible, and thus I think: \product-ABC123-BOYTOY-2\boys\toys\fly-your-own-helicopter would be better - one level less. We have a number of "zones", e.g. \product-ABC123\seo-slug-for-product \category-BOYTOY\seo-slug-for-category \article-54321\terms-and-conditions it would help us a lot if we could just user our 5 digit Page ID number instead, so these would become \12345-ABC123\seo-slug-for-product \23456-BOYTOY\seo-slug-for-category \54321\terms-and-conditions (Products & Categories have a number of different Page IDs for different templates, this style would take us straight to the right one) I would appreciate your insight into what parameter separators to use, and if the leading techi-data is going work well for us. In case relevant: Classic ASP application on IIS7 + MSSQL2008 Product & Category codes contain A-Z, 0-9, "_" only.

  Read the article

• How do i write this jpql query?

  - by Nitesh Panchal

  Hello, Say i have 5 tables, tblBlogs tblBlogPosts tblBlogPostComment tblUser tblBlogMember BlogId BlogPostsId BlogPostCommentId UserId BlogMemberId BlogTitle BlogId CommentText FirstName UserId PostTitle BlogPostsId BlogId BlogMemberId Now i want to retrieve only those blogs and posts for which blogMember has actually commented. So in short, how do i write this plain old sql :- Select b.BlogTitle, bp.PostTitle, bpc.CommentText from tblBlogs b Inner join tblBlogPosts bp on b.BlogId = bp.BlogId Inner Join tblBlogPostComment bpc on bp.BlogPostsId = bpc.BlogPostsId Inner Join tblBlogMember bm On bpc.BlogMemberId = bm.BlogMemberId Where bm.UserId = 1; As you can see, everything is Inner join, so only that row will be retrieved for which the user has commented on some post of some blog. So, suppose he has joined 3 blogs whose ids are 1,2,3 (The blogs which user has joined are in tblBlogMembers) but the user has only commented in blog 2 (of say BlogPostId = 1). So that row will be retrieved and 1,3 won't as it is Inner Join. How do i write this kind of query in jpql? In jpql, we can only write simple queries like say :- Select bm.blogId from tblBlogMember Where bm.UserId = objUser; Where objUser is supplied using :- em.find(User.class,1); Thus once we get all blogs(Here blogId represents a blog object) which user has joined, we can loop through and do all fancy things. But i don't want to fall in this looping business and write all this things in my java code. Instead, i want to leave that for database engine to do. So, how do i write the above plain sql into jpql? and what type of object the jpql query will return? because i am only selecting few fields from all table. In which class should i typecast the result to? I think i posted my requirement correctly, if i am not clear please let me know. Thanks in advance :).

  Read the article

• The RSA key container could not be opened

  - by TenaciousImpy

  Hi, I've been developing an ASP.NET site on an older machine running XP home. I recently got a new Win 7 PC and moved all my project files across. When I try and run the project, I get this error message: "Failed to decrypt using provider 'MyRsaProtectedConfigurationProvider'. Error message from the provider: The RSA key container could not be opened." I realised that I encrypted parts of my web.config file using a RSA encryption. This is where the problem now lies. I'm not sure how to get that key working again so that I can use it on my new machine. I exported the key from the older machine and imported it using: aspnet_regiis -pi "RSAProviderName" "C:\RSA_configkey.xml" This was imported successfully. I then ran the project, but the same error message came up. I figured it might be a permission thing, so I ran: aspnet_regiis -pa "RSAProviderName" "\Desktop" -full This was also successful, but I still get the error. From reading around, I've seen people use "ASPNET" instead of "\Desktop" (Desktop is my machine name). However, when I try and use "ASPNET", I get: No mapping between account name and security IDs was done. <Exception from HRESULT = 0x80070534 I can't work on the project until this is fixed, so any help is much appreciated. Thanks!

  Read the article

• jquery add to an array on click?

  - by KittyYoung

  I'm confused regarding each() and .each()... I think I need to use both, but I'm not sure how... Basically, I have a series of checkboxes and when they're checked, I want to get the id of the closest table row and add it to an array that I can then serialize and pass to a function. So, the html looks like this: <tr id="t1"><td><input type="checkbox" name="did[]" value="232" class="bd" /></td></tr> <tr id="t2"><td><input type="checkbox" name="did[]" value="234" class="bd" /></td></tr> <tr id="t3"><td><input type="checkbox" name="did[]" value="676" class="bd" /></td></tr> <tr><td><button id="tsid" name="tsid" type="button">Send</button></td></tr> And, when (and if) the checkbox is selected, I want to get the closest tr id and store it in an array: var trids = [] And then serialize the input data and the trids array... So far, I only have this: $('#tsid').click(function() { //meant to get the values of the selected checkboxes var myData = $('input[name=did[]]').serialize(); //meant to find and store the closest tr ids in an array... $('.bd').each(function() { var trids = $(this).closest("tr").get(0); //and now I'm lost... }); }

  Read the article

• SharePoint 2007 and SiteMinder

  - by pborovik

  Here is a question regarding some details how SiteMinder secures access to the SharePoint 2007. I've read a bunch of materials regarding this and have some picture for SharePoint 2010 FBA claims-based + SiteMinder security (can be wrong here, of course): SiteMinder is registered as a trusted identity provider for the SharePoint; It means (to my mind) that SharePoint has no need to go into all those user directories like AD, RDBMS or whatever to create a record for user being granted access to SharePoint - instead it consumes a claims-based id supplied by SiteMinder SiteMinder checks all requests to SharePoint resources and starts login sequence via SiteMinder if does not find required headers in the request (SMSESSION, etc.) SiteMinder creates a GenericIdentity with the user login name if headers are OK, so SharePoint recognizes the user as authenticated But in the case of SharePoint 2007 with FBA + SiteMinder, I cannot find an answer for questions like: Does SharePoint need to go to all those user directories like AD to know something about users (as SiteMinder is not in charge of providing user info like claims-based ids)? So, SharePoint admin should configure SharePoint FBA to talk to these sources? Let's say I'm talking to a Web Service of SharePoint protected by SiteMinder. Shall I make a Authentication.asmx-Login call to create a authentication ticket or this schema is somehow changed by the SiteMinder? If such call is needed, do I also need a SiteMinder authentication sequence? What prevents me from rewriting request headers (say, manually in Fiddler) before posting request to the SharePoint protected by SiteMinder to override its defence? Pity, but I do not have access to deployed SiteMinder + SharePoint, so need to investigate some question blindly. Thanks.

  Read the article

• How best to embed multiple Flash Player instances using swfobject via a usercontrol?

  - by panamack

  I have a ListView on a Page within a MasterPage and some very ugly ugly autogenerated IDs. Such as..."ctl00_workbenchPlaceHolder_ListView1_ctrl1_LibItem2One" Using swfobject.embedSWF(...) requires me to hand over the id of a div on my page that can be replaced with object/embed markup depending on the browser context. My aim is to show the user a collection of video's they have uploaded to their website so they can review them and change some related data if desired. Hence the ListView which is populated via a SQLDataSource which currently provides a number of URLs pointing to .flv files. But it ain't gonna work if I put a <div id="replaceme"></div>' in my user control because I may then have more than one id="replaceme" and poor swfobject won't like it. So my evil solution is to put an <asp:Literal> in my usercontrol and build the script, function name and div tag id as a string. ApplyVideoConfiguration is called if the library object retreived from the database is a video and switches to the relevant View of a MultiView control. protected void ApplyVideoConfiguration() { MultiViewLibItem.ActiveViewIndex = 3; string functionName = "MakeFlashFor_" + this.ClientID; string divId = "fp" + this.ClientID; VideoScriptLiteral.Text = "<script type=\"text/javascript\">" + "Sys.Application.add_load(" + functionName + ");" + "function " + functionName + "(){" + "swfobject.embedSWF('PanamaVideoThumbnail.swf', '" + divId + "', '140', '127', '10');" + "};" + "</script>" + "<div id=\"" + divId + "\" ></div>" ; } I was wondering, just how bad a solution is this, I'm really completely inexperienced when it comes to best practices but my instincts are telling me this is bad, although it does succeed in the aim of embedding some Flash Player instances. Can anyone help me make it beautiful?

  Read the article

• Problem with custom Equality and GetHashCode in a mutable object

  - by Shimmy

  Hello! I am using Entity Framework in my application. I implemented with the partial class of an entity the IEquatable<T> interface: Partial Class Address : Implements IEquatable(Of Address) 'Other part generated Public Overloads Function Equals(ByVal other As Address) As Boolean _ Implements System.IEquatable(Of Address).Equals If ReferenceEquals(Me, other) Then Return True Return AddressId = other.AddressId End Function Public Overrides Function Equals(ByVal obj As Object) As Boolean If obj Is Nothing Then Return MyBase.Equals(obj) If TypeOf obj Is Address Then Return Equals(DirectCast(obj, Address)) Else Return False End Function Public Overrides Function GetHashCode() As Integer Return AddressId.GetHashCode End Function End Class Now in my code I use it this way: Sub Main() Using e As New CompleteKitchenEntities Dim job = e.Job.FirstOrDefault Dim address As New Address() job.Addresses.Add(address) Dim contains1 = job.Addresses.Contains(address) 'True e.SaveChanges() Dim contains2 = job.Addresses.Contains(address) 'False 'The problem is that I can't remove it: Dim removed = job.Addresses.Remoeve(address) 'False End Using End Sub Note (I checked in the debugger visualizer) that the EntityCollection class stores its entities in HashSet so it has to do with the GetHashCode function, I want it to depend on the ID so entities are compared by their IDs. The problem is that when I hit save, the ID changes from 0 to its db value. So the question is how can I have an equatable object, being properly hashed. Please help me find what's wrong in the GetHashCode function (by ID) and what can I change to make it work. Thanks a lot.

  Read the article

• Place Query Results into Array then Implode?

  - by jason

  Basically I pull an Id from table1, use that id to find a site id in table2, then need to use the site ids in an array, implode, and query table3 for site names. I cannot implode the array correctly first I got an error, then used a while loop. With the while loop the output simply says: Array $mysqli = mysqli_connect("server", "login", "pass", "db"); $sql = "SELECT MarketID FROM marketdates WHERE Date = '2010-04-04 00:00:00' AND VenueID = '2'"; $result = mysqli_query($mysqli, $sql) or die(mysqli_error($mysqli)); $dates_id = mysqli_fetch_assoc ( $result ); $comma_separated = implode(",", $dates_id); echo $comma_separated; //This Returns 79, which is correct. $sql = "SELECT SIteID FROM bookings WHERE BSH_ID = '1' AND MarketID = '$comma_separated'"; $result = mysqli_query($mysqli, $sql) or die(mysqli_error($mysqli)); // This is where my problems start $SIteID = array(); while ($newArray = mysqli_fetch_array($result, MYSQLI_ASSOC)) { $SIteID[] = $newArray[SIteID]; } $locationList = implode(",",$SIteID); ?> Basically what I need to do is correctly move the query results to an array that I can implode and use in a 3rd query to pull names from table3.

  Read the article

• mysql database normalization question

  - by Chocho

  here is my 3 tables: table 1 -- stores user information and it has unique data table 2 -- stores place category such as, toronto, ny, london, etc hence this is is also unique table 3 -- has duplicate information. it stores all the places a user have been. the 3 tables are linked or joined by these ids: table 1 has an "table1_id" table 2 has an "table2_id" and "place_name" table 3 has an "table3_id", "table1_id", "place_name" i have an interface where an admin sees all users. beside a user is "edit" button. clicking on that edit button allows you to edit a specific user in a form fields which has a multiple drop down box for "places". if an admin edits a user and add 1 "places" for the user, i insert that information using php. if the admin decides to deselect that 1 "places" do i delete it or mark it as on and off? how about if the admin decides to select 2 "places" for the user; change the first "places" and add an additional "places". will my table just keep growing and will i have just redundant information? thanks.

  Read the article

• Are there any radix/patricia/critbit trees for Python?

  - by Andrew Dalke

  I have about 10,000 words used as a set of inverted indices to about 500,000 documents. Both are normalized so the index is a mapping of integers (word id) to a set of integers (ids of documents which contain the word). My prototype uses Python's set as the obvious data type. When I do a search for a document I find the list of N search words and their corresponding N sets. I want to return the set of documents in the intersection of those N sets. Python's "intersect" method is implemented as a pairwise reduction. I think I can do better with a parallel search of sorted sets, so long as the library offers a fast way to get the next entry after i. I've been looking for something like that for some time. Years ago I wrote PyJudy but I no longer maintain it and I know how much work it would take to get it to a stage where I'm comfortable with it again. I would rather use someone else's well-tested code, and I would like one which supports fast serialization/deserialization. I can't find any, or at least not any with Python bindings. There is avltree which does what I want, but since even the pair-wise set merge take longer than I want, I suspect I want to have all my operations done in C/C++. Do you know of any radix/patricia/critbit tree libraries written as C/C++ extensions for Python? Failing that, what is the most appropriate library which I should wrap? The Judy Array site hasn't been updated in 6 years, with 1.0.5 released in May 2007. (Although it does build cleanly so perhaps It Just Works.)

  Read the article

• Limiting regex match

  - by DMIL

  Say I have this HTML fragment <td width="25%" style="text-align:right;" > <span style="font-family: Arial; font-size: 12px;"> <strong>Regular price:</strong></span> </td> <td width="25%" style="text-align:center;" > <span style="font-family: Arial; font-size: 12px;> <strong>11,100.00 USD</strong></span> </td> <td width="25%" style="text-align:right;" > <span style="font-family: Arial; font-size: 12px;"> <strong>Web price:</strong></span> </td> <td width="25%" style="text-align:center;" > <span style="font-family: Arial; font-size: 12px;> <strong>9,100.00 USD</strong></span> </td> How would I get the first amount (11,100.00) using regex? I tried /Regular price.+(\d[^\s]+)\sUSD/is but it's not working, it's returning '00'. Obviously I'm a newbie at regex and I'm hoping to get by without picking up a book. And I HAVE to use regex to parse this HTML because that particular site was designed by someone who doesn't know about classes or IDs.

  Read the article

• Javascript - innerHTML not working with HTML select menus

  - by Deacon

  Hi guys, In my HTML page I have 2 select menus with IDs "month" and "day" - "day" is empty when the page loads, "month" has 12 options with values 1-12 corresponding to January - December. "month" has an onchange event which calls this function: function showOutboundDays(month) { if(month==4 || month==6 || month==9 || month==11) document.getElementById('day').innerHTML='<option value="1">1</option><option value="2">2</option>'; etc. up to 30 else if(month==2) document.getElementById('day').innerHTML='<option value="1">1</option>'; etc. up to 28 else document.getElementById('day').innerHTML='<option value="1">1</option>'; etc. up to 31 } (just imagine there are braces around the option tags to help you see...) I think it's pretty clear to see what I'm trying to achieve...and everything works fine apart from the innerHTML of the select with ID "day" doesn't get filled at all, regardless of what month you pick. And I know the problem is with this stage of the function because when I change the if, elseif and else code-to-be-executed to alerts or something similar, it works fine. Does anybody know what the problem with the innerHTML is? Thanks EDIT: Using Firefox 3.6

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56  | Next Page >