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• Browser detection Plugin?

  - by chobo2

  Hi I have a website that I made and I am planning to redo it. The current version of the site used a jquery callout plugin that did not fully work in IE6. This got me thinking about browser detection. At first I was just going to put the supported browsers on the home page but then today on Digg I saw some post about some jquery plugins and wordpress and in the article there was a plugin for detecting IE. So I started to look around for some browser detection plugins. I found a few of them but they where over the top like this one sevenup Its nice but it makes a huge popup and tells them to update. This one is better then another one I found where they basically forced the user to update or they could not continue on the site. So I found this one jquery plugin This one is pretty nice since it looks at the major browsers and does detection on them too expect for chrome which I noticed triggers and an outdated browser with this plugin. So I started to look at the jquery documentation to see if they had a browser detection for chrome this is when I saw that they "Deprecated" and now recommend "Support". So now I am just confused like "Support" seems to be good and I read many posts on this site saying you should use it. But then it does not support stuff like .png detection that might have been useful to me since of that plugin(however I probably will not be using the plugin anymore since I think the author just gave up on it). Plus I don't know if this is something I am looking for at this time. Like I am guessing with "Support" you use it to detect something that is not supported and then do some alternative thing for that browser? For me I am more looking for something to tell the user "Hey look I tested this browser in the these versions of Firefox(3.5+), IE(8+), Opera(9.5+),Chrome(Something), Safari(Something). If your not using these versions you may not being seeing the site how it was intended" Of course I would try to have something shorter then that message but that the gyst. I am also assuming that the site would work in future versions of these browsers. I still check to see if my site works(they usually do) and is half decent in IE 6 but I won't spend hours fixing stuff that might be off in older browsers like IE 6. I won't test my site in older version of other browsers like firefox since I would think the user have to the sense to update so no point testing firefox 2.0 or whatever. So is there a plugin that fits this description? Or can "Support" do what I want? Thanks

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• SQL Server CTE referred in self joins slow

  - by Kharlos Dominguez

  Hello, I have written a table-valued UDF that starts by a CTE to return a subset of the rows from a large table. There are several joins in the CTE. A couple of inner and one left join to other tables, which don't contain a lot of rows. The CTE has a where clause that returns the rows within a date range, in order to return only the rows needed. I'm then referencing this CTE in 4 self left joins, in order to build subtotals using different criterias. The query is quite complex but here is a simplified pseudo-version of it WITH DataCTE as ( SELECT [columns] FROM table INNER JOIN table2 ON [...] INNER JOIN table3 ON [...] LEFT JOIN table3 ON [...] ) SELECT [aggregates_columns of each subset] FROM DataCTE Main LEFT JOIN DataCTE BananasSubset ON [...] AND Product = 'Bananas' AND Quality = 100 LEFT JOIN DataCTE DamagedBananasSubset ON [...] AND Product = 'Bananas' AND Quality < 20 LEFT JOIN DataCTE MangosSubset ON [...] GROUP BY [ I have the feeling that SQL Server gets confused and calls the CTE for each self join, which seems confirmed by looking at the execution plan, although I confess not being an expert at reading those. I would have assumed SQL Server to be smart enough to only perform the data retrieval from the CTE only once, rather than do it several times. I have tried the same approach but rather than using a CTE to get the subset of the data, I used the same select query as in the CTE, but made it output to a temp table instead. The version referring the CTE version takes 40 seconds. The version referring the temp table takes between 1 and 2 seconds. Why isn't SQL Server smart enough to keep the CTE results in memory? I like CTEs, especially in this case as my UDF is a table-valued one, so it allowed me to keep everything in a single statement. To use a temp table, I would need to write a multi-statement table valued UDF, which I find a slightly less elegant solution. Did some of you had this kind of performance issues with CTE, and if so, how did you get them sorted? Thanks, Kharlos

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• Implementing events to communicate between two processes - C

  - by Jamie Keeling

  Hello all! I have an application consisting of two windows, one communicates to the other and sends it a struct constaining two integers (In this case two rolls of a dice). I will be using events for the following circumstances: Process a sends data to process b, process b displays data Process a closes, in turn closing process b Process b closes a, in turn closing process a I have noticed that if the second process is constantly waiting for the first process to send data then the program will be just sat waiting, which is where the idea of implementing threads on each process occurred and I have started to implement this already. The problem i'm having is that I don't exactly have a lot of experience with threads and events so I'm not sure of the best way to actually implement what I want to do. Following is a small snippet of what I have so far in the producer application; Create thread: case IDM_FILE_ROLLDICE: { hDiceRoll = CreateThread( NULL, // lpThreadAttributes (default) 0, // dwStackSize (default) ThreadFunc(hMainWindow), // lpStartAddress NULL, // lpParameter 0, // dwCreationFlags &hDiceID // lpThreadId (returned by function) ); } break; The data being sent to the other process: DWORD WINAPI ThreadFunc(LPVOID passedHandle) { HANDLE hMainHandle = *((HANDLE*)passedHandle); WCHAR buffer[256]; LPCTSTR pBuf; LPVOID lpMsgBuf; LPVOID lpDisplayBuf; struct diceData storage; HANDLE hMapFile; DWORD dw; //Roll dice and store results in variable storage = RollDice(); hMapFile = CreateFileMapping( (HANDLE)0xFFFFFFFF, // use paging file NULL, // default security PAGE_READWRITE, // read/write access 0, // maximum object size (high-order DWORD) BUF_SIZE, // maximum object size (low-order DWORD) szName); // name of mapping object if (hMapFile == NULL) { dw = GetLastError(); MessageBox(hMainHandle,L"Could not create file mapping object",L"Error",MB_OK); return 1; } pBuf = (LPTSTR) MapViewOfFile(hMapFile, // handle to map object FILE_MAP_ALL_ACCESS, // read/write permission 0, 0, BUF_SIZE); if (pBuf == NULL) { MessageBox(hMainHandle,L"Could not map view of file",L"Error",MB_OK); CloseHandle(hMapFile); return 1; } CopyMemory((PVOID)pBuf, &storage, (_tcslen(szMsg) * sizeof(TCHAR))); //_getch(); MessageBox(hMainHandle,L"Completed!",L"Success",MB_OK); UnmapViewOfFile(pBuf); return 0; } I'm trying to find out how I would integrate an event with the threaded code to signify to the other process that something has happened, I've seen an MSDN article on using events but it's just confused me if anything, I'm coming up on empty whilst searching on the internet too. Thanks for any help Edit: I can only use the Create/Set/Open methods for events, sorry for not mentioning it earlier.

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• .NET and C# Exceptions. What is it reasonable to catch.

  - by djna

  Disclaimer, I'm from a Java background. I don't do much C#. There's a great deal of transfer between the two worlds, but of course there are differences and one is in the way Exceptions tend to be thought about. I recently answered a C# question suggesting that under some circstances it's reasonable to do this: try { some work } catch (Exeption e) { commonExceptionHandler(); } (The reasons why are immaterial). I got a response that I don't quite understand: until .NET 4.0, it's very bad to catch Exception. It means you catch various low-level fatal errors and so disguise bugs. It also means that in the event of some kind of corruption that triggers such an exception, any open finally blocks on the stack will be executed, so even if the callExceptionReporter fuunction tries to log and quit, it may not even get to that point (the finally blocks may throw again, or cause more corruption, or delete something important from the disk or database). May I'm more confused than I realise, but I don't agree with some of that. Please would other folks comment. I understand that there are many low level Exceptions we don't want to swallow. My commonExceptionHandler() function could reasonably rethrow those. This seems consistent with this answer to a related question. Which does say "Depending on your context it can be acceptable to use catch(...), providing the exception is re-thrown." So I conclude using catch (Exception ) is not always evil, silently swallowing certain exceptions is. The phrase "Until .NET 4 it is very bad to Catch Exception" What changes in .NET 4? IS this a reference to AggregateException, which may give us some new things to do with exceptions we catch, but I don't think changes the fundamental "don't swallow" rule. The next phrase really bothers be. Can this be right? It also means that in the event of some kind of corruption that triggers such an exception, any open finally blocks on the stack will be executed (the finally blocks may throw again, or cause more corruption, or delete something important from the disk or database) My understanding is that if some low level code had lowLevelMethod() { try { lowestLevelMethod(); } finally { some really important stuff } } and in my code I call lowLevel(); try { lowLevel() } catch (Exception e) { exception handling and maybe rethrowing } Whether or not I catch Exception this has no effect whatever on the excution of the finally block. By the time we leave lowLevelMethod() the finally has already run. If the finally is going to do any of the bad things, such as corrupt my disk, then it will do so. My catching the Exception made no difference. If It reaches my Exception block I need to do the right thing, but I can't be the cause of dmis-executing finallys

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• Java Clock Assignment

  - by Mike S

  For my assignment we are suppose to make a clock. We need variables of hours, minutes, and seconds and methods like setHours/getHours, setMinutes/getMinutes, setSeconds/getSeconds. Now the parts of the assignment that I am having trouble on is that we need a addClock() method to make the sum of two clock objects and a tickDown() method which decrements the clock object and a tick() method that increments a Clock object by one second. Lastly, the part where I am really confused on is, I need to write a main() method in the Clock class to test the functionality of your objects with a separate Tester class with a main() method. Here is what I have so far... public class Clock { private int hr; //store hours private int min; //store minutes private int sec; //store seconds //Default constructor public Clock () { setClock (0, 0, 0); } public Clock (int hours, int minutes, int seconds) { setTimes (hours, minute, seconds); } public void setClock (int hours, int minutes, int seconds) { if(0 <= hours && hours < 24) { hr = hours; } else { hr = 0; } if(0 <= minutes && minutes < 60) { min = minutes; } else { min = 0; } if(0 <= seconds && seconds < 60) { sec = seconds; } else { sec = 0; } } public int getHours ( ) { return hr; } public int getMinutes ( ) { return min; } public int getSeconds ( ) { return sec; } //Method to increment the time by one second //Postcondition: The time is incremented by one second //If the before-increment time is 23:59:59, the time //is reset to 00:00:00 public void tickSeconds ( ) { sec++; if(sec > 59) { sec = 0; tickMinutes ( ); //increment minutes } } public void tickMinutes() { min++; If (min > 59) { min = 0; tickHours(); //increment hours } } public void tickHours() { hr++; If (hr > 23) hr = 0; } }

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• Self updating app, wont overwrite existing app, using Android packagemanager?

  - by LokiSinclair

  I know there are plenty of questions about this on here, but I've tried everything (but the correct 'thing', obviously!) and nothing seems to shine any light on the problem I'm having. I've written an app (for a customer), which is designed to be hosted on their own server. The app references a simple text file with the latest version code in it and checks it against it's own version. If it's out of date it goes off and downloads the update. Everything is working as intended up to this point. I use the: Intent i = new Intent(Intent.ACTION_VIEW); i.setDataAndType(Uri.fromFile(outputFile), "application/vnd.android.package-archive"); i.setFlags(Intent.FLAG_ACTIVITY_NEW_TASK); startActivity(i); ...code to start the install process of the newly downloaded .apk file. And that all starts as I would expect. I click on "Install" - when I'm prompted to confirm the overwriting of the current app, with the new. It starts, and then displays: App not installed. And existing package by the same name with a conflicting signature is already installed. Now I'm aware that Android can't have multiple applications sharing the same package name, which is fine, but nothing comes up in LogCat and I can only assume that the OS is annoyed at me attempting to 'update' my app, even though I'm going through all the correct channels and using the inbuilt package manager to do it for me! Can anyone tell me what the OS is moaning about? I'm not attempting to install two apps side by side, I want it to update it, which it starts to do, and then gets really confused. Is it something to do with me using the same keystore for signing the packages? I highly doubt it as I've used the same keystores previously to handle updates to games and the like, but I just can't figure out what it's complaining about. Hopefully someone out there has had this issue and solved it, and can point me in the right direction. I'm flying a bit blind with the limited information it's giving me :( Cheers.

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• clarification on the concept of "web service"

  - by udit

  Im a little confused on the varying definitions and implementations of web services available as implementations. Need some clarification please. Ones I have used till now: If a vendor gives me a specific format of XML that I can send populated with data to request and I make a simple HTTP POST over the internet passing in the XML String as the payload, is this a web service call ? If so, is there a specific name to it, this kind of web service ? Because obviously, it does not use anything like Axis, WSDL or SOAP to establish this connection. A variant of this is If the vendor gives me an XSD, I use JAXB to make a java class out of it and pass in the serialized version of the object, which eventually works out to be the same as option 1. RESTful web service: Vendor gives me a URL like http://restfulservice/products and I can make HTTP Requests to the URL and depending on what HTTP verb I use, the appropropriate action is called and the response sent over the wire. Ones I have only read about\ have a vague idea about SOAP. How does this work?.. Ive read the W3Schools tutorial and I undertsand that there is a very specific form of XML that is standardized according to W3C standards that we use to pass the same kind of messages as we did in option 1. But how does this work in real life? Vendor sends me what? Do I generate classes? Do I serialize some objects and http post them over to an address? Or do the generated objects themselves have connection methods that will do them for me? What about WSDL? When does a vendor send me WSDL and what do I do with it ? I guess I can generate classes from it. If yes, then what do I do with the generated classes ? When do I need that axis jar to generate classes from something that the vendor sends ? As you can see, I have some clear and other mostly vague ideas about the different kinds of web services available. would help if someone ould clarify and\or point to more real-world resources. I've looked a little bit into Java Web Services on the internet and the numerous four letter acronyms that get thrown at me make me dizzy. Thanks

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• Still failing a function, not sure why...ideas on test cases to run?

  - by igor

  I've been trying to get this Sudoku game working, and I am still failing some of the individual functions. All together the game works, but when I run it through an "autograder", some test cases fail.. Currently I am stuck on the following function, placeValue, failing. I do have the output that I get vs. what the correct one should be, but am confused..what is something going on? EDIT: I do not know what input/calls they make to the function. What happens is that "invalid row" is outputted after every placeValue call, and I can't trace why.. Here is the output (mine + correct one) if it's at all helpful: http://pastebin.com/Wd3P3nDA Here is placeValue, and following is getCoords that placeValue calls.. void placeValue(Square board[BOARD_SIZE][BOARD_SIZE]) { int x,y,value; if(getCoords(x,y)) { cin>>value; if(board[x][y].permanent) { cout<< endl << "That location cannot be changed"; } else if(!(value>=1 && value<=9)) { cout << "Invalid number"<< endl; clearInput(); } else if(validMove(board, x, y, value)) { board[x][y].number=value; } } } bool getCoords(int & x, int & y) { char row; y=0; cin>>row>>y; x = static_cast<int>(toupper(row)); if (isalpha(row) && (x >= 'A' && x <= 'I') && y >= 1 && y <= 9) { x = x - 'A'; // converts x from a letter to corresponding index in matrix y = y - 1; // converts y to corresponding index in matrix return (true); } else if (!(x >= 'A' && x <= 'I')) { cout<<"Invalid row"<<endl; clearInput(); return false; } else { cout<<"Invalid column"<<endl; clearInput(); return false; } }

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• NSSortDescriptor for NSFetchRequestController causes crash when value of sorted attribute is changed

  - by AJ

  I have an Core Data Entity with a number of attributes, which include amount(float), categoryTotal(float) and category(string) The initial ViewController uses a FethchedResultsController to retrieve the entities, and sorts them based on the category and then the categoryTotal. No problems so far. NSManagedObjectContext *moc = [self managedObjectContext]; NSEntityDescription *entityDescription = [NSEntityDescription entityForName:@"Transaction" inManagedObjectContext:moc]; NSFetchRequest *request = [[[NSFetchRequest alloc] init] autorelease]; [request setEntity:entityDescription]; NSPredicate *predicate = [NSPredicate predicateWithFormat:@"(dateStamp >= %@) AND (dateStamp =< %@)", startDate, endDate]; [request setPredicate:predicate]; NSSortDescriptor *sortByCategory = [[NSSortDescriptor alloc] initWithKey:@"category" ascending:sortOrder]; NSSortDescriptor *sortByTotals = [[NSSortDescriptor alloc] initWithKey:@"categoryTotal" ascending:sortOrder]; NSArray *sortDescriptors = [[NSArray alloc] initWithObjects:sortByTotals, sortByCategory, nil]; [request setSortDescriptors:sortDescriptors]; NSFetchedResultsController *aFetchedResultsController = [[NSFetchedResultsController alloc] initWithFetchRequest:request managedObjectContext:managedObjectContext sectionNameKeyPath:@"category" cacheName:nil]; aFetchedResultsController.delegate = self; self.fetchedResultsController = aFetchedResultsController; On selecting a row (tableView:didSelectRowAtIndexPath), another view controller is loaded that allows editing of the amount field for the selected entity. Before returning to the first view, categoryTotal is updated by the new ‘amount’. The problem comes when returning to the first view controller, the app bombs with *Serious application error. Exception was caught during Core Data change processing: Invalid update: invalid number of rows in section 0. The number of rows contained in an existing section after the update (1) must be equal to the number of rows contained in that section before the update (1), plus or minus the number of rows inserted or deleted from that section (0 inserted, 1 deleted). with userInfo (null) Program received signal: “EXC_BAD_ACCESS”.* This seems to be courtesy of NSSortDescriptor *sortByTotals = [[NSSortDescriptor alloc] initWithKey:@"categoryTotal" ascending:sortOrder]; If I remove this everything works as expected, but obviously without the sorting I want. I'm guessing this is to do with the sorting order changing due to categoryTotal changing (deletion / insertion) but can't find away fix this. I've verified that values are being modified correctly in the second view, so it appears down to the fetchedResultsController being confused. If the categoryAmount is changed to one that does not change the sort order, then no error is generated I'm not physically changing (ie deleting) the number of items the fetchedResultsController is returning ... the only other issue I can find that seem to generate this error Any ideas would be most welcome Thanks, AJ

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• Does this incorporate JavaScript closures?

  - by alex

  In trying to learn JavaScript closures, I've confused myself a bit. From what I've gathered over the web, a closure is... Declaring a function within another function, and that inner function has access to its parent function's variables, even after that parent function has returned. Here is a small sample of script from a recent project. It allows text in a div to be scrolled up and down by buttons. var pageScroll = (function() { var $page, $next, $prev, canScroll = true, textHeight, scrollHeight; var init = function() { $page = $('#secondary-page'); // reset text $page.scrollTop(0); textHeight = $page.outerHeight(); scrollHeight = $page.attr('scrollHeight'); if (textHeight === scrollHeight) { // not enough text to scroll return false; }; $page.after('<div id="page-controls"><button id="page-prev">prev</button><button id="page-next">next</button></div>'); $next = $('#page-next'); $prev = $('#page-prev'); $prev.hide(); $next.click(scrollDown); $prev.click(scrollUp); }; var scrollDown = function() { if ( ! canScroll) return; canScroll = false; var scrollTop = $page.scrollTop(); $prev.fadeIn(500); if (scrollTop == textHeight) { // can we scroll any lower? $next.fadeOut(500); } $page.animate({ scrollTop: '+=' + textHeight + 'px'}, 500, function() { canScroll = true; }); }; var scrollUp = function() { $next.fadeIn(500); $prev.fadeOut(500); $page.animate({ scrollTop: 0}, 500); }; $(document).ready(init); }()); Does this example use closures? I know it has functions within functions, but is there a case where the outer variables being preserved is being used? Am I using them without knowing it? Thanks Update Would this make a closure if I placed this beneath the $(document).ready(init); statement? return { scrollDown: scrollDown }; Could it then be, if I wanted to make the text scroll down from anywhere else in JavaScript, I could do pageScroll.scrollDown(); I'm going to have a play around on http://www.jsbin.com and report back

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• AJAX, same-origin Policy and working XML Requests

  - by Joern

  Hello guys, so, currently I develop Widgets for Smartphones and am going a bit more advanced into fields of data exchange between client and server applications. My problem is: For my current project I want my client file to request data from a PHP script with the help of AJAX XmlHttpRequest and the POST method: function xmlRequestNotes() { var parameter = 'p=1234'; xmlhttp = new XMLHttpRequest(); xmlhttp.open("POST", url, true); // Http Header xmlhttp.setRequestHeader("Content-Type", "application/x-www-form-urlencoded"); xmlhttp.setRequestHeader("Content-length", parameter.length); xmlhttp.setRequestHeader("Connection", "close"); xmlhttp.onreadystatechange=function() { if (xmlhttp.readyState==4 && xmlhttp.status==200) { json = JSON.parse(xmlhttp.responseText); // Doing Stuff with the Response } }; xmlhttp.send(parameter); } This works perfectly fine on my local server set up in XAMPP and the local Widget emulator. But if it gets onto the device (also with access to the target network) I receive the 101 Network Error. And as far as I have read, this is due to the "Same-Origin Policy" of XmlHttpRequests? My problem is to really understand that. Although the idea of this policy is clear to me, I'm a bit confused by the fact that another XmlHttpRequest for a Yahoo Weather XML Feed works fine. Now, could anyone be so helpful to enlighten me? Here is the request that returns a city name from Yahoo's weather feed: function getCityName() { xmlhttp = new XMLHttpRequest(); xmlhttp.open("GET", "http://weather.yahooapis.com/forecastrss?w=645458&u=c", true); xmlhttp.onreadystatechange = function() { if (xmlhttp.readyState==4 && xmlhttp.status==200) { xmlhttp.responseXML; var yweather = "http://xml.weather.yahoo.com/ns/rss/1.0"; alert(xmlhttp.responseXML.getElementsByTagNameNS(yweather, "location")[0].getAttribute("city")); } }; xmlhttp.send(null); } Obvious differences are the POST and GET methods for once, but seeing that the Same-Origin Policy takes effect no matter what method, I can't really make much sense of it. Why does the latter request work but not the first? I would really appreciate some help here. Greetings and a merry Christmas to you guys!

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• How to implement a tagging plugin for jQuery

  - by anxiety

  Goal: To implement a jQuery plugin for my rails app (or write one myself, if necessary) that creates a "box" around text after a delimiter is typed. Example: With tagging on SO, the user begins typing a tag, then selects one from the drop-down list provided. The input field recognizes that a tag has been selected, puts a space and then is ready for the next tag. Similarly, I am attempting to use this plugin to put a box around the previously entered tag before moving to to accept the next tag/input. The instructions in the README.txt seem simple enough, however I have been receiving a $(".tagbox").tagbox is not a function error when debugging my app with firebug. Here is what I have in my application.js: $(document).ready( function(){ $('.tagbox').tagbox({ separator: /\[,]/, // specifying comma separation for <code>tags</code> }); }); And here is my _form.html.erb: <% form_for @tag do |f| %> <%= f.error_messages %> <p> <%= f.label :name %><br /> <%= text_field :tag, :name, { :method => :get, :class => "tagbox" } %> </p> <p><%= f.submit "Submit" %></p> <% end %> I have omitted some other code (namely the implementation of an autocomplete plugin) existing within my _form.html.erb and application.js for sake of readability. The inclusion or exclusion of this omitted code does not affect the performance of this plugin. I have included all of the necessary files for the tagbox plugin (as well as application.js after all other included JS files) within the javascript_include_tag in my application.html.erb file. I'm pretty much confused as to why I'd be getting this "not a function" error when jquery.tagbox.js clearly defines the function and is included in the head of my html page in question. I've been struggling with this plugin for longer than I'd like to admit, so any help would really be appreciated. And, of course, I'm open to any other plugins or from-scratch suggestions you may have in mind.. This tagbox plugin does not seem to have a wealth of documentation or any currently working examples. Also to note, I'm trying to avoid using jrails. Thanks for your time

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• Opening Macro definitions: tdfx_span.c: lvalue required as left operand of assignment

  - by anttir

  Hi, I'm trying to compile X11R6-7.0 under Ubuntu maverick and got some weird compilation errors I'm unable to resolve myself. I needed X11R6-7.0 as ati catalyst drivers don't support newer xorg and oss drivers don't support 3d acceleration of my hardware. Anyone know what this error message means? I know some C but I got a bit confused. Does it mean GET_FB_DATA macro returned NULL or some method/property not set? Any further insight how to "debug" preprocessor definitions at this point would be great. I don't think I can print anything useful with #error. The error I get: tdfx_span.c: In function ‘tdfxDDWriteDepthPixels’: tdfx_span.c:976: error: lvalue required as left operand of assignment tdfx_span.c:1008: error: lvalue required as left operand of assignment tdfx_span.c: In function ‘write_stencil_pixels’: tdfx_span.c:1242: error: lvalue required as left operand of assignment the Code: 958- switch (depth_size) { 959- case 16: 960- GetBackBufferInfo(fxMesa, &backBufferInfo); 961- /* 962- * Note that the _LOCK macro adds a curly brace, 963- * and the UNLOCK macro removes it. 964- */ 965- WRITE_FB_SPAN_LOCK(fxMesa, info, 966- GR_BUFFER_AUXBUFFER, GR_LFBWRITEMODE_ANY); 967- { 968- LFBParameters ReadParams; 969- GetFbParams(fxMesa, &info, &backBufferInfo, 970- &ReadParams, sizeof(GLushort)); 971- for (i = 0; i < n; i++) { 972- if (mask[i] && visible_pixel(fxMesa, x[i], y[i])) { 973- xpos = x[i] + fxMesa->x_offset; 974- ypos = bottom - y[i]; 975- d16 = depth[i]; 976: PUT_FB_DATA(&ReadParams, GLushort, xpos, ypos, d16); 977- } 978- } 979- } 980- WRITE_FB_SPAN_UNLOCK(fxMesa, GR_BUFFER_AUXBUFFER); 981- break; 982- case 24: And relative macros: #define GET_FB_DATA(ReadParamsp, type, x, y) \ (((x) < (ReadParamsp)->firstWrappedX) \ ? (((type *)((ReadParamsp)->lfbPtr)) \ [(y) * ((ReadParamsp)->LFBStrideInElts) \ + (x)]) \ : (((type *)((ReadParamsp)->lfbWrapPtr)) \ [((y)) * ((ReadParamsp)->LFBStrideInElts) \ + ((x) - (ReadParamsp)->firstWrappedX)])) #define GET_ORDINARY_FB_DATA(ReadParamsp, type, x, y) \ (((type *)((ReadParamsp)->lfbPtr)) \ [(y) * ((ReadParamsp)->LFBStrideInElts) \ + (x)]) #define GET_WRAPPED_FB_DATA(ReadParamsp, type, x, y) \ (((type *)((ReadParamsp)->lfbWrapPtr)) \ [((y)) * ((ReadParamsp)->LFBStrideInElts) \ + ((x) - (ReadParamsp)->firstWrappedX)]) #define PUT_FB_DATA(ReadParamsp, type, x, y, value) \ (GET_FB_DATA(ReadParamsp, type, x, y) = (type)(value)) #define PUT_ORDINARY_FB_DATA(ReadParamsp, type, x, y, value) \ (GET_ORDINARY_FB_DATA(ReadParamsp, type, x, y) = (type)(value)) #define PUT_WRAPPED_FB_DATA(ReadParamsp, type, x, y, value) \ (GET_WRAPPED_FB_DATA(ReadParamsp, type, x, y) = (type)(value)) The LFBParameters Struct 483-typedef struct 484-{ 485- void *lfbPtr; 486- void *lfbWrapPtr; 487- FxU32 LFBStrideInElts; 488- GLint firstWrappedX; 489-} 490:LFBParameters; Thanks for looking.

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• Why does my Spring Controller direct me to the wrong page?

  - by kc2001

  I am writing my first Spring 3.0.5 MVC app and am confused about why my controller mappings aren't doing what I expect. I have a VerifyPasswordController that is called after a user tries to log in by entering his name and password. // Called upon clicking "submit" from /login @RequestMapping(value = "/verifyPassword", method = RequestMethod.POST) @ModelAttribute("user") public String verifyPassword(User user, BindingResult result) { String email = user.getEmail(); String nextPage = CHOOSE_OPERATION_PAGE; // success case if (result.hasErrors()) { nextPage = LOGIN_PAGE; } else if (!passwordMatches(email, user.getPassword())) { nextPage = LOGIN_FAILURE_PAGE; } else { // success } return nextPage; } I can verify in the debugger that this method is being called, but afterwards, the verifyPassword page is displayed rather than the chooseOperation page. The console output of WebLogic seems to show that my mapping are correct: INFO : org.springframework.web.servlet.mvc.annotation.DefaultAnnotationHandlerMapping - Mapped URL path [/chooseOperation] onto handler 'chooseOperationController' INFO : org.springframework.web.servlet.mvc.annotation.DefaultAnnotationHandlerMapping - Mapped URL path [/chooseOperation.*] onto handler 'chooseOperationController' INFO : org.springframework.web.servlet.mvc.annotation.DefaultAnnotationHandlerMapping - Mapped URL path [/chooseOperation/] onto handler 'chooseOperationController' Here is the ChooseOperationController: @Controller @SessionAttributes("leaveRequestForm") public class ChooseOperationController implements PageIfc, AttributeIfc { @RequestMapping(value = "/chooseOperation") @ModelAttribute("leaveRequestForm") public LeaveRequest setUpLeaveRequestForm( @RequestParam(NAME_ATTRIBUTE) String name) { LeaveRequest form = populateFormFromDatabase(name); return form; } // helper methods omited } I welcome any advice, particularly "generic" techniques for debugging such mapping problems. BTW, I've also tried to "redirect" to the desired page, but got the same result. servlet-context.xml: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <beans:beans xmlns="http://www.springframework.org/schema/mvc" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:beans="http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans" xmlns:context="http://www.springframework.org/schema/context" xsi:schemaLocation=" http://www.springframework.org/schema/mvc http://www.springframework.org/schema/mvc/spring-mvc-3.0.xsd http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans/spring-beans-3.0.xsd http://www.springframework.org/schema/context http://www.springframework.org/schema/context/spring-context-3.0.xsd"> <!-- DispatcherServlet Context: defines this servlet's request-processing infrastructure --> <!-- Enables the Spring MVC @Controller programming model --> <annotation-driven /> <!-- Handles HTTP GET requests for /resources/** by efficiently serving up static resources in the ${webappRoot}/resources directory --> <resources mapping="/resources/**" location="/resources/" /> <!-- Resolves views selected for rendering by @Controllers to .jsp resources in the /WEB-INF/views directory --> <beans:bean class="org.springframework.web.servlet.view.InternalResourceViewResolver"> <beans:property name="prefix" value="/WEB-INF/views/" /> <beans:property name="suffix" value=".jsp" /> </beans:bean> <context:component-scan base-package="com.engilitycorp.leavetracker" /> <beans:bean id="leaveRequestForm" class="com.engilitycorp.leavetracker.model.LeaveRequest" /> </beans:beans> The constants: String LOGIN_FAILURE_PAGE = "loginFailure"; String LOGIN_PAGE = "login"; String CHOOSE_OPERATION_PAGE = "chooseOperation";

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• Memory issues - Living vs. overall -> app is killed

  - by D33

  I'm trying to check my applications memory issues in Instruments. When I load the application I play some sounds and show some animations in UIImageViews. To save some memory I load the sounds only when I need it and when I stop playing it I free it from the memory. problem 1: My application is using about 5.5MB of Living memory. BUT The Overall section is growing after start to 20MB and then it's slowly growing (about 100kB/sec). But responsible Library is OpenAL (OAL::Buffer), dyld (_dyld_start)-I am not sure what this really is, and some other stuff like ft_mem_qrealloc, CGFontStrikeSetValue, … problem 2: When the overall section breaks about 30MB, application crashes (is killed). According to the facts I already read about overall memory, it means then my all allocations and deallocation is about 30MB. But I don't really see the problem. When I need some sound for example I load it to the memory and when I don't need it anymore I release it. But that means when I load 1MB sound, this operation increase overall memory usage with 2MB. Am I right? And when I load 10 sounds my app crashes just because the fact my overall is too high even living is still low??? I am very confused about it. Could someone please help me clear it up? (I am on iOS 5 and using ARC) SOME CODE: creating the sound OpenAL: MYOpenALSound *sound = [[MyOpenALSound alloc] initWithSoundFile:filename willRepeat:NO]; if(!sound) return; [soundDictionary addObject:sound]; playing: [sound play]; dispatch_after(dispatch_time(DISPATCH_TIME_NOW, ((sound.duration * sound.pitch) + 0.1) * NSEC_PER_SEC), dispatch_get_current_queue(), ^{ [soundDictionary removeObjectForKey:[NSNumber numberWithInt:soundID]]; }); } creating the sound with AVAudioPlayer: [musics replaceObjectAtIndex:ID_MUSIC_MAP withObject:[[Music alloc] initWithFilename:@"mapMusic.mp3" andWillRepeat:YES]]; pom = [musics objectAtIndex:musicID]; [pom playMusic]; and stop and free it: [musics replaceObjectAtIndex:ID_MUSIC_MAP withObject:[NSNull null]]; AND IMAGE ANIMATIONS: I load images from big PNG file (this is realated also to my other topic : Memory warning - UIImageView and its animations) I have few UIImageViews and by time I'm setting animation arrays to play Animations... UIImage *source = [[UIImage alloc] initWithCGImage:[[UIImage imageNamed:@"imageSource.png"] CGImage]]; cutRect = CGRectMake(0*dimForImg.width,1*dimForImg.height,dimForImg.width,dimForImg.height); image1 = [[UIImage alloc] initWithCGImage:CGImageCreateWithImageInRect([source CGImage], cutRect)]; cutRect = CGRectMake(1*dimForImg.width,1*dimForImg.height,dimForImg.width,dimForImg.height); ... image12 = [[UIImage alloc] initWithCGImage:CGImageCreateWithImageInRect([source CGImage], cutRect)]; NSArray *images = [[NSArray alloc] initWithObjects:image1, image2, image3, image4, image5, image6, image7, image8, image9, image10, image11, image12, image12, image12, nil]; and this array I just use simply like : myUIImageView.animationImages = images, ... duration -> startAnimating

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• Using events in threads between processes - C

  - by Jamie Keeling

  Hello all! I have an application consisting of two windows, one communicates to the other and sends it a struct constaining two integers (In this case two rolls of a dice). I will be using events for the following circumstances: Process a sends data to process b, process b displays data Process a closes, in turn closing process b Process b closes a, in turn closing process a I have noticed that if the second process is constantly waiting for the first process to send data then the program will be just sat waiting, which is where the idea of implementing threads on each process occurred and I have started to implement this already. The problem i'm having is that I don't exactly have a lot of experience with threads and events so I'm not sure of the best way to actually implement what I want to do. Following is a small snippet of what I have so far in the producer application; Create thread: case IDM_FILE_ROLLDICE: { hDiceRoll = CreateThread( NULL, // lpThreadAttributes (default) 0, // dwStackSize (default) ThreadFunc(hMainWindow), // lpStartAddress NULL, // lpParameter 0, // dwCreationFlags &hDiceID // lpThreadId (returned by function) ); } break; The data being sent to the other process: DWORD WINAPI ThreadFunc(LPVOID passedHandle) { HANDLE hMainHandle = *((HANDLE*)passedHandle); WCHAR buffer[256]; LPCTSTR pBuf; LPVOID lpMsgBuf; LPVOID lpDisplayBuf; struct diceData storage; HANDLE hMapFile; DWORD dw; //Roll dice and store results in variable storage = RollDice(); hMapFile = CreateFileMapping( (HANDLE)0xFFFFFFFF, // use paging file NULL, // default security PAGE_READWRITE, // read/write access 0, // maximum object size (high-order DWORD) BUF_SIZE, // maximum object size (low-order DWORD) szName); // name of mapping object if (hMapFile == NULL) { dw = GetLastError(); MessageBox(hMainHandle,L"Could not create file mapping object",L"Error",MB_OK); return 1; } pBuf = (LPTSTR) MapViewOfFile(hMapFile, // handle to map object FILE_MAP_ALL_ACCESS, // read/write permission 0, 0, BUF_SIZE); if (pBuf == NULL) { MessageBox(hMainHandle,L"Could not map view of file",L"Error",MB_OK); CloseHandle(hMapFile); return 1; } CopyMemory((PVOID)pBuf, &storage, (_tcslen(szMsg) * sizeof(TCHAR))); //_getch(); MessageBox(hMainHandle,L"Completed!",L"Success",MB_OK); UnmapViewOfFile(pBuf); return 0; } I'm trying to find out how I would integrate an event with the threaded code to signify to the other process that something has happened, I've seen an MSDN article on using events but it's just confused me if anything, I'm coming up on empty whilst searching on the internet too. Thanks for any help Edit: I can only use the Create/Set/Open methods for events, sorry for not mentioning it earlier.

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• Objective-C Basic class related question, retaining the value of a specific object using a class fil

  - by von steiner

  Members, scholars, code gurus. My background is far from any computer programming thus my question may seems basic and somewhat trivial to you. Nevertheless it seems that I can't put my head around it. I have googled and searched for the answer, just to get myself confused even more. With that, I would kindly ask for a simple explanation suitable for a non technical person such as myself and for other alike arriving to this thread. I have left a comment with the text "Here is the issue" below, referring to my question. // character.h #import <Foundation/Foundation.h> @interface character : NSObject { NSString *name; int hitPoints; int armorClass; } @property (nonatomic,retain) NSString *name; @property int hitPoints,armorClass; -(void)giveCharacterInfo; @end // character.m #import "character.h" @implementation character @synthesize name,hitPoints,armorClass; -(void)giveCharacterInfo{ NSLog(@"name:%@ HP:%i AC:%i",name,hitPoints,armorClass); } @end // ClassAtLastViewController.h #import <UIKit/UIKit.h> @interface ClassAtLastViewController : UIViewController { } -(void)callAgain; @end // ClassAtLastViewController.m #import "ClassAtLastViewController.h" #import "character.h" @implementation ClassAtLastViewController - (void)viewDidLoad { //[super viewDidLoad]; character *player = [[character alloc]init]; player.name = @"Minsc"; player.hitPoints = 140; player.armorClass = 10; [player giveCharacterInfo]; [player release]; // Up until here, All peachy! [self performSelector:@selector(callAgain) withObject:nil afterDelay:2.0]; } -(void)callAgain{ // Here is the issue, I assume that since I init the player again I loss everything // Q1. I loss all the data I set above, where is it than? // Q2. What is the proper way to implement this character *player = [[character alloc]init]; [player giveCharacterInfo]; } Many thanks in advance, Kindly remember that my background is more related to Salmons breeding than to computer code, try and lower your answer to my level if it's all the same to you.

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• Template function as a template argument

  - by Kos

  I've just got confused how to implement something in a generic way in C++. It's a bit convoluted, so let me explain step by step. Consider such code: void a(int) { // do something } void b(int) { // something else } void function1() { a(123); a(456); } void function2() { b(123); b(456); } void test() { function1(); function2(); } It's easily noticable that function1 and function2 do the same, with the only different part being the internal function. Therefore, I want to make function generic to avoid code redundancy. I can do it using function pointers or templates. Let me choose the latter for now. My thinking is that it's better since the compiler will surely be able to inline the functions - am I correct? Can compilers still inline the calls if they are made via function pointers? This is a side-question. OK, back to the original point... A solution with templates: void a(int) { // do something } void b(int) { // something else } template<void (*param)(int) > void function() { param(123); param(456); } void test() { function<a>(); function<b>(); } All OK. But I'm running into a problem: Can I still do that if a and b are generics themselves? template<typename T> void a(T t) { // do something } template<typename T> void b(T t) { // something else } template< ...param... > // ??? void function() { param<SomeType>(someobj); param<AnotherType>(someotherobj); } void test() { function<a>(); function<b>(); } I know that a template parameter can be one of: a type, a template type, a value of a type. None of those seems to cover my situation. My main question is hence: How do I solve that, i.e. define function() in the last example? (Yes, function pointers seem to be a workaround in this exact case - provided they can also be inlined - but I'm looking for a general solution for this class of problems).

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• Paging & Sorting grids with ASP.Net MVC

  - by Scott Ivey

  I'm new to MVC, and am not following how you'd do paging and sorting on a grid. I'm used to using the asp.Net GridView control with an ObjectDataSource pointed at objects in our business layer - and in that case the ODS handles all of the paging & sorting using the methods that our ORM generates on the objects. I've looked at using the same ORM with MVC - and things work out fine there - i just loop thru the collections to build the table on the page - but without the ODS to handle the paging & sorting, i'm confused as to how I'd handle that. Would I have a separate controller for the paging and sorting? I'm not sure what the best practices are for this scenario, so if someone can point me in the right direction it would be much appreciated. Edit: Ok, so I understand that I need to roll my own - but where do I start? I've created a CustomerController, and a view that displays a table of customers that looks like below - and I want to sort on FirstName or LastName columns. My Model has a Sort() method on it that'll take a string sort expression in the format that would be used by a GridView/ODS pair. Would I create a new Action on my CustomerController called Sort, and put an ActionLink in my header? <table> <tr> <th> First Name </th> <th> Last Name </th> </tr> <% foreach (var item in Model) { %> <tr> <td> <%= Html.Encode(item.FirstName) %> </td> <td> <%= Html.Encode(item.LastName) %> </td> </tr> <% } %> </table>

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• POST parameters strangely parsed inside phantomjs

  - by user61629

  I am working with PHP/CURL and would like to send POST data to my phantomjs script, by setting the postfields array below: In my php controller I have: $data=array('first' => 'John', 'last' => 'Smith'); $url='http://localhost:7788/'; $output = $this->my_model->get_data($url,$data); In my php model I have: public function get_data($url,$postFieldArray) { $ch = curl_init(); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_COOKIEJAR, $cookieFile); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_FOLLOWLOCATION, TRUE); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER, TRUE); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_USERAGENT, "Mozilla/4.0 (compatible; MSIE 7.0; Windows NT 6.0)"); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_POST, TRUE); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_POSTFIELDS, $postFieldArray); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_URL, $url); $output = curl_exec($ch); In my phantomJS script that I am running locally I have: // import the webserver module, and create a server var server = require('webserver').create(); var port = require('system').env.PORT || 7788; console.log("Start Application"); console.log("Listen port " + port); // Create serever and listen port server.listen(port, function(request, response) { // Print some information Just for debbug console.log("We got some requset !!!"); console.log("request method: ", request.method); // request.method POST or GET if(request.method == 'POST' ){ console.log("POST params should be next: "); console.log("POST params: ",request.post); exit; } I first start and run the phantomjs script (myscript.js) from the command line, then I run my php script. The output is: $ phantomjs.exe myscript.js Start Application Listen port 7788 null We got some requset !!! request method: POST POST params should be next: POST params: ------------------------------e70d439800f9 Content-Disposition: form-data; name="first" John ------------------------------e70d439800f9 Content-Disposition: form-data; name="last" Smith ------------------------------e70d439800f9-- I'm confused about the the output. I was expecting something more like: first' => 'John', 'last' => 'Smith Can someone explain why it looks this way? How can I parse the request.post object to assign to variables inside myscript.js

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• How to combine a list of choices to determine which select statement

  - by Larry

  I have a mysql db and am using php 5.2 What I am trying to do is offer a list of options for a person to select (only 1). The chosen option will cause a select, update, or delete statement to be ran. The results of the statement do not need to be shown, although, showing the old and then the new would be nice (no problems with that part tho'.). Pseudo-Code: Assign $choice = 0 Check the value of $choice // This way, if it = 100, we do a break Select a Choice:<br> 1. Adjust Status Value (+60) // $choice = 1<br> 2. Show all Ships <br> // $choice = 2 3. Show Ships in Port <br> // $choice = 3 ... 0. $choice="100" // if the value =100, quit this part Use either case (switch) or if/else statements to run the users choice1 If the choice is 1, then run the "Select" statement with the variable of $sql1 -- "SELECT .... If the choice is 2, then run the "Select" statement with the variable of $sql2 --- SELECT * FROM Ships If the choice is 3, then run the "Select" statement with the variable of $sql3 <br> .... If the choice is 0, then we are done. I figured the (3) statements would be assigned in php as: $sql1="...". $sql2="SELECT * FROM Ships" $sql3="SELECT * FROM Ships WHERE nPort="1" My idea was to use the switch statement, but got lost on it. :( I would like the options to be available over and over again, until a variable ($choice) is selected. In which case, this particular page is done and goes back to the "Main Menu"? The coding and display, if I use it, I can do. Just not sure how to write the way to select which one I want. It is possible that I would run all of the queries, and other times, only one, so that is why I would like the choice. An area I get confused in is the proper forms to use such as -- ' ' " " and ...?? Not sure the # of options I will end up with, but it will be more than 5 but less than 20 / page. So if I get the system down for 2-3 choices, I can replicate it for as many as I may need. And, as always, if a better way exists, I am willing to try it. Thanks again... Larry

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• Methodology to understanding JQuery plugin & API's developed by third parties

  - by Taoist

  I have a question about third party created JQuery plug ins and API's and the methodology for understanding them. Recently I downloaded the JQuery Masonry/Infinite scroll plug in and I couldn't figure out how to configure it based on the instructions. So I downloaded a fully developed demo, then manually deleted everything that wouldn't break the functionality. The code that was left allowed me to understand the plug in much greater detail than the documentation. I'm now having a similar issue with a plug in called JQuery knob. http://anthonyterrien.com/knob/ If you look at the JQuery Knob readme file it says this is working code: <input type="text" value="75" class="dial"> $(function() { $('.dial') .trigger( 'configure', { "min":10, "max":40, "fgColor":"#FF0000", "skin":"tron", "cursor":true } ); }); But as far as I can tell it isn't at all. The read me also says the Plug in uses Canvas. I am wondering if I am suppose to wrap this code in a canvas context or if this functionality is already part of the plug in. I know this kind of "question" might not fit in here but I'm a bit confused on the assumptions around reading these kinds of documentation and thought I would post the query regardless. Curious to see if this is due to my "newbi" programming experience or if this is something seasoned coders also fight with. Thank you. Edit In response to Tyanna's reply. I modified the code and it still doesn't work. I posted it below. I made sure that I checked the Google Console to insure the basics were taken care of, such as not getting a read-error on the library. <!DOCTYPE html> <meta charset="UTF-8"> <title>knob</title> <link rel="stylesheet" href="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jqueryui/1.7.2/themes/hot-sneaks/jquery-ui.css" type="text/css" /> <script type="text/javascript" src="https://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.7.2/jquery.js" charset="utf-8"></script> <script src="https://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jqueryui/1.8.21/jquery-ui.min.js"></script> <script src="js/jquery.knob.js"></script> <div id="button1">test </div> <script> $(function() { $("#button1").click(function () { $('.dial').trigger( 'configure', { "min":10, "max":40, "fgColor":"#FF0000", "skin":"tron", "cursor":true } ); }); }); </script>

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• How do I remove elements from a jQuery wrapped set

  - by Bungle

  I'm a little confused about which jQuery method and/or selectors to use when trying to select an element, and then remove certain descendant elements from the wrapped set. For example, given the following HTML: <div id="article"> <div id="inset"> <ul> <li>This is bullet point #1.</li> <li>This is bullet point #2.</li> <li>This is bullet point #3.</li> </ul> </div> <p>This is the first paragraph of the article</p> <p>This is the second paragraph of the article</p> <p>This is the third paragraph of the article</p> </div> I want to select the article: var $article = $('#article'); but then remove <div id="inset"></div> and its descendants from the wrapped set. I tried the following: var $article = $('#article').not('#inset'); but that didn't work, and in retrospect, I think I can see why. I also tried using remove() unsuccessfully. What would be the correct way to do this? Ultimately, I need to set this up in such a way that I can define a configuration array, such as: var selectors = [ { select: '#article', exclude: ['#inset'] } ]; where select defines a single element that contains text content, and exclude is an optional array that defines one or more selectors to disregard text content from. Given the final wrapped set with the excluded elements removed, I would like to be able to call jQuery's text() method to end up with the following text: This is the first paragraph of the article.This is the second paragraph of the article.This is the third paragraph of the article. The configuration array doesn't need to work exactly like that, but it should provide roughly equivalent configuration potential. Thanks for any help you can provide!

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• PHP - JSON Steam API query

  - by Hunter

  First time using "JSON" and I've just been working away at my dissertation and I'm integrating a few features from the steam API.. now I'm a little bit confused as to how to create arrays. function test_steamAPI() { $api = ('http://api.steampowered.com/ISteamUser/GetPlayerSummaries/v0002/?key='.get_Steam_api().'&steamids=76561197960435530'); $test = decode_url($api); var_dump($test['response']['players'][0]['personaname']['steamid']); } //Function to decode and return the data. function decode_url($url) { $decodeURL = $url; $data = file_get_contents($url); $data_output = json_decode($data, true); return $data_output; } So ea I've wrote a simple method to decode Json as I'll be doing a fair bit.. But just wondering the best way to print out arrays.. I can't for the life of me get it to print more than 1 element without it retunring an error e.g. Warning: Illegal string offset 'steamid' in /opt/lampp/htdocs/lan/lan-includes/scripts/class.steam.php on line 48 string(1) "R" So I can print one element, and if I add another it returns errors. EDIT -- Thanks for help, So this was my solution: function test_steamAPI() { $api = ('http://api.steampowered.com/ISteamUser/GetPlayerSummaries/v0002/?key='.get_Steam_api().'&steamids=76561197960435530,76561197960435530'); $data = decode_url($api); foreach($data ['response']['players'] as $player) { echo "Steam id:" . $player['steamid'] . "\n"; echo "Community visibility :" . $player['communityvisibilitystate'] . "\n"; echo "Player profile" . $player['profileurl'] ."\n"; } } //Function to decode and return the data. function decode_url($url) { $decodeURL = $url; $json = file_get_contents($decodeURL); $data_output = json_decode($json, true); return $data_output; } Worked this out by taking a look at the data.. and a couple json examples, this returns an array based on the Steam API URL (It works for multiple queries.... just FYI) and you can insert loops inside for items etc.. (if anyone searches for this).

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• git: setting a single tracking remote from a public repo.

  - by Gauthier

  I am confused with remote branches. My local repo: (local) ---A---B---C-master My remote repo (called int): (int) ---A---B---C---D---E-master What I want to do is to setup the local repo's master branch to follow that of int. Local repo: (local) ---A---B---C---D---E-master-remotes/int/master So that when int changes to: (int) ---A---B---C---D---E---F-master I can run git pull from the local repo's master and get (local) ---A---B---C---D---E---F-master-remotes/int/master Here's what I have tried: git fetch int gets me all the branches of int into remote branches. This can get messy since int might have hundreds of branches. git fetch int master gets me the commits, but no ref to it, only FETCH_HEAD. No remote branch either. git fetch int master:new_master works but I don't want a new name every time I update, and no remote branch is setup. git pull int master does what I want, but there is still no remote branch setup. I feel that it is ok to do so (that's the best I have now), but I read here and there that with the remote setup it is enough with git pull. git branch --track new_master int/master, as per http://www.gitready.com/beginner/2009/03/09/remote-tracking-branches.html . I get "not a valid object name: int/master". git remote -v does show me that int is defined and points at the correct location (1. worked). What I miss is the int/master branch, which is precisely what I want to get. git fetch in master:int/master. Well, int/master is created, but is no remote. So to summarize, I've tried some stuff with no luck. I would expect 2 to give me the remote branch to master in the repo int. The solution I use now is option 3. I read somewhere that you could change some config file by hand, but isn't that a bit cumbersome? The "cumbersome" way of editting the config file did work: [branch "master"] remote = int merge = master It can be done from command line: $ git config branch.master.remote int $ git config branch.master.merge master Any reason why option 2 above wouldn't do that automatically? Even in that case, git pull fetches all branches from the remote.

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