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  • Implementing list position locator in C++?

    - by jfrazier
    I am writing a basic Graph API in C++ (I know libraries already exist, but I am doing it for the practice/experience). The structure is basically that of an adjacency list representation. So there are Vertex objects and Edge objects, and the Graph class contains: list<Vertex *> vertexList list<Edge *> edgeList Each Edge object has two Vertex* members representing its endpoints, and each Vertex object has a list of Edge* members representing the edges incident to the Vertex. All this is quite standard, but here is my problem. I want to be able to implement deletion of Edges and Vertices in constant time, so for example each Vertex object should have a Locator member that points to the position of its Vertex* in the vertexList. The way I first implemented this was by saving a list::iterator, as follows: vertexList.push_back(v); v->locator = --vertexList.end(); Then if I need to delete this vertex later, then rather than searching the whole vertexList for its pointer, I can call: vertexList.erase(v->locator); This works fine at first, but it seems that if enough changes (deletions) are made to the list, the iterators will become out-of-date and I get all sorts of iterator errors at runtime. This seems strange for a linked list, because it doesn't seem like you should ever need to re-allocate the remaining members of the list after deletions, but maybe the STL does this to optimize by keeping memory somewhat contiguous? In any case, I would appreciate it if anyone has any insight as to why this happens. Is there a standard way in C++ to implement a locator that will keep track of an element's position in a list without becoming obsolete? Much thanks, Jeff

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  • Java - Call to start method on thread : how does it route to Runnable interface's run () ?

    - by Bhaskar
    Ok , I know the two standard ways to create a new thread and run it in Java : 1 Implement Runnable in a class , define run method ,and pass an instance of the class to a new Thread. When the start method on the thread instance is called , the run method of the class instance will be invoked. 2 Let the class derive from Thread, so it can to override the method run() and then when a new instance's start method is called , the call is routed to overridden method. In both methods , basically a new Thread object is created and its start method invoked. However , while in the second method , the mechanism of the call being routed to the user defined run() method is very clear ,( its a simple runtime polymorphism in play ), I dont understand how the call to start method on the Thread object gets routed to run() method of the class implementing Runnable interface. Does the Thread class have an private field of Type Runnable which it checks first , and if it is set then invokes the run method if it set to an object ? that would be a strange mechanism IMO. How does the call to start() on a thread get routed to the run method of the Runnable interface implemented by the class whose object is passed as a parameter when contructing the thread ?

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  • Rails ActionCaching with Memcached fragment hit but action gets called anyway

    - by baldtrol
    Hi stackoverflow. I'm running into something strange. I'm using memcached with a caches_action setup. I'm doing this in 4 different controllers. In two of them, it works flawlessly (so far), though admittedly those two controllers are less complicated than the two in which it doesn't seem to work. I'm doing something like this: caches_action :index, :expires_in => 6.hours, :cache_path => Proc.new {|controller| controller.send(:generate_cache_path) }, :layout => false, :if => Proc.new { |c| c.request.format.js? } The intention behind the above is to cache some results that are dependent on the params. my :generate_cache_path method just takes into account some params and session vars and creates a unique key for memcached. I can see in memcached -vv that this is working. What's weird is that I get my request from the rails app for a given key, and I see memcached (with -vv) get the request and send back the response. But then my action runs anyway, and a new value is then set for the same key, even when all the same params are given. I can watch it happen. In the controllers where everything is working, the request is made for the fragment, it gets it, and the action in the controller is halted, and the fragment is passed back. These lines come from the exact same request: Cached fragment hit: views/items/?page=1&rp=10&srtn=created_at&srto=DESC.js And then: Cached fragment miss: views/items/?page=1&rp=10&srtn=created_at&srto=DESC.js I don't know what to make of it, or if I'm doing something stupid. Any help or ideas where I could start looking for trouble would be greatly appreciated.

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  • For loop index out of range ArgumentOutOfRangeException when multithreading

    - by Lirik
    I'm getting some strange behavior... when I iterate over the dummyText List in the ThreadTest method I get an index out of range exception (ArgumentOutOfRangeException), but if I remove the threads and I just print out the text, then everything works fine. This is my main method: public static Object sync = new Object(); static void Main(string[] args) { ThreadTest(); Console.WriteLine("Press any key to continue."); Console.ReadKey(); } This method throws the exception: private static void ThreadTest() { Console.WriteLine("Running ThreadTest"); Console.WriteLine("Running ThreadTest"); List<String> dummyText = new List<string>() { "One", "Two", "Three", "Four", "Five", "Six", "Seven", "Eight", "Nine", "Ten"}; for (int i = 0; i < dummyText.Count; i++) { Thread t = new Thread(() => PrintThreadName(dummyText[i])); // <-- Index out of range?!? t.Name = ("Thread " + (i)); t.IsBackground = true; t.Start(); } } private static void PrintThreadName(String text) { Random rand = new Random(DateTime.Now.Millisecond); while (true) { lock (sync) { Console.WriteLine(Thread.CurrentThread.Name + " running " + text); Thread.Sleep(1000+rand.Next(0,2000)); } } } This does not throw the exception: private static void ThreadTest() { Console.WriteLine("Running ThreadTest"); List<String> dummyText = new List<string>() { "One", "Two", "Three", "Four", "Five", "Six", "Seven", "Eight", "Nine", "Ten"}; for (int i = 0; i < dummyText.Count; i++) { Console.WriteLine(dummyText[i]); // <-- No exception here } } Does anybody know why this is happening?

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  • Interesting LinqToSql behaviour

    - by Ben Robinson
    We have a database table that stores the location of some wave files plus related meta data. There is a foreign key (employeeid) on the table that links to an employee table. However not all wav files relate to an employee, for these records employeeid is null. We are using LinqToSQl to access the database, the query to pull out all non employee related wav file records is as follows: var results = from Wavs in db.WaveFiles where Wavs.employeeid == null; Except this returns no records, despite the fact that there are records where employeeid is null. On profiling sql server i discovered the reason no records are returned is because LinqToSQl is turning it into SQL that looks very much like: SELECT Field1, Field2 //etc FROM WaveFiles WHERE 1=0 Obviously this returns no rows. However if I go into the DBML designer and remove the association and save. All of a sudden the exact same LINQ query turns into SELECT Field1, Field2 //etc FROM WaveFiles WHERE EmployeeID IS NULL I.e. if there is an association then LinqToSql assumes that all records have a value for the foreign key (even though it is nullable and the property appears as a nullable int on the WaveFile entity) and as such deliverately constructs a where clause that will return no records. Does anyone know if there is a way to keep the association in LinqToSQL but stop this behaviour. A workaround i can think of quickly is to have a calculated field called IsSystemFile and set it to 1 if employeeid is null and 0 otherwise. However this seems like a bit of a hack to work around strange behaviour of LinqToSQl and i would rather do something in the DBML file or define something on the foreign key constraint that will prevent this behaviour.

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  • SVG <image> doesn't work in <defs> on Chrome

    - by avladev
    I want to use image in a group definded in defs tag. But on Chrome nothing works. In Firefox only the .png file is displayd. Only Rectangle apears but with strange bug in Chrome. Is this is supported by SVG or im not using it right. plane.svg <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <!DOCTYPE svg PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD SVG 1.1//EN" "http://www.w3.org/Graphics/SVG/1.1/DTD/svg11.dtd"> <svg baseProfile="full" width="500" height="500" xmlns="http://www.w3.org/2000/svg" xmlns:xlink="http://www.w3.org/1999/xlink" version="1.1"> <defs> <g id="car"> <rect x="0" y="0" width="30" height="30" fill="#ff0000" /> <image xlink:href="items/car.svg" x="0" y="0" width="30" height="30" /> <image xlink:href="items/t6k.png" x="100" y="100" width="140" height="140" /> </g> </defs> <use xlink:href="#car" x="0" y="0" width="600" height="600" /> </svg> images/car.svg <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <!DOCTYPE svg PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD SVG 1.1//EN" "http://www.w3.org/Graphics/SVG/1.1/DTD/svg11.dtd"> <svg baseProfile="full" width="30" height="30" xmlns="http://www.w3.org/2000/svg" xmlns:xlink="http://www.w3.org/1999/xlink" version="1.1"> <rect x="0" y="0" width="30" height="30" fill="red" stroke="green" stroke-width="3"/> </svg> Download code: http://www.4shared.com/file/9gNi5gCO/svg_bug.html

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  • YouTube - Encrypted cookie string

    - by Robertof
    Hello! I'm new to Stack Overflow. I'm building a YouTube Downloader in PHP. But YouTube have some IP-checks. Because the PHP file is on a remote server, the ip of the server != the ip of the user and the video-download fails. So, maybe I've found a solution. YouTube sends a cookie with an encrypted string, which is the user IP. I need to know the encrypted-string algorithm and know how to crypt a string with this. Here there is the string: nQ0CrJmASJk . It could be base64, but when I try to decode it with base64_decode, it gives me strange characters. You could check the cookie by requesting the main page of youtube, and check the headers "Set-Cookie". You will found a cookie with the name "VISITOR_INFO1_LIVE". Here there is the encrypyed string. Anyone knows what is the algorithm? Thanks. PS: sorry for my bad english. Cheers, Roberto.

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  • Hibernate not saving foreign key, but with junit it's ok

    - by Leonardo
    Hi All, I have this strange problem. In a J2ee webapp with spring, smartgwt and hibernate, it happens that I have a class A wich has a set of class B, both of them mapped to table A and table B. I wrote a simple test case for testing the service manager which is supposed to do insert, update, delete and everything work as expected especially during insert. In the end I have one record in A and records in B with foreign key to A. But when I try to call the service from the web app, the entity in B are saved without a foreign key reference. I am sure that the service is the same. One thing I noticed is that enabling hibernate logging, seems that when the service is called from the application, one more update is made: insert A insert B update A update B update B (foreign key only) update A <--- ??? update B <--- ??? Instead, when junit test case is run, the update is as follows: insert A insert B update A update B update B (foreign key only) I suppose the latest update is what is causing the erroe, maybe it is overwriting values. Considering that the app is using spring, with the well known mechanism of DAO + Manager, where can I investigate to solve this issue ? Someone told me that the session is not closed, so hibernate would do one more update before release the objects by itself. I am pretty sure that all the configuration hbm, xml, and the rest are fine...but I maybe wrong. thanks

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  • Polymorphic urls with singular resources

    - by Brendon Muir
    I'm getting strange output when using the following routing setup: resources :warranty_types do resources :decisions end resource :warranty_review, :only => [] do resources :decisions end I have many warranty_types but only one warranty_review (thus the singular route declaration). The decisions are polymorphically associated with both. I have just a single decisions controller and a single _form.html.haml partial to render the form for a decision. This is the view code: = simple_form_for @decision, :url => [@decision_tree_owner, @decision.becomes(Decision)] do |form| The warranty_type url looks like this (for a new decision): /warranty_types/2/decisions whereas the warranty_review url looks like this: /admin/warranty_review/decisions.1 I think because the warranty_review id has no where to go, it's just getting appended to the end as an extension. Can someone explain what's going on here and how I might be able to fix it? I can work around it by trying to detect for a warranty_review class and substituting @decision_tree_owner with :warranty_review and this generates the correct url, but this is messy. I would have thought that the routing would be smart enough to realise that warranty_review is a singular resource and thus discard the id from the URL. This is Rails 3 by the way :)

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  • Why doesn't java.lang.Number implement Comparable?

    - by Julien Chastang
    Does anyone know why java.lang.Number does not implement Comparable? This means that you cannot sort Numbers with Collections.sort which seems to me a little strange. Post discussion update: Thanks for all the helpful responses. I ended up doing some more research about this topic. The simplest explanation for why java.lang.Number does not implement Comparable is rooted in mutability concerns. For a bit of review, java.lang.Number is the abstract super-type of AtomicInteger, AtomicLong, BigDecimal, BigInteger, Byte, Double, Float, Integer, Long and Short. On that list, AtomicInteger and AtomicLong to do not implement Comparable. Digging around, I discovered that it is not a good practice to implement Comparable on mutable types because the objects can change during or after comparison rendering the result of the comparison useless. Both AtomicLong and AtomicInteger are mutable. The API designers had the forethought to not have Number implement Comparable because it would have constrained implementation of future subtypes. Indeed, AtomicLong and AtomicInteger were added in Java 1.5 long after java.lang.Number was initially implemented. Apart from mutability, there are probably other considerations here too. A compareTo implementation in Number would have to promote all numeric values to BigDecimal because it is capable of accommodating all the Number sub-types. The implication of that promotion in terms of mathematics and performance is a bit unclear to me, but my intuition finds that solution kludgy.

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  • What is the correct stage to use for Google Guice in production in an application server?

    - by Yishai
    It seems like a strange question (the obvious answer would Production, duh), but if you read the java docs: /** * We want fast startup times at the expense of runtime performance and some up front error * checking. */ DEVELOPMENT, /** * We want to catch errors as early as possible and take performance hits up front. */ PRODUCTION Assuming a scenario where you have a stateless call to an application server, the initial receiving method (or there abouts) creates the injector new every call. If there all of the module bindings are not needed in a given call, then it would seem to have been better to use the Development stage (which is the default) and not take the performance hit upfront, because you may never take it at all, and here the distinction between "upfront" and "runtime performance" is kind of moot, as it is one call. Of course the downside of this would appear to be that you would lose the error checking, causing potential code paths to cause a problem by surprise. So the question boils down to are the assumptions in the above correct? Will you save performance on a large set of modules when the given lifetime of an injector is one call?

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  • Android Maven and Refresh Problem

    - by antonio Musella
    Hi all, i've a strange problem with maven and android I've 3 maven project and 2 normal java maven project divided in this manner : normal project : model project ... packaged as jar ... contains java Pojo Bean and Interface. Dao Project ... packaged as jar ... contains Db Logic - Depend on model Project Android Application Maven project ContentProvider ... packaged as apk ... contains ContentProviders only. Depends on Dao Project Editors ... packaged as apk ... contains only Editor, Depends on Dao project MainApp ... packaged as apk ... contains MyApp, Depends on DAO ... The Problem is that if i modify DAO Project , Then do a maven clean and maven install of all apk project, then run as Android Application within Eclipse, i don't see updated app on my Emulator. Nicely if i shut down my ubuntu workstation and restart it i can see The updated app on my Emulator. Do you know a solution for this issue ? thanks and regards

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  • Java ternary operator and boxing Integer/int?

    - by Markus
    I tripped across a really strange NullPointerException the other day caused by an unexpected type-cast in the ternary operator. Given this (useless exemplary) function: Integer getNumber() { return null; } I was expecting the following two code segments to be exactly identical after compilation: Integer number; if (condition) { number = getNumber(); } else { number = 0; } vs. Integer number = (condition) ? getNumber() : 0; . Turns out, if condition is true, the if-statement works fine, while the ternary opration in the second code segment throws a NullPointerException. It seems as though the ternary operation has decided to type-cast both choices to int before auto-boxing the result back into an Integer!?! In fact, if I explicitly cast the 0 to Integer, the exception goes away. In other words: Integer number = (condition) ? getNumber() : 0; is not the same as: Integer number = (condition) ? getNumber() : (Integer) 0; . So, it seems that there is a byte-code difference between the ternary operator and an equivalent if-else-statement (something I didn't expect). Which raises three questions: Why is there a difference? Is this a bug in the ternary implementation or is there a reason for the type cast? Given there is a difference, is the ternary operation more or less performant than an equivalent if-statement (I know, the difference can't be huge, but still)?

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  • ssh & script problem

    - by Nishanth
    I am having a strange problem while doing ssh. I am not sure where the term Unmatched ` is coming from. What I need to do is run script that logs information of what I am doing on the terminal to text file. After ssh - Sun Microsystems Inc. SunOS 5.8 Generic Patch October 2001 This is /etc/motd, last updated 3 Feb 2003. To learn about the UCS system and other aspects of computing at UL-Lafayette visit our home page http://helpdesk.louisiana.edu/ . For more information about system use, contact the Help Desk, Stephens Hall, Room 201, 482-5516 (x25516), during normal UL office hours; or send e-mail to [email protected]. ATTENTION: Unsecure Telnet and FTP will be turned off soon. Please make arrange to use ssh or sftp. Putty(telnet) and WinSCP(ftp) would be a good replacement. Unmatched ` d13.ucs.louisiana.edu% bash bash-2.04$ script -a myInformation.txt Script started, file is myInformation.txt Unmatched ` d13.ucs.louisiana.edu% When I tried to start the script with name myInformation.txt, you can see the message I am getting - Script started, file is myInformation.txt. But again I am getting that message Unmatched ` and is coming out of bash, as you can notice. What is the problem ? Any insights suggested would be very great. Note: file with name myInformation.txt is being created but nothing goes in to it. As I have even tried running certain commands like ls and then exited the script with ctrl+d. But when I open the file, nothing is there.

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  • ASP.NET web form Routing issue via UNC Path

    - by Slash
    I create a IIS 7.0 website via UNC path to load .aspx to dynamic compile files and runs. however, it's running perfect. I always use IIS URL Rewrite module 2 to rewrite my site URL n' its perfect, too. Today, I wanna use System.Web.Routing to implement url rewrite but I encountered difficulties... When I wrote code in Global.asax: System.Web.Routing.RouteTable.Routes.MapPageRoute("TEST", "AAA/{prop}", "~/BBB/CCC.aspx"); And it just CANNOT reDirect to /BBB/CCC.aspx When I type the URL(like: xx.xx.xx.xx/BBB/CCC.aspx) in browser directly, it runs normally that I want. (so it proof CCC.aspx is in right path.) thus, I copy all of the code and open VS2010 running with IIS 7.5 Express locally, it works perfect! e.g: in browser URL I type xx.xx.xx.xx/AAA/1234, it will turn to page xx.xx.xx.xx/BBB/CCC.aspx (Works perfect!) Why??? help me plz. thanks. Update: I think I should consider not UNC path to make it error! when I move all code to physical disk and setup IIS 7.0 to monitor this Folder, it still not works! But the same code run in VS2010 + IIS 7.5 Express it works!? so strange!

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  • Why doesn't access database update?

    - by Ryan
    Recently I met a strange problem, see code snips as below: var sqlCommand: string; connection: TADOConnection; qry: TADOQuery; begin connection := TADOConnection.Create(nil); try connection.ConnectionString := 'Provider=Microsoft.Jet.OLEDB.4.0;Data Source=Test.MDB;Persist Security Info=False'; connection.Open(); qry := TADOQuery.Create(nil); try qry.Connection := connection; qry.SQL.Text := 'Select * from aaa'; qry.Open; qry.Append; qry.FieldByName('TestField1').AsString := 'test'; qry.Post; beep; finally qry.Free; end; finally connection.Free; end; end; First, Create a new access database named test.mdb and put it under the directory of this test project, we can create a new table named aaa in it which has only one text type field named TestField1. We set a breakpoint at line of "beep", then lunch the test application under ide debug mode, when ide stops at the breakpoint line (qry.post has been executed), at this time we use microsoft access to open test.mdb and open table aaa you will find there are no any changes in table aaa, if you let the ide continue running after pressing f9 you can find a new record is inserted in to table aaa, but if you press ctrl+f2 to terminate the application at the breakpoint, you will find the table aaa has no record been inserted, but in normal circumstance, a new record should be inserted in to the table aaa after qry.post executed. who can explain this problem , it troubles me so long time. thanks !!! BTW, the ide is delphi 2010, and the access mdb file is created by microsoft access 2007 under windows 7

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  • How can I handle unread push notifications in iOS?

    - by Bartserk
    I have a iOS 5.1 application that registers to the APNS service to receive notifications. The register is successful and I receive the notifications correctly. The problem comes when I try to handle the notifications. Once the application is running, the method didReceiveRemoteNotification in the AppDelegate is called correctly and so the notification is handled as intended. This, however, only happens when the application is running on the foreground. However, when the application is running on the background or is simply stopped, that method is not called. I've read that you should add some lines to the method didFinishLaunchingWithOptions method to obtain the notification from the userInfo dictionary, and handle it. This works just fine, but ONLY when the application is opened by clicking on the notification at the Notification Center. This means that if you open the application by clicking on its badge, or simply by changing context if you were running it on the background, the app never realises that a notification came in. Additionally, if more than one notification was received, we can only handle one of them at once by clicking on the Notification Center, which is a pain :-) Is there any way to read the pending notifications in the Notification Center? I know there is a way to flush them using the method cancelAllLocalNotifications but I haven't found a way to just read them. And I really need to handle all of them. I thought of implementing a communication protocol with the third-party notification server to retrieve the information again when the application comes to the foreground, but since the information is already in the operating system I would find it strange if it's impossible to access it somehow. So, does anybody know a way to do it? Thanks in advance.

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  • How to count the Chinese word in a file using regex in perl?

    - by Ivan
    I tried following perl code to count the Chinese word of a file, it seems working but not get the right thing. Any help is greatly appreciated. The Error message is Use of uninitialized value $valid in concatenation (.) or string at word_counting.pl line 21, <FILE> line 21. Total things = 125, valid words = which seems to me the problem is the file format. The "total thing" is 125 that is the string number (125 lines). The strangest part is my console displayed all the individual Chinese words correctly without any problem. The utf-8 pragma is installed. #!/usr/bin/perl -w use strict; use utf8; use Encode qw(encode); use Encode::HanExtra; my $input_file = "sample_file.txt"; my ($total, $valid); my %count; open (FILE, "< $input_file") or die "Can't open $input_file: $!"; while (<FILE>) { foreach (split) { #break $_ into words, assign each to $_ in turn $total++; next if /\W|^\d+/; #strange words skip the remainder of the loop $valid++; $count{$_}++; # count each separate word stored in a hash ## next comes here ## } } print "Total things = $total, valid words = $valid\n"; foreach my $word (sort keys %count) { print "$word \t was seen \t $count{$word} \t times.\n"; } ##---Data---- sample_file.txt ??????,???????,????.??????.????:"?????????????,??????,????????.????????,?????????, ???????????.????????,???????????,??????,??????.???:`??,???????????.'?????, ??????????."??????,??????.????.???, ????????????,????,??????,?????????,??????????????. ????????,??????,???????????,????????,????????.????,????,???????, ??????????,??????,????????.??????.

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  • How do I override a python import?

    - by Evan Plaice
    So I'm working on pypreprocessor which is a preprocessor that takes c-style directives and I've been able to make it work like a traditional preprocessor (it's self-consuming and executes postprocessed code on-the-fly) except that it breaks library imports. The problem is. The preprocessor runs through the file, processes' it, outputs to a temp file, and exec() the temp file. Libraries that are imported need to be handled a little different because they aren't executed but rather loaded and made accessible to the caller module. What I need to be able to do is. Interrupt the import (since the preprocessor is being run in the middle of the import), load the postprocessed code as a tempModule, and replace the original import with the tempModule to trick the calling script with the import into believing that the tempModule is the original module. I have searched everywhere and so far, have no solution. This question is the closest I've seen so far to providing an answer: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1096216/override-namespace-in-python Here's what I have. # remove the bytecode file created by the first import os.remove(moduleName + '.pyc') # remove the first import del sys.modules[moduleName] # import the postprocessed module tmpModule = __import__(tmpModuleName) # set first module's reference to point to the preprocessed module sys.modules[moduleName] = tmpModule moduleName is the name of the original module, tmpModuleName is the name of the postprocessed code file. The strange part is, this solution still runs completely normal as if the first module completed loaded normally; unless you remove the last line, then you get a module not found error. Hopefully someone on SO know a lot more about imports than I do because this one has me stumped.

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  • Cannot inherit from generic base class and specific interface using same type with generic constrain

    - by simendsjo
    Sorry about the strange title. I really have no idea how to express it any better... I get an error on the following snippet. I use the class Dummy everywhere. Doesn't the compiler understand the constraint I've added on DummyImplBase? Is this a compiler bug as it works if I use Dummy directly instead of setting it as a constraint? Error 1 'ConsoleApplication53.DummyImplBase' does not implement interface member 'ConsoleApplication53.IRequired.RequiredMethod()'. 'ConsoleApplication53.RequiredBase.RequiredMethod()' cannot implement 'ConsoleApplication53.IRequired.RequiredMethod()' because it does not have the matching return type of 'ConsoleApplication53.Dummy'. C:\Documents and Settings\simen\My Documents\Visual Studio 2008\Projects\ConsoleApplication53\ConsoleApplication53\Program.cs 37 27 ConsoleApplication53 public class Dummy { } public interface IRequired<T> { T RequiredMethod(); } public interface IDummyRequired : IRequired<Dummy> { void OtherMethod(); } public class RequiredBase<T> : IRequired<T> { public T RequiredMethod() { return default(T); } } public abstract class DummyImplBase<T> : RequiredBase<T>, IDummyRequired where T: Dummy { public void OtherMethod() { } }

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  • Problem with circular definition in Scheme

    - by user8472
    I am currently working through SICP using Guile as my primary language for the exercises. I have found a strange behavior while implementing the exercises in chapter 3.5. I have reproduced this behavior using Guile 1.4, Guile 1.8.6 and Guile 1.8.7 on a variety of platforms and am certain it is not specific to my setup. This code works fine (and computes e): (define y (integral (delay dy) 1 0.001)) (define dy (stream-map (lambda (x) x) y)) (stream-ref y 1000) The following code should give an identical result: (define (solve f y0 dt) (define y (integral (delay dy) y0 dt)) (define dy (stream-map f y)) y) (solve (lambda (x) x) 1 0.001) But it yields the error message: standard input:7:14: While evaluating arguments to stream-map in expression (stream-map f y): standard input:7:14: Unbound variable: y ABORT: (unbound-variable) So when embedded in a procedure definition, the (define y ...) does not work, whereas outside the procedure in the global environment at the REPL it works fine. What am I doing wrong here? I can post the auxiliary code (i.e., the definitions of integral, stream-map etc.) if necessary, too. With the exception of the system-dependent code for cons-stream, they are all in the book. My own implementation of cons-stream for Guile is as follows: (define-macro (cons-stream a b) `(cons ,a (delay ,b)))

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  • ASP.NET MVC - Wrong redirecting, how to debug?

    - by Xorty
    I am stuck with redirecting problem in ASP.NET MVC project. I have mapped tables via LINQtoSQL and each has unique ID as primary key. I am implementing functionallity of 'CREATE'. Basically, after new value is added into SQL table (which means I pressed Save button), I want to be redirected to Details of this freshly added item. Here's little code how I am doing it : [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post), Authorize] public ActionResult Create(Item item) { .... return RedirectToAction("Details", new { id = item.ItemID }); Trouble is, I am never redirected to Details view (I have Details.aspx view for items). When I check CallHierarchy in Visual Studio (2010 pro) the hierarchy is indeed little strange, like this : RedirectToAction(string,object) Calls To 'RedirectToAction' Create Calls To Create (no results) Calls From Create (methods of created instance. From there I'll get back to 'RedirectToAction' and to 'Calls to Create' and 'Calls From Create' etc. etc. - loop Edit Calls From 'RedirectToAction' Not supported I am looking for some tools or more specifically 'know how' (since VS probably has some tools) to debug this kind of situations. PS: rooting is default :"{controller}/{action}/{id}", Thanks

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  • Releasing Autoreleasepool crashes on iOS 4.0 (and only on 4.0)

    - by samsam
    Hi there. I'm wondering what could cause this. I have several methods in my code that i call using performSelectorInBackground. Within each of these methods i have an Autoreleasepool that is being alloced/initialized at the beginning and released at the end of the method. this perfectly works on iOS 3.1.3 / 3.2 / 4.2 / 4.2.1 but it fataly crashes on iOS 4.0 with a EXC_BAD_ACCESS Exception that happens after calling [myPool release]. After I noticed this strange behaviour I was thinking about rewriting portions of my code and to make my app "less parallel" in case that the client os is 4.0. After I did that, the next point where the app crashed was within the ReachabilityCallback-Method from Apples Reachability "Framework". well, now I'm not quite sure what to do. The things i do within my threaded methods is pretty simple xml parsing (no cocoa calls or stuff that would affect the UI). After each method finishes it posts a notification which the coordinating-thread listens to and once all the parallelized methods have finished, the coordinating thread calls viewcontrollers etc... I have absolutely no clue what could cause this weird behaviour. Especially because Apples Code fails as well. any help is greatly appreciated! thanks, sam

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  • ASP.NET GridView "Client-Side Confirmation when Deleting" stopped working on ie - how come?

    - by tarnold
    A few months ago, I have programmed an ASP.NET GridView with a custom "Delete" LinkButton and Client-Side JavaScript Confirmation according to this msdn article: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb428868.aspx (published in April 2007) or e.g. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/218733/javascript-before-aspbuttonfield-click The code looks like this: <ItemTemplate> <asp:LinkButton ID="deleteLinkButton" runat="server" Text="Delete" OnCommand="deleteLinkButtonButton_Command" CommandName='<%# Eval("id") %>' OnClientClick='<%# Eval("id", "return confirm(\"Delete Id {0}?\")") %>' /> </ItemTemplate> Surprisingly, "Cancel" doesn't work no more with my ie (Version: 6.0.2900.2180.xpsp_sp2_qfe.080814-1242) - it always deletes the row. With Opera (Version 9.62) it still works as expeced and described in the msdn article. More surprisingly, on a fellow worker's machine with the same ie version, it still works ("Cancel" will not delete the row). The generated code looks like <a onclick="return confirm(...);" href="javascript:__doPostBack('...')"> As confirm(...) returns false on "Cancel", I expect the __doPostBack event in the href not to be fired. Are there any strange ie settings I accidentally might have changed? What else could be the cause of this weird behaviour? Or is this a "please reinstall WinXP" issue?

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  • Constraint to array dimension in C language

    - by Summer_More_More_Tea
    int KMP( const char *original, int o_len, const char *substring, int s_len ){ if( o_len < s_len ) return -1; int k = 0; int cur = 1; int fail[ s_len ]; fail[ k ] = -1; while( cur < s_len ){ k = cur - 1; do{ if( substring[ cur ] == substring[ k ] ){ fail[ cur ] = k; break; }else{ k = fail[ k ] + 1; } }while( k ); if( !k && ( substring[ cur ] != substring[ 0 ] ) ){ fail[ cur ] = -1; }else if( !k ){ fail[ cur ] = 0; } cur++; } k = 0; cur = 0; while( ( k < s_len ) && ( cur < o_len ) ){ if( original[ cur ] == substring[ k ] ){ cur++; k++; }else{ if( k == 0 ){ cur++; }else{ k = fail[ k - 1 ] + 1; } } } if( k == s_len ) return cur - k; else return -1; } This is a KMP algorithm I once coded. When I reviewed it this morning, I find it strange that an integer array is defined as int fail[ s_len ]. Does the specification requires dimesion of arrays compile-time constant? How can this code pass the compilation? By the way, my gcc version is 4.4.1. Thanks in advance!

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