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  • response.redirect to classic asp failing

    - by jeff
    I have the following code pasted below. For some reason, the response.redirect seems to be failing and it is maxing out the cpu on my server and just doesn't do anything. The .net code uploads the file fine, but does not redirect to the asp page to do the processing. I know this is absolute rubbish why would you have .net code redirecting to classic asp, it is a legacy app. I have tried putting false or true etc. at the end of the redirect as I have read other people have had issues with this. Please help as it's driving me insane! It's so strange, it runs locally on my machine but won't run on my server! public void btnUploadTheFile_Click(object Source, EventArgs evArgs) { //need to check that the uploaded file is an xls file. string strFileNameOnServer = "PJI3.txt"; string strBaseLocation = ConfigurationSettings.AppSettings["str_file_location"]; if ("" == strFileNameOnServer) { txtOutput.InnerHtml = "Error - a file name must be specified."; return; } if (null != uplTheFile.PostedFile) { try { uplTheFile.PostedFile.SaveAs(strBaseLocation+strFileNameOnServer); txtOutput.InnerHtml = "File <b>" + strBaseLocation+strFileNameOnServer+"</b> uploaded successfully"; Response.Redirect ("/COBRA/pages/sap_import_pji3_prc.asp"); } catch (Exception e) { txtOutput.InnerHtml = "Error saving <b>" + strBaseLocation+strFileNameOnServer+"</b><br>"+ e.ToString(); } } }

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  • adb doesn't get phone's device name/number

    - by Dona Hertel
    Okay, I have a strange problem I haven't seen listed anywhere. I'm developing an android app and I would like to run it on my Huawei Ascend. I have set up a file in /etc/udev/90-android.rules with the line: SUBSYSTEM=="usb", SYSFS{idVendor}=="12d1", MODE="0666" where '12d1' is the correct vendor ID for this phone (I verified this with 'lsusb' command). When I plug in the phone (it does have debugging on) and restart the adb server I get a connection but the name field does not get set. The output to 'adb devices' is: List of devices attached \n ???????????? device Plugging and unplugging the cable doesn't resolve this. Neither does restarting the adb server. Nor does a total reboot of both my computer or the phone. This is fine as I can get logs and a shell. The problem is that in the eclipse plugin, the device's name is list as "????????????" and so when it tries connect, it quits with an error message of 'device not found' even though the device is listed and 'online'. Is there something else I need to do? Do I need to set the name of the device somehow? cocofan P.S.: The app has 'debuggable' set to true in the manifest file.

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  • Java ternary operator and boxing Integer/int?

    - by Markus
    I tripped across a really strange NullPointerException the other day caused by an unexpected type-cast in the ternary operator. Given this (useless exemplary) function: Integer getNumber() { return null; } I was expecting the following two code segments to be exactly identical after compilation: Integer number; if (condition) { number = getNumber(); } else { number = 0; } vs. Integer number = (condition) ? getNumber() : 0; . Turns out, if condition is true, the if-statement works fine, while the ternary opration in the second code segment throws a NullPointerException. It seems as though the ternary operation has decided to type-cast both choices to int before auto-boxing the result back into an Integer!?! In fact, if I explicitly cast the 0 to Integer, the exception goes away. In other words: Integer number = (condition) ? getNumber() : 0; is not the same as: Integer number = (condition) ? getNumber() : (Integer) 0; . So, it seems that there is a byte-code difference between the ternary operator and an equivalent if-else-statement (something I didn't expect). Which raises three questions: Why is there a difference? Is this a bug in the ternary implementation or is there a reason for the type cast? Given there is a difference, is the ternary operation more or less performant than an equivalent if-statement (I know, the difference can't be huge, but still)?

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  • active record relations – who needs it?

    - by M2_
    Well, I`m confused about rails queries. For example: Affiche belongs_to :place Place has_many :affiches We can do this now: @affiches = Affiche.all( :joins => :place ) or @affiches = Affiche.all( :include => :place ) and we will get a lot of extra SELECTs, if there are many affiches: Place Load (0.2ms) SELECT "places".* FROM "places" WHERE "places"."id" = 3 LIMIT 1 Place Load (0.3ms) SELECT "places".* FROM "places" WHERE "places"."id" = 3 LIMIT 1 Place Load (0.8ms) SELECT "places".* FROM "places" WHERE "places"."id" = 444 LIMIT 1 Place Load (1.0ms) SELECT "places".* FROM "places" WHERE "places"."id" = 222 LIMIT 1 ...and so on... And (sic!) with :joins used every SELECT is doubled! Technically we cloud just write like this: @affiches = Affiche.all( ) and the result is totally the same! (Because we have relations declared). The wayout of keeping all data in one query is removing the relations and writing a big string with "LEFT OUTER JOIN", but still there is a problem of grouping data in multy-dimentional array and a problem of similar column names, such as id. What is done wrong? Or what am I doing wrong? UPDATE: Well, i have that string Place Load (2.5ms) SELECT "places".* FROM "places" WHERE ("places"."id" IN (3,444,222,57,663,32,154,20)) and a list of selects one by one id. Strange, but I get these separate selects when I`m doing this in each scope: <%= link_to a.place.name, **a.place**( :id => a.place.friendly_id ) %> the marked a.place is the spot, that produces these extra queries.

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  • ssh & script problem

    - by Nishanth
    I am having a strange problem while doing ssh. I am not sure where the term Unmatched ` is coming from. What I need to do is run script that logs information of what I am doing on the terminal to text file. After ssh - Sun Microsystems Inc. SunOS 5.8 Generic Patch October 2001 This is /etc/motd, last updated 3 Feb 2003. To learn about the UCS system and other aspects of computing at UL-Lafayette visit our home page http://helpdesk.louisiana.edu/ . For more information about system use, contact the Help Desk, Stephens Hall, Room 201, 482-5516 (x25516), during normal UL office hours; or send e-mail to [email protected]. ATTENTION: Unsecure Telnet and FTP will be turned off soon. Please make arrange to use ssh or sftp. Putty(telnet) and WinSCP(ftp) would be a good replacement. Unmatched ` d13.ucs.louisiana.edu% bash bash-2.04$ script -a myInformation.txt Script started, file is myInformation.txt Unmatched ` d13.ucs.louisiana.edu% When I tried to start the script with name myInformation.txt, you can see the message I am getting - Script started, file is myInformation.txt. But again I am getting that message Unmatched ` and is coming out of bash, as you can notice. What is the problem ? Any insights suggested would be very great. Note: file with name myInformation.txt is being created but nothing goes in to it. As I have even tried running certain commands like ls and then exited the script with ctrl+d. But when I open the file, nothing is there.

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  • Counting combinations in c or in python

    - by Dennis
    Hello I looked a bit on this topic here but I found nothing that could help me. I need a program in Python or in C that will give me all possible combinations of a and b that will meet the requirement n=2*a+b, for n from 0 to 10. a, b and n are integers. For example if n=0 both a and b must be 0. For n=1 a must be zero and b must be 1, for n=2 a can be 1 and b=0, or a=0 and b=2, etc. I'm not that good with programming. I made this: #include <stdio.h> int main(void){ int a,b,n; for(n = 0; n <= 10; n++){ for(a = 0; a <= 10; a++){ for(b = 0; b <= 10; b++) if(n == 2*a + b) printf("(%d, %d), ", (a,b)); } printf("\n"); } } But it keeps getting strange results like this: (0, -1079628000), (1, -1079628000), (2, -1079628000), (0, -1079628000), (3, -1079628000), (1, -1079628000), (4, -1079628000), (2, -1079628000), (0, -1079628000), (5, -1079628000), (3, -1079628000), (1, -1079628000), (6, -1079628000), (4, -1079628000), (2, -1079628000), (0, -1079628000), (7, -1079628000), (5, -1079628000), (3, -1079628000), (1, -1079628000), (8, -1079628000), (6, -1079628000), (4, -1079628000), (2, -1079628000), (0, -1079628000), (9, -1079628000), (7, -1079628000), (5, -1079628000), (3, -1079628000), (1, -1079628000), (10, -1079628000), (8, -1079628000), (6, -1079628000), (4, -1079628000), (2, -1079628000), (0, -1079628000), ideone Any idea what is wrong? Also if I could do this for Python it would be even cooler. :D

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  • Problem with UITextView

    - by user367039
    I have a strange problem with trying to pass a string from one viewcontroller to another view controller if the string originates from a UITextview instead of UITextfield. Both UITextview.text and UITextfield.text are of type NSString. The following code takes either Textfield.text or Textview.text depending on the fieldType and puts it into a string called aString. NSString *aString = [[NSString alloc] init]; if (fieldType == 3) { aString = textView.text; } else { aString = textField.text; } When I examine aString on either cases, I can see that it has successfully assigned the text into aString. I then pass the string to the other view controller using this code. [delegate updateSite:aString :editedFieldKey :fieldType]; [self.navigationController popViewControllerAnimated:YES]; This works fine if aString originated from textfield.text but nothing happens except the view controller is popped if aString was from textview.text This is the code that takes aString and does stuff with it, however it doesn't even execute the first line of code "NSLog(@"Returned object: %@, field type:%@", aString,editedFieldKey);" if aString was from textview.text Any help will be appreciated. -(void)updateSite:(NSString *)aString :(NSString *)editedFieldKey :(int)fieldType { NSLog(@"Returned object: %@, field type:%@", aString,editedFieldKey); switch (fieldType) { case 0: //string [aDiveSite setValue:aString forKey:editedFieldKey] ; NSLog(@"String set %@",[aDiveSite valueForKey:editedFieldKey] ); break; case 1: //int [aDiveSite setValue:[NSNumber numberWithInt:aString.intValue] forKey:editedFieldKey]; NSLog(@"Integer set"); break; case 2: //float NSLog(@"Saving floating value"); [aDiveSite setValue:[NSNumber numberWithFloat:aString.floatValue] forKey:editedFieldKey]; NSLog(@"Float set"); break; case 3: //Text view [aDiveSite setValue:aString forKey:editedFieldKey]; NSLog(@"Textview text saved"); default: break; } [self.tableView reloadData]; }

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  • ASP.NET web form Routing issue via UNC Path

    - by Slash
    I create a IIS 7.0 website via UNC path to load .aspx to dynamic compile files and runs. however, it's running perfect. I always use IIS URL Rewrite module 2 to rewrite my site URL n' its perfect, too. Today, I wanna use System.Web.Routing to implement url rewrite but I encountered difficulties... When I wrote code in Global.asax: System.Web.Routing.RouteTable.Routes.MapPageRoute("TEST", "AAA/{prop}", "~/BBB/CCC.aspx"); And it just CANNOT reDirect to /BBB/CCC.aspx When I type the URL(like: xx.xx.xx.xx/BBB/CCC.aspx) in browser directly, it runs normally that I want. (so it proof CCC.aspx is in right path.) thus, I copy all of the code and open VS2010 running with IIS 7.5 Express locally, it works perfect! e.g: in browser URL I type xx.xx.xx.xx/AAA/1234, it will turn to page xx.xx.xx.xx/BBB/CCC.aspx (Works perfect!) Why??? help me plz. thanks. Update: I think I should consider not UNC path to make it error! when I move all code to physical disk and setup IIS 7.0 to monitor this Folder, it still not works! But the same code run in VS2010 + IIS 7.5 Express it works!? so strange!

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  • Determine whether app is communicating with APNS sandbox or production environment

    - by goldierox
    I have push notifications set up in my app. I'm trying to determine whether the device token I've received from APNS in the application:didRegisterForRemoteNotificationsWithDeviceToken: method came from the sandbox or development environment. If I can distinguish which environment initialized the token, I'll be able to tell my server to which environment to send the push notification. I've tried using the DEBUG macro to determine this, but I've seen some strange behavior with this and don't trust it to be 100% correct. #ifdef DEBUG BOOL isProd = YES; #else BOOL isProd = NO; #endif Ideally, I'd be able to examine the aps-environment entitlement (value is Development or Production) in code, but I'm not sure if this is even possible. What's the proper way to determine whether your app is communicating with the APNS sandbox or production environments? I'm assuming that the server needs to know this in the first place. Please correct me if this is assumption is incorrect. Edited: Apple's documentation on Provider Communication with APNS details the difference between communicating with the sandbox and production. However, the documentation doesn't give information on how to be consistent with registering the token (from the iOS client app) and communicating with the server.

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  • Java HashMap containsKey always false

    - by Dennis
    I have the funny situation, that I store a Coordinate into a HashMap<Coordinate, GUIGameField>. Now, the strange thing about it is, that I have a fragment of code, which should guard, that no coordinate should be used twice. But if I debug this code: if (mapForLevel.containsKey(coord)) { throw new IllegalStateException("This coordinate is already used!"); } else { ...do stuff... } ... the containsKey always returns false, although I stored a coordinate with a hashcode of 9731 into the map and the current coord also has the hashcode 9731. After that, the mapForLevel.entrySet() looks like: (java.util.HashMap$EntrySet) [(270,90)=gui.GUIGameField@29e357, (270,90)=gui.GUIGameField@ca470] What could I have possibly done wrong? I ran out of ideas. Thanks for any help! public class Coordinate { int xCoord; int yCoord; public Coordinate(int x, int y) { ...store params in attributes... } ...getters & setters... @Override public int hashCode() { int hash = 1; hash = hash * 41 + this.xCoord; hash = hash * 31 + this.yCoord; return hash; } }

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  • YouTube - Encrypted cookie string

    - by Robertof
    Hello! I'm new to Stack Overflow. I'm building a YouTube Downloader in PHP. But YouTube have some IP-checks. Because the PHP file is on a remote server, the ip of the server != the ip of the user and the video-download fails. So, maybe I've found a solution. YouTube sends a cookie with an encrypted string, which is the user IP. I need to know the encrypted-string algorithm and know how to crypt a string with this. Here there is the string: nQ0CrJmASJk . It could be base64, but when I try to decode it with base64_decode, it gives me strange characters. You could check the cookie by requesting the main page of youtube, and check the headers "Set-Cookie". You will found a cookie with the name "VISITOR_INFO1_LIVE". Here there is the encrypyed string. Anyone knows what is the algorithm? Thanks. PS: sorry for my bad english. Cheers, Roberto.

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  • Why doesn't java.lang.Number implement Comparable?

    - by Julien Chastang
    Does anyone know why java.lang.Number does not implement Comparable? This means that you cannot sort Numbers with Collections.sort which seems to me a little strange. Post discussion update: Thanks for all the helpful responses. I ended up doing some more research about this topic. The simplest explanation for why java.lang.Number does not implement Comparable is rooted in mutability concerns. For a bit of review, java.lang.Number is the abstract super-type of AtomicInteger, AtomicLong, BigDecimal, BigInteger, Byte, Double, Float, Integer, Long and Short. On that list, AtomicInteger and AtomicLong to do not implement Comparable. Digging around, I discovered that it is not a good practice to implement Comparable on mutable types because the objects can change during or after comparison rendering the result of the comparison useless. Both AtomicLong and AtomicInteger are mutable. The API designers had the forethought to not have Number implement Comparable because it would have constrained implementation of future subtypes. Indeed, AtomicLong and AtomicInteger were added in Java 1.5 long after java.lang.Number was initially implemented. Apart from mutability, there are probably other considerations here too. A compareTo implementation in Number would have to promote all numeric values to BigDecimal because it is capable of accommodating all the Number sub-types. The implication of that promotion in terms of mathematics and performance is a bit unclear to me, but my intuition finds that solution kludgy.

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  • Event type property lost in IE-8

    - by Channel72
    I've noticed a strange Javascript error which only seems to happen on Internet Explorer 8. Basically, on IE-8 if you have an event handler function which captures the event object in a closure, the event "type" property seems to become invalidated from within the closure. Here's a simple code snippet which reproduces the error: <html> <head> <script type = "text/javascript"> function handleClickEvent(ev) { ev = (ev || window.event); alert(ev.type); window.setTimeout(function() { alert(ev.type); // Causes error on IE-8 }, 20); } function foo() { var query = document.getElementById("query"); query.onclick = handleClickEvent; } </script> </head> <body> <input id = "query" type = "submit"> <script type = "text/javascript"> foo(); </script> </body> </html> So basically, what happens here is that within the handleClickEvent function, we have the event object ev. We call alert(ev.type) and we see the event type is "click". So far, so good. But then when we capture the event object in a closure, and then call alert(ev.type) again from within the closure, now all of a sudden Internet Explorer 8 errors, saying "Member not found" because of the expression ev.type. It seems as though the type property of the event object is mysteriously gone after we capture the event object in a closure. I tested this code snippet on Firefox, Safari and Chrome, and none of them report an error condition. But in IE-8, the event object seems to become somehow invalidated after it's captured in the closure. Question: Why is this happening in IE-8, and is there any workaround?

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  • How to count the Chinese word in a file using regex in perl?

    - by Ivan
    I tried following perl code to count the Chinese word of a file, it seems working but not get the right thing. Any help is greatly appreciated. The Error message is Use of uninitialized value $valid in concatenation (.) or string at word_counting.pl line 21, <FILE> line 21. Total things = 125, valid words = which seems to me the problem is the file format. The "total thing" is 125 that is the string number (125 lines). The strangest part is my console displayed all the individual Chinese words correctly without any problem. The utf-8 pragma is installed. #!/usr/bin/perl -w use strict; use utf8; use Encode qw(encode); use Encode::HanExtra; my $input_file = "sample_file.txt"; my ($total, $valid); my %count; open (FILE, "< $input_file") or die "Can't open $input_file: $!"; while (<FILE>) { foreach (split) { #break $_ into words, assign each to $_ in turn $total++; next if /\W|^\d+/; #strange words skip the remainder of the loop $valid++; $count{$_}++; # count each separate word stored in a hash ## next comes here ## } } print "Total things = $total, valid words = $valid\n"; foreach my $word (sort keys %count) { print "$word \t was seen \t $count{$word} \t times.\n"; } ##---Data---- sample_file.txt ??????,???????,????.??????.????:"?????????????,??????,????????.????????,?????????, ???????????.????????,???????????,??????,??????.???:`??,???????????.'?????, ??????????."??????,??????.????.???, ????????????,????,??????,?????????,??????????????. ????????,??????,???????????,????????,????????.????,????,???????, ??????????,??????,????????.??????.

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  • Interesting LinqToSql behaviour

    - by Ben Robinson
    We have a database table that stores the location of some wave files plus related meta data. There is a foreign key (employeeid) on the table that links to an employee table. However not all wav files relate to an employee, for these records employeeid is null. We are using LinqToSQl to access the database, the query to pull out all non employee related wav file records is as follows: var results = from Wavs in db.WaveFiles where Wavs.employeeid == null; Except this returns no records, despite the fact that there are records where employeeid is null. On profiling sql server i discovered the reason no records are returned is because LinqToSQl is turning it into SQL that looks very much like: SELECT Field1, Field2 //etc FROM WaveFiles WHERE 1=0 Obviously this returns no rows. However if I go into the DBML designer and remove the association and save. All of a sudden the exact same LINQ query turns into SELECT Field1, Field2 //etc FROM WaveFiles WHERE EmployeeID IS NULL I.e. if there is an association then LinqToSql assumes that all records have a value for the foreign key (even though it is nullable and the property appears as a nullable int on the WaveFile entity) and as such deliverately constructs a where clause that will return no records. Does anyone know if there is a way to keep the association in LinqToSQL but stop this behaviour. A workaround i can think of quickly is to have a calculated field called IsSystemFile and set it to 1 if employeeid is null and 0 otherwise. However this seems like a bit of a hack to work around strange behaviour of LinqToSQl and i would rather do something in the DBML file or define something on the foreign key constraint that will prevent this behaviour.

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  • iPhone crashing when presenting modal view controller

    - by Michael Waterfall
    I'm trying to display a modal view straight after another view has been presented modally (the second is a loading view that appears). - (void)viewDidAppear:(BOOL)animated { [super viewDidAppear:animated]; // Show load LoadViewController *loader = [[LoadViewController alloc] init]; [self presentModalViewController: loader animated:NO]; [loader release]; } But when I do this I get a "Program received signal: "EXC_BAD_ACCESS"." error. The stack trace is: 0 0x30b43234 in -[UIWindowController transitionViewDidComplete:fromView:toView:] 1 0x3095828e in -[UITransitionView notifyDidCompleteTransition:] 2 0x3091af0d in -[UIViewAnimationState sendDelegateAnimationDidStop:finished:] 3 0x3091ad7c in -[UIViewAnimationState animationDidStop:finished:] 4 0x0051e331 in run_animation_callbacks 5 0x0051e109 in CA::timer_callback 6 0x302454a0 in CFRunLoopRunSpecific 7 0x30244628 in CFRunLoopRunInMode 8 0x32044c31 in GSEventRunModal 9 0x32044cf6 in GSEventRun 10 0x309021ee in UIApplicationMain 11 0x00002154 in main at main.m:14 Any ideas? I'm totally stumped! The loading view is empty so there's definitely nothing going on in there that's causing the error. Is it something to do with launching 2 views modally in the same event loop or something? Thanks, Mike Edit: Very strange... I have modified it slightly so that the loading view is shown after a tiny delay, and this works fine! So it appears to be something within the same event loop! - (void)viewDidAppear:(BOOL)animated { [super viewDidAppear:animated]; // Show load [self performSelector:@selector(doit) withObject:nil afterDelay:0.1]; } - (void)doit { [self presentModalViewController:loader animated:YES]; }

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  • For loop index out of range ArgumentOutOfRangeException when multithreading

    - by Lirik
    I'm getting some strange behavior... when I iterate over the dummyText List in the ThreadTest method I get an index out of range exception (ArgumentOutOfRangeException), but if I remove the threads and I just print out the text, then everything works fine. This is my main method: public static Object sync = new Object(); static void Main(string[] args) { ThreadTest(); Console.WriteLine("Press any key to continue."); Console.ReadKey(); } This method throws the exception: private static void ThreadTest() { Console.WriteLine("Running ThreadTest"); Console.WriteLine("Running ThreadTest"); List<String> dummyText = new List<string>() { "One", "Two", "Three", "Four", "Five", "Six", "Seven", "Eight", "Nine", "Ten"}; for (int i = 0; i < dummyText.Count; i++) { Thread t = new Thread(() => PrintThreadName(dummyText[i])); // <-- Index out of range?!? t.Name = ("Thread " + (i)); t.IsBackground = true; t.Start(); } } private static void PrintThreadName(String text) { Random rand = new Random(DateTime.Now.Millisecond); while (true) { lock (sync) { Console.WriteLine(Thread.CurrentThread.Name + " running " + text); Thread.Sleep(1000+rand.Next(0,2000)); } } } This does not throw the exception: private static void ThreadTest() { Console.WriteLine("Running ThreadTest"); List<String> dummyText = new List<string>() { "One", "Two", "Three", "Four", "Five", "Six", "Seven", "Eight", "Nine", "Ten"}; for (int i = 0; i < dummyText.Count; i++) { Console.WriteLine(dummyText[i]); // <-- No exception here } } Does anybody know why this is happening?

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  • Java - Call to start method on thread : how does it route to Runnable interface's run () ?

    - by Bhaskar
    Ok , I know the two standard ways to create a new thread and run it in Java : 1 Implement Runnable in a class , define run method ,and pass an instance of the class to a new Thread. When the start method on the thread instance is called , the run method of the class instance will be invoked. 2 Let the class derive from Thread, so it can to override the method run() and then when a new instance's start method is called , the call is routed to overridden method. In both methods , basically a new Thread object is created and its start method invoked. However , while in the second method , the mechanism of the call being routed to the user defined run() method is very clear ,( its a simple runtime polymorphism in play ), I dont understand how the call to start method on the Thread object gets routed to run() method of the class implementing Runnable interface. Does the Thread class have an private field of Type Runnable which it checks first , and if it is set then invokes the run method if it set to an object ? that would be a strange mechanism IMO. How does the call to start() on a thread get routed to the run method of the Runnable interface implemented by the class whose object is passed as a parameter when contructing the thread ?

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  • Why doesn't access database update?

    - by Ryan
    Recently I met a strange problem, see code snips as below: var sqlCommand: string; connection: TADOConnection; qry: TADOQuery; begin connection := TADOConnection.Create(nil); try connection.ConnectionString := 'Provider=Microsoft.Jet.OLEDB.4.0;Data Source=Test.MDB;Persist Security Info=False'; connection.Open(); qry := TADOQuery.Create(nil); try qry.Connection := connection; qry.SQL.Text := 'Select * from aaa'; qry.Open; qry.Append; qry.FieldByName('TestField1').AsString := 'test'; qry.Post; beep; finally qry.Free; end; finally connection.Free; end; end; First, Create a new access database named test.mdb and put it under the directory of this test project, we can create a new table named aaa in it which has only one text type field named TestField1. We set a breakpoint at line of "beep", then lunch the test application under ide debug mode, when ide stops at the breakpoint line (qry.post has been executed), at this time we use microsoft access to open test.mdb and open table aaa you will find there are no any changes in table aaa, if you let the ide continue running after pressing f9 you can find a new record is inserted in to table aaa, but if you press ctrl+f2 to terminate the application at the breakpoint, you will find the table aaa has no record been inserted, but in normal circumstance, a new record should be inserted in to the table aaa after qry.post executed. who can explain this problem , it troubles me so long time. thanks !!! BTW, the ide is delphi 2010, and the access mdb file is created by microsoft access 2007 under windows 7

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  • Struts 2 discard cache header

    - by Dewfy
    I have strange discarding behavior of struts2 while setting cache option for my image. I'm trying to put image from db to be cached on client side To render image I use ( http://struts.apache.org/2.x/docs/how-can-we-display-dynamic-or-static-images-that-can-be-provided-as-an-array-of-bytes.html ) where special result type render as follow: public void execute(ActionInvocation invocation) throws Exception { ...//some preparation HttpServletResponse response = ServletActionContext.getResponse(); HttpServletRequest request = ServletActionContext.getRequest(); ServletOutputStream os = response.getOutputStream(); try { byte[] imageBytes = action.getImage(); response.setContentType("image/gif"); response.setContentLength(imageBytes.length); //I want cache up to 10 min Date future = new Date(((new Date()).getTime() + 1000 * 10*60l)); ; response.addDateHeader("Expires", future.getTime()); response.setHeader("Cache-Control", "max-age=" + 10*60 + ""); response.addHeader("cache-Control", "public"); response.setHeader("ETag", request.getRequestURI()); os.write(imageBytes); } catch(Exception e) { response.sendError(HttpServletResponse.SC_NOT_FOUND); } os.flush(); os.close(); } But when image is embedded to page it is always reloaded (Firebug shows code 200), and neither Expires, nor max-age are presented in header Host localhost:9090 Accept image/png,image/*;q=0.8,*/*;q=0.5 Accept-Language en-us,en;q=0.5 Accept-Encoding gzip,deflate Accept-Charset ISO-8859-1,utf-8;q=0.7,*;q=0.7 Keep-Alive 300 Connection keep-alive Referer http://localhost:9090/web/result?matchId=1 Cookie JSESSIONID=4156BEED69CAB0B84D950932AB9EA1AC; If-None-Match /web/_srv/teamcolor Cache-Control max-age=0 I have no idea why it is dissapered, may be problem in url? It is forms with parameter: http://localhost:9090/web/_srv/teamcolor?loginId=3

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  • ASP.NET GridView "Client-Side Confirmation when Deleting" stopped working on ie - how come?

    - by tarnold
    A few months ago, I have programmed an ASP.NET GridView with a custom "Delete" LinkButton and Client-Side JavaScript Confirmation according to this msdn article: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb428868.aspx (published in April 2007) or e.g. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/218733/javascript-before-aspbuttonfield-click The code looks like this: <ItemTemplate> <asp:LinkButton ID="deleteLinkButton" runat="server" Text="Delete" OnCommand="deleteLinkButtonButton_Command" CommandName='<%# Eval("id") %>' OnClientClick='<%# Eval("id", "return confirm(\"Delete Id {0}?\")") %>' /> </ItemTemplate> Surprisingly, "Cancel" doesn't work no more with my ie (Version: 6.0.2900.2180.xpsp_sp2_qfe.080814-1242) - it always deletes the row. With Opera (Version 9.62) it still works as expeced and described in the msdn article. More surprisingly, on a fellow worker's machine with the same ie version, it still works ("Cancel" will not delete the row). The generated code looks like <a onclick="return confirm(...);" href="javascript:__doPostBack('...')"> As confirm(...) returns false on "Cancel", I expect the __doPostBack event in the href not to be fired. Are there any strange ie settings I accidentally might have changed? What else could be the cause of this weird behaviour? Or is this a "please reinstall WinXP" issue?

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  • Using the Queue class in Python 2.6

    - by voipme
    Let's assume I'm stuck using Python 2.6, and can't upgrade (even if that would help). I've written a program that uses the Queue class. My producer is a simple directory listing. My consumer threads pull a file from the queue, and do stuff with it. If the file has already been processed, I skip it. The processed list is generated before all of the threads are started, so it isn't empty. Here's some pseudo-code. import Queue, sys, threading processed = [] def consumer(): while True: file = dirlist.get(block=True) if file in processed: print "Ignoring %s" % file else: # do stuff here dirlist.task_done() dirlist = Queue.Queue() for f in os.listdir("/some/dir"): dirlist.put(f) max_threads = 8 for i in range(max_threads): thr = Thread(target=consumer) thr.start() dirlist.join() The strange behavior I'm getting is that if a thread encounters a file that's already been processed, the thread stalls out and waits until the entire program ends. I've done a little bit of testing, and the first 7 threads (assuming 8 is the max) stop, while the 8th thread keeps processing, one file at a time. But, by doing that, I'm losing the entire reason for threading the application. Am I doing something wrong, or is this the expected behavior of the Queue/threading classes in Python 2.6?

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  • How do I override a python import?

    - by Evan Plaice
    So I'm working on pypreprocessor which is a preprocessor that takes c-style directives and I've been able to make it work like a traditional preprocessor (it's self-consuming and executes postprocessed code on-the-fly) except that it breaks library imports. The problem is. The preprocessor runs through the file, processes' it, outputs to a temp file, and exec() the temp file. Libraries that are imported need to be handled a little different because they aren't executed but rather loaded and made accessible to the caller module. What I need to be able to do is. Interrupt the import (since the preprocessor is being run in the middle of the import), load the postprocessed code as a tempModule, and replace the original import with the tempModule to trick the calling script with the import into believing that the tempModule is the original module. I have searched everywhere and so far, have no solution. This question is the closest I've seen so far to providing an answer: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1096216/override-namespace-in-python Here's what I have. # remove the bytecode file created by the first import os.remove(moduleName + '.pyc') # remove the first import del sys.modules[moduleName] # import the postprocessed module tmpModule = __import__(tmpModuleName) # set first module's reference to point to the preprocessed module sys.modules[moduleName] = tmpModule moduleName is the name of the original module, tmpModuleName is the name of the postprocessed code file. The strange part is, this solution still runs completely normal as if the first module completed loaded normally; unless you remove the last line, then you get a module not found error. Hopefully someone on SO know a lot more about imports than I do because this one has me stumped.

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  • Class Generics break completely seperate method

    - by TheLQ
    I found a strange problem when I used class Generics Today: Setting some broke a completely separate method. Here's a small example class that illustrates the problem. This code works just fine public class Sandbox { public interface ListenerManagerTest { public Set<Listener> getListeners(); } public void setListenerManager(ListenerManagerTest listenerManager) { for (Listener curListener : listenerManager.getListeners()) return; } } Now as soon as I use class Generics, the getListeners() method returns Set<Object> instead of Set<Listener> public class Sandbox { public interface ListenerManagerTest<E extends Object> { public Set<Listener> getListeners(); } public void setListenerManager(ListenerManagerTest listenerManager) { for (Listener curListener : listenerManager.getListeners()) //Expected Listener, not Object return; } } What would cause this error? The ##java channel on Freenode said it was because of compile time candy and that I was using a raw type. But how would an raw class type break all generics in the class? And how would of worked before?

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  • Routing redirection decision

    - by programming late night
    I have really no idea why I'm asking this as this a really completely irrelevant question for which I should have figured out an answer within milliseconds, yet I'm doing it. So in my project I have a Router class which splits up the request and selects the right page to be loaded. Fine so far. Now I have a page displayed when the user requests a page that doesn't exist, you know, 404. So theoretically, if the user entered mydomain.com/404 (I use mod_rewrite with a requests collector via index.php?req=*) the 404 error would be shown to him, but in fact there was no error - the 404 page would be displayed as a perfectly normal page. So if someone would try out requesting the 404 page via /404, he would be shown the page but he can't tell if the 404 page he requested doesn't exist and he is actually getting a, you guessed it, 404 error or if he actually found some flaw in the system that makes him able to see an error page when there is no error. I don't know how dumb this whole thing here is but I'm sure some of you have in fact ran into this problem already. Short version: If the user enters mydomain.com/404 the 404 page is shown even though there is no 404 error. I know this is a completely irrelevant question, please don't tell me, but I just spontaneously wanted to hear your thoughts on it. Strange eh? Should I redirect direct access to my 404-page to the home page? Should I do nothing? Should I just go to bed and stop asking irrelevant stuff?

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