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  • CakePHP Routes: Messing With The MVC

    - by thesunneversets
    So we have a real-estate-related site that has controller/action pairs like "homes/view", "realtors/edit", and so forth. From on high it has been deemed a good idea to refactor the site so that URLS are now in the format "/realtorname/homes/view/id", and perhaps also "/admin/homes/view/id" and/or "/region/..." As a mere CakePHP novice I'm finding it difficult to achieve this in routes.php. I can do the likes of: Router::connect('/:filter/h/:id', array('controller'=>'homes','action'=>'view')); Router::connect('/admin/:controller/:action/:id'); But I'm finding that the id is no longer being passed simply and elegantly to the actions, now that controller and action do not directly follow the domain. Therefore, questions: Is it a stupid idea to play fast and loose with the /controller/action format in this way? Is there a better way of stating these routes so that things don't break egregiously? Would we be better off going back to subdomains (the initial method of achieving this type of functionality, shot down on potentially spurious SEO-related grounds)? Many thanks for any advice! I'm sorry that I'm such a newbie that I don't know whether I'm asking stupid questions or not....

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  • document.write Not working when loading external Javascript source

    - by jadent
    I'm trying to load an external JavaScript file dynamically into an HTML element to preview an ad tag. The script loads and executes but the script contains "document.write" which has an issue executing properly but there are no errors. <html> <head> <script src="//ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/2.0.3/jquery.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(function() { source = 'http://ib.adnxs.com/ttj?id=555281'; // DOM Insert Approach // ----------------------------------- var script = document.createElement('script'); script.setAttribute('type', 'text/javascript'); script.setAttribute('src', source); document.body.appendChild(script); }); </script> </head> <body> </body> </html> I can get it to work if If i move the the source to the same domain for testing If the script was modified to use document.createElement and appendChild instead of document.write like the code above. I don't have the ability to modify the script since it being generated and hosted by a 3rd party. Does anyone know why the document.write will not work correctly? And is there a way to get around this? Thanks for the help!

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  • Examples using Active Directory/LDAP groups for permissions \ roles in Rails App.

    - by Nick Gorbikoff
    Hello. I was wondering how other people implemented this scenario. I have an internal rails app ( inventory management, label printing, shipping,etc). I'm rewriting security on the system, cause the old way got to cumbersome to maintain ( users table, passwords, roles) - I used restful_authentication and roles. It was implemented about 3 years ago. I already implemented AuthLogic with ruby-ldap-net to authenticate users ( actually that was surprisingly easy, compared to how I struggled with other frameworks/languages before). Next step is roles. I already have groups defined in Active Directory - so I don't want to run a separate roles system in my rails app, I just want to reuse Active Directory groups - since that part of the system is already maintained for other purposes ( shared drives, backups, pc access, etc) So I was wondering if others had experience implementing permissions/roles in a rails app based on groups in Active Directory or LDAP. Also the roles requirements are pretty complex. Here is an example: For instance I have users that belong to the supervisors group in AD and to inventory dept, so I was that user to be able to run "advanced" tasks in invetory - adjust qty, run reports, however other "supervisors" from other departmanets, shouldn't be able to do this, also Top Management - should be able to use those reports (regardless weather they belong to the invetory or not), but not Middle Management, unless they are in inventory group. Admins of the system (Domain Admins) should have unrestricted access to the system , except for HR & Finances part unless they are in HR ( like you don't want all system admins (except for one authorized one) to see personal info of other employees). I looked at acl9, cancan, aegis. I was wondering if there are any advantaged/cons to using one versus the other for this particular use of system access based on AD. Suggest other systems if you had good experience. Thank you!!!

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  • Convert Google Analytics cookies to Local/Session Storage

    - by David Murdoch
    Google Analytics sets 4 cookies that will be sent with all requests to that domain (and ofset its subdomains). From what I can tell no server actually uses them directly; they're only sent with __utm.gif as a query param. Now, obviously Google Analytics reads, writes and acts on their values and they will need to be available to the GA tracking script. So, what I am wondering is if it is possible to: rewrite the __utm* cookies to local storage after ga.js has written them delete them after ga.js has run rewrite the cookies FROM local storage back to cookie form right before ga.js reads them start over Or, monkey patch ga.js to use local storage before it begins the cookie read/write part. Obviously if we are going so far out of the way to remove the __utm* cookies we'll want to also use the Async variant of Analytics. I'm guessing the down vote was because I didn't ask a question. DOH! My questions are: Can it be done as described above? If so, why hasn't it been done? I have a default HTML/CSS/JS boilerplate template that passes YSlow, PageSpeed, and Chrome's Audit with near perfect scores. I'm really looking for a way to squeeze those remaining cookie bytes from Google Analytics in browsers that support local storage.

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  • SpeechRecognizer causes ANR... I need help with Android speech API.

    - by Dondo Chaka
    I'm trying to use Android's speech recognition package to record user speech and translate it to text. Unfortunately, when I attempt initiate listening, I get an ANR error that doesn't point to anything specific. As the SpeechRecognizer API indicates, a RuntimeException is thrown if you attempt to call it from the main thread. This would make me wonder if the processing was just too demanding... but I know that other applications use the Android API for this purpose and it is typically pretty snappy. java.lang.RuntimeException: SpeechRecognizer should be used only from the application's main thread Here is a (trimmed) sample of the code I'm trying to call from my service. Is this the proper approach? Thanks for taking the time to help. This has been a hurdle I haven't been able to get over yet. Intent intent = new Intent(RecognizerIntent.ACTION_RECOGNIZE_SPEECH); intent.putExtra(RecognizerIntent.EXTRA_LANGUAGE_MODEL, RecognizerIntent.LANGUAGE_MODEL_FREE_FORM); intent.putExtra(RecognizerIntent.EXTRA_CALLING_PACKAGE, "com.domain.app"); SpeechRecognizer recognizer = SpeechRecognizer .createSpeechRecognizer(this.getApplicationContext()); RecognitionListener listener = new RecognitionListener() { @Override public void onResults(Bundle results) { ArrayList<String> voiceResults = results .getStringArrayList(RecognizerIntent.EXTRA_RESULTS); if (voiceResults == null) { Log.e(getString(R.string.log_label), "No voice results"); } else { Log.d(getString(R.string.log_label), "Printing matches: "); for (String match : voiceResults) { Log.d(getString(R.string.log_label), match); } } } @Override public void onReadyForSpeech(Bundle params) { Log.d(getString(R.string.log_label), "Ready for speech"); } @Override public void onError(int error) { Log.d(getString(R.string.log_label), "Error listening for speech: " + error); } @Override public void onBeginningOfSpeech() { Log.d(getString(R.string.log_label), "Speech starting"); } }; recognizer.setRecognitionListener(listener); recognizer.startListening(intent);

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  • LoginControl not working correctly with Firefox, requires double login attempt.

    - by CmdrTallen
    Any idea why LoginControl requires users authenticate twice with FireFox but works correctly (once) with IE? I am using a custom MembershipProvider and RoleProvider, if that matters. Authentication portion of my web.config; <authentication mode="Forms"> <forms timeout="50000000" protection="All" requireSSL="false" slidingExpiration="true" cookieless="AutoDetect" domain="" enableCrossAppRedirects="true"> <credentials passwordFormat="SHA1" /> </forms> </authentication> Membership section; <membership defaultProvider="CustomMembershipProvider"> <providers> <add name="CustomMembershipProvider" type="CustomCrateMembershipProvider" connectionString="" enablePasswordRetrieval="false" enablePasswordReset="true" requiresQuestionAndAnswer="true" applicationName="/" requiresUniqueEmail="true" passwordFormat="Hashed" maxInvalidPasswordAttempts="5" minRequiredPasswordLength="5" minRequiredNonalphanumericCharacters="1" passwordAttemptWindow="10" passwordStrengthRegularExpression=""/> </providers> </membership> <roleManager defaultProvider="CustomRoleProvider" enabled="true"> <providers> <add name="CustomRoleProvider" type="CustomRoleProvider"/> </providers> </roleManager> Only code behind related to login; protected void OnLoggedIn(object sender, EventArgs e) { } protected void OnLoggingOut(object sender, EventArgs e) { }

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  • 'send' button error 401

    - by jjd
    I'm having a strange error with 'Send' button I have the following code on my page <div id="fb-root"></div> <script type="text/javascript"> (function(d, s, id) { var js, fjs = d.getElementsByTagName(s)[0]; if (d.getElementById(id)) return; js = d.createElement(s); js.id = id; js.src = "//connect.facebook.net/en_US/all.js#xfbml=1&amp;appId=<myAppId>"; fjs.parentNode.insertBefore(js, fjs); }(document, 'script', 'facebook-jssdk')); </script> <br/> <fb:like send="true" width="450" show_faces="true"></fb:like> The 'send' button works fine if I access the application via IP address, but if I use a domain name, Facebook returns The page at http://<...>.com:8080/pages/question.jsf could not be reached because the server returned status code 401. Meantime 'like' button works fine. The application front-end is built with JSF2+Primefaces. Any ideas would be appreciated Thanks

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  • Is ADO.NET Entity framework database schema update possible?

    - by fyasar
    I'm working on proof of concept application like crm and i need your some advice. My application's data layer completely dynamic and run onto EF 3.5. When the user update the entity, change relation or add new column to the database, first i'm planning make for these with custom classes. After I rebuild my database model layer with new changes during the application runtime. And my model layer tie with tightly coupled to my project for easy reflecting model layer changes (It connected to my project via interfaces and loading onto to application domain in the runtime). I need to create dynamic entities, create entity relations and modify them during the runtime after that i need to create change database script for updating database schema. I know ADO.NET team says "we will be able to provide this property in EF 4.0", but i don't need to wait for them. How can i update database changes during the runtime via EF 3.5 ? For example, i need to create new entity or need to change some entity schema, add new properties or change property types after than how can apply these changes on the physical database schema ? Any ideas ?

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  • Proper way of naming your Java Google App Engine Project

    - by Saif Bechan
    I am starting out with Google's App Engine in Java. I have seen the tutorial video but I do not understand the naming of the project package. It is going to be a guestbook, that's why the name is guestbook, I understand that part. But after that I see package name. 1)Is that something you import into the project, or is is something you create. I have seen this a lot in projects, something like com.xxx.xxx. 2)How do you name this type of thing or is this an import. I have looked at another tutorial there they take the naming to a whole new level. The name of both the project and the package is de.vogella.gae.java.todo. 3)What does this mean in java terms. 4)Maybe one of you can help me with this specific project I want to start. I want to create a Google App project that for now only serves static files. I will leave the project empty and just put all my static files in the war directory of the project. I want the domain name to be mydomainstatic

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  • Get subdomain of XML page from XSL

    - by fudgey
    I am working with a guild hosting site that provides an XML/XSL transformation widget where all I need to do is enter the URL for the XML and XSL and it does the rest. I have written an XSL transform to display a World of Warcraft armory page: Here is an example XML page (view source to see it) of the group I'm trying to help now. So, the user is entering their own XML page url (which has an eu subdomain in this case, but it is not within the XML itself). So when I make links to the character url, I need to add the entire url <a target="_blank" href="http://eu.wowarmory.com/character-sheet.xml?{@url}"> <xsl:value-of select="@name"/> </a> But I can't just set the domain to eu since there are multiple regions. Here are the possibilities: us = www, europe = eu, korea = kr, china = cn and taiwan = tw. Here is a snippet of the XML which shows the url parameters: <character achPoints="4275" classId="3" genderId="0" level="80" name="Virtex" raceId="4" rank="2" url="r=Drek%27Thar&amp;cn=Virtex"/> I guess I could just have the user add a small bit of HTML with their region in another part of their page, something like <div id="region">eu</div>, but I'm trying to make this work without any extra coding on their part. Edit: Ok, my question explicitly stated: How do I get the URL subdomain using XSL?

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  • Hi I am facing a fragmentation error while executing this code? Can someone explain why?

    - by aks
    #include<stdio.h> struct table { char *ipAddress; char *domainName; struct table *next; }; struct table *head = NULL; void add_rec(); void show_rec(); int main() { add_rec(); show_rec(); return 0; } void add_rec() { struct table * temp = head; struct table * temp1 = (struct table *)malloc(sizeof(struct table)); if(!temp1) printf("\n Unable to allocate memory \n"); printf("Enter the ip address you want \n"); scanf("%s",temp1->ipAddress); printf("\nEnter the domain name you want \n"); scanf("%s",temp1->domainName); if(!temp) { head = temp; } else { while(temp->next!=NULL) temp = temp->next; temp->next = temp1; } } void show_rec() { struct table * temp = head; if(!temp) printf("\n No entry exists \n"); while(temp!=NULL) { printf("ipAddress = %s\t domainName = %s\n",temp->ipAddress,temp->domainName); temp = temp->next; } } When i execute this code and enters the IP address for the first node, i am facing fragmentation error. The code crashed. Can someone enlighten?

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  • DDD and Entity Base, Model using multiple identity types

    - by Thomas
    I have a model that looks like this: public interface IEntity { int Id { get; set; } } Then the idea is to have my entities inherit from this interface: public class User : IEntity { public int Id { get; set; } } However, one of my entities actually has a Guid as an identifier. public class UserSession { public Guid Id { get; set; } } I really would like all my entities inheriting from the same interface but that would force me to add an integer based identity column to the UserSession which is unnecessary since Guid is the identity, but it would keep the domain model nice since all entities would inherit from the same base. What options do I have in this scenario? Can I have two base interfaces, one for int and one for Guid? Should I add an identity column into the UserSession entity although it is unnecessary? I need the Guid so I can't just get rid of it and replace it with and integer. Any thoughts on best practices?

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  • Silverlight WinDg Memory Release Issue

    - by Chris Newton
    Hi, I have used WinDbg succesfully on a number of occasions to track down and fix memory leaks (or more accurately the CLRs inability to garbage collect a released object), but am stuck with one particular control. The control is displayed within a child window and when the window is closed a reference to the control remains and cannot be garbage collected. I have resolved what I believe to be the majority of the issues that could have caused the leak, but the !gcroot of the affected object is not clear (to me at least) as to what is still holding on to this object. The ouput is always the same regardless of the content being presented in the child window: DOMAIN(03FB7238):HANDLE(Pinned):79b12f8:Root: 06704260(System.Object[])- 05719f00(System.Collections.Generic.Dictionary2[[System.IntPtr, mscorlib],[System.Object, mscorlib]])-> 067c1310(System.Collections.Generic.Dictionary2+Entry[[System.IntPtr, mscorlib],[System.Object, mscorlib]][])- 064d42b0(System.Windows.Controls.Grid)- 064d4314(System.Collections.Generic.Dictionary2[[MS.Internal.IManagedPeerBase, System.Windows],[System.Object, mscorlib]])-> 064d4360(System.Collections.Generic.Dictionary2+Entry[[MS.Internal.IManagedPeerBase, System.Windows],[System.Object, mscorlib]][])- 064d3860(System.Windows.Controls.Border)- 064d4218(System.Collections.Generic.Dictionary2[[MS.Internal.IManagedPeerBase, System.Windows],[System.Object, mscorlib]])-> 064d4264(System.Collections.Generic.Dictionary2+Entry[[MS.Internal.IManagedPeerBase, System.Windows],[System.Object, mscorlib]][])- 064d3bfc(System.Windows.Controls.ContentPresenter)- 064d3d64(System.Collections.Generic.Dictionary2[[MS.Internal.IManagedPeerBase, System.Windows],[System.Object, mscorlib]])-> 064d3db0(System.Collections.Generic.Dictionary2+Entry[[MS.Internal.IManagedPeerBase, System.Windows],[System.Object, mscorlib]][])- 064d3dec(System.Collections.Generic.Dictionary2[[System.UInt32, mscorlib],[System.Windows.DependencyObject, System.Windows]])-> 064d3e38(System.Collections.Generic.Dictionary2+Entry[[System.UInt32, mscorlib],[System.Windows.DependencyObject, System.Windows]][])- 06490b04(Insurer.Analytics.SharedResources.Controls.HistoricalKPIViewerControl) If anyone has any ideas about what could potentially be the problem, or if you require more information, please let me know. Kind Regards, Chris

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  • Using ADO.NET Entities LINQ Provider to model complex SQL Queries?

    - by Ivan Zlatanov
    What I find really powerful in ADO.NET Entities or LINQ to SQL, is the ability to model complex queries. I really don't need the mappings that Entities or LINQ to SQL are doing for me - I just need the ability to model complex expressions that can be translated into T-SQL. My question is - am I abusing too much? Can I use the Entity Framework for modeling queries and just that? Should I? I know I can write my own custom LINQ to SQL provider, but that is just not possible to handle in the time spans I have. What is the best approach to model complex T-SQL queries? How do you handle conditional group byes, orders, joins, unions etc in the OOP world? Using StringBuilders for this kind of job feels too ugly and harder to maintain given the possibilities we have with Expression Trees. When I use StringBuilder to model a complex SQL Query I feel kind of guilty! I feel the same way as when I have to hard code any number into my code that is different than 0 or 1. Feeling that makes you ask yourself if there is a better and cleaner way of doing it... I must mention that I am using C# 4.0, but I am not specifically looking for an answer in this language, but rather in the domain of CLR 4.

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  • Question about how to implement a c# host application with a plugin-like architecture

    - by devoured elysium
    I want to have an application that works as a Host to many other small applications. Each one of those applications should work as kind of plugin to this main application. I call them plugins not in the sense they add something to the main application, but because they can only work with this Host application as they depend on some of its services. My idea was to have each of those plugins run in a different app domain. The problem seems to be that my host application should have a set of services that my plugins will want to use and from what is my understanding making data flow in and out from different app domains is not that great of a thing. On one hand I'd like them to behave as stand-alone applications(although, as I said, they need to use lots of times the host application services), but on the other hand I'd like that if any of them crashes, my main application wouldn't suffer from it. What is the best (.NET) approach to this kind of situation? Make them all run on the same AppDomain but each one in a different Thread? Use different AppDomains? One for each "plugin"? How would I make them communicate with the Host Application? Any other way of doing this? Although speed is not an issue here, I wouldn't like for function calls to be that much slower than they are when we're working with just a regular .NET application. Thanks

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  • Not able to connect to TFS Server from TFS Proxy

    - by GV India
    In our office we have setup TFS for project development. The TFS Server is WIN 2003 server SP2 with VSTFS 2008 and is running fine. Now we need to setup a TFS Proxy server on client site for client to access. Before going for the client setup, I wanted to build and test proxy in our office on a dummy server (will call it Proxy server hereon) by keeping it on a different domain. OS configuration of the Proxy server is the same as TFS server. I have installed and configured TFS proxy on Proxy server to connect to TFS Server. Also we have built trust between the two different domains to enable communication. Now problem is that I am not able to at all connect to TFS server. I am trying to connect from Internet Explorer of proxy server using proxy service account. It gives me error: The page cannot be displayed. HTTP 500 - Internal server error. The page I was browsing was http://tfs:8080/VersionControl/v1.0/ProxyStatistics.asmx. I think I have done all the required steps correctly to configure proxy as described in MSDN and also TFS installation guide. Here Proxy service account is a member of ‘Team Foundation Valid Users’ group. I am able to connect to TFS Server (specifying port) using Telnet from command prompt on proxy server as suggested by few sites. The TFS server web sites have been configured to use Integration Windows Authentication. Event Logs on both the servers are also not giving any error. Overall I’m not able to get it done. Any ideas on what might be the problem???

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  • Hide a single content block from search engines?

    - by jonas
    A header is automatically added on top of each content URL, but its not relevant for search and messing up the all the results beeing the first line of every page (in the code its the last line but visually its the first, which google is able to notice) Solution1: You could put the header (content to exculde from google searches) in an iframe with a static url domain.com/header.html and a <meta name="robots" content="noindex" /> ? - are there takeoffs of this solution? Solution2: You could deliver it conditionally by apache mod rewrite, php or javascript -takeoff(?): google does not like it? will google ever try pages with a standard users's useragent and compare? -takeoff: The hidden content will be missing in the google cache version as well... example: add-header.php: <?php $path = $_GET['path']; echo file_get_contents($_SERVER["DOCUMENT_ROOT"].$path); ?> apache virtual host config: RewriteCond %{HTTP_USER_AGENT} !.*spider.* [NC] RewriteCond %{HTTP_USER_AGENT} !Yahoo.* [NC] RewriteCond %{HTTP_USER_AGENT} !Bing.* [NC] RewriteCond %{HTTP_USER_AGENT} !Yandex.* [NC] RewriteCond %{HTTP_USER_AGENT} !Baidu.* [NC] RewriteCond %{HTTP_USER_AGENT} !.*bot.* [NC] RewriteCond %{SCRIPT_FILENAME} \.htm$ [NC,OR] RewriteCond %{SCRIPT_FILENAME} \.html$ [NC,OR] RewriteCond %{SCRIPT_FILENAME} \.php$ [NC] RewriteRule ^(.*)$ /var/www/add-header.php?path=%1 [L]

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  • Stopping/Removing an embedded player.

    - by Rajat
    Hi, I am working on a webpage where i have to include an embedded video.The video is hosted on some other domain.I am able to embed the video and autoplay once the web page is loaded.However i have a requirement where i have to remove the div displaying the video once it is played , and in place of the video i have to now display some text. The problem is i am able to do autoplay by the autostart variable in the embed tag...but how do i know that the video has ended.The hosting company only provides an embed tag and they donot have any player apis to use. One way (or rather a workaround) that i feel is to start a eventlistener in the background and see for the total time of the video and when that time is reached remove the content.But the problem is what if the user pauses the video, then also the div would be deleted. I am new to flash.Are there some standard variables or actions that we can pass as flashvars to a swf file to stop a running player or to know the state of the player (Note we are only getting an embed tag from the video hosting site so we donot own that code and they donot have much documenation to help me out with the code). Thanks for your help.

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  • JavaScript cookie value can't be retrieved in Django

    - by Boris Rusev
    I am trying to build a web site in both English and Bulgarian using the Django framework. My idea is the user should click on a button, the page will reload and the language will be changed. This is how I am trying to do it: In my html I hava a the button tag <button id='btn' onclick="changeLanguage();" type="button"> ... </button> An excerpt from cookies.js: function changeLanguage() { if (getCookie('language') == 'EN') { document.getElementById('btn').innerHTML = getCookie('language'); setCookie("language", 'BG'); } else { document.getElementById('btn').innerHTML = getCookie('language'); setCookie("language", 'EN'); } } function setCookie(sName, sValue, oExpires, sPath, sDomain, bSecure) { var sCookie = sName + "=" + encodeURIComponent(sValue); if (oExpires) { sCookie += "; expires=" + oExpires.toGMTString(); } if (sPath) { sCookie += "; path=" + sPath; } if (sDomain) { sCookie += "; domain=" + sDomain; } if (bSecure) { sCookie += "; secure"; } document.cookie = sCookie; } And in my views.py file this is the situation @base def index(request): if request.session['language'] == 'EN': return """<b>%s</b>""" % "Home" else request.session['language'] == 'BG': return """<b>%s</b>""" % "??????" So I know that my JS changes the value of the language cookie but I think Django doesn't get that. On the other hand when I set and get the cookie in my Python code again the cookie is set. My question is whether there is a way to make JS and Django work together - JavaScript sets the cookie value and Python only reads it when asked and takes adequate actions? Thank you.

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  • Why does Hibernate 2nd level cache only cache queries within a session?

    - by Synesso
    Using a named query in our application and with ehcache as the provider, it seems that the query results are tied to the session within the cache. Any attempt to access the value from the cache for a second time results in a LazyInitializationException We have set lazy = true for the following mapping because this object is also used by another part of the system which does not require the reference... and we want to keep it lean. <class name="domain.ReferenceAdPoint" table="ad_point" mutable="false" lazy="false"> <cache usage="read-only"/> <id name="code" type="long" column="ad_point_id"> <generator class="assigned" /> </id> <property name="name" column="ad_point_description" type="string"/> <set name="synonyms" table="ad_point_synonym" cascade="all-delete-orphan" lazy="true"> <cache usage="read-only"/> <key column="ad_point_id" /> <element type="string" column="synonym_description" /> </set> </class> <query name="find.adpoints.by.heading">from ReferenceAdPoint adpoint left outer join fetch adpoint.synonyms where adpoint.adPointField.headingCode = ?</query> Here's a snippet from our hibernate.cfg.xml <property name="hibernate.cache.provider_class">net.sf.ehcache.hibernate.SingletonEhCacheProvider</property> <property name="hibernate.cache.use_query_cache">true</property> It doesn't seem to make sense that the cache would be constrained to the session. Why are the cached queries not usable outside of the (relatively short-lived) sessions?

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  • Why Firebug pretends that my stylesheet is calling my xmlrpc ?

    - by Rebol Tutorial
    Firebug shows a request which causes a huge delay to http://reboltutorial.com/wp-content/themes/minaflow/none Details below but I don't understand why it says it comes from xmlrpc and the stylesheet: Date Sun, 04 Apr 2010 16:10:02 GMT Server Apache X-Powered-By PHP/5.2.13 X-Pingback http://reboltutorial.com/xmlrpc.php Expires Wed, 11 Jan 1984 05:00:00 GMT Cache-Control no-cache, must-revalidate, max-age=0 Pragma no-cache Set-Cookie wordpress_test_cookie=WP+Cookie+check; path=/; domain=.reboltutorial.com Last-Modified Sun, 04 Apr 2010 16:10:03 GMT Vary Accept-Encoding Content-Encoding gzip Keep-Alive timeout=2, max=94 Connection Keep-Alive Transfer-Encoding chunked Content-Type text/html; charset=UTF-8 Requêtemise en page impression GET /wp-content/themes/minaflow/none HTTP/1.1 Host: reboltutorial.com User-Agent: Mozilla/5.0 (Windows; U; Windows NT 6.1; fr; rv:1.9.2) Gecko/20100115 Firefox/3.6 Accept: image/png,image/*;q=0.8,*/*;q=0.5 Accept-Language: fr,fr-fr;q=0.8,en-us;q=0.5,en;q=0.3 Accept-Encoding: gzip,deflate Accept-Charset: ISO-8859-1,utf-8;q=0.7,*;q=0.7 Keep-Alive: 115 Connection: keep-alive Referer: http://reboltutorial.com/wp-content/themes/minaflow/style.css Cookie: _csoot=1267966575980; _csuid=4b6f27395991a2ff; wp-settings-1=editor%3Dhtml%26align%3Dleft%26m0%3Do%26m1%3Do%26m2%3Do%26m3%3Dc%26m4%3Do%26m5%3Dc%26m6%3Do%26m7%3Do%26m8%3Dc%26m9%3Dc%26m10%3Dc%26m11%3Do%26m12%3Dc%26m13%3Dc%26m14%3Dc%26m15%3Dc; wp-settings-time-1=1270384700; subscribe_checkbox_=unchecked; PHPSESSID=o70hjpjf7uj2hb4doe4k0o5co5; wordpress_test_cookie=WP+Cookie+check; xumgeqhxmhohxipF=Erjixxeeskfgnlba; SJECT=CKON; wordpress_=admin%7C1271592539%7C392c555d9051c6fa184074d8441cc472; wordpress_logged_in_=admin%7C1271592539%7C0e7a92bda53cc2f5afc32962237a1037; rcBDvgtspmuEsyzp=rmqjtFbCfheGCjBw; prli_click_15=creatingstandard; prli_visitor=m7928r

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  • Going "behind Hibernate's back" to update foreign key values without an associated entity

    - by Alex Cruise
    Updated: I wound up "solving" the problem by doing the opposite! I now have the entity reference field set as read-only (insertable=false updatable=false), and the foreign key field read-write. This means I need to take special care when saving new entities, but on querying, the entity properties get resolved for me. I have a bidirectional one-to-many association in my domain model, where I'm using JPA annotations and Hibernate as the persistence provider. It's pretty much your bog-standard parent/child configuration, with one difference being that I want to expose the parent's foreign key as a separate property of the child alongside the reference to a parent instance, like so: @Entity public class Child { @Id @GeneratedValue Long id; @Column(name="parent_id", insertable=false, updatable=false) private Long parentId; @ManyToOne(cascade=CascadeType.ALL) @JoinColumn(name="parent_id") private Parent parent; private long timestamp; } @Entity public class Parent { @Id @GeneratedValue Long id; @OrderBy("timestamp") @OneToMany(mappedBy="parent", cascade=CascadeType.ALL, fetch=FetchType.LAZY) private List<Child> children; } This works just fine most of the time, but there are many (legacy) cases when I'd like to put an invalid value in the parent_id column without having to create a bogus Parent first. Unfortunately, Hibernate won't save values assigned to the parentId field due to insertable=false, updatable=false, which it requires when the same column is mapped to multiple properties. Is there any nice way to "go behind Hibernate's back" and sneak values into that field without having to drop down to JDBC or implement an interceptor? Thanks!

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  • AppDomain.Unload doesn't release the assembly I loaded up with Reflection

    Hi All, I am struggling with an issue while loading an assembly up in a temporary AppDomain to read its GetUsedReferences property. Once I do that, I call AppDomain.Unload(tempDomain) and then I try to clean up my mess by deleting the files. That fails because the file is locked. I Unloaded the temporary domain though! Any thoughts or suggestions would be greately appreciated. Here is some of my code: //I already have btyes for the .dll and the .pdb from the actual files AppDomainSetup domainSetup = new AppDomainSetup(); domainSetup.ApplicationBase = Environment.CurrentDirectory; domainSetup.ShadowCopyFiles = "true"; domainSetup.CachePath = Environment.CurrentDirectory; AppDomain tempAppDomain = AppDomain.CreateDomain("TempAppDomain", AppDomain.CurrentDomain.Evidence, domainSetup); //Load up the temp assembly and do stuff Assembly projectAssembly = tempAppDomain.Load(assemblyFileBuffer, symbolsFileBuffer); //Then I'm trying to clean up AppDomain.Unload(tempAppDomain); tempAppDomain = null; File.Delete(tempAssemblyFile); //I even try to force GC File.Delete(tempSymbolsFile); Anyway, the Deletes fail because the files are locked still. Shouldn't they be released because I Unloaded the temporary AppDomain?!?!?! Thanks in advance, Dan

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  • Executing untrusted code

    - by MainMa
    Hi, I'm building a C# application which uses plug-ins. The application must guarantee to the user that plug-ins will not do whatever they want on the user machine, and will have less privileges that the application itself (for example, the application can access its own log files, whereas plug-ins cannot). I considered three alternatives. Using System.AddIn. I tried this alternative first, because it seamed much powerful, but I'm really disappointed by the need of modifying the same code seven times in seven different projects each time I want to modify something. Besides, there is a huge number of problems to solve even for a simple Hello World application. Using System.Activator.CreateInstance(assemblyName, typeName). This is what I used in the preceding version of the application. I can't use it nevermore, because it does not provide a way to restrict permissions. Using System.Activator.CreateInstance(AppDomain domain, [...]). That's what I'm trying to implement now, but it seems that the only way to do that is to pass through ObjectHandle, which requires serialization for every used class. Although plug-ins contain WPF UserControls, which are not serializable. So is there a way to create plug-ins containing UserControls or other non serializable objects and to execute those plug-ins with a custom PermissionSet ?

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  • nginx 0.7.65 rewrite url with querystring problem?

    - by WisdomFusion
    Hi, all Recently, I altered my web server lighty to nginx. And now, Struggling with some problems. First, I have a site in nginx which only rewrites urls and redircts them to a new domain, and this site has exactly no file in its root directory. I put some rewrite rules (just string rules, no querystring) in my nginx.conf list 1 rewrite ^/index_([0-9]+)(.*)$ /forum-$1-1.html last; rewrite ^/dispbbs_([0-9]+)_([0-9]+)\.html$ /thread-$2-1-1.html last; Those rules work perfect till now. However, some rules that used to rewrite url with querystring do not work as hoped. list 2 location /index.asp { if ($arg_boardid ~ "^([0-9]+)") { rewrite ^ /forum-$arg_boardid-1.html break; } rewrite ^ /index.php break; } location /dispbbs.asp { rewrite ^ /thread-$arg_id-1-1.html break; } And, these rules are converted from rules under httpd server, list 3 ^/dispbbs\.asp\?boardID=([0-9]+)&ID=([0-9]+).*$ /thread-$2-1-1.html; ^/dispbbs\.asp\?(.*)&id=([0-9]+)(.*)$ /thread-$2-1-1.html; ^/index\.asp\?boardid=([0-9]+)(.*)$ /forum-$1-1.html; ^/index\.asp\?boardid=([0-9]+)$ /forum-$1-1.html; ^/index\.asp$ /index.php; So, what's the matter with rules listed in the list 2? and how could I make it woking. V/R, gavin

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