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  • WPF-Can a XAML object be a source as well as a target for bindings?

    - by iambic77
    I was wondering if it's possible to have a TextBlock as a target and a source? Basically I have a bunch of entities which have simple relationships to other entities (like Entity1 Knows Entity3, Entity3 WorksAt Entity2 etc.) I have a Link class that stores SourceEntity, Relationship and TargetEntity details. What I want to be able to do is to select an entity then display the relationships related to that entity, with the target entities of each relationship listed underneath the relationship names. When an entity is selected, an ObservableCollection is populated with the Links for that particular entity (SelectedEntityLinks<Link>). Because each entity could have the same relationship to more than one target entity (Entity1 could know both Entity3 and Entity4 for eg.), I've created a method GetThisRelationshipEntities() that takes a relationship name as a parameter, looks through SelectedEntityLinks for relationship names that match the parameter, and returns an ObservableCollection with the target entities of that relationship. Hope I'm making this clear. In my xaml I have a WrapPanel to display each relationship name in a TextBlock: <TextBlock x:Name="relationship" Text="{Binding Path=Relationship.Name}" /> Then underneath that another Textblock which should display the results of GetThisRelationshipEntities(String relationshipName). So I want the "relationship" TextBlock to both get its Text from the binding I've shown above, but also to provide its Text as a parameter to the GetThisRelationshipEntities() method which I've added to <UserControl.Resources> as an ObjectDataProvider. Sorry if this is a bit wordy but I hope it's clear. Any pointers/advice would be great. Many thanks.

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  • From where to send mails in a MVC framework, so that there is no duplication of code?

    - by Sabya
    It's a MVC question. Here is the situation: I am writing an application where I have "groups". You can invite other persons to your groups by typing their email and clicking "invite". There are two ways this functionality can be called: a) web interface and b) API After the mail sending is over I want to report to the user which mails were sent successfully (i.e., if the SMTP send succeeded. Currently, I am not interested in reporting mail bounces). So, I am thinking how should I design so that there is no code duplication. That is, API and web-interface should share the bulk of the code. To do this, I can create the method "invite" inside the model "group". So, the API and and the Web-interface can just call: group-invite($emailList); This method can send the emails. But the, problem is, then I have to access the mail templates, create the views for the mails, and then send the mails. Which should actually be in the "View" part or at least in the "Controller" part. What is the most elegant design in this situation? Note: I am really thinking to write this in the Model. My only doubt is: previously I thought sending mails also as "presentation". Since it is may be considered as a different form of generating output.

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  • Producing a Form from an Overlay from Reporting Services rdlc Reports

    - by Mike Wills
    I am not sure what you call it in other technologies, on the IBM i (or iSeries) we call it overlays. The overlay is an image of a form that is stored on the server then a program generates the form with fields from the database so you can eliminate preprinted forms. I had a problem last year with the method I was trying at the time. It was a rush job at the time to be revisited at a later point. The work-around at the time was to export to PDF. So now it is "later" and once again is a rush (imagine that). This is all done through a web-based interface. So how do you generate forms from something that was once a preprinted form? What method do you recommend? This is a legal form and must be filled out a certain way and can have many in a batch (up to 50 or so). I would prefer to not have them print one page at a time. Any ideas would be appreciated!

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  • jsf messed up links

    - by Mateusz
    I'm new to JSF. My application is working, but I'm confused with links in browser when using controller. BTW, there is also PrimeFaces in my app so don't be suprised with p: tags. Let's say I have 'list' and 'show' pages with controller doing redirection between them. First I'm on http://localhost:8080/y/r/conversation/list.xhtml page. There is link created with line <p:commandLink action="#{lazyConversationBean.doShow(conv)}" ajax="false" value="View"/>. lazyConversationBean acts here as my Controller. There is method: public String doShow(Conversation c) { this.setSelectedConversation(c); return "view"; } from which I got redirected to ...... again http://localhost:8080/y/r/conversation/list.xhtml (browser shows it) even when it's correct http://localhost:8080/y/r/conversation/view.xhtml page. There I have link <p:commandButton action="#{lazyConversationBean.doList()}" ajax="false" value="Back to list"/> and again controller has method: public String doList() { return "list"; } from which I got redirected to ... yeah, you guessed right ... http://localhost:8080/y/r/conversation/view.xhtml (that is again what browser shows) even when again it is correct http://localhost:8080/y/r/conversation/list.xhtml page. It seams as browser link area is always one step behind page currently being displayed. I don't even know if it's some incorrect behaviour as I have no idea how to query google for this :D Just for test I did this short tutorial, where netbeans created whole stack of code on one of my entities, and behaviour was the same, so it's not PrimeFaces magic related. Can you tell my why it happens, and how to fix it? Users likes to copy correct links ;)

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  • .NET ValidationRule problem

    - by PaN1C_Showt1Me
    Hi ! I have a control with this validation <MyPicker.SelectedItem> <Binding Path="Person.Value" Mode="TwoWay" UpdateSourceTrigger="PropertyChanged" NotifyOnValidationError="True"> <Binding.ValidationRules> <rules:MyValidationRule ValidationType="notnull"/> </Binding.ValidationRules> </Binding> </MyPicker.SelectedItem> This is the Validation Class: class MyValidationRule : ValidationRule { private string _validationType; public string ValidationType { get { return _validationType; } set { _validationType = value; } } public override ValidationResult Validate(object value, CultureInfo cultureInfo) { ValidationResult trueResult = new ValidationResult(true, null); switch (_validationType.ToLower()) { case "notnull": return value == null ? new ValidationResult(false, "EMPTY FIELD") : trueResult; default: return trueResult; } } } Question: When the property is changed, then the Validate( ) method is called which is correct. But to call this method at the very beginning when the MyControl is created? I need to prove immediate after initialize if the there's a null value in the control (and display a validation error)

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  • how can I know current viewcontroller name in iphone

    - by Shikhar
    I have BaseView which implement UIViewController. Every view in project must implement this BaseView. In BaseView, I have method: -(void) checkLoginStatus { defaults = [[NSUserDefaults alloc] init]; if(![[defaults objectForKey:@"USERID"] length] > 0 ) { Login *login=[[Login alloc] initWithNibName:@"Login" bundle:nil]; [self.navigationController pushViewController:login animated:TRUE]; [login release]; } [defaults release]; } The problem is my Login view also implement BaseView, checks for login, and again open LoginView i.e. stuck in to recursive calling. Can I check in checkLoginStatus method if request is from LoginView then take no action else check login. Ex: (void) checkLoginStatus { if(SubView is NOT Login){ defaults = [[NSUserDefaults alloc] init]; if(![[defaults objectForKey:@"USERID"] length] 0 ) { Login *login=[[Login alloc] initWithNibName:@"Login" bundle:nil]; [self.navigationController pushViewController:login animated:TRUE]; [login release]; } [defaults release]; } } Please help..

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  • Form submit capture into database not working

    - by kielie
    Hi guys, I have a form that has two buttons on it, one yes, one no, and at the moment I capture the clicked button into a database, but for some reason, it doesn't always capture the clicked button, I have gone through all my code and everything seems fine, here is the form <div id="mid_prompt"> <form action="refer.php" method="post" onsubmit="return submit_form()" > <div class="prompt_container" style="float: left;"> <span class="prompt_item"><input type="image" src="images/yes.jpg" alt="submit" name="refer" value="yes" /></span> </div> </form> <form action="thank_you.php" method="post" onsubmit="return submit_form()" > <div class="prompt_container" style="float: right;"> <span class="prompt_item"><input type="image" src="images/no.jpg" alt="submit" name="refer" value="no" /></span> </div> </form> </div> I am using sessions to carry the variables all the way to the end of the forms where I then write all the data to a database, I have checked my sessions and they seem to be working fine, the only one that is giving problems is the yes/no. So basically I need it to capture that yes/no everytime. Thanx in advance!

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  • Target module with custom layout in Magento

    - by dardub
    In my custom module, I'd like to include an extra block and style sheet that targets only pages within my custom module. So that when i access myserver.com/configurator/ Pages will use the correct template I specified In the catalog.xml file, I noticed <catalog_category_default> That seems to be what I am looking for, so I tried: <configurator_default_default> <reference name="root"> <action method="setTemplate"><template>configurator/2columns-right.phtml</template></action> </reference> <reference name="head"> <action method="addCss"><stylesheet>css/configurator.css</stylesheet></action> </reference> <reference name="content"> <block type="configurator/guide" name="timeline" template="configurator/guide/timeline.phtml" /> </reference> </configurator_default_default> But it doesn't change the template for pages within the module. I also tried <configurator_guide_default> But it doesn't pick up the correct template If i put it within the specific page such as <configurator_guide_page1> Then it works.

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  • LinQ XML mapping to a generic type

    - by Manuel Navarro
    I´m trying to use an external XML file to map the output from a stored procedure into an instance of a class. The problem is that my class is of a generic type: public class MyValue<T> { public T Value { get; set; } } Searching through a lot of blogs an articles I've managed to get this: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <Database Name="" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/linqtosql/mapping/2007"> <Table Name="MyValue" Member="MyNamespace.MyValue`1" > <Type Name="MyNamespace.MyValue`1"> <Column Name="Category" Member="Value" DbType="VarChar(100)" /> </Type> </Table> <Function Method="GetResourceCategories" Name="myprefix_GetResourceCategories" > <ElementType Name="MyNamespace.MyValue`1"/> </Function> </Database> The MyNamespace.MyValue`1 trick works fine, and the class is recognized. I expect four rows from the stored procedure, and I'm getting four MyValue<string> instances, but the big problem is that the property Value for the all four instances is null. The property is not getting mapped and I don't really get why. Maybe worth noting that the property Value is generic, and that when the mapping is done using attributes it works perfect. Anyone have a clue? BTW the method GetResourceCategories: public ISingleResult<MyValue<string>> GetResourceCategories() { IExecuteResult result = this.ExecuteMethodCall( this, (MethodInfo)MethodInfo.GetCurrentMethod()); return (ISingleResult<MyValue<string>>)result.ReturnValue; }

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  • rspec and ruby 1.9.1: problem with dummy controller and routes

    - by giorgian
    I want to test a module that basically executes some verify statements, to ensure that actions are invoked with the correct method. # /lib/rest_verification.rb module RestVerification def self.included(base) # :nodoc: base.extend(ClassMethods) end module ClassMethods def verify_rest_actions verify :method => :post, :only => [:create], :redirect_to => { :action => :new } ... end end end I tried this: describe RestVerification do class FooController < ActionController::Base include RestVerification verify_rest_actions def new ; end def index ; end def create ; end def edit ; end def update ; end def destroy ; end end # controller_name 'foo' # this only works with ruby 1.8.7 : 1.9.1 says "uninitialized constant FooController" tests FooController # this works with both before(:each) do ActionController::Routing::Routes.draw do |map| map.resources :foo end end after(:each) do ActionController::Routing::Routes.reload! end it ':create should redirect to :new if invoked with wrong verb' do [:get, :put, :delete].each do |verb| send verb, :create response.should redirect_to(new_foo_url) end end ... end When testing: $ ruby -v ruby 1.8.7 (2010-01-10 patchlevel 249) [i486-linux] $ rake RestVerification :create should redirect to :new if invoked with wrong verb Finished in 0.175586 seconds $ rvm use 1.9.1 Using ruby 1.9.1 p378 $ rake RestVerification :create should redirect to :new if invoked with wrong verb (FAILED - 1) 1) 'RestVerification :create should redirect to :new if invoked with wrong verb' FAILED expected redirect to "http://test.host/foo/new", got redirect to "http://test.host/spec/rails/example/controller_example_group/subclass_1/foo/new" Is this a known issue? Is there a workaround?

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  • How to interrupt a thread performing a blocking socket connect?

    - by Jason R
    I have some code that spawns a pthread that attempts to maintain a socket connection to a remote host. If the connection is ever lost, it attempts to reconnect using a blocking connect() call on its socket. Since the code runs in a separate thread, I don't really care about the fact that it uses the synchronous socket API. That is, until it comes time for my application to exit. I would like to perform some semblance of an orderly shutdown, so I use thread synchronization primitives to wake up the thread and signal for it to exit, then perform a pthread_join() on the thread to wait for it to complete. This works great, unless the thread is in the middle of a connect() call when I command the shutdown. In that case, I have to wait for the connect to time out, which could be a long time. This makes the application appear to take a long time to shut down. What I would like to do is to interrupt the call to connect() in some way. After the call returns, the thread will notice my exit signal and shut down cleanly. Since connect() is a system call, I thought that I might be able to intentionally interrupt it using a signal (thus making the call return EINTR), but I'm not sure if this is a robust method in a POSIX threads environment. Does anyone have any recommendations on how to do this, either using signals or via some other method? As a note, the connect() call is down in some library code that I cannot modify, so changing to a non-blocking socket is not an option.

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  • C# Late Binding for Parameterized Property

    - by optim
    I'm trying to use late binding to connect to a COM automation API provided by a program called Amibroker, using a C# WinForms project. So far I've been able to connect to everything in the API except one item, which I believe to be a "parameterized property" based on extensive Googling. Here's what the API specification looks like according to the docs (Full version here: http://www.amibroker.com/guide/objects.html): Property Filter(ByVal nType As Integer, ByVal pszCategory As String) As Long [r/w] A javascript snippet to update the value looks like this: AB = new ActiveXObject("Broker.Application"); AA = AB.Analysis; AA.Filter( 0, "market" ) = 0; Using the following C# late-binding code, I can get the value of the property, but I can't for the life of me figure out how to set the value: object[] parameter = new object[2]; parameter[0] = Number; parameter[1] = Type; object filters = _analysis.GetType().InvokeMember("Filter", BindingFlags.GetProperty, null, _analysis, parameter); So far I have tried: using BindingFlags.SetProperty, BindingFlags.SetField casting the returned object to a PropertyInfo object and trying to update the value using it adding extra object containing the value to the parameters object various other things as last-ditch efforts From what I can see, this should be straight-forward, but I'm finding the late binding in C# to be cumbersome at best. The property looks like a method call to me, which is what is throwing me off. How does one assign a value to a method, and what would the prototype for late-binding C# code look like for it? Hopefully that explains it well enough, but feel free to ask if I've left anything unclear. Thanks in advance for any help! Daniel

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  • Lookup table size reduction

    - by Ryan
    Hello: I have an application in which I have to store a couple of millions of integers, I have to store them in a Look up table, obviously I cannot store such amount of data in memory and in my requirements I am very limited I have to store the data in an embebedded system so I am very limited in the space, so I would like to ask you about recommended methods that I can use for the reduction of the look up table. I cannot use function approximation such as neural networks, the values needs to be in a table. The range of the integers is not known at the moment. When I say integers I mean a 32 bit value. Basically the idea is use some copmpression method to reduce the amount of memory but without losing many precision. This thing needs to run in hardware so the computation overhead cannot be very high. In my algorithm I have to access to one value of the table do some operations with it and after update the value. In the end what I should have is a function which I pass an index to it and then I get a value, and after I have to use another function to write a value in the table. I found one called tile coding http://www.cs.ualberta.ca/~sutton/book/8/node6.html, this one is based on several look up tables, does anyone know any other method?. Thanks.

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  • Connecting an overloaded PyQT signal using new-style syntax

    - by Claudio
    I am designing a custom widget which is basically a QGroupBox holding a configurable number of QCheckBox buttons, where each one of them should control a particular bit in a bitmask represented by a QBitArray. In order to do that, I added the QCheckBox instances to a QButtonGroup, with each button given an integer ID: def populate(self, num_bits, parent = None): """ Adds check boxes to the GroupBox according to the bitmask size """ self.bitArray.resize(num_bits) layout = QHBoxLayout() for i in range(num_bits): cb = QCheckBox() cb.setText(QString.number(i)) self.buttonGroup.addButton(cb, i) layout.addWidget(cb) self.setLayout(layout) Then, each time a user would click on a checkbox contained in self.buttonGroup, I'd like self.bitArray to be notified so I can set/unset the corresponding bit in the array. For that I intended to connect QButtonGroup's buttonClicked(int) signal to QBitArray's toggleBit(int) method and, to be as pythonic as possible, I wanted to use new-style signals syntax, so I tried this: self.buttonGroup.buttonClicked.connect(self.bitArray.toggleBit) The problem is that buttonClicked is an overloaded signal, so there is also the buttonClicked(QAbstractButton*) signature. In fact, when the program is executing I get this error when I click a check box: The debugged program raised the exception unhandled TypeError "QBitArray.toggleBit(int): argument 1 has unexpected type 'QCheckBox'" which clearly shows the toggleBit method received the buttonClicked(QAbstractButton*) signal instead of the buttonClicked(int) one. So, the question is, how can we specify, using new-style syntax, that self.buttonGroup emits the buttonClicked(int) signal instead of the default overload - buttonClicked(QAbstractButton*)?

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  • how do call a polymorphic function from an agnostic function?

    - by sds
    I have a method foo void foo (String x) { ... } void foo (Integer x) { ... } and I want to call it from a method which does not care about the argument: void bar (Iterable i) { ... for (Object x : i) foo(x); // this is the only time i is used ... } the code above complains that that foo(Object) is not defined and when I add void foo (Object x) { throw new Exception; } then bar(Iterable<String>) calls that instead of foo(String) and throws the exception. How do I avoid having two textually identical definitions of bar(Iterable<String>) and bar(Iterable<Integer>)? I thought I would be able to get away with something like <T> void bar (Iterable<T> i) { ... for (T x : i) foo(x); // this is the only time i is used ... } but then I get cannot find foo(T) error.

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  • Managed bean property value not set to null

    - by Vladimir
    Hi! I'm new to JSF, so this question might be strange. I have an inputText component's value bound to managed bean's property of type Float. I need to set property to null when inputText field is empty, not to 0 value. It's not done by default, so I added converter with the following method implemented: public Object getAsObject(FacesContext arg0, UIComponent arg1, String arg2) throws ConverterException { if (StringUtils.isEmpty(arg2)) { return null; } float result = Float.parseFloat(arg2); if (result == 0) { return null; } return result; } I registered converter, and assigned it to inputText component. I logged arg2 argument, and also logged return value from getAsObject method. By my log I can see that it returns null value. But, I also log setter property on backing bean and argument is 0 value, not null as expected. To be more precise, it is setter property is called twice, once with null argument, second time with 0 value argument. It still sets backing bean value to 0. How can I set value to null? Thanks in advance.

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  • How to check if two records have a self-referencing relation?

    - by Machine
    Consider the following schema with users and their collegues (friends): Users User: columns: user_id: name: user_id as userId type: integer(8) unsigned: 1 primary: true autoincrement: true first_name: name: first_name as firstName type: string(45) notnull: true last_name: name: last_name as lastName type: string(45) notnull: true email: type: string(45) notnull: true unique: true relations: Collegues: class: User local: invitor foreign: invitee refClass: CollegueStatus equal: true onDelete: CASCADE onUpdate: CASCADE Join table: CollegueStatus: columns: invitor: type: integer(8) unsigned: 1 primary: true invitee: type: integer(8) unsigned: 1 primary: true status: type: enum(8) values: [pending, accepted, denied] default: pending notnull: true Now, let's say I two records, one for the user making a HTTP request (the logged in user), and one record for a user he wants to send a message to. I want to check if these users are collegues. Questions: Does Doctrine have any pre-build functionality to check if two records with with self-relations are related? If not, how would you write a method to check this? Where would you put said method? (In the User-class, UserTable-class etc) I could probably do something like this: public function (User $user1, User $user2) { // Ensure we load collegues if $user1 was fetched with DQL that // doesn't load this relation $collegues = $user1->get('Collegues'); $areCollegues = false; foreach($collegues as $collegue) { if($collegue['userId'] === $user2['userId']) { $areCollegues = true; break; } } return $areCollegues; } But this looks a neither efficient nor pretty. I just feel that it should be solved already for self-referencing relations to be nice to use.

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  • Byte-Pairing for data compression

    - by user1669533
    Question about Byte-Pairing for data compression. If byte pairing converts two byte values to a single byte value, splitting the file in half, then taking a gig file and recusing it 16 times shrinks it to 62,500,000. My question is, is byte-pairing really efficient? Is the creation of a 5,000,000 iteration loop, to be conservative, efficient? I would like some feed back on and some incisive opinions please. Dave, what I read was: "The US patent office no longer grants patents on perpetual motion machines, but has recently granted at least two patents on a mathematically impossible process: compression of truly random data." I was not inferring the Patent Office was actually considering what I am inquiring about. I was merely commenting on the notion of a "mathematically impossible process." If someone has, in some way created a method of having a "single" data byte as a placeholder of 8 individual bytes of data, that would be a consideration for a patent. Now, about the mathematically impossibility of an 8 to 1 compression method, it is not so much a mathematically impossibility, but a series of rules and conditions that can be created. As long as there is the rule of 8 or 16 bit representation of storing data on a medium, there are ways to manipulate data that mirrors current methods, or creation by a new way of thinking.

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  • How is a functional programming-based javascript app laid out?

    - by user321521
    I've been working with node.js for awhile on a chat app (I know, very original, but I figured it'd be a good learning project). Underscore.js provides a lot of functional programming concepts which look interesting, so I'd like to understand how a functional program in javascript would be setup. From my understanding of functional programming (which may be wrong), the whole idea is to avoid side effects, which are basically having a function which updates another variable outside of the function so something like var external; function foo() { external = 'bar'; } foo(); would be creating a side effect, correct? So as a general rule, you want to avoid disturbing variables in the global scope. Ok, so how does that work when you're dealing with objects and what not? For example, a lot of times, I'll have a constructor and an init method that initializes the object, like so: var Foo = function(initVars) { this.init(initVars); } Foo.prototype.init = function(initVars) { this.bar1 = initVars['bar1']; this.bar2 = initVars['bar2']; //.... } var myFoo = new Foo({'bar1': '1', 'bar2': '2'}); So my init method is intentionally causing side effects, but what would be a functional way to handle the same sort of situation? Also, if anyone could point me to either a python or javascript source code of a program that tries to be as functional as possible, that would also be much appreciated. I feel like I'm close to "getting it", but I'm just not quite there. Mainly I'm interested in how functional programming works with traditional OOP classes concept (or does away with it for something different if that's the case).

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  • How do I get jQuery's Uploadify plugin to work with ASP.NET MVC?

    - by KingNestor
    I'm in the process of trying to get the jQuery plugin, Uploadify, to work with ASP.NET MVC. I've got the plugin showing up fine: With the following javascript snippet: <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $('#fileUpload').fileUpload({ 'uploader': '/Content/Flash/uploader.swf', 'script': '/Placement/Upload', 'folder': '/uploads', 'multi': 'true', 'buttonText': 'Browse', 'displayData': 'speed', 'simUploadLimit': 2, 'cancelImg': '/Content/Images/cancel.png' }); }); </script> Which seems like all is well in good. If you notice, the "script" attribute is set to my /Placement/Upload, which is my Placement Controller and my Upload Action. The main problem is, I'm having difficulty getting this action to fire to receive the file. I've set a breakpoint on that action and when I select a file to upload, it isn't getting executed. I've tried changing the method signature based off this article: public string Upload(HttpPostedFileBase FileData) { /* * * Do something with the FileData * */ return "Upload OK!"; } But this still doesn't fire. Can anyone help me write and get the Upload controller action's signature correctly so it will actually fire? I can then handle dealing with the file data myself. I just need some help getting the method action to fire.

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  • ResourceFilterFactory and non-Path annotated Resources

    - by tousdan
    (I'm using Jersey 1.7) I am attempting to add a ResourceFilterFactory in my project to select which filters are used per method using annotations. The ResourceFilterFactory seems to be able to filters on Resources which are annotated with the Path annotation but it would seem that it does not attempt to generate filters for the methods of the SubResourceLocator of the resources that are called. @Path("a") public class A { //sub resource locator? @Path("b") public B getB() { return new B(); } @GET public void doGet() {} } public class B { @GET public void doOtherGet() { } @Path("c") public void doInner() { } } When ran, the Filter factory will only be called for the following: AbstractResourceMethod(A#doGet) AbstractSubResourceLocator(A#getB) When I expected it to be called for every method of the sub resource. I'm currently using the following options in my web.xml; <init-param> <param-name>com.sun.jersey.spi.container.ResourceFilters</param-name> <param-value>com.my.MyResourceFilterFactory</param-value> </init-param> <init-param> <param-name>com.sun.jersey.config.property.packages</param-name> <param-value>com.my.resources</param-value> </init-param> Is my understanding of the filter factory flawed?

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  • how to rotate around each record in linq and show that in view

    - by Sadegh
    Hi, I have four tables in my database and i want to join that's and return record's and show that into searchController! My query is this: public IQueryable PerformSearch(string query) { if (!string.IsNullOrEmpty(query)) { var results = from tbl1 in context.Table1 join tbl2 in context.Table2 on tbl1.Id equals tbl2.Id join tbl3 in context.Table3 on tbl2.Id equals tbl3.Id join tbl4 in context.Table4 on tbl3.Id equals tbl4.Id where tbl1.col2.Contains(query) orderby tbl1.Count descending select new { col1 = tbl1.Col1, col1 = tbl1.Col1, col1 = tbl1.Col1, . . . }; return results.AsQueryable(); } else return null; } And this method called in SearchController as below: public class SearchController : System.Web.Mvc.Controller { public System.Web.Mvc.ActionResult Search(System.String query) { var search = new Search(); ViewData["result"] = search.PerformSearch(query); return View("Search"); } } I don't know how i can rotate around each record (plus vs intellisense feature) returned by PeformSeach method and show that in view! Also is this a good way? thanks in advance

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  • RichFaces a4j:support parameter passing

    - by Mark Lewis
    Hello I have a number of rich:inplaceInput tags in RichFaces which represent numbers in an array. The validator allows integers only. When a user clicks in an input and changes a value, how can I get the bean to sort the array given the new number and reRender the list of rich:inplaceInput tags so that they're in numerical order? EG <a4j:region> <rich:dataTable value="#{MyBacking.config}" var="feed" cellpadding="0" cellspacing="0" width="100%" border="0" columns="5" id="Admin"> ... <a4j:repeat... <a4j:region id="MsgCon"> <rich:inplaceInput value="#{h.id}" validator="#{MyBacking.validateID}" id="andID" showControls="true"> <a4j:support event="onviewactivated" action="#{MyBacking.sort}" reRender="Admin" /> </rich:inplaceInput> </a4j:region> </a4j:repeat> </data:Table> </a4j:region> Note I do NOT want to use dataTable sort functions. The table is complicated and I've specified id="Admin" (ie the whole table) to reRender as I've not found a way to send more localised values to the backing bean through the inplaceInput. This question is about how to use a4j:support action attribute to call the sort method so that when the reRender rerenders the component, it outputs the list in sorted order. I have the sort method working ok when I click a button to sort, but I want to have the list sorted automatically as soon as a new valid value is entered into the inplaceInput component. Thanks

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  • Servlet receiving data both in ISO-8859-1 and UTF-8. How to URL-decode?

    - by AJPerez
    I've a web application (well, in fact is just a servlet) which receives data from 3 different sources: Source A is a HTML document written in UTF-8, and sends the data via <form method="get">. Source B is written in ISO-8859-1, and sends the data via <form method="get">, too. Source C is written in ISO-8859-1, and sends the data via <a href="http://my-servlet-url?param=value&param2=value2&etc">. The servlet receives the request params and URL-decodes them using UTF-8. As you can expect, A works without problems, while B and C fail (you can't URL-decode in UTF-8 something that's encoded in ISO-8859-1...). I can make slight modifications to B and C, but I am not allowed to change them from ISO-8859-1 to UTF-8, which would solve all the problems. In B, I've been able to solve the problem by adding accept-charset="UTF-8" to the <form>. So the <form> sends the data in UTF-8 even with the page being ISO. What can I do to fix C? Alternatively, is there any way to determine the charset on the servlet, so I can call URL-decode with the right encoding in each case?

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  • Concise C# code for gathering several properties with a non-null value into a collection?

    - by stakx
    A fairly basic problem for a change. Given a class such as this: public class X { public T A; public T B; public T C; ... // (other fields, properties, and methods are not of interest here) } I am looking for a concise way to code a method that will return all A, B, C, ... that are not null in an enumerable collection. (Assume that declaring these fields as an array is not an option.) public IEnumerable<T> GetAllNonNullAs(this X x) { // ? } The obvious implementation of this method would be: public IEnumerable<T> GetAllNonNullAs(this X x) { var resultSet = new List<T>(); if (x.A != null) resultSet.Add(x.A); if (x.B != null) resultSet.Add(x.B); if (x.C != null) resultSet.Add(x.C); ... return resultSet; } What's bothering me here in particular is that the code looks verbose and repetitive, and that I don't know the initial List capacity in advance. It's my hope that there is a more clever way, probably something involving the ?? operator? Any ideas?

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