Search Results

Search found 15578 results on 624 pages for 'place and route'.

Page 494/624 | < Previous Page | 490 491 492 493 494 495 496 497 498 499 500 501  | Next Page >

  • How does 'lazy' work?

    - by Matt Fenwick
    What is the difference between these two functions? I see that lazy is intended to be lazy, but I don't understand how that is accomplished. -- | Identity function. id :: a -> a id x = x -- | The call '(lazy e)' means the same as 'e', but 'lazy' has a -- magical strictness property: it is lazy in its first argument, -- even though its semantics is strict. lazy :: a -> a lazy x = x -- Implementation note: its strictness and unfolding are over-ridden -- by the definition in MkId.lhs; in both cases to nothing at all. -- That way, 'lazy' does not get inlined, and the strictness analyser -- sees it as lazy. Then the worker/wrapper phase inlines it. -- Result: happiness Tracking down the note in MkId.lhs (hopefully this is the right note and version, sorry if it's not): Note [lazyId magic] ~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~ lazy :: forall a?. a? -> a? (i.e. works for unboxed types too) Used to lazify pseq: pseq a b = a `seq` lazy b Also, no strictness: by being a built-in Id, all the info about lazyId comes from here, not from GHC.Base.hi. This is important, because the strictness analyser will spot it as strict! Also no unfolding in lazyId: it gets "inlined" by a HACK in CorePrep. It's very important to do this inlining after unfoldings are exposed in the interface file. Otherwise, the unfolding for (say) pseq in the interface file will not mention 'lazy', so if we inline 'pseq' we'll totally miss the very thing that 'lazy' was there for in the first place. See Trac #3259 for a real world example. lazyId is defined in GHC.Base, so we don't have to inline it. If it appears un-applied, we'll end up just calling it. I don't understand that because it refers to lazyId instead of lazy. How does lazy work?

    Read the article

  • WPF animation/UI features performance and benchmarking

    - by Rich
    I'm working on a relatively small proof-of-concept for some line of business stuff with some fancy WPF UI work. Without even going too crazy, I'm already seeing some really poor performance when using a lot of the features that I thought were the main reason to consider WPF for UI building in the first place. I asked a question on here about why my animation was being stalled the first time it was run, and at the end what I found was that a very simple UserControl was taking almost half a second just to build its visual tree. I was able to get a work around to the symptom, but the fact that it takes that long to initialize a simple control really bothers me. Now, I'm testing my animation with and without the DropShadowEffect, and the result is night and day. A subtle drop shadow makes my control look so much nicer, but it completely ruins the smoothness of the animation. Let me not even start with the font rendering either. The calculation of my animations when the control has a bunch of gradient brushes and a drop shadow make the text blurry for about a full second and then slowly come into focus. So, I guess my question is if there are known studies, blog posts, or articles detailing which features are a hazard in the current version of WPF for business critical applications. Are things like Effects (ie. DropShadowEffect), gradient brushes, key frame animations, etc going to have too much of a negative effect on render quality (or maybe the combinations of these things)? Is the final version of WPF 4.0 going to correct some of these issues? I've read that VS2010 beta has some of these same issues and that they are supposed to be resolved by final release. Is that because of improvements to WPF itself or because half of the application will be rebuilt with the previous technology?

    Read the article

  • classpath and class loading on weblogic

    - by qjeta
    Hello, I am trying to create and load dynamically classes in weblogic (10.3.2.0). It is ADF application which I deploy to the weblogic server. When I print ((GenericClassLoader)this.getClass().getClassLoader()).getFinderClassPath() I see the path to my directory (of course not just this path) C:\...\system11.1.1.2.36.55.36\DefaultDomain\servers\DefaultServer\tmp\_WL_user\test\753the\dynamicClasses (I have added directory dynamicClasses to manifest for deployment WAR profile). In this directory I create class files. I have checked it, files are really created there. When I try to load created class with the same classloader, for which I have printed classpath, ClassNotFoundException is thrown. It knows the path to the directory with classes and to jar file, but it doesn't load classes. With URLClassLoader I can load classes. But I need so that my classes would be seen by the classes loaded "usual" way. I am able to run it correctly just with system CLASSPATH. Please, do you know an explanation? Is the manifest file in WAR the wrong place for specifiing classpath? Thank you in advance Qjeta

    Read the article

  • AMF data is incomplete with Flex Service

    - by Tom
    Hello everybody. I am bussy with a Flex Project with a data services. Flash builder installed Zend Framework with Zend_Amf. When i run the project i get the error NetConnection.Call.Failed: HTTP: Failed. With chalers i say that Zend_Amf give the error: AMF data is incomplete (0 bytes of 0 bytes). Please check the recording limits in the Recording Settings. I don't know what the problem means. I have searched on google, but i haven't found a good result. The Flex project code is: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <s:Application xmlns:fx="http://ns.adobe.com/mxml/2009" xmlns:s="library://ns.adobe.com/flex/spark" xmlns:mx="library://ns.adobe.com/flex/mx" minWidth="955" minHeight="600" xmlns:authservice="services.authservice.*"> <fx:Script> <![CDATA[ import mx.controls.Alert; protected function click_me_clickHandler(event:MouseEvent):void { text.text += "Test started"; testmeResult.token = authService.testme(); text.text += testmeResult.lastResult text.text += "Test ended"; } ]]> </fx:Script> <fx:Declarations> <s:CallResponder id="testmeResult"/> <authservice:AuthService id="authService" fault="Alert.show(event.fault.faultString + '\n' + event.fault.faultDetail)" showBusyCursor="true"/> <!-- Place non-visual elements (e.g., services, value objects) here --> </fx:Declarations> <s:Button x="124" y="85" label="Click Me!" id="click_me" click="click_me_clickHandler(event)"/> <s:RichText x="58" y="114" width="238" height="182" id="text"/> </s:Application> The php code is: <?php class AuthService { public function testme() { return 'ik ben getest op'+date('d-m-Y H:i:s', time()); } }?> Please, help me!

    Read the article

  • This is more a matlab/math brain teaser than a question

    - by gd047
    Here is the setup. No assumptions for the values I am using. n=2; % dimension of vectors x and (square) matrix P r=2; % number of x vectors and P matrices x1 = [3;5] x2 = [9;6] x = cat(2,x1,x2) P1 = [6,11;15,-1] P2 = [2,21;-2,3] P(:,1)=P1(:) P(:,2)=P2(:) modePr = [-.4;16] TransPr=[5.9,0.1;20.2,-4.8] pred_modePr = TransPr'*modePr MixPr = TransPr.*(modePr*(pred_modePr.^(-1))') x0 = x*MixPr Then it was time to apply the following formula to get myP , where µij is MixPr. I used this code to get it: myP=zeros(n*n,r); Ptables(:,:,1)=P1; Ptables(:,:,2)=P2; for j=1:r for i = 1:r; temp = MixPr(i,j)*(Ptables(:,:,i) + ... (x(:,i)-x0(:,j))*(x(:,i)-x0(:,j))'); myP(:,j)= myP(:,j) + temp(:); end end Some brilliant guy proposed this formula as another way to produce myP for j=1:r xk1=x(:,j); PP=xk1*xk1'; PP0(:,j)=PP(:); xk1=x0(:,j); PP=xk1*xk1'; PP1(:,j)=PP(:); end myP = (P+PP0)*MixPr-PP1 I tried to formulate the equality between the two methods and seems to be this one. To make things easier, I ignored from both methods the summation of matrix P. where the first part denotes the formula that I used, while the second comes from his code snippet. Do you think this is an obvious equality? If yes, ignore all the above and just try to explain why. I could only start from the LHS, and after some algebra I think I proved it equals to the RHS. However I can't see how did he (or she) think of it in the first place.

    Read the article

  • what's the correct way to release a new website?

    - by kk
    so i've been working on a website on and off for about a year now, and i'm finally at a point where it's functional enough to test out in a sort of private beta (not ready for live release). but i never thought about the correct process for doing this and what things i need to take care of. i've never released a public website before. some of the questions/concerns i have in mind: 1) is it against my MSDN license agreement to release a website using the software? 2) how do i protect my "idea"? is it a bad idea to find random people you don't know to test out your site? can you make them digitally sign some sort of NDA? 3) i'm using some open source code - any proper way to release open source code to live production? 4) how much traffic can a place like discountasp.net handle anyway? can hosting sites generally handle large volume of traffic? any comments/suggestions regarding the proper/safe way to release a public website would be appreciated. i've been working on this for a while and never actually sat down to think about the right way to move from a personal side project to a live production website.

    Read the article

  • C# using consts in static classes

    - by NickLarsen
    I was plugging away on an open source project this past weekend when I ran into a bit of code that confused me to look up the usage in the C# specification. The code in questions is as follows: internal static class SomeStaticClass { private const int CommonlyUsedValue = 42; internal static string UseCommonlyUsedValue(...) { // some code value = CommonlyUsedValue + ...; return value.ToString(); } } I was caught off guard because this appears to be a non static field being used by a static function which some how compiled just fine in a static class! The specification states (§10.4): A constant-declaration may include a set of attributes (§17), a new modifier (§10.3.4), and a valid combination of the four access modifiers (§10.3.5). The attributes and modifiers apply to all of the members declared by the constant-declaration. Even though constants are considered static members, a constant-declaration neither requires nor allows a static modifier. It is an error for the same modifier to appear multiple times in a constant declaration. So now it makes a little more sense because constants are considered static members, but the rest of the sentence is a bit surprising to me. Why is it that a constant-declaration neither requires nor allows a static modifier? Admittedly I did not know the spec well enough for this to immediately make sense in the first place, but why was the decision made to not force constants to use the static modifier if they are considered constants? Looking at the last sentence in that paragraph, I cannot figure out if it is regarding the previous statement directly and there is some implicit static modifier on constants to begin with, or if it stands on its own as another rule for constants. Can anyone help me clear this up?

    Read the article

  • Some general C questions.

    - by b-gen-jack-o-neill
    Hello. I am trying to fully understand the process pro writing code in some language to execution by OS. In my case, the language would be C and the OS would be Windows. So far, I read many different articles, but I am not sure, whether I understand the process right, and I would like to ask you if you know some good articles on some subjects I couldn´t find. So, what I think I know about C (and basically other languages): C compiler itself handles only data types, basic math operations, pointers operations, and work with functions. By work with functions I mean how to pass argument to it, and how to get output from function. During compilation, function call is replaced by passing arguments to stack, and than if function is not inline, its call is replaced by some symbol for linker. Linker than find the function definition, and replace the symbol to jump adress to that function (and of course than jump back to program). If the above is generally true and I get it right, where to final .exe file actually linker saves the functions? After the main() function? And what creates the .exe header? Compiler or Linker? Now, additional capabilities of C, today known as C standart library is set of functions and the declarations of them, that other programmers wrote to extend and simplify use of C language. But these functions like printf() were (or could be?) written in different language, or assembler. And there comes my next question, can be, for example printf() function be written in pure C without use of assembler? I know this is quite big question, but I just mostly want to know, wheather I am right or not. And trust me, I read a lots of articles on the web, and I would not ask you, If I could find these infromation together on one place, in one article. Insted I must piece by piece gather informations, so I am not sure if I am right. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Rails RJS template displays code instead of the html page

    - by Anand
    After having Googled and hurting my brain for hours on this, I finally decided to post this question. Here's the code... view1.html.erb -------------- <%=link_to_remote_redbox "Link", :url => {:action => :action1, :id => @some.id} some_controller.rb ------------------ def action1 render :layout => false end def action2 do some processing end action1.html.erb -------------------- <form onsubmit="new Ajax.Request('/some_controller/action2', {asynchronous:true, evalScripts:true, onComplete:function(request){RedBox.close(); return false;}, parameters:Form.serialize(this)}); return false;}" method="post" action="/some_controller/action2"> <input type=text name='username'> <input type='submit' value='submit'> </form> action2.rjs ----------- page.replace_html("some_div", (render(:partial => "some_partial"))) with that code in place when action2.rjs kicks in it should display the html page instead I am getting this Element.update("some_div", "<style type=\"text/css\">\n\n.............. As suggested on other posts I read, they say its caused because of the ":update = some_div" in the link_to_remote_redbox function but clearly my code doesn't have that. Help is always appreciated. Many Thanks

    Read the article

  • Using TextWraping within a TextBox, inside a Grid for use within a ListBox in WP7

    - by Adam Goodchild
    I am trying to get my data to display properly within a GridLayout, which is to be used as a DataTemplate for an Item within ListBox. Here is the code associated with what I am doing: <Grid Name="FeedItemTemplate"> <Grid.RowDefinitions> <RowDefinition Height="Auto" /> <RowDefinition Height="Auto" /> </Grid.RowDefinitions> <Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <ColumnDefinition Width="Auto" /> <ColumnDefinition Width="*" /> <ColumnDefinition Width="Auto" /> </Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <Image Source="{Binding ProfileImage}" Grid.RowSpan="2" Height="75" Width="75" VerticalAlignment="Center" Margin="1" /> <TextBlock Text="{Binding UserName}" Grid.Column="1" Foreground="#FFC8AB14" FontSize="28" HorizontalAlignment="Left"/> <TextBlock Text="{Binding TimeStamp}" Grid.Column="2" TextWrapping="Wrap" FontSize="18" HorizontalAlignment="Center"/> <TextBlock Text="{Binding Message}" Grid.Column="1" Grid.Row="1" Grid.ColumnSpan="2" TextWrapping="Wrap" FontSize="24" /> </Grid> The issue is that using this layout, when TextWrapping is set to Wrap, the Item is displayed correctly, but when scrolling through the ListBox everything is really jittery, you cannot scroll in small increments, and it just jumps all over the place. Any reason why it does this? As I said, only when TextWrapping is set to Wrap it does this. When its not used, it scrolls fine, but the text is all along one line and off the screen.

    Read the article

  • REST application, Transactions, Cache drop

    - by Julian Davchev
    Hi, I am building REST API in php with memcache layer on top for caching all resources. After some reading experience it turns out it's best when documents are as simple as posible...mainly due to dropping cache sequences. So if there is 'building','room' entities for the 'room' document I would only place the id of the 'building' and not the whole data of it. Then on api client side I would merge data as needed. Problem becomes when I need to update/insert (most cases more than one table). I update one resource but on second update system fails or whatever and there becomes database inconsistancies. I see several solutions: 1. Implement rest transactions which I find wrong and complex as idea is to be stateless and easy. 2. On update/insert actions I pass more complex data (not single entities) so I can force transactions on API level. But this will make it weird that your GET document structure is same as PUT document structure. And again somehow make drop sequences complex. Any pointers are more than welcome. Cheers,

    Read the article

  • What Is The Proper Location For One-Offs In VCS Repos?

    - by Joe Clark
    I have recently started using Mercurial as our VCS. Over the years, I have used RCS, CVS, and - for the last 5 years - SVN. Back 13 years ago, when I primarily used CVS and RCS, large projects went into CVS and one-offs were edited in place on the specific server and stored in RCS. This worked well as the one-offs were usually specific to the server and the servers were backed up nightly. Jump forward a decade and a lot of the one-off scripts became less centralized - they might be needed on any server at some random time. This was also OK, because now I was a begrudging SVN user. Everything (except for docs) got dumped into one repo. Jump to 2010. Now I am using Mercurial and am putting large projects in their own repo again. But what to do with the one-offs? The options as I see them: A repo for each script. It seems a bit cluttered to create a repo for every one page script that might get ran once a year. RCS Not an option. There are many possible servers that might need a specific script. Continuing to use SVN just for one-offs. No. There no advantage I see over the next option. Create a repo in Mercurial named "one-offs". This seems the most workable. The last option seems the best to me - however; is there a best practice regarding this? You also might be wondering if these scripts are truly one-offs if they will be reused. Some of them may be reused 6 months or a year from now - some, never. However, nearly all of them involve several man-hours of work due to either complex logic or extensive error checking. Simply discarding them is not efficient.

    Read the article

  • remove an ASIHTTPRequest thread when it is done

    - by user262325
    Hello everyone I have a project in which it runs 5 download threads - (void)fetchThisURLFiveTimes:(NSURL *)url { [myProgressIndicator setProgress:0]; NSLog(@"Value: %f", [myProgressIndicator progress]); [myQueue cancelAllOperations]; [myQueue setDownloadProgressDelegate:myProgressIndicator]; [myQueue setDelegate:self]; [myQueue setRequestDidFinishSelector:@selector(queueComplete:)]; int i; for (i=0; i<5; i++) { ASIHTTPRequest *request = [ASIHTTPRequest requestWithURL:url]; [request setDidFinishSelector:@selector(requestDone:)]; [request setDelegate:self]; [myQueue addOperation:request]; } [myQueue go]; } - (void)requestWentDone:(ASIHTTPRequest *)request { //.. } - (void)queueComplete:(ASINetworkQueue *)queue { NSLog(@"Value: %f", [myProgressIndicator progress]); } I hope to remove a thread when it is done. I do not know where I need to place my codes: requestWentDone:(ASIHTTPRequest *)request or queueComplete:(ASINetworkQueue *)queue I noticed there is no tag property for request, so I added it to ASIHTTPRequest to help me recognize which thread prompts the function reuqestWentDone, I can get the tag of different request, but I do not know how to remove the ASIHTTPRequest thread from myQueue. Welcome any comment Thanks interdev

    Read the article

  • pthread windows event equivalent question

    - by ScaryAardvark
    I have the following code which replicates the windows manual and auto reset events. class event { public: event( bool signalled = false, bool ar = true ) : _auto( ar ), _signalled( signalled ) { pthread_mutex_init( &_mutex, NULL ); pthread_cond_init( &_cond, NULL ); } ~event() { pthread_cond_destroy( &_cond ); pthread_mutex_destroy( &_mutex ); } void set() { pthread_mutex_lock( &_mutex ); // only set and signal if we are unset if ( _signalled == false ) { _signalled = true; pthread_cond_signal( &_cond ); } pthread_mutex_unlock( &_mutex ); } void wait() { pthread_mutex_lock( &_mutex ); while ( _signalled == false ) { pthread_cond_wait( &_cond, &_mutex ); } // if we're an autoreset event, auto reset if ( _auto ) { _signalled = false; } pthread_mutex_unlock( &_mutex ); } void reset() { pthread_mutex_lock( &_mutex ); _signalled = false; pthread_mutex_unlock( &_mutex ); } private: pthread_mutex_t _mutex; pthread_cond_t _cond; bool _signalled; bool _auto; }; My question surrounds the "optimisation" I've put in place in the set() method where I only call pthread_cond_signal() if the event was unsignalled. Is this a valid optimisation or have I introduced some subtle flaw by doing so.

    Read the article

  • Determing size of visible area of a ScrollingGraphicalViewer in Eclipse GEF

    - by Simon
    I am attempting to create a simple application using Eclipse GEF that displays a diagram inside a ScrollingGraphicalViewer. On start-up I want the diagram to be centered inside the viewer (imagine a star layout where the center of the star is in the center of the view). Here are what I think are the relevant code sections: My view: public class View extends ViewPart { public static final String ID = "GEFProofOfConcept.view"; ... public void createPartControl(Composite parent) { viewer.createControl(parent); viewer.setRootEditPart(rootEditPart); viewer.setEditPartFactory(editPartFactory); viewer.setContents(DummyModelCreator.generateModel()); } The edit part code: @Override protected void refreshVisuals() { Project project = (Project) getModel(); // This is where the actual drawing is done, // Simply a rectangle with text Rectangle bounds = new Rectangle(50, 50, 75, 50); getFigure().setBounds(bounds); Label label = new Label(project.getName()); projectFont = new Font(null, "Arial", 6, SWT.NORMAL); label.setFont(projectFont); label.setTextAlignment(PositionConstants.CENTER); label.setBounds(bounds.crop(IFigure.NO_INSETS)); getFigure().add(label); setLocation(); } private void setLocation() { Project project = (Project) getModel(); if (project.isRoot()) { // Place in centre of the layout Point centrePoint = new Point(0, 0); // This is where I need the center of the view getFigure().setLocation(centrePoint); } else { ... } } And the parent of the above edit part: public class ProjectDependencyModelEditPart extends AbstractGraphicalEditPart { @Override protected IFigure createFigure() { Figure f = new FreeformLayer(); f.setLayoutManager(new XYLayout()); return f; } ... Alternative solutions to the problem also welcome, I am most certainly a GEF (and Eclipse in general) newbie.

    Read the article

  • Jeditable with jQuery UI Datepicker

    - by BrynJ
    I need to have a click to edit element on a page, that will in turn invoke an instance of the jQuery UI Datepicker. Currently, I'm using JEditable to provide the in place editing, which is working fine. However, I have a date control input that I would like to have appear as a calendar, which is where the fun starts. I've found a Comment in the this blog by Calle Kabo (the page is a little mashed unfortunately) that details a way to do this: $.editable.addInputType("datepicker", { element: function(settings, original) { var input = $("<input type=\"text\" name=\"value\" />"); $(this).append(input); return(input); }, plugin: function(settings, original) { var form = this; $("input", this).filter(":text").datepicker({ onSelect: function(dateText) { $(this).hide(); $(form).trigger("submit"); } }); } }); However, I can't get the above to work - no errors, but no effect either. I've tried placing it within the jQuery document ready function and also outside of it - no joy. My UI Datepicker class is date-picker and my Jeditable class is ajaxedit, I'm sure the above inaction is due to the need to reference them somehow in the code, but I don't know how. Also, the Jeditable control is one of many element ids, if that has a bearing. Any ideas from those more in the know?

    Read the article

  • Dynamic SQL To Dynamic LINQ in VB.NET with MS SQL Server 2008

    - by user337501
    I dread asking this question, because with what I've read so far I understand im gonna have to cram a lotta new things into my head. In spite of all the similiar questions(and the wide variety of answers) I thought I'd ask as nothing I've read tailors to what I need specifically enough. I need to represent the following query using LINQ: DECLARE @PurchasedInventoryItemID Int = 2 DECLARE @PurchasedInventorySectionID Int = 0 DECLARE @PurchasedInventoryItem_PurchasingCategoryID Int = 3 DECLARE @PurchasedInventorySection_PurchasingCategoryID Int = 0 DECLARE @IsActive Bit = 1 DECLARE @PropertyID Int = 2 DECLARE @PropertyValue nvarchar(1000) = 'Granny Smith' --Property1, Property2, Property3 ... SELECT O.PurchasedInventoryObjectID, O.PurchasedInventoryObjectName, O.PurchasedInventoryConjunctionID, O.Summary, O.Count, O.PropertyCount, O.IsActive FROM tblPurchasedInventoryObject As O INNER JOIN tblPurchasedInventoryConjunction As C ON C.PurchasedInventoryConjunctionID = O.PurchasedInventoryConjunctionID INNER JOIN tblPurchasedInventoryItem As I ON I.PurchasedInventoryItemID = C.PurchasedInventoryItemID INNER JOIN tblPurchasedInventorySection As S ON S.PurchasedInventorySectionID = C.PurchasedInventorySectionID INNER JOIN tblPurchasedInventoryPropertyMap as M ON M.PurchasedInventoryObjectID = O.PurchasedInventoryObjectID INNER JOIN tblPropertyValue As V ON V.PropertyValueID = M.PropertyValueID WHERE I.PurchasedInventoryItemID = @PurchasedInventoryItemID AND S.PurchasedInventorySectionID = @PurchasedInventorySectionID AND I.PurchasingCategoryID = @PurchasedInventoryItem_PurchasingCategoryID AND S.PurchasingCategoryID = @PurchasedInventorySection_PurchasingCategoryID AND O.IsActive = @IsActive AND V.PropertyID = @PropertyID AND V.Value = @PropertyValue Now, I know that a query in .NET doesnt look like this, this is my test in the SQL Design Studio. Naturally VB.NET variables will be used in place of the SQL local variables. My problem is this: All of the conditions after "WHERE" are optional. In that a query might be made that uses one, some, all, or none of the conditions. V.PropertyID and V.Value can also appear any number of times. In VB.NET I can make this query easy enough by simply concatenating strings, and using a loop to append the "V.PropertyID/V.Value" conditions. I can also make a Stored Procedure in MS SQL, which is easy enough. However, I want to accomplish this using LINQ. If anyone could direct me, I would be most appreciative.

    Read the article

  • PHP Simple DOM Parser

    - by Junior Coder
    Hi guys I'm using this wonderful class here to do a bit of code embed filtering: http://simplehtmldom.sourceforge.net/. It extends the PHP DOM document class. Pretty much what I am doing is parsing a string through this class that contains embed code, i grab the unique bits of information eg id, width, height send through a handler function which inserts the id, width, height etc into my predefined "safe" template and reinsert my safe template in the place of the embed code the user has put in. May seem a backward way of doing it but it's the way it has to be done :) All of that works fine. Problem is when there is more than just embed code contained in the string, as I can't just replace the embed code i can only replace the entire string which wipes the rest of the tags etc string. For example if there were a p tag that would be wiped. So my question is how using this class can i just replace the certain part of the string? Spent the last few days trying to work this out and need some more input. It appears the class can do this so i'm stumped. Here's a basic version of what i have so far :) // load the class $html = new simple_html_dom(); // load the entire string containing everything user entered here $return = $html->load($string); // check for embed tags if($html->find('embed') == true { foreach($html->find('embed') as $element) { // send it off to the function which returns a new safe embed code $element = create_new_embed($parameters); // this is where i somehow i need to save the changes and send it back to $return } } Any input would be gratefully appreciated. If i have explained my problem well enough please let me know :)

    Read the article

  • ruby 1.9 ri problem

    - by Yousui
    hi all, i'm using windows xp sp2, and installed ruby through ruby 1.9 one click installer. then when i try to using ri, i get the following response, can anyone help me with my problem? great thanks. C:\Documents and Settings\eyang>ruby --version ruby 1.9.1p243 (2009-07-16 revision 24175) [i386-mingw32] C:\Documents and Settings\eyang>ri --version ri 2.2.2 C:\Documents and Settings\eyang>ri String Updating class cache with 0 classes... Nothing known about String C:\Documents and Settings\eyang>ri Updating class cache with 0 classes... No ri data found If you've installed Ruby yourself, you need to generate documentation using: make install-doc from the same place you ran `make` to build ruby. If you installed Ruby from a packaging system, then you may need to install an additional package, or ask the packager to enable ri generation. C:\Documents and Settings\eyang> by the way, when i try to use gem, i got the following error messages too, anyone can explain it ? great thanks. C:\Documents and Settings\eyang>gem --version 1.3.5 C:\Documents and Settings\eyang>gem query --remote *** REMOTE GEMS *** ERROR: While executing gem ... (Errno::ENOMEM) Not enough space - <STDOUT> C:\Documents and Settings\eyang>

    Read the article

  • How to explain to someone that a data structure should not draw itself, explaining separation of con

    - by leeand00
    I have another programmer who I'm trying to explain why it is that a UI component should not also be a data-structure. For instance say that you get a data-structure that contains a record-set from the "database", and you wish to display that record-set in a UI component within your application. According to this programmer (who will remain nameless, he's young and I'm teaching him...), we should subclass the data-structure into a class that will draw the UI component within our application!!!!!! And thus according to this logic, the record-set should manage the drawing of the UI. **Head Desk*** I know that asking a record-set to draw itself is wrong, because, if you wish to render the same data-structure on more than one type of component on your UI, you are going to have a real mess on your hands; you'll need to extend yet another class for each and every UI component that you render from the base-class of your record-set; I am well aware of the "cleanliness" of the of the MVC pattern (and by that what I really mean is you don't confuse your data (the Model) with your UI (the view) or the actions that take place on the data (the Controller more or less...okay not really the API should really handle that...and the Controller should just make as few calls to it as it can, telling it which view to render)) But it's certainly alot cleaner than using data-structures to render UI components! Is there any other advice I could send his way other than the example above? I understand that when you first learn OOP you go through "a stage" where you where just want to extend everything. Followed by a stage when you think that Design Patterns are the solution every single problem...which isn't entirely correct either...thanks Jeff. Is there a way that I can gently nudge this kid in the right direction? Do you have any more examples that might help explain my point to him?

    Read the article

  • Display ñ on a C# .NET application

    - by mmr
    I have a localization issue. One of my industrious coworkers has replaced all the strings throughout our application with constants that are contained in a dictionary. That dictionary gets various strings placed in it once the user selects a language (English by default, but target languages are German, Spanish, French, Portuguese, Mandarin, and Thai). For our test of this functionality, we wanted to change a button to include text which has a ñ character, which appears both in Spanish and in the Arial Unicode MS font (which we're using throughout the application). Problem is, the ñ is appearing as a square block, as if the program did not know how to display it. When I debug into that particular string being read from disk, the debugger reports that character as a square block as well. So where is the failure? I think it could be in a few places: 1) Notepad may not be unicode aware, so the ñ displayed there is not the same as what vs2008 expects, and so the program interprets the character as a square (EDIT: notepad shows the same characters as vs; ie, they both show the ñ. In the same place.). 2) vs2008 can't handle ñ. I find that very, very hard to believe. 3) The text is read in properly, but the default font for vs2008 can't display it, which is why the debugger shows a square. 4) The text is not read in properly, and I should use something other than a regular StreamReader to get strings. 5) The text is read in properly, but the default String class in C# doesn't handle ñ well. I find that very, very hard to believe. 6) The version of Arial Unicode MS I have doesn't have ñ, despite it being listed as one of the 50k characters by http://www.fileinfo.info. Anything else I could have left out? Thanks for any help!

    Read the article

  • Hibernate: order multiple one-to-many relations

    - by Markos Fragkakis
    I have a search screen, using JSF, JBoss Seam and Hibernate underneath. There are columns for A, B and C, where the relations are as follows: A (1< -- ) B (1< -- ) C A has a List< B and B has a List< C (both relations are one-to-many). The UI table supports ordering by any column (ASC or DESC), so I want the results of the query to be ordered. This is the reason I used Lists in the model. However, I got an exception that Hibernate cannot eagerly fetch multiple bags (it considers both lists to be bags). There is an interesting blog post here, and they identify the following solutions: Use @IndexColumn annotation (there is none in my DB, and what's more, I want the position of results to be determined by the ordering, not by an index column) Fetch lazily (for performance reasons, I need eager fetching) Change List to Set So, I changed the List to Set, which by the way is more correct, model-wise. First, if don't use @OrderBy, the PersistentSet returned by Hibernate wraps a HashSet, which has no ordering. Second, If I do use @OrderBy, the PersistentSet wraps a LinkedHashSet, which is what I would like, but the OrderBy property is hardcoded, so all other ordering I perform through the UI comes after it. I tried again with Sets, and used SortedSet (and its implementation, TreeSet), but I have some issues: I want ordering to take place in the DB, and not in-memory, which is what TreeSet does (either through a Comparator, or through the Comparable interface of the elements). Second, I found that there is the Hibernate annotation @Sort, which has a SortOrder.UNSORTED and you can also set a Comparator. I still haven't managed to make it compile, but I am still not convinced it is what I need. Any advice?

    Read the article

  • Conversion to Dalvik format failed error for Android Grid View

    - by Bub
    Hey Everyone, I'm on the android bandwagon and started going through google's "view" tutorials. Here is what I'm using: Eclipse Galileo Android SDK 2.1 Java SDK 6.Something I think. Everything was hunky-dory until I hit the grid view tutorial. I got errors all over the place when I started editing the "HelloGridview.java" File. I thought I'd fix it by following through with the next part of the tutorial, creating the ImageAdapter class, but it created more. I realized alot of my issues could be resolved by importing widgets which were not mentioned in the tutorial (i.e. android.widget.GridView, .ImageView, .BaseAdapter etc.) However, after all the reconciliation suggested by eclipse the files were finally showing no errors. I go to run it as an android app and bam, "Your project contains error(s)." window comes up. There are no errors showing on the files I've created. I cleared the error log and shut down eclipse and started again the error log now reads: Conversion to Dalvik format failed with error 1. I'm a little lost at this point. I think I've included the required information. If you need to know more let me know. Any help is appreciated.

    Read the article

  • For commands to check duped/multiple mc's.

    - by Desmond
    Currently I'm working on a platform type game. I have a for loop in place to check weather or not the players feet are touching the ground. I had this; for (i=0; i<5; i++) { //There are 5 floors if (this.feet.hitTest(_root["g"+i])) { _root.mc.groundTouch = true; //triggers the mc falling } } This works fine only if one of the floors exist(IE if floor1 is on the stage, but floor2-5 aren't); So to try and counter it I tried using; for (i=0; i<5; i++) { if (this.feet.hitTest(_root["floor"+i])) { _root.mc.groundTouch = true; //triggers the mc falling } if (!this.feet.hitTest(_root["floor"+i])) { _root.mc.groundTouch = false; } } This obviously doesn't work because in order for it to function properly, _root.mc.feet would have to be touching all 5 instances of "floor". So my question is; How do I get the code to make _root.mc.groundTouch = true if _root.mc.feet is touching any of the floor instances, but make _root.mc.groundTouch = false only if its touching none of the floor instances? I know that if I really wanted to I could do something like if (_root.mc.feet.hitTest(_root.floor1) && !_root.mc.feet.hitTest(_root.floor2) && etc) But to save myself time, and to give myself the ability to add floors without altering more then i<5 to the amount of floors I have, I would prefer a easier method hopefully something to do with for loops. Thank you ahead of time and your help is very much appreciated

    Read the article

  • Localization approach for XSLT + RESX in ASP.NET

    - by frankadelic
    I have an ASP.NET web app where the back end data (XML format) is transformed using XSLT, producing XHTML which is output into the page. Simplified code: XmlDocument xmlDoc = MyRepository.RetrieveXmlData(keyValue); XslCompiledTransform xsl = new XslCompiledTransform(); xsl.Load(pathToXsl, XsltSettings.TrustedXslt, null); StringWriter stringWriter = new StringWriter(); xsl.Transform(xmlDoc, null, stringWriter); myLiteral.Text = stringWriter.ToString(); Currently my XSL file contains the XHTML markup elements, as well as text labels, which are currently in English. for example: <p>Title:<br /> <xsl:value-of select="title"/> </p> <p>Description:<br /> <xsl:value-of select="desc"/> </p> I would like the text labels (Title and Description above) to be localized. I was thinking of using .NET resource files (.resx), but I don't know how the resx string resources would get pulled in to the XSLT when the transformation takes place. I would prefer not to have locale-specific copies of the XSLT file, since that means a lot of duplicate transformation logic. (NOTE: the XML data is already localized, so I don't need to change that)

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 490 491 492 493 494 495 496 497 498 499 500 501  | Next Page >