Search Results

Search found 14799 results on 592 pages for 'instance eval'.

Page 497/592 | < Previous Page | 493 494 495 496 497 498 499 500 501 502 503 504  | Next Page >

• SQL Server CE rollback does not undo delete.

  - by INTPnerd

  I am using SQL Server CE 3.5 and C# with the .NET Compact Framework 3.5. In my code I am inserting a row, then starting a transaction, then deleting that row from a table, and then doing a rollback on that transaction. But this does not undo the deletion. Why not? Here is my code: SqlCeConnection conn = ConnectionSingleton.Instance; conn.Open(); UsersTable table = new UsersTable(); table.DeleteAll(); MessageBox.Show("user count in beginning after delete: " + table.CountAll()); table.Insert( new User(){Id = 0, IsManager = true, Pwd = "1234", Username = "Me"}); MessageBox.Show("user count after insert: " + table.CountAll()); SqlCeTransaction transaction = conn.BeginTransaction(); table.DeleteAll(); transaction.Rollback(); transaction.Dispose(); MessageBox.Show("user count after rollback delete all: " + table.CountAll()); The messages indicate that everything works as expected until the very end where the table has a count of 0 indicating the rollback did not undo the deletion.

  Read the article

• How do I initialize the controls in an InsertItemTemplate?

  - by Slauma

  I have - for instance - an asp:FormView which supports Read, Insert, Update, Delete and is bound to a DataSource: <asp:FormView ID="FormView1" runat="server" DataSourceID="ObjectDataSource1" > <ItemTemplate> <asp:Label ID="Label1" runat="server" Text='<%# Bind("MyText") %>' /> </ItemTemplate> <EditItemTemplate> <asp:TextBox ID="TextBox1" runat="server" Text='<%# Bind("MyText") %>' /> </EditItemTemplate> <InsertItemTemplate> <asp:TextBox ID="TextBox1" runat="server" Text='<%# Bind("MyText") %>' /> </InsertItemTemplate> </asp:FormView> If I am in Read-Mode or Edit-Mode the control is initialized with the property MyText of the current object which is bound to the FormView. But when I go to Insert-Mode I do not have a "current object" (FormView1.DataItem is indeed null) and the controls are empty. If I want to have my TextBox control initialized with a specific value how can I do that? In which event can I hook in to set default values to the controls in the InsertItemTemplate? Especially I have in mind using an ObjectDataSource. I was expecting that the InsertItemTemplate is initialized with a business object which underlies my ObjectDataSource and which is created by the ASP.NET framework simply by using its default constructor when the InsertItemTemplate gets activated. In the default constructor I would init the class members to the default values I'd like to have in my controls of the InsertItemTemplate. But unfortunately that's not the case: No "default" object is created and bound to the FormView. So it seems I have to initialize all controls separately or to create the default object manually and bind it to the InsertItemTemplate of the FormView. But how and where can I do that? Thanks in advance!

  Read the article

• c# multi inheritance

  - by user326839

  So ive got a base class which requires a Socket: class Sock { public Socket s; public Sock(Socket s) { this.s = s; } public virtual void Process(byte[] data) { } ... } then ive got another class. if a new socket gets accepted a new instance of this class will be created: class Game : Sock { public Random Random = new Random(); public Timerr Timers; public Test Test; public Game(Socket s) : base(s) { } public static void ReceiveNewSocket(object s) { Game Client = new Game((Socket)s); Client.Start(); } public override void Process(byte[] buf) { Timers = new Timerr(s); Test = new Test(s); Test.T(); } } in the Sock class ive got a virtual function that gets overwritten by the Game class.(Process function) in this function im calling a function from the Test Class(Test+ Timerr Class: class Test : Game { public Test(Socket s) : base(s) { } public void T() { Console.WriteLine(Random.Next(0, 10)); Timers.Start(); } } class Timerr : Game { public Timerr(Socket s) : base(s) { } public void Start() { Console.WriteLine("test"); } } ) So in the Process function im calling a function in Test. And in this function(T) i need to call a function from the Timerr Class.But the problem is its always NULL , although the constructor is called in Process. And e.g. the Random Class can be called, i guess its because its defined with the constructor.: public Random Random = new Random(); and thats why the other classes(without a constructor): public Timerr Timers; public Test Test; are always null in the inherited class Test.But its essentiel that i call other Methods of other classes in this function.How could i solve that?

  Read the article

• MUD (game) design concept question about timed events.

  - by mudder

  I'm trying my hand at building a MUD (multiplayer interactive-fiction game) I'm in the design/conceptualizing phase and I've run into a problem that I can't come up with a solution for. I'm hoping some more experienced programmers will have some advice. Here's the problem as best I can explain it. When the player decides to perform an action he sends a command to the server. the server then processes the command, determines whether or not the action can be performed, and either does it or responds with a reason as to why it could not be done. One reason that an action might fail is that the player is busy doing something else. For instance, if a player is mid-fight and has just swung a massive broadsword, it might take 3 seconds before he can repeat this action. If the player attempts to swing again to soon, the game will respond indicating that he must wait x seconds before doing that. Now, this I can probably design without much trouble. The problem I'm having is how I can replicate this behavior from AI creatures. All of the events that are being performed by the server ON ITS OWN, aka not as an immediate reaction to something a player has done, will have to be time sensitive. Some evil monster has cast a spell on you but must wait 30 seconds before doing it again... I think I'll probably be adding all these events to some kind of event queue, but how can I make that event queue time sensitive?

  Read the article

• C# Event Handlers Using an Enum

  - by Jimbo

  I have a StatusChanged event that is raised by my object when its status changes - however, the application needs to carry out additional actions based on what the new status is. e.g If the new status is Disconnected, then it must update the status bar text and send an email notification. So, I wanted to create an Enum with the possible statuses (Connected, Disconnected, ReceivingData, SendingData etc.) and have that sent with the EventArgs parameter of the event when it is raised (see below) Define the object: class ModemComm { public event CommanderEventHandler ModemCommEvent; public delegate void CommanderEventHandler(object source, ModemCommEventArgs e); public void Connect() { ModemCommEvent(this, new ModemCommEventArgs ModemCommEventArgs.eModemCommEvent.Connected)); } } Define the new EventArgs parameter: public class ModemCommEventArgs : EventArgs{ public enum eModemCommEvent { Idle, Connected, Disconnected, SendingData, ReceivingData } public eModemCommEvent eventType { get; set; } public string eventMessage { get; set; } public ModemCommEventArgs(eModemCommEvent eventType, string eventMessage) { this.eventMessage = eventMessage; this.eventType = eventType; } } I then create a handler for the event in the application: ModemComm comm = new ModemComm(); comm.ModemCommEvent += OnModemCommEvent; and private void OnModemCommEvent(object source, ModemCommEventArgs e) { } The problem is, I get a 'Object reference not set to an instance of an object' error when the object attempts to raise the event. Hoping someone can explain in n00b terms why and how to fix it :)

  Read the article

• SQL different joins not making any difference to result

  - by Chrissi

  I'm trying to write a quick (ha!) program to organise some of my financial information. What I ideally want is a query that will return all records with financial information in them from TableA. There should be one row for each month, but in instances where there were no transactions for a month there will be no record. I get results like this: SELECT Period,Year,TotalValue FROM TableA WHERE Year='1997' Result: Period Year TotalValue 1 1997 298.16 2 1997 435.25 4 1997 338.37 8 1997 336.07 9 1997 578.97 11 1997 361.23 By joining on a table (well a View in this instance) which just contains a field Period with values from 1 to 12, I expect to get something like this: SELECT p.Period,a.Year,a.TotalValue FROM Periods AS p LEFT JOIN TableA AS a ON p.Period = a.Period WHERE Year='1997' Result: Period Year TotalValue 1 1997 298.16 2 1997 435.25 3 NULL NULL 4 1997 338.37 5 NULL NULL 6 NULL NULL 7 NULL NULL 8 1997 336.07 9 1997 578.97 10 NULL NULL 11 1997 361.23 12 NULL NULL What I'm actually getting though is the same result no matter how I join it (except CROSS JOIN which goes nuts, but it's really not what I wanted anyway, it was just to see if different joins are even doing anything). LEFT JOIN, RIGHT JOIN, INNER JOIN all fail to provide the NULL records I am expecting. Is there something obvious that I'm doing wrong in the JOIN? Does it matter that I'm joining onto a View?

  Read the article

• What happens to existing workspaces after upgrading to TFS 2010

  - by e-mre

  Hi, I was looking for some insight about what happens to existing workspaces and files that are already checked-out on people, after an upgrade to TFS2010. Surprisingly enough I can not find any satisfactory information on this. (I am talking about upgrading on new hardware by the way. Fresh TFS instance, upgraded databases) I've checked TFS Installation guide, I searched through the web, all I could find is upgrade scenarios for the server side. Nobody even mentions what happens to source control clients. I've created a virtual machine to test the upgrade process, The upgrade was successful and all my files and workspaces exist in the new server too. The problem is: The new TFS installation has a new instanceID. When I redirected on the clients to the new server, the client seemed unable to match files and file states in the workspace with the ones on the new server. This makes me wonder if it will be possible to keep working after the production upgrade. As I mentioned above I can not find anything on this, it would be great if anyone could point me to some paper or blog post about this. Thanks in advance...

  Read the article

• How are declared private ivars different from synthesized ivars?

  - by lemnar

  I know that the modern Objective-C runtime can synthesize ivars. I thought that synthesized ivars behaved exactly like declared ivars that are marked @private, but they don't. As a result, come code compiles only under the modern runtime that I expected would work on either. For example, a superclass: @interface A : NSObject { #if !__OBJC2__ @private NSString *_c; #endif } @property (nonatomic, copy) NSString *d; @end @implementation A @synthesize d=_c; - (void)dealloc { [_c release]; [super dealloc]; } @end and a subclass: @interface B : A { #if !__OBJC2__ @private NSString *_c; #endif } @property (nonatomic, copy) NSString *e; @end @implementation B @synthesize e=_c; - (void)dealloc { [_c release]; [super dealloc]; } @end A subclass can't have a declared ivar with the same name as one of its superclass's declared ivars, even if the superclass's ivar is private. This seems to me like a violation of the meaning of @private, since the subclass is affected by the superclass's choice of something private. What I'm more concerned about, however, is how should I think about synthesized ivars. I thought they acted like declared private ivars, but without the fragile base class problem. Maybe that's right, and I just don't understand the fragile base class problem. Why does the above code compile only in the modern runtime? Does the fragile base class problem exist when all superclass instance variables are private?

  Read the article

• Python re module becomes 20 times slower when called on greater than 101 different regex

  - by Wiil

  My problem is about parsing log files and removing variable parts on each lines to be able to group them. For instance: s = re.sub(r'(?i)User [_0-9A-z]+ is ', r"User .. is ", s) s = re.sub(r'(?i)Message rejected because : (.*?) \(.+\)', r'Message rejected because : \1 (...)', s) I have about 120+ matching rules like those above. I have found no performances issues while searching successively on 100 different regex. But a huge slow down comes when applying 101 regex. Exact same behavior happens when replacing my rules set by for a in range(100): s = re.sub(r'(?i)caught here'+str(a)+':.+', r'( ... )', s) Got 20 times slower when putting range(101) instead. # range(100) % ./dashlog.py file.bz2 == Took 2.1 seconds. == # range(101) % ./dashlog.py file.bz2 == Took 47.6 seconds. == Why such thing is happening ? And is there any known workaround ? (Happens on Python 2.6.6/2.7.2 on Linux/Windows.)

  Read the article

• SQL Server problems reading columns with a foreign key

  - by illdev

  I have a weird situation, where simple queries seem to never finish for instance SELECT top 100 ArticleID FROM Article WHERE ProductGroupID=379114 returns immediately SELECT top 1000 ArticleID FROM Article WHERE ProductGroupID=379114 never returns SELECT ArticleID FROM Article WHERE ProductGroupID=379114 never returns SELECT top 1000 ArticleID FROM Article returns immediately By 'returning' I mean 'in query analyzer the green check mark appears and it says "Query executed successfully"'. I sometimes get the rows painted to the grid in qa, but still the query goes on waiting for my client to time out - 'sometimes': SELECT ProductGroupID AS Product23_1_, ArticleID AS ArticleID1_, ArticleID AS ArticleID18_0_, Inventory_Name AS Inventory3_18_0_, Inventory_UnitOfMeasure AS Inventory4_18_0_, BusinessKey AS Business5_18_0_, Name AS Name18_0_, ServesPeople AS ServesPe7_18_0_, InStock AS InStock18_0_, Description AS Descript9_18_0_, Description2 AS Descrip10_18_0_, TechnicalData AS Technic11_18_0_, IsDiscontinued AS IsDisco12_18_0_, Release AS Release18_0_, Classifications AS Classif14_18_0_, DistributorName AS Distrib15_18_0_, DistributorProductCode AS Distrib16_18_0_, Options AS Options18_0_, IsPromoted AS IsPromoted18_0_, IsBulkyFreight AS IsBulky19_18_0_, IsBackOrderOnly AS IsBackO20_18_0_, Price AS Price18_0_, Weight AS Weight18_0_, ProductGroupID AS Product23_18_0_, ConversationID AS Convers24_18_0_, DistributorID AS Distrib25_18_0_, type AS Type18_0_ FROM Article AS articles0_ WHERE (IsDiscontinued = '0') AND (ProductGroupID = 379121) shows this behavior. I have no idea what is going on. Probably select is broken ;) I got a foreign key on ProductGroups ALTER TABLE [dbo].[Article] WITH CHECK ADD CONSTRAINT [FK_ProductGroup_Articles] FOREIGN KEY([ProductGroupID]) REFERENCES [dbo].[ProductGroup] ([ProductGroupID]) GO ALTER TABLE [dbo].[Article] CHECK CONSTRAINT [FK_ProductGroup_Articles] there are some 6000 rows and IsDiscontinued is a bit, not null, but leaving this condition out does not change the outcome. Anyone can tell me how to handle such a situation? More info, anyone? Additional Info: this does not seem to be restricted to this Foreign Key, but all/some referencing this entity.

  Read the article

• Forcing Kernel::method_name to be called in Ruby

  - by Peter

  I want to add a foo method to Ruby's Kernel module, so I can write foo(obj) anywhere and have it do something to obj. Sometimes I want a class to override foo, so I do this: module Kernel private # important; this is what Ruby does for commands like 'puts', etc. def foo x if x.respond_to? :foo x.foo # use overwritten method. else # do something to x. end end end this is good, and works. but, what if I want to use the default Kernel::foo in some other object that overwrites foo? Since I've got an instance method foo, I've lost the original binding to Kernel::foo. class Bar def foo # override behaviour of Kernel::foo for Bar objects. foo(3) # calls Bar::foo, not the desired call of Kernel::foo. Kernel::foo(3) # can't call Kernel::foo because it's private. # question: how do I call Kernel::foo on 3? end end Is there any clean way to get around this? I'd rather not have two different names, and I definitely don't want to make Kernel::foo public.

  Read the article

• Gem Load Error about whois command and removed cache

  - by Puru puru rin..

  Hello, I have an awesome trouble with Gem. After executing this command: rm -f /usr/local/lib/ruby/gems/1.9.1/cache/* I can not do any thing. If I try for instance: gem cleanup I get this kind of answer: /usr/local/lib/ruby/gems/1.9.1/gems/gemwhois-0.1/lib/gemwhois.rb:3:in `require': no such file to load -- rubygems/commands/whois (LoadError) from /usr/local/lib/ruby/gems/1.9.1/gems/gemwhois-0.1/lib/gemwhois.rb:3:in `<top (required)>' from /usr/local/lib/ruby/gems/1.9.1/gems/gemwhois-0.1/lib/rubygems_plugin.rb:2:in `require' from /usr/local/lib/ruby/gems/1.9.1/gems/gemwhois-0.1/lib/rubygems_plugin.rb:2:in `<top (required)>' from /usr/local/lib/ruby/site_ruby/1.9.1/rubygems.rb:1113:in `load' from /usr/local/lib/ruby/site_ruby/1.9.1/rubygems.rb:1113:in `block in <top (required)>' from /usr/local/lib/ruby/site_ruby/1.9.1/rubygems.rb:1105:in `each' from /usr/local/lib/ruby/site_ruby/1.9.1/rubygems.rb:1105:in `<top (required)>' from <internal:gem_prelude>:235:in `require' from <internal:gem_prelude>:235:in `load_full_rubygems_library' from <internal:gem_prelude>:334:in `const_missing' from /usr/local/bin/gem:12:in `<main>' It's the same for gem -v, of just gem command... I'm working of Snow Leopard. What should the best solution about you? Thanks a lot!

  Read the article

• Java: Generics, Class.isaAssignableFrom, and type casting

  - by bguiz

  This method that uses method-level generics, that parses the values from a custom POJO, JXlistOfKeyValuePairs (which is exactly that). The only thing is that both the keys and values in JXlistOfKeyValuePairs are Strings. This method wants to taken in, in addition to the JXlistOfKeyValuePairs instance, a Class<T> that defines which data type to convert the values to (assume that only Boolean, Integer and Float are possible). It then outputs a HashMap with the specified type for the values in its entries. This is the code that I have got, and it is obviously broken. private <T extends Object> Map<String, T> fromListOfKeyValuePairs(JXlistOfKeyValuePairs jxval, Class<T> clasz) { Map<String, T> val = new HashMap<String, T>(); List<Entry> jxents = jxval.getEntry(); T value; String str; for (Entry jxent : jxents) { str = jxent.getValue(); value = null; if (clasz.isAssignableFrom(Boolean.class)) { value = (T)(Boolean.parseBoolean(str)); } else if (clasz.isAssignableFrom(Integer.class)) { value = (T)(Integer.parseInt(str)); } else if (clasz.isAssignableFrom(Float.class)) { value = (T)(Float.parseFloat(str)); } else { logger.warn("Unsupporteded value type encountered in key-value pairs, continuing anyway: " + clasz.getName()); } val.put(jxent.getKey(), value); } return val; } This is the bit that I want to solve: if (clasz.isAssignableFrom(Boolean.class)) { value = (T)(Boolean.parseBoolean(str)); } else if (clasz.isAssignableFrom(Integer.class)) { value = (T)(Integer.parseInt(str)); } I get: Inconvertible types required: T found: Boolean Also, if possible, I would like to be able to do this with more elegant code, avoiding Class#isAssignableFrom. Any suggestions? Sample method invocation: Map<String, Boolean> foo = fromListOfKeyValuePairs(bar, Boolean.class);

  Read the article

• Need some help understanding this problem

  - by Legend

  I was wondering if someone could help me understand this problem. I prepared a small diagram because it is much easier to explain it visually. Problem I am trying to solve: 1. Constructing the dependency graph Given the connectivity of the graph and a metric that determines how well a node depends on the other, order the dependencies. For instance, I could put in a few rules saying that node 3 depends on node 4 node 2 depends on node 3 node 3 depends on node 5 But because the final rule is not "valuable" (again based on the same metric), I will not add the rule to my system. 2. Execute the request order Once I built a dependency graph, execute the list in an order that maximizes the final connectivity. First and foremost, I am wondering if I constructed the problem correctly and if I should be aware of any corner cases. Secondly, is there a closely related algorithm that I can look at? Currently, I am thinking of something like Feedback Arc Set or the Secretary Problem but I am a little confused at the moment. Any suggestions? PS: I am a little confused about the problem myself so please don't flame on me for that. If any clarifications are needed, I will try to update the question.

  Read the article

• What is the proper way to use a Logger in a Serializable Java class?

  - by Tim Visher

  I have the following (doctored) class in a system I'm working on and Findbugs is generating a SE_BAD_FIELD warning and I'm trying to understand why it would say that before I fix it in the way that I thought I would. The reason I'm confused is because the description would seem to indicate that I had used no other non-serializable instance fields in the class but bar.model.Foo is also not serializable and used in the exact same way (as far as I can tell) but Findbugs generates no warning for it. import bar.model.Foo; import java.io.File; import java.io.Serializable; import java.util.List; import org.slf4j.Logger; import org.slf4j.LoggerFactory; public class Demo implements Serializable { private final Logger logger = LoggerFactory.getLogger(this.getClass()); private final File file; private final List<Foo> originalFoos; private Integer count; private int primitive = 0; public Demo() { for (Foo foo : originalFoos) { this.logger.debug(...); } } ... } My initial blush at a solution is to get a logger reference from the factory right as I use it: public DispositionFile() { Logger logger = LoggerFactory.getLogger(this.getClass()); for (Foo foo : originalFoos) { this.logger.debug(...); } } That doesn't seem particularly efficient, though. Thoughts?

  Read the article

• How can I get the type I want?

  - by Danny Chen

  There are a lot of such classes in my project (very old and stable code, I can't do many changes to them, maybe slight changes are OK) public class MyEntity { public long ID { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } public decimal Salary { get; set; } public static GetMyEntity ( long ID ) { MyEntity e = new MyEntity(); // load data from DB and bind to this instance return e; } } For some reasons, now I need to do this: Type t = Type.GetType("XXX"); // XXX is one of the above classes' name MethodInfo staticM= t.GetMethods(BindingFlags.Public | BindingFlags.Static).FirstOrDefault();// I'm sure I can get the correct one var o = staticM.Invoke(...); //returns a object, but I want the type above! If I pass "MyEntity" at beginning, I hope I can get o as MyEntity! Please NOTE that I know the "name of the class" only. MyEntity e = staticM.Invoke(...) as MyEntity; can't be used here.

  Read the article

• How to get the related_name of a many-to-many-field?

  - by amann

  I am trying to get the related_name of a many-to-many-field. The m2m-field is located betweeen the models "Group" and "Lection" and is declared in the group-model as following: lections = models.ManyToManyField(Lection, blank=True) The field looks like this: <django.db.models.fields.related.ManyToManyField object at 0x012AD690> The print of field.__dict__ is: {'_choices': [], '_m2m_column_cache': 'group_id', '_m2m_name_cache': 'group', '_m2m_reverse_column_cache': 'lection_id', '_m2m_reverse_name_cache': 'lection', '_unique': False, 'attname': 'lections', 'auto_created': False, 'blank': True, 'column': 'lections', 'creation_counter': 71, 'db_column': None, 'db_index': False, 'db_table': None, 'db_tablespace': '', 'default': <class django.db.models.fields.NOT_PROVIDED at 0x00FC8780>, 'editable': True, 'error_messages': {'blank': <django.utils.functional.__proxy__ object at 0x00FC 7B50>, 'invalid_choice': <django.utils.functional.__proxy__ object at 0x00FC7A50>, 'null': <django.utils.functional.__proxy__ object at 0x00FC7 A70>}, 'help_text': <django.utils.functional.__proxy__ object at 0x012AD6F0>, 'm2m_column_name': <function _curried at 0x012A88F0>, 'm2m_db_table': <function _curried at 0x012A8AF0>, 'm2m_field_name': <function _curried at 0x012A8970>, 'm2m_reverse_field_name': <function _curried at 0x012A89B0>, 'm2m_reverse_name': <function _curried at 0x012A8930>, 'max_length': None, 'name': 'lections', 'null': False, 'primary_key': False, 'rel': <django.db.models.fields.related.ManyToManyRel object at 0x012AD6B0>, 'related': <RelatedObject: mymodel:group related to lections>, 'related_query_name': <function _curried at 0x012A8670>, 'serialize': True, 'unique_for_date': None, 'unique_for_month': None, 'unique_for_year': None, 'validators': [], 'verbose_name': 'lections'} Now the field should be accessed via a lection-instance. So this is done by lection.group_set But i need to access it dynamically, so there is the need to get the related_name attribute from somewhere. Here in the documentation, there is a note that it is possible to access ManyToManyField.related_name, but this doesn't work for my somehow.. Help would be a lot appreciated. Thanks in advance.

  Read the article

• Latex multicols. Can I group content so it won't split over cols and/or suggest colbreaks?

  - by valadil

  Hi. I'm trying to learn LaTeX. I've been googling this one for a couple days, but I don't speak enough LaTeX to be able to search for it effectively and what documentation I have found is either too simple or goes way over my head (http://www.uoregon.edu/~dspivak/files/multicol.pdf) I have a document using the multicol package. (I'm actually using multicols* so that the first col fills before the second begins instead of trying to balance them, but I don't think that's relevant here.) The columns output nicely, but I want to be able to indicate that some content won't be broken up into different columns. For instance, aaaaaaaa bbbbbbb aaaaaaaa bbbbbbb aaaaaaaa ccccccc bbbbbbbb ccccccc That poor attempt at ascii art columns is what's happening. I'd like to indicate that the b block is a whole unit that shouldn't be broken up into different columns. Since it doesn't fit under the a block, the entirety of the b block should be moved to the second column. Should b be wrapped in something? Is there a block/float/section/box/minipage/paragraph structure I can use? Something specific to multicol? Alternatively is there a way that I can suggest a columnbreak? I'm thinking of something like \- that suggests a hyphenated line break if its convenient, but this would go between blocks. Thanks!

  Read the article

• Unable to get data from a WCF client

  - by Scott

  I am developing a DLL that will provide sychronized time stamps to multiple applications running on the same machine. The timestamps are altered in a thread that uses a high performance timer and a scalar to provide the appearance of moving faster than real-time. For obvious reasons I want only 1 instance of this time library, and I thought I could use WCF for the other processes to connect to this and poll for timestamps whenever they want. When I connect however I never get a valid time stamp, just an empty DateTime. I should point out that the library does work. The original implementation was a single DLL that each application incorporated and each one was synced using windows messages. I'm fairly sure it has something to do with how I'm setting up the WCF stuff, to which I am still pretty new. Here are the contract definitions: public interface ITimerCallbacks { [OperationContract(IsOneWay = true)] void TimerElapsed(String id); } [ServiceContract(SessionMode = SessionMode.Required, CallbackContract = typeof(ITimerCallbacks))] public interface ISimTime { [OperationContract] DateTime GetTime(); } Here is my class definition: [ServiceBehavior(InstanceContextMode = InstanceContextMode.Single)] public class SimTimeServer: ISimTime The host setup: // set up WCF interprocess comms host = new ServiceHost(typeof(SimTimeServer), new Uri[] { new Uri("net.pipe://localhost") }); host.AddServiceEndpoint(typeof(ISimTime), new NetNamedPipeBinding(), "SimTime"); host.Open(); and the implementation of the interface function server-side: public DateTime GetTime() { if (ThreadMutex.WaitOne(20)) { RetTime = CurrentTime; ThreadMutex.ReleaseMutex(); } return RetTime; } Lastly the client-side implementation: Callbacks myCallbacks = new Callbacks(); DuplexChannelFactory pipeFactory = new DuplexChannelFactory(myCallbacks, new NetNamedPipeBinding(), new EndpointAddress("net.pipe://localhost/SimTime")); ISimTime pipeProxy = pipeFactory.CreateChannel(); while (true) { string str = Console.ReadLine(); if (str.ToLower().Contains("get")) Console.WriteLine(pipeProxy.GetTime().ToString()); else if (str.ToLower().Contains("exit")) break; }

  Read the article

• Invoking a method overloaded where all arguments implement the same interface

  - by double07

  Hello, My starting point is the following: - I have a method, transform, which I overloaded to behave differently depending on the type of arguments that are passed in (see transform(A a1, A a2) and transform(A a1, B b) in my example below) - All these arguments implement the same interface, X I would like to apply that transform method on various objects all implementing the X interface. What I came up with was to implement transform(X x1, X x2), which checks for the instance of each object before applying the relevant variant of my transform. Though it works, the code seems ugly and I am also concerned of the performance overhead for evaluating these various instanceof and casting. Is that transform the best I can do in Java or is there a more elegant and/or efficient way of achieving the same behavior? Below is a trivial, working example printing out BA. I am looking for examples on how to improve that code. In my real code, I have naturally more implementations of 'transform' and none are trivial like below. public class A implements X { } public class B implements X { } interface X { } public A transform(A a1, A a2) { System.out.print("A"); return a2; } public A transform(A a1, B b) { System.out.print("B"); return a1; } // Isn't there something better than the code below??? public X transform(X x1, X x2) { if ((x1 instanceof A) && (x2 instanceof A)) { return transform((A) x1, (A) x2); } else if ((x1 instanceof A) && (x2 instanceof B)) { return transform((A) x1, (B) x2); } else { throw new RuntimeException("Transform not implemented for " + x1.getClass() + "," + x2.getClass()); } } @Test public void trivial() { X x1 = new A(); X x2 = new B(); X result = transform(x1, x2); transform(x1, result); }

  Read the article

• routing mvc on the web

  - by generic_noob

  Hi, I was wondering if anyone could possibly provide me some advice on how i could improve the routing (and/or architecture) to each 'section' of my application. (I'm writing in PHP5, and trying to use strict MVC) Basically, I have a generic index page for the app, and that will spew out boilerplate stuff like jquery and the css etc. and it also generates the main navidation for the entire site, but i'm unsure about the best approach to connect the 'main menu' items(hyperlinks) with their associated controllers. Up until now I have been appending strings into the url and using a 'switch' statement to branch to the correct controller(and view) by extracting the strings back out of '$GET[]' to let it execute the code for the corrosponding action. for instance if i had a basic crud system for customer data, the url to edit a customers details would look like 'www.example.com/index.php?page=customer&action=edit&id=4'. I'm worried that there is a security concern by doing it this way, and i'm not sure of an alternative to branch the main 'index.php' file to the correct controller for each action once the user has clicked the link. Would it be better to use mod_rewrite to disguise the controllers names? or to create a similar system to the ASP MVC framework, where there is a seperate routing system where each url is filtered to get the associated controller? Cheers!

  Read the article

• How to check for a null object reference when validating forms in MVC

  - by quakkels

  Hello SO, I'm experimenting with validating forms in the asp.net MVC framework. I'm focusing on server side validation for the time being. I've come across an error that I'm not sure how to rectify. System.NullReferenceException: Object reference not set to an instance of an object. The code that throws the error is: [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult Create([Bind(Exclude="ID")] MembersCreate mc ) { mc.Modules = ModuleListDataContext.GetModuleList(); ViewData.Model = mc; //Validation using ModelState // // //line below errors when form field is empty // if ((string)mc.Member.Username.Trim() == "") ModelState.AddModelError("Member.Username", "Username is required."); if (!ModelState.IsValid) return View(); try { // TODO: Add insert logic here return RedirectToAction("Index","Home"); } catch { return View(); } } When I put spaces in the field it performs exactly as i want, but if I leave the field blank and press submit I get the error. What's the best way to avoid this error and still validate blank form fields? Thanks all -

  Read the article

• SQL-Server: Is there an equivalent of a trigger for general stored procedure execution

  - by Arj

  Hi All, Hope you can help. Is there a way to reliably detect when a stored proc is being run on SQL Server without altering the SP itself? Here's the requirement. We need to track users running reports from our enterprise data warehouse as the core product we use doesn't allow for this. Both core product reports and a slew of in-house ones we've added all return their data from individual stored procs. We don't have a practical way of altering the parts of the product webpages where reports are called from. We also can't change the stored procs for the core product reports. (It would be trivial to add a logging line to the start/end of each of our inhouse ones). What I'm trying to find therefore, is whether there's a way in SQL Server (2005 / 2008) to execute a logging stored proc whenever any other stored procedure runs, without altering those stored procedures themselves. We have general control over the SQL Server instance itself as it's local, we just don't want to change the product stored procs themselves. Any one have any ideas? Is there a kind of "stored proc executing trigger"? Is there an event model for SQL Server that we can hook custom .Net code into? (Just to discount it from the start, we want to try and make a change to SQL Server rather than get into capturing the report being run from the products webpages etc) Thoughts appreciated Thanks

  Read the article

• How do I make JPA POJO classes + Netbeans forms play well together?

  - by Zak

  I started using netbeans to design forms to edit the instances of various classes I have made in a small app I am writing. Basically, the app starts, an initial set of objects is selected from the DB and presented in a list, then an item in the list can be selected for editing. When the editor comes up it has form fields for many of the data fields in the class. The problem I run into is that I have to create a controller that maps each of the data elements to the correct form element, and create an inordinate number of small conversion mapping lines of code to convert numbers into strings and set the correct element in a dropdown, then another inordinate amount of code to go back and update the underlying object with all the values from the form when the save button is clicked. My question is; is there a more directly way to make the editing of the form directly modify the contents of my class instance? I would like to be able to have a default mapping "controller" that I can configure, then override the getter/setter for a particular field if needed. Ideally, there would be standard field validation for things like phone numbers, integers, floats, zip codes, etc... I'm not averse to writing this myself, I would just like to see if it is already out there and use the right tool for the right job.

  Read the article

• problem adding object to hashtable

  - by daemonkid

  I am trying to call a class method dynamically depending on a condition. This is how I am doing it I have three classes implement a single interface interface IReadFile { string DoStuff(); } The three classes A,B,C implement the interface above. I am trying to add them to a hashtable with the code below _HashT.Add("a", new classA()); _HashT.Add("b", new classB()); _HashT.Add("c", new classC()); This compiles fine, but gives a runtime error.{Object reference not set to an instance of an object.} I was planning to return the correct class to the interface type depending on a parameter that matches the key value. say if I send in a. ClassA is returned to the interface type and the method is called. IReadFile Obj = (IReadFile )_HashT["a"].GetType(); obj.DoStuff(); How do I correct the part above where the objects need to be added to the hashtable? Or do I need to use a different approach? All the classes are in the same assembly and namespace. Thanks for your time.

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 493 494 495 496 497 498 499 500 501 502 503 504  | Next Page >