Search Results

Search found 14799 results on 592 pages for 'instance eval'.

Page 497/592 | < Previous Page | 493 494 495 496 497 498 499 500 501 502 503 504  | Next Page >

  • Does C# allow method overloading, PHP style (__call)?

    - by mr.b
    In PHP, there is a special method named __call($calledMethodName, $arguments), which allows class to catch calls to non-existing methods, and do something about it. Since most of classic languages are strongly typed, compiler won't allow calling a method that does not exist, I'm clear with that part. What I want to accomplish (and I figured this is how I would do it in PHP, but C# is something else) is to proxy calls to a class methods and log each of these calls. Right now, I have code similar to this: class ProxyClass { static logger; public AnotherClass inner { get; private set; } public ProxyClass() { inner = new AnotherClass(); } } class AnotherClass { public void A() {} public void B() {} public void C() {} // ... } // meanwhile, in happyCodeLandia... ProxyClass pc = new ProxyClass(); pc.inner.A(); pc.inner.B(); // ... So, how can I proxy calls to an object instance in extensible way? Extensible, meaning that I don't have to modify ProxyClass whenever AnotherClass changes. In my case, AnotherClass can have any number of methods, so it wouldn't be appropriate to overload or wrap all methods to add logging. I am aware that this might not be the best approach for this kind of problem, so if anyone has idea what approach to use, shoot. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • UnicodeEncodeError: 'ascii' codec can't encode character [...]

    - by user1461135
    I have read the HOWTO on Unicode from the official docs and a full, very detailed article as well. Still I don't get it why it throws me this error. Here is what I attempt: I open an XML file that contains chars out of ASCII range (but inside allowed XML range). I do that with cfg = codecs.open(filename, encoding='utf-8, mode='r') which runs fine. Looking at the string with repr() also shows me a unicode string. Now I go ahead and read that with parseString(cfg.read().encode('utf-8'). Of course, my XML file starts with this: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?>. Although I suppose it is not relevant, I also defined utf-8 for my python script, but since I am not writing unicode characters directly in it, this should not apply here. Same for the following line: from __future__ import unicode_literals which also is right at the beginning. Next thing I pass the generated Object to my own class where I read tags into variables like this: xmldata.getElementsByTagName(tagName)[0].firstChild.data and assign it to a variable in my class. Now what perfectly works are those commands (obj is an instance of the class): for element in obj: print element And this command does work as well: print obj.__repr__() I defined __iter__() to just yield every variable while __repr__() uses the typical printf stuff: "%s" % self.varname Both commands print perfectly and can output the unicode character. What does not work is this: print obj And now I am stuck because this throws the dreaded UnicodeEncodeError: 'ascii' codec can't encode character u'\xfc' in position 47: So what am I missing? What am I doing wrong? I am looking for a general solution, I always want to handle strings as unicode, just to avoid any possible errors and write a compatible program. Edit: I also defined this: def __str__(self): return self.__repr__() def __unicode__(self): return self.__repr__() From documentation I got that this

    Read the article

  • Forcing Kernel::method_name to be called in Ruby

    - by Peter
    I want to add a foo method to Ruby's Kernel module, so I can write foo(obj) anywhere and have it do something to obj. Sometimes I want a class to override foo, so I do this: module Kernel private # important; this is what Ruby does for commands like 'puts', etc. def foo x if x.respond_to? :foo x.foo # use overwritten method. else # do something to x. end end end this is good, and works. but, what if I want to use the default Kernel::foo in some other object that overwrites foo? Since I've got an instance method foo, I've lost the original binding to Kernel::foo. class Bar def foo # override behaviour of Kernel::foo for Bar objects. foo(3) # calls Bar::foo, not the desired call of Kernel::foo. Kernel::foo(3) # can't call Kernel::foo because it's private. # question: how do I call Kernel::foo on 3? end end Is there any clean way to get around this? I'd rather not have two different names, and I definitely don't want to make Kernel::foo public.

    Read the article

  • Trait, FunctionN, or trait-inheriting-FunctionN in Scala?

    - by Willis Blackburn
    I have a trait in Scala that has a single method. Call it Computable and the single method is compute(input: Int): Int. I can't figure out whether I should Leave it as a standalone trait with a single method. Inherit from (Int = Int) and rename "compute" to "apply." Just get rid of Computable and use (Int = Int). A factor in favor of it being a trait is that I could usefully add some additional methods. But of course if they were all implemented in terms of the compute method then I could just break them out into a separate object. A factor in favor of just using the function type is simplicity and the fact that the syntax for an anonymous function is more concise than that for an anonymous Computable instance. But then I've no way to distinguish objects that are actually Computable instances from other functions that map Int to Int but aren't meant to be used in the same context as Computable. How do other people approach this type of problem? No right or wrong answers here; I'm just looking for advice.

    Read the article

  • Validation on ManyToManyField before Save in Models.py

    - by Heyl1
    I have the following models: class Application(models.Model): users = models.ManyToManyField(User, through='Permission') folder = models.ForeignKey(Folder) class Folder(models.Model): company = models.ManyToManyField(Compnay) class UserProfile(models.Model): user = models.OneToOneField(User, related_name='profile') company = models.ManyToManyField(Company) What I would like to do is to check whether one of the users of the Application has the same company as the Application (via Folder). If this is the case the Application instance should not be saved. The problem is that the ManyToManyFields aren't updated until after the 'post-save' signal. The only option seems to be the new m2m_changed signal. But I'm not sure how I then roll back the save that has already happened. Another option would be to rewrite the save function (in models.py, because I'm talking about the admin here), but I'm not sure how I could access the manytomanyfield content. Finally I've read something about rewriting the save function in the admin of the model in admin.py, however I still wouldn't know how you would access the manytomanyfield content. I have been searching for this everywhere but nothing I come across seems to work for me. If anything is unclear, please tell me. Thanks for your help! Heleen

    Read the article

  • ASP.NEt MVC 2 application error on IIS7 works fine on local machine

    - by aspCoolguy
    My ASP.NET MVC2 application is developed using 1. VS 2010 2. Linq To SQL for Models Here is Call controller code: namespace CallTrackMVC.Controllers { public class CallController : Controller { private CallTrackRepository repository; public CallController():this(new CallTrackRepository()) { } public CallController(CallTrackRepository newRepository) { repository = newRepository; } } } Error on IIS7 when browsing the Call Create page is NullReferenceException: Object reference not set to an instance of an object.] CallTrackMVC.Models.ExecOfficeDataContext..ctor() in C:\ClearCase\rartadi_view\STS_Dev_TEST\CallTrackMVC\Models\ExecOffice.designer.cs:71 CallTrackMVC.Controllers.CallController..ctor() in C:\ClearCase\rartadi_view\STS_Dev_TEST\CallTrackMVC\Controllers\CallController.cs:16 [TargetInvocationException: Exception has been thrown by the target of an invocation.] System.RuntimeTypeHandle.CreateInstance(RuntimeType type, Boolean publicOnly, Boolean noCheck, Boolean& canBeCached, RuntimeMethodHandleInternal& ctor, Boolean& bNeedSecurityCheck) +0 System.RuntimeType.CreateInstanceSlow(Boolean publicOnly, Boolean skipCheckThis, Boolean fillCache) +117 System.RuntimeType.CreateInstanceDefaultCtor(Boolean publicOnly, Boolean skipVisibilityChecks, Boolean skipCheckThis, Boolean fillCache) +247 System.Activator.CreateInstance(Type type, Boolean nonPublic) +106 System.Web.Mvc.DefaultControllerFactory.GetControllerInstance(RequestContext requestContext, Type controllerType) +102 [InvalidOperationException: **An error occurred when trying to create a controller of type 'CallTrackMVC.Controllers.CallController'. Make sure that the controller has a parameterless public constructor.**] System.Web.Mvc.DefaultControllerFactory.GetControllerInstance(RequestContext requestContext, Type controllerType) +541 System.Web.Mvc.DefaultControllerFactory.CreateController(RequestContext requestContext, String controllerName) +85 System.Web.Mvc.MvcHandler.ProcessRequestInit(HttpContextBase httpContext, IController& controller, IControllerFactory& factory) +165 System.Web.Mvc.MvcHandler.BeginProcessRequest(HttpContextBase httpContext, AsyncCallback callback, Object state) +80 System.Web.CallHandlerExecutionStep.System.Web.HttpApplication.IExecutionStep.Execute() +389 System.Web.HttpApplication.ExecuteStep(IExecutionStep step, Boolean& completedSynchronously) +371 Code in Global.asax is protected void Application_Start() { AreaRegistration.RegisterAllAreas(); RegisterRoutes(RouteTable.Routes); } Any suggestion would be a great help.

    Read the article

  • C# Event Handlers Using an Enum

    - by Jimbo
    I have a StatusChanged event that is raised by my object when its status changes - however, the application needs to carry out additional actions based on what the new status is. e.g If the new status is Disconnected, then it must update the status bar text and send an email notification. So, I wanted to create an Enum with the possible statuses (Connected, Disconnected, ReceivingData, SendingData etc.) and have that sent with the EventArgs parameter of the event when it is raised (see below) Define the object: class ModemComm { public event CommanderEventHandler ModemCommEvent; public delegate void CommanderEventHandler(object source, ModemCommEventArgs e); public void Connect() { ModemCommEvent(this, new ModemCommEventArgs ModemCommEventArgs.eModemCommEvent.Connected)); } } Define the new EventArgs parameter: public class ModemCommEventArgs : EventArgs{ public enum eModemCommEvent { Idle, Connected, Disconnected, SendingData, ReceivingData } public eModemCommEvent eventType { get; set; } public string eventMessage { get; set; } public ModemCommEventArgs(eModemCommEvent eventType, string eventMessage) { this.eventMessage = eventMessage; this.eventType = eventType; } } I then create a handler for the event in the application: ModemComm comm = new ModemComm(); comm.ModemCommEvent += OnModemCommEvent; and private void OnModemCommEvent(object source, ModemCommEventArgs e) { } The problem is, I get a 'Object reference not set to an instance of an object' error when the object attempts to raise the event. Hoping someone can explain in n00b terms why and how to fix it :)

    Read the article

  • Database structure for ecommerce site

    - by imanc
    Hey Guys, I have been tasked with designing an ecommerce solution. The aspect that is causing me the most problems is the database. Currently the site consists of 10+ country based shops each with their own database (all residing on the same mysql instance). For the new site I'd rather all these shop databases be merged into one database so that all tables (products, orders, customers etc.) have a shop_id field. From a programming perspective this seems to make the most sense as we won't have to manage data across multiple databases. Currently the entire site generates about 120k orders a year, but is experiencing fairly heavy growth and we need to design a solution that will scale. In 5 years there may be more than a million orders per year and a database that contains 5 years order history (archiving maybe a solution here). The question is - do we use a single database, or do we keep the database-per-shop structure? I am currently trying to find supporting evidence for either avenue. The company I am designing the solution for prefer the per-shop database structure because they believe it will allow the sites to scale. But my argument is that the shop's database probably won't get that busy over the next few years that they exceed the capacity of a mysql database and a "no expenses spared" hardware set-up. I am wondering if anyone has any advice either way? Does anyone have experience with websites / ecommerce sites that have tables containing millions of records? I know there is probably not a clear answer here, but at what stage do we have too many records or too large table files to have a fast loading site? Also, if anyone has any advice on sources of information - books, websites, etc. where I can do further research, it would be highly appreciated! Cheers, imanc

    Read the article

  • How to authenticate multiple entry points in a facebook app?

    - by Simon_Weaver
    I am using an IFrame application with XFBML and the new Javascript API. I'd like to have a facebook application with multiple entry points. These will most likely represent different links coming from a fan page tab. I can do this quite easily if the pages don't require authentication - for instance I can create several pages under the app and if a new user comes I can send them to any page: http://apps.facebook.com/myapp/offers http://apps.facebook.com/myapp/game http://apps.facebook.com/myapp/products The problem is that if I need to have authentication then once the user is authenticated they get redirected to my default post-authorization url. Is there a way for a user that comes to /game to stay on /game after they are authenticated without redirecting. I thought I could do it with the AJAX login form - but I cannot find out how to do that in a Facebook IFrame application. I think the example using requirelogin only works for FBML. <a href="http://apps.facebook.com/mysmiley" requirelogin=1> Welcome to my app</a>. Is there a way to accomplish this with Facebook APIs - or will I have to do some kind of clever cookie handling?

    Read the article

  • In a Tab Bar based app a controller release data of the other ! !

    - by Flodev03
    Hi all ! I've made a ViewBased app, in the app delegate i've set a UITabBarCotntroller, in the app i have different view Controller two of them displays text in a UITextView and labels, the other one is my "ShakeController" a UIViewController in which i've set a UIAcelerometerDelegate, in it i create a instance of UIAccelerometer, in the method which manages the shake everything works fine, in this controller i have also set a UIImageView to make a simple animation, in the view Did Load method i set my imageView.animation to an array of UIImage. My problem is : when the app is launched i use the ViewControllers and everything work fine, but when i tap the ShakeController item in the tab bar and then when i come back to the other controllers the label looks like : label and textView like : Lorem ipsum..... the text of UItextView in IB. I have noticed thaht if i comment the initialisation of my imageView to the array of image i can navigate the items (from a view controller to another) without the label change and stay what i want them to be. Notice that the two controllers are in a UINavigationController. (i use @proprety (nonnatomic, retain) then @synthesize ... then releqse in the dealloc for the labels textview and my uiimageView) Do not know what to do thanks to all

    Read the article

  • linear combinations in python/numpy

    - by nmaxwell
    greetings, I'm not sure if this is a dumb question or not. Lets say I have 3 numpy arrays, A1,A2,A3, and 3 floats, c1,c2,c3 and I'd like to evaluate B = A1*c1+ A2*c2+ A3*c3 will numpy compute this as for example, E1 = A1*c1 E2 = A2*c2 E3 = A3*c3 D1 = E1+E2 B = D1+E3 or is it more clever than that? In c++ I had a neat way to abstract this kind of operation. I defined series of general 'LC' template functions, LC for linear combination like: template<class T,class D> void LC( T & R, T & L0,D C0, T & L1,D C1, T & L2,D C2) { R = L0*C0 +L1*C1 +L2*C2; } and then specialized this for various types, so for instance, for an array the code looked like for (int i=0; i<L0.length; i++) R.array[i] = L0.array[i]*C0 + L1.array[i]*C1 + L2.array[i]*C2; thus avoiding having to create new intermediate arrays. This may look messy but it worked really well. I could do something similar in python, but I'm not sure if its nescesary. Thanks in advance for any insight. -nick

    Read the article

  • How do I write an RSpec test to unit-test this interesting metaprogramming code?

    - by Kyle Kaitan
    Here's some simple code that, for each argument specified, will add specific get/set methods named after that argument. If you write attr_option :foo, :bar, then you will see #foo/foo= and #bar/bar= instance methods on Config: module Configurator class Config def initialize() @options = {} end def self.attr_option(*args) args.each do |a| if not self.method_defined?(a) define_method "#{a}" do @options[:"#{a}"] ||= {} end define_method "#{a}=" do |v| @options[:"#{a}"] = v end else throw Exception.new("already have attr_option for #{a}") end end end end end So far, so good. I want to write some RSpec tests to verify this code is actually doing what it's supposed to. But there's a problem! If I invoke attr_option :foo in one of the test methods, that method is now forever defined in Config. So a subsequent test will fail when it shouldn't, because foo is already defined: it "should support a specified option" do c = Configurator::Config c.attr_option :foo # ... end it "should support multiple options" do c = Configurator::Config c.attr_option :foo, :bar, :baz # Error! :foo already defined # by a previous test. # ... end Is there a way I can give each test an anonymous "clone" of the Config class which is independent of the others?

    Read the article

  • How to avoid hard-coded credentials in Sharepoint webpart?

    - by Bryan
    I am building a Sharepoint web part that will be used by all users, but can only be modified by admins. The web part connects to a web service which needs credentials. I hard coded credentials in the web part's code. query.Credentials = new System.Net.NetworkCredential("username", "password", "domain"); query is an instance of the web service class This may not be a good approach. In regard with security, the source code of the web apart is available to people who are not allowed to see the credentials. In normal ASP.net applications, credentials can be written into web.config and encrypted. A web part doesn't have a .config file associated. There is a application-level .config file for the whole sharepoint site, but I don't want to modify it for a single webpart. I wonder if there is a webpart-specific way to solve the credential problem? Say we provide a WebBrowsable property of that web part so that privileged users can modify credentials. If this is desirable, how should I make the property displayed in a password ("*") rather than in plain text? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Do I really ned bindParam?

    - by sandelius
    Hi there! I'm trying to do a little PDO CRUD to learn some PDO. I have a question about bindParam. Here's my update method right now: public static function update($conditions = array(), $data = array(), $table = '') { self::instance(); // Late static bindings (PHP 5.3) $table = ($table === '') ? self::table() : $table; // Check which data array we want to use $values = (empty($data)) ? self::$_fields : $data; $sql = "UPDATE $table SET "; foreach ($values as $f => $v) { $sql .= "$f = ?, "; } // let's build the conditions self::build_conditions($conditions); // fix our WHERE, AND, OR, LIKE conditions $extra = self::$condition_string; // querystring $sql = rtrim($sql, ', ') . $extra; // let's merge the arrays into on $v_val = array_values($values); $c_val = array_values($conditions); $array = array_merge($v_val, self::$condition_array); $stmt = self::$db->prepare($sql); return $stmt->execute($array); } in my "self::$condition_array" I get all the right values from the ?. SO the query looks like this: UPDATE table SET this = ?, another = ? WHERE title = ? AND time = ? as you can see I dont use bindParams instead I pass the right values in the right order ($array) directly into the execute($array) method. This works like a charm BUT is it safe not use use bindParam here? If not then how can I do it? Thanks from Sweden Tobias

    Read the article

  • PHP 'smart' search engine to search Mysql tables advice

    - by Anonymous12345
    I am creating a search engine for my php based website. I need to search a mysql table. Thing is, the search engine must be pretty 'smart', so that users can easily find their items (it's a classifieds website). I have currently set up a FULLTEXT search with this piece of code: MATCH (headline) AGAINST ($querystring) But this isn't enough... For instance, lets say the field headline contains something like Bmw 330ci. If I search for 330, I wont get any results. The ending ('ci') is just one of many endings in car models which must be taken into account when searching the table. Or what if the headline field is bmw330? Also no results, because it only matches full words. Or also, what if the headline is bmw 330, and I search for bmw 520, still with FULLTEXT I will get the bmw 330 as a result, even though I searched for bmw 520... Not good! How should I solve this problem?

    Read the article

  • routing mvc on the web

    - by generic_noob
    Hi, I was wondering if anyone could possibly provide me some advice on how i could improve the routing (and/or architecture) to each 'section' of my application. (I'm writing in PHP5, and trying to use strict MVC) Basically, I have a generic index page for the app, and that will spew out boilerplate stuff like jquery and the css etc. and it also generates the main navidation for the entire site, but i'm unsure about the best approach to connect the 'main menu' items(hyperlinks) with their associated controllers. Up until now I have been appending strings into the url and using a 'switch' statement to branch to the correct controller(and view) by extracting the strings back out of '$GET[]' to let it execute the code for the corrosponding action. for instance if i had a basic crud system for customer data, the url to edit a customers details would look like 'www.example.com/index.php?page=customer&action=edit&id=4'. I'm worried that there is a security concern by doing it this way, and i'm not sure of an alternative to branch the main 'index.php' file to the correct controller for each action once the user has clicked the link. Would it be better to use mod_rewrite to disguise the controllers names? or to create a similar system to the ASP MVC framework, where there is a seperate routing system where each url is filtered to get the associated controller? Cheers!

    Read the article

  • Hibernate saveorUpdate method problem

    - by umesh awasthi
    Hi all, i am trying to work on with Hibernate (Database side for first time) and some how struck in choosing best possible way to use saveOrUpdate or Save.Update i have a destination POJO class and its other attributes which needs to be updated along with the Destination entity. i am getting an XML file to be imported and i am using the following code to update/save the destination entity along with its attribute classes. try{ getSessionFactory().getCurrentSession().beginTransaction(); getSessionFactory().getCurrentSession().saveOrUpdate(entity); getSessionFactory().getCurrentSession().getTransaction().commit(); } catch(Exception e){ getSessionFactory().getCurrentSession().getTransaction().rollback(); } finally{ getSessionFactory().close(); } everything is working fine untill i am using the same session instance.but later on when i am using the same XML file to update the destination PO for certain attributes it giving me the following error. SEVERE: Duplicate entry 'MNLI' for key 'DESTINATIONID' 9 Jan, 2011 4:58:11 PM org.hibernate.event.def.AbstractFlushingEventListener performExecutions SEVERE: Could not synchronize database state with session org.hibernate.exception.ConstraintViolationException: Could not execute JDBC batch update at org.hibernate.exception.SQLStateConverter.convert(SQLStateConverter.java:94) at org.hibernate.exception.JDBCExceptionHelper.convert(JDBCExceptionHelper.java:66) at org.hibernate.jdbc.AbstractBatcher.executeBatch(AbstractBatcher.java:275) at org.hibernate.jdbc.AbstractBatcher.prepareStatement(AbstractBatcher.java:114) at org.hibernate.jdbc.AbstractBatcher.prepareStatement(AbstractBatcher.java:109) at org.hibernate.jdbc.AbstractBatcher.prepareBatchStatement(AbstractBatcher.java:244) at org.hibernate.persister.entity.AbstractEntityPersister.insert(AbstractEntityPersister.java:2242) at org.hibernate.persister.entity.AbstractEntityPersister.insert(AbstractEntityPersister.java:2678) at org.hibernate.action.EntityInsertAction.execute(EntityInsertAction.java:79) i am using UUID as primary key for the Destination table and in destination table i have a destination id which is unique.but i can understand that in the secodn case hibernate is not able to find if there is already an entry for the same destination in the DB and trying to execute insert statement rather than update. one possible solution is i can user destinationid to check if there is already a destination inplace with the given id and based on the results i can issue save or update command. my question is can this be achieve by any other good way..? Thanks in advance

    Read the article

  • Dynamic/Generic ViewModelBase?

    - by Shimmy
    I am learning MVVM now and I understand few things (more than but few are here..): Does every model potentially exposed (thru a VM) to the View is having a VM? For example, if I have a Contact and Address entity and each contact has an Addresses (many) property, does it mean I have to create a ContactViewModel and an AddressViewModel etc.? Do I have to redeclare all the properties of the Model again in the ViewModel (i.e. FirstName, LastName blah blah)? why not have a ViewModelBase and the ContactViewMode will be a subclass of ViewModelBase accessing the Entity's properties itself? and if this is a bad idea that the View has access to the entity (please explain why), then why not have the ViewModelBase be a DynamicObject (view the Dictionary example @ the link page), so I don't have to redeclare all the properties and validation over and over in the two tiers (M & VM) - because really, the View is anyway accessing the ViewModel's fields via reflection anyway. I think MVVM was the hardest technology I've ever learned. it doesn't have out-the-box support and there are to many frameworks and methods to achieve it, and in the other hand there is no arranged way to learn it (as MVC for instance), learning MVVM means browsing and surfing around trying to figure out what's better. Bottom line, what I mean by this section is please go and vote to MSFT to add MVVM support in the BCL and generators for VMs and Vs according to the Ms. Thanks

    Read the article

  • How to get components from a JFrame with a GridLayout?

    - by NlightNfotis
    I have a question about Java and JFrame in particular. Let's say I have a JFrame that I am using with a GridLayout. Supposing that I have added JButtons in the JFrame, how can I gain access to the one I want using it's position (by position, I mean a x and a y, used to define the exact place on the Grid). I have tried several methods, for instance getComponentAt(int x, int y), and have seen that those methods do not work as intended when combined with GridLayout, or at least don't work as intended in my case. So I tried using getComponent(), which seems fine. The latest method, that seems to be on a right track for me is (assuming I have a JFrame with a GridLayout with 7 rows and 7 columns, x as columns, y as rows): public JButton getButtonByXAndY(int x, int y) { return (JButton) this.getContentPane().getComponent((y-1) * 7 + x); } Using the above, say I want to get the JButton at (4, 4), meaning the 25th JButton in the JFrame, I would index through the first 21 buttons at first, and then add 4 more, finally accessing the JButton I want. Problem is this works like that in theory only. Any ideas? P.S sorry for linking to an external website, but stack overflow won't allow me to upload the image, because I do not have the required reputation.

    Read the article

  • Do all the HTML5 storage systems work together ?

    - by azera
    While there are a lot of good stuff about html5, one thing I don't get is the redondant storage mechanism, first there is localstorage and sessionstorage, which are key value stores, one is for one instance of the app ("one tab"), and the other works for all the instances of that application so they can share data. Both are saved when you close your browser and have a limited size (usually 5MB), that's great and everything would be nice if we stopped there. But then there is the "Web SQL Database", which has the same security system as the localstorage, the same size limit, the same everything except it works like/is sqlite, with tables and sql syntax and all of that. And the bummer is, they don't work on the same data at all ! This is not two way to access your data, this is really two storage for every html 5 app out there (not created by default yes, but still you see my point). What I would like to know is, is there a reason for both of this mechanisms to exist at the same time ? Or did they just look at sql and nosql movement to pick the best then went "screw it let's add both !" ? Why not implement local/session storage as a table inside web sql db ?

    Read the article

  • Using an ActiveX control without a form/dialog/window in C++, VS 2008

    - by younevertell
    an ActiveX control generated by Visual Basic 6, very old stuff, it has a couple of methods and one event. now I have to use the control in C++, visual studio 2008, but I don't like to generate a form/dialog/window as constainer. I add some MFC class From ActiveX Control. Now the wrap class has all the methods defined in the ActiveX control. I definitely need add event handler to take care of the event fired by ActiveX control. With a form/dialgue/window, it could be done by below BEGIN_EVENTSINK_MAP ON_EVENT. My questions are 1. how to add the event handler without a form/dialgue/window. Is this impossible? 2. Could I manually add constructor in the ActiveX control wrap class, so I could use new operator to get an instance on the heap? Thanks Add the Event Sinks Map near the start of the definition (.cpp) file. The BEGIN_EVENTSINK_MAP macro takes the container's Class name, then the base class name as parameters. The container's class name is used again in the AFX_EVENTSINK_MAP macro and the ON_EVENT macro.

    Read the article

  • What should i do for accomodating large scale data storage and retrieval?

    - by kailashbuki
    There's two columns in the table inside mysql database. First column contains the fingerprint while the second one contains the list of documents which have that fingerprint. It's much like an inverted index built by search engines. An instance of a record inside the table is shown below; 34 "doc1, doc2, doc45" The number of fingerprints is very large(can range up to trillions). There are basically following operations in the database: inserting/updating the record & retrieving the record accoring to the match in fingerprint. The table definition python snippet is: self.cursor.execute("CREATE TABLE IF NOT EXISTS `fingerprint` (fp BIGINT, documents TEXT)") And the snippet for insert/update operation is: if self.cursor.execute("UPDATE `fingerprint` SET documents=CONCAT(documents,%s) WHERE fp=%s",(","+newDocId, thisFP))== 0L: self.cursor.execute("INSERT INTO `fingerprint` VALUES (%s, %s)", (thisFP,newDocId)) The only bottleneck i have observed so far is the query time in mysql. My whole application is web based. So time is a critical factor. I have also thought of using cassandra but have less knowledge of it. Please suggest me a better way to tackle this problem.

    Read the article

  • JumpLists Not Working in C# App

    - by Josh M.
    Hi, I'm trying to use the Recent and Frequent JumpLists in my C# app. I'm using the Windows API Codepack v1.1 (http://code.msdn.microsoft.com/WindowsAPICodePack). I initialize the JumpLists every time the app starts and I AddRecent() to the JumpList every time I open a project in the app. Something is missing becuase the JumpLists are simply not showing up when you right click the app's icon in the Taskbar. I got one file to show up once but that's it! Initialization: private void InitializeJumpLists() { if (TaskbarManager.IsPlatformSupported) { JumpList recentJumpList = null; JumpList frequentJumpList = null; TaskbarManager.Instance.ApplicationId = Application.ProductName; recentJumpList = JumpList.CreateJumpList(); recentJumpList.KnownCategoryToDisplay = JumpListKnownCategoryType.Recent; recentJumpList.Refresh(); frequentJumpList = JumpList.CreateJumpList(); frequentJumpList.KnownCategoryToDisplay = JumpListKnownCategoryType.Frequent; frequentJumpList.Refresh(); } } Opening the Project: private void OpenProject(string path, bool isFromRecentFilesList) { DialogResult result = ConfirmProjectClosing(); if (result == DialogResult.Yes) Save(); else if (result == DialogResult.Cancel) return; using (new Wait()) { //Code here opens the project, etc. //Try to add the file to the Jump List. if (TaskbarManager.IsPlatformSupported) JumpList.AddToRecent(path); //Code here finished up. } } What am I missing?

    Read the article

  • Is there a more elegant way to act on the first and last items in a foreach enumeration than count++

    - by Edward Tanguay
    Is there a more elegant way to act on the first and last items when iterating through a foreach loop than incrementing a separate counter and checking it each time? For instance, the following code outputs: >>> [line1], [line2], [line3], [line4] <<< which requires knowing when you are acting on the first and last item. Is there a more elegant way to do this now in C# 3 / C# 4? It seems like I could use .Last() or .First() or something like that. using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Text; namespace TestForNext29343 { class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { StringBuilder sb = new StringBuilder(); List<string> lines = new List<string> { "line1", "line2", "line3", "line4" }; int index = 0; foreach (var line in lines) { if (index == 0) sb.Append(">>> "); sb.Append("[" + line + "]"); if (index < lines.Count - 1) sb.Append(", "); else sb.Append(" <<<"); index++; } Console.WriteLine(sb.ToString()); Console.ReadLine(); } } }

    Read the article

  • Rails: how to represent available view actions in a stateful model?

    - by Greg
    I have a model that is stateful. In each state there are a selection of actions that the user might want to perform on an instance of the model. Currently I am translating the model state to actions that get represented in the view using a view helper. Something like this... in the model: Class Thing def state_is_A? state == 'A' end end In the helper: def display_available_actions(thing) if thing.state_is_A? link_to <action1> link_to <action2> end end And in the view: <%= display_available_actions(@thing) %> I don't like the fact that the model state is translated into view actions in the helper. I would like this to be incorporated into the model. On the other hand, it doesn't seem healthy for the model and view to get so coupled. Is there a Ruby or Rails idiom that suits this kind of situation better than my approach? Should each state be a separate model perhaps?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 493 494 495 496 497 498 499 500 501 502 503 504  | Next Page >