Search Results

Search found 28459 results on 1139 pages for 'task base programming'.

Page 498/1139 | < Previous Page | 494 495 496 497 498 499 500 501 502 503 504 505  | Next Page >

  • Filtering Questions (posts) by tag_name in TagController#index passing /tags?tag_name=something

    - by bgadoci
    I am trying to get my TagsController#index action to display only the Questions that contain certain tags when passing the search parameter tag_name. I am not getting an error just can't get the filter to work correctly such that upon receiving the /tags?tag_name=something url, only those questions are displayed . Here is the setup: class Tag < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :question def self.search(str) return [] if str.blank? cond_text = str.split.map{|w| "tag_name LIKE ? "}.join(" OR ") cond_values = str.split.map{|w| "%#{w}%"} all(:order => "created_at DESC", :conditions => (str ? [cond_text, *cond_values] : [])) end end and class Question < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :tags, :dependent => :destroy end tag link that would send the URL to the TagsController looks like this: <%= link_to(tag_name, tags_path(:tag_name => tag_name)) %> and outputs: /tags?tag_name=something In my /views/tags/index.html.erb view I am calling the questions by rendering a partial /views/questions/_question.html.erb. <%= render :partial => @questions %> When I send the URL with the search parameter nothing happens. Here is my TagsController#index action: def index @tags = Tag.search(params[:search]).paginate :page => params[:page], :per_page => 5 @tagsearch = Tag.search(params[:search]) @tag_counts = Tag.count(:group => :tag_name, :order => 'count_all DESC', :limit => 100) @questions = Question.all( :order => 'created_at DESC', :limit => 50) respond_to do |format| format.html # index.html.erb format.xml { render :xml => @tags } end end How can I properly filter questions displayed in the /views/tags/index.html.erb file for the parameter tag.tag_name?

    Read the article

  • sed script to remove file name duplicates

    - by dma_k
    Dear community, I hope the below task will be very easy for sed lovers. I am not sed-guru, but I need to express the following task in sed, as sed is more popular on Linux systems. The input text stream is something which is produced by "make depends" and looks like following: pgm2asc.o: pgm2asc.c ../include/config.h amiga.h list.h pgm2asc.h pnm.h \ output.h gocr.h unicode.h ocr1.h ocr0.h otsu.h barcode.h progress.h box.o: box.c gocr.h pnm.h ../include/config.h unicode.h list.h pgm2asc.h \ output.h database.o: database.c gocr.h pnm.h ../include/config.h unicode.h list.h \ pgm2asc.h output.h detect.o: detect.c pgm2asc.h pnm.h ../include/config.h output.h gocr.h \ unicode.h list.h I need to catch only C++ header files (i.e. ending with .h), make the list unique and print as space-separated list prepending src/ as a path-prefix. This is achieved by the following perl script: make libs-depends | perl -e 'while (<>) { while (/ ([\w\.\/]+?\.h)/g) { $a{$1} = 1; } } print join " ", map { "src/$_" } keys %a;' The output is: src/unicode.h src/pnm.h src/progress.h src/amiga.h src/ocr0.h src/ocr1.h src/otsu.h src/barcode.h src/gocr.h src/../include/config.h src/list.h src/pgm2asc.h src/output.h Please, help to express this in sed.

    Read the article

  • How to override part of an overload function in JavaScript

    - by Guan Yuxin
    I create a class with a function like this var Obj=function(){this.children=[];this.parent=null;}//a base class Obj.prototype.index=function(child){ // the index of current obj if(arguments.length==0){ return this.parent?this.parent.index(this):0; } // the index of a child matchs specific obj [to be override] return -1; } basically it is just an overload function composed of index() and index(child). Then I create a sub class,SubObj or whatever, inherits from Obj SubObj.prototype.prototype=Obj; Now, it's time to override the index(child) function,however, index() is also in the function an I don't want to overwrite it too. One solution is to write like this var Obj=function(){this.children=[];this.parent=null;}//a base class Obj.prototype.index=function(child){ // the index of current obj if(arguments.length==0){ return this.parent?this.parent.index(this):0; } // the index of a child matchs specific obj [to be override] return this._index(this); } Obj.prototype._index=function(this){ return -1; } SubObj.prototype._index=function(this){/* overwriteing */} But this will easily mislead other coders as _index(child) should be both private(should not be used except index() function) and public(is an overload function of index(),which is public) you guys have better idea?

    Read the article

  • Am I a dinosaur programmer?

    - by dlb
    I have been a professional programmer for more than 30 years, and have chosen a career path involving hands-on programming. Programming is something that I love, and I take great pride in the fact that I have continued to keep up to date with current technology. Projects on which I have worked include large enterprise projects as well as smaller desktop programs. The problem I am facing is that I do not have any web-based experience other than some web services. Most of the jobs now available have some web component. I have now been out of work for a year and a half, and have been keeping busy by studying technology that will bridge that gap: CSS, Java Script, JQuery, and Ruby on Rails; AJAX is next. Hiring managers give no consideration whatsoever to the studying that I have been doing. I know that I cannot compete at a senior software level, but companies will not hire someone with my experience at a more junior level. Is there any way to break out of this Catch 22?

    Read the article

  • Cannot perform an ORDERBY against my EF4 data

    - by Jaxidian
    I have a query hitting EF4 using STEs and I'm having an issue with user-defined sorting. In debugging this, I have removed the dynamic sorting and am hard-coding it and I still have the issue. If I swap/uncomment the var results = xxx lines in GetMyBusinesses(), my results are not sorted any differently - they are always sorting it ascendingly. FYI, Name is a varchar(200) field in SQL 2008 on my Business table. private IQueryable<Business> GetMyBusinesses(MyDBContext CurrentContext) { var myBusinesses = from a in CurrentContext.A join f in CurrentContext.F on a.FID equals f.id join b in CurrentContext.Businesses on f.BID equals b.id where a.PersonID == 52 select b; var results = from r in myBusinesses orderby "Name" ascending select r; //var results = from r in results // orderby "Name" descending // select r; return results; } private PartialEntitiesList<Business> DoStuff() { var myBusinesses = GetMyBusinesses(); var myBusinessesCount = GetMyBusinesses().Count(); Results = new PartialEntitiesList<Business>(myBusinesses.Skip((PageNumber - 1)*PageSize).Take(PageSize).ToList()) {UnpartialTotalCount = myBusinessesCount}; return Results; } public class PartialEntitiesList<T> : List<T> { public PartialEntitiesList() { } public PartialEntitiesList(int capacity) : base(capacity) { } public PartialEntitiesList(IEnumerable<T> collection) : base(collection) { } public int UnpartialTotalCount { get; set; } }

    Read the article

  • Best ways to construct Dynamic Search Conditions for Sql

    - by CoolBeans
    I have always wondered what's the best way to achieve this task. In most web based applications you have to provide search options on many different criteria. Based on what criteria is chosen behind the scene you modify your SQL. Generally, this is how I tend to go about it:- Have a base SQL template. In the base template have conditions like this WHERE [#PRE_COND1] AND [#PRE_COND2] .. so on and so forth. So an example SQL might look something like SELECT NAME,AGE FROM PERSONS [,#TABLE2] [,#TABLE3] WHERE [#PRE_COND1] AND [#PRE_COND2] ORDER BY [#ORD_COND1] AND [#ORD_COND2] etc. During run time after figuring out the all the search criteria user has entered, I replace the [#PRE_COND1]s and [#ORD_COND1]s with the appropriate SQLs and then execute the query. I personally do not like this brute force method. However, I never came across a better approach either. How do you accomplish such tasks generally given you are either using native JDBC or Spring JDBC? It is almost like I need a C MACRO like functionality in Java to do this.

    Read the article

  • Using boost::iterator_adaptor

    - by Neil G
    I wrote a sparse vector class (see #1, #2.) I would like to provide two kinds of iterators: The first set, the regular iterators, can point any element, whether set or unset. If they are read from, they return either the set value or value_type(), if they are written to, they create the element and return the lvalue reference. Thus, they are: Random Access Traversal Iterator and Readable and Writable Iterator The second set, the sparse iterators, iterate over only the set elements. Since they don't need to lazily create elements that are written to, they are: Random Access Traversal Iterator and Readable and Writable and Lvalue Iterator I also need const versions of both, which are not writable. I can fill in the blanks, but not sure how to use boost::iterator_adaptor to start out. Here's what I have so far: class iterator : public boost::iterator_adaptor< iterator // Derived , value_type* // Base , boost::use_default // Value , boost::?????? // CategoryOrTraversal > class sparse_iterator : public boost::iterator_adaptor< iterator // Derived , value_type* // Base , boost::use_default // Value , boost::random_access_traversal_tag? // CategoryOrTraversal >

    Read the article

  • How to write curiously recurring templates with more than 2 layers of inheritance?

    - by Kyle
    All the material I've read on Curiously Recurring Template Pattern seems to one layer of inheritance, ie Base and Derived : Base<Derived>. What if I want to take it one step further? #include <iostream> using std::cout; template<typename LowestDerivedClass> class A { public: LowestDerivedClass& get() { return *static_cast<LowestDerivedClass*>(this); } void print() { cout << "A\n"; } }; template<typename LowestDerivedClass> class B : public A<LowestDerivedClass> { public: void print() { cout << "B\n"; } }; class C : public B<C> { public: void print() { cout << "C\n"; } }; int main() { C c; c.get().print(); // B b; // Intentionally bad syntax, // b.get().print(); // to demonstrate what I'm trying to accomplish return 0; } How can I rewrite this code to compile without errors (and output "C\nB\n")?

    Read the article

  • Committing to a different branch with commit -r

    - by Amarghosh
    Does CVS allow committing a file to a different branch than the one it was checked out from? The man page and some sites suggest that we can do a cvs ci -r branch-1 file.c but it gives the following error: cvs commit: Up-to-date check failed for `file.c' cvs [commit aborted]: correct above errors first! I did a cvs diff -r branch-1 file.c to make sure that contents of file.c in my BASE and branch-1 are indeed the same. I know that we can manually check out using cvs co -r branch-1, merge the main branch to it (and fix any merge issues) and then do a check in. The problem is that there are a number of branches and I would like to automate things using a script. This thread seems to suggest that -r has been removed. Can someone confirm that? If ci -r is not supported, I am thinking of doing something like: Make sure the branch versions and base version are the same with a cvs diff Check in to the current branch Keep a copy of the file in a temp file For each branch: Check out from branch with -r replace the file with the temp file Check in (it'll go the branch as -r is sticky) Delete the temp file The replacing part sounds like cheating to me - can you think of any potential issues that might occur? Anything I should be careful about? Is there any other way to automate this process?

    Read the article

  • Should I go to school and get my degree in computer science?

    - by ryan
    I'll try and keep this short and simple. I've always enjoyed programming and I've been doing it since high school. Right after I graduated from high school (2002), I opted to skip college because I was offered a software engineer position. I quit after a couple of years later to team up on various startup companies. However, most of them did not launch as well as expected. But it honestly did not matter to me because I've learned so much from that experience. So fast forwarding to today, now turned 25, I need a job due to this tough economic climate. Looking on Craigslist, a lot of the listings require computer science degrees. It's evident now that programming is what I want to do because I seem to never get enough of it. But just the thought of having to push 2 years without attending any real computer class for an Associates at age 25 is very, very discouraging. And the thought of having to learn from basic (Hello WOOOOORRLLLD) just does not seem exciting. I guess I have 3 questions to wrap this up: Should I just suck it up and go back to school while working at McDonalds at age 25? Is there a way where I can just skip all the boring stuff and just get tested with what I know? From your experience, how many jobs use computer science degrees as prerequisites? Or am I screwed and better pray that my next startup will be the next big thing?

    Read the article

  • Problem in homemade function to merge objects

    - by Eric
    I'm trying to make a function that merges arrays. The reason is, I have a function that supposed to get the settings of an entity, and merge them with the global defaults. //So for example, let's say globalOptions is something like this var globalOptions={opt1:'foo',opt2:'something'}; //and this is entityOptions var entityOptions={opt1:'foofoo',opt2:null}; The only difference is it has objects in objects and objects in objects in objects, so what I made was a function that loops through all objects, thinking I would later, easily be able to loop through it all. Please ignore the array thing. That is defected, but unneeded. function loopObj(obj, call, where, objcall, array) { if ($.isArray(obj) || $.isPlainObject(obj)) { for (i in obj) { if ($.isArray(obj)) { if (array) { loopObj(obj[i], call, where[where.length] = i, true); if (objcall) { call(obj[i],where,true); } } else { loopObj(obj[i], call, where+'['+i+']', false); if (objcall) { call(obj[i],where,true); } } } else { if (array) { loopObj(obj[i], call, where[where.length] = parseInt(i), true); if (objcall) { call(obj[i],where,true); } } else { loopObj(obj[i], call, where+'[\''+i+'\']', false); if (objcall) { call(obj[i],where,true); } } } } } else { return call(obj,where); } } Then I made this program to convert it: function mergeObj(a,b) { temp.retd = new Object(); loopObj(a,function (c,d) { if (c) { eval(d.replace('%par%','temp.retd'))=c; } else { eval(d.replace('%par%','temp.retd'))=eval(d.replace('%par%','b')); } },'%par%', true); return temp.retd(); } I get the error: Uncaught ReferenceError: Invalid left-hand side in assignment (anonymous function)base.js:51 loopObjbase.js:40 loopObjbase.js:31 mergeObjbase.js:46 (anonymous function)base.js:72 I know what it means, the eval returns an anonomys variable (copy of the variable), so I can't set it, only get it.

    Read the article

  • Sanitizing User Input with Ruby on Rails

    - by phreakre
    I'm writing a very simple CRUD app that takes user stories and stores them into a database so another fellow coder can organize them for a project we're both working on. However, I have come across a problem with sanitizing user input before it is saved into the database. I cannot call the sanitize() function from within the Story model to strip out all of the html/scripting. It requires me to do the following: def sanitize_inputs self.name = ActionController::Base.helpers.sanitize(self.name) unless self.name.nil? self.story = ActionController::Base.helpers.sanitize(self.story) unless self.story.nil? end I want to validate that the user input has been sanitized and I am unsure of two things: 1) When should the user input validation take place? Before the data is saved is pretty obvious, I think, however, should I be processing this stuff in the Controller, before validation, or some other non-obvious area before I validate that the user input has no scripting/html tags? 2) Writing a unit test for this model, how would I verify that the scripting/html is removed besides comparing "This is a malicious code example" to the sanitize(example) output? Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Python class structure ... prep() method?

    - by Adam Nelson
    We have a metaclass, a class, and a child class for an alert system: class AlertMeta(type): """ Metaclass for all alerts Reads attrs and organizes AlertMessageType data """ def __new__(cls, base, name, attrs): new_class = super(AlertMeta, cls).__new__(cls, base, name, attrs) # do stuff to new_class return new_class class BaseAlert(object): """ BaseAlert objects should be instantiated in order to create new AlertItems. Alert objects have classmethods for dequeue (to batch AlertItems) and register (for associated a user to an AlertType and AlertMessageType) If the __init__ function recieves 'dequeue=True' as a kwarg, then all other arguments will be ignored and the Alert will check for messages to send """ __metaclass__ = AlertMeta def __init__(self, **kwargs): dequeue = kwargs.pop('dequeue',None) if kwargs: raise ValueError('Unexpected keyword arguments: %s' % kwargs) if dequeue: self.dequeue() else: # Do Normal init stuff def dequeue(self): """ Pop batched AlertItems """ # Dequeue from a custom queue class CustomAlert(BaseAlert): def __init__(self,**kwargs): # prepare custom init data super(BaseAlert, self).__init__(**kwargs) We would like to be able to make child classes of BaseAlert (CustomAlert) that allow us to run dequeue and to be able to run their own __init__ code. We think there are three ways to do this: Add a prep() method that returns True in the BaseAlert and is called by __init__. Child classes could define their own prep() methods. Make dequeue() a class method - however, alot of what dequeue() does requires non-class methods - so we'd have to make those class methods as well. Create a new class for dealing with the queue. Would this class extend BaseAlert? Is there a standard way of handling this type of situation?

    Read the article

  • NHibernate Entity code conversion from #C to VB.Net

    - by CoderRoller
    Hello and thanks for your help in advance. I am starting on the NHibernate world and i am experimenting with the NHibernate CookBook recipes, i am trying to set a base entity class for my entities and this is the C# code for this. I would like to know whats the VB.NET version so i can implement it in my sample project. This is the C# code: public abstract class Entity<TId> { public virtual TId Id { get; protected set; } public override bool Equals(object obj) { return Equals(obj as Entity<TId>); } private static bool IsTransient(Entity<TId> obj) { return obj != null && Equals(obj.Id, default(TId)); } private Type GetUnproxiedType() { return GetType(); } public virtual bool Equals(Entity<TId> other) { if (other == null) return false; if (ReferenceEquals(this, other)) return true; if (!IsTransient(this) && !IsTransient(other) && Equals(Id, other.Id)) { var otherType = other.GetUnproxiedType(); var thisType = GetUnproxiedType(); return thisType.IsAssignableFrom(otherType) || otherType.IsAssignableFrom(thisType); } return false; } public override int GetHashCode() { if (Equals(Id, default(TId))) return base.GetHashCode(); return Id.GetHashCode(); } } I tried using an online converter but puts a Nothing reference in place of default(TId) that doesn't seem right to me that's why I request for help: Private Shared Function IsTransient(obj As Entity(Of TId)) As Boolean Return obj IsNot Nothing AndAlso Equals(obj.Id, Nothing) End Function I Would appreciate the insight you may give me on the subject.

    Read the article

  • How to update attributes without valitation

    - by Brian Roisentul
    I've got a model with its validations, and I found out that I can't update an attribute without validating the object before. I already tried to add on => :create syntax at the end of each validation line, but I got the same results. My announcement model have the following validations: validates_presence_of :title validates_presence_of :description validates_presence_of :announcement_type_id validate :validates_publication_date validate :validates_start_date validate :validates_start_end_dates validate :validates_category validate :validates_province validates_length_of :title, :in => 6..255, :on => :save validates_length_of :subtitle, :in => 0..255, :on => :save validates_length_of :subtitle, :in => 0..255, :on => :save validates_length_of :place, :in => 0..50, :on => :save validates_numericality_of :vacants, :greater_than_or_equal_to => 0, :only_integer => true validates_numericality_of :price, :greater_than_or_equal_to => 0, :only_integer => true My rake task does the following: task :announcements_expiration => :environment do announcements = Announcement.expired announcements.each do |a| #Gets the user that owns the announcement user = User.find(a.user_id) puts a.title + '...' a.state = 'deactivated' if a.update_attributes(:state => a.state) puts 'state changed to deactivated' else a.errors.each do |e| puts e end end end This throws all the validation exceptions for that model, in the output. Does anybody how to update an attribute without validating the model?

    Read the article

  • How to preserve the state of JavaScript closure?

    - by Uccio
    I am working on a migration platform to migrate web applications from a device to another. I am extending it to add the support for preserving JavaScript state. My main task is to create a file representing the current state of the executing application, to transmit it to another device and to reload the state in the destination device. The basic solution I adopted is to navigate the window object and to save all its descendant properties using JSON as base format for exportation and extending it to implement some features: preserving object reference, even if cyclic (dojox.json.ref library) support for timers Date non-numericproperties of arrays reference to DOM elements The most important task I need to solve now is exportation of closures. At this moment I didn't know how to implement this feature. I read about the internal EcmaScript property [[scope]] containing the scope chain of a function, a list-like object composed by all the nested activation context of the function. Unfortunately it is not accessible by JavaScript. Anyone know if there is a way to directly access the [[scope]] property? Or another way to preserve the state of a closure?

    Read the article

  • Shared Git repo syncing to svn causing git svn rebase to pollute repo with a log of no-op merge prob

    - by John K
    This wasn't so bad at the beginning, but now I have hundreds of no-op merge problems (solved by git rebase --skip). I have setup a shared git repo for my group because it is easier to deal with. But the company uses SVN so I have to keep SVN in sync with GIT. Worked like a dream at first, but after weeks of doing this GIT is giving me a lot of the following errors. Applying: * making all config actions work Using index info to reconstruct a base tree... Falling back to patching base and 3-way merge... Auto-merging app/controllers/vulnerabilities_controller.rb CONFLICT (content): Merge conflict in app/controllers/vulnerabilities_controller.rb Auto-merging public/javascripts/network_analysis_vulnerability_config.js CONFLICT (content): Merge conflict in public/javascripts/network_analysis_vulnerability_config.js Failed to merge in the changes. Patch failed at 0046 * making all config actions work My workflow: git co master git pull origin git svn rebase ... deal with no-op merge problems ... git svn dcommit git pull origin git push origin The problem is that what is in SVN is the correct so I use git rebase --skip, but I have to do that hundreds of times before I can dcommit. How do I clear these merge problems permanently?

    Read the article

  • php while loop throwing a error over a $var < 10 statement

    - by William
    Okay, so for some reason this is giving me a error as seen here: http://prime.programming-designs.com/test_forum/viewboard.php?board=0 However if I take away the '&& $cur_row < 10' it works fine. Why is the '&& $cur_row < 10' causing me a problem? $sql_result = mysql_query("SELECT post, name, trip, Thread FROM (SELECT MIN(ID) AS min_id, MAX(ID) AS max_id, MAX(Date) AS max_date FROM test_posts GROUP BY Thread ) t_min_max INNER JOIN test_posts ON test_posts.ID = t_min_max.min_id WHERE Board=".$board." ORDER BY max_date DESC", $db); $num_rows = mysql_num_rows($sql_result); $cur_row = 0; while($row = mysql_fetch_row($sql_result) && $cur_row < 10) { $sql_max_post_query = mysql_query("SELECT ID FROM test_posts WHERE Thread=".$row[3].""); $post_num = mysql_num_rows($sql_max_post_query); $post_num--; $cur_row++; echo''.$cur_row.'<br/>'; echo'<div class="postbox"><h4>'.$row[1].'['.$row[2].']</h4><hr />' .$row[0]. '<br /><hr />[<a href="http://prime.programming-designs.com/test_forum/viewthread.php?thread='.$row[3].'">Reply</a>] '.$post_num.' posts omitted.</div>'; }

    Read the article

  • Separate "Year" to several worksheets according to one column....

    - by HACHI
    hello! This task is driving me mad... please help! Instead of manually type in the data, i have used VBA to find the year range, put into one column and delete all duplicate ones. But since excel could give more than 20 years, it would be tedious to do all the filtering manually. AND, now i need excel to separate the rows that contain the specific year range in any one the three columns and put them into a new sheet. e.g. The years that excel could find in the three columns(F:H) are ( 2001,2003,2006,2010, 2012,2020.....2033).. and they are pasted in column "S" in sheet 1. How could i tell excel create new sheets for the years ( sheets 2001, sheets 2003, sheet2006....),search through column (F:H) in sheet 1 to see if ANY of those columns contain that year, and paste them into the new sheet. To be more specific, in the newly created "Sheet 2001", the entire row where column(F:H) contains "2001" should be pasted. and in the newly created "Sheet 2033", the entire row where column(F:H) contains "2033" should be pasted.. Enclosed please find the reference. http://www.speedyshare.com/files/23851477/Book32.xls I have got sheet "2002" and "2003" here as results but for the real one i will need more years' sheets (as many as how many excel could extract in the previous stage; as shown in column L ) ...... I think this task should be quite usual (extracting by date), but i couldn't google the result....Pleas help!!I am very clueless about how to do LOOPING.. so please advice and give in more details! Thanks

    Read the article

  • User Defined Conversions in C++

    - by wash
    Recently, I was browsing through my copy of the C++ Pocket Reference from O'Reilly Media, and I was surprised when I came across a brief section and example regarding user-defined conversion for user-defined types: #include <iostream> class account { private: double balance; public: account (double b) { balance = b; } operator double (void) { return balance; } }; int main (void) { account acc(100.0); double balance = acc; std::cout << balance << std::endl; return 0; } I've been programming in C++ for awhile, and this is the first time I've ever seen this sort of operator overloading. The book's description of this subject is somewhat brief, leaving me with a few unanswered questions about this feature: Is this a particularly obscure feature? As I said, I've been programming in C++ for awhile and this is the first time I've ever come across this. I haven't had much luck finding more in-depth material regarding this. Is this relatively portable? (I'm compiling on GCC 4.1) Can user-defined conversions to user defined types be done? e.g. operator std::string () { /* code */ }

    Read the article

  • Asynchronous Controller is blocking requests in ASP.NET MVC through jQuery

    - by Jason
    I have just started using the AsyncController in my project to take care of some long-running reports. Seemed ideal at the time since I could kick off the report and then perform a few other actions while waiting for it to come back and populate elements on the screen. My controller looks a bit like this. I tried to use a thread to perform the long task which I'd hoped would free up the controller to take more requests: public class ReportsController : AsyncController { public void LongRunningActionAsync() { AsyncManager.OutstandingOperations.Increment(); var newThread = new Thread(LongTask); newThread.Start(); } private void LongTask() { // Do something that takes a really long time //....... AsyncManager.OutstandingOperations.Decrement(); } public ActionResult LongRunningActionCompleted(string message) { // Set some data up on the view or something... return View(); } public JsonResult AnotherControllerAction() { // Do a quick task... return Json("..."); } } But what I am finding is that when I call LongRunningAction using the jQuery ajax request, any further requests I make after that back up behind it and are not processed until LongRunningAction completes. For example, call LongRunningAction which takes 10 seconds and then call AnotherControllerAction which is less than a second. AnotherControllerAction simply waits until LongRunningAction completes before returning a result. I've also checked the jQuery code, but this still happens if I specifically set "async: true": $.ajax({ async: true, type: "POST", url: "/Reports.aspx/LongRunningAction", dataType: "html", success: function(data, textStatus, XMLHttpRequest) { // ... }, error: function(XMLHttpRequest, textStatus, errorThrown) { // ... } }); At the moment I just have to assume that I'm using it incorrectly, but I'm hoping one of you guys can clear my mental block!

    Read the article

  • Rails how to return a list of answers with a specific question_id

    - by mytwocentsisworthtwocents
    Let's say I have two Models, Answers and Questions (there are others, but irrelevant to the question). The models are as follows: Answer.rb class Answer < ActiveRecord::Base attr_accessible :description, :question_id has_one :question, :through => :user, :dependent => :destroy validates :description, :presence => true end Question.rb class Question < ActiveRecord::Base attr_accessible :budget, :description, :headline, :user_id, :updated_at, :created_at belongs_to :user has_many :answers validates :headline, :description, :user_id, :presence => true end I'd like to display on a page a list of all answers associated with a question, and only those questions. I got this far. I believe this variable finds all the questions in the database by the question_id (foreign key): @findanswers = Answer.all(params[:question_id]) And this one grabs the the id of the current question (this code will reside as an ERB on the page where the current question is located): @questionshow = Question.find(params[:id]) And now I'm stuck. How do I put the two together so that I list all the answers with the current question id?

    Read the article

  • How to use App.Xaml's ResourseDictionaries with own entry point

    - by Polaris
    Hello friends. I created some logic for singleInstance application and I must to use my own entry point (not App.xaml) for Application. I have some styles in App.xaml which now is not working. How can I use this ResourceDictionaries from my App.xaml for entire project in my situation? My class for manage Application Startup public class SingleInstanceManager : WindowsFormsApplicationBase { App app; public SingleInstanceManager() { this.IsSingleInstance = true; } protected override bool OnStartup(Microsoft.VisualBasic.ApplicationServices.StartupEventArgs e) { try { // First time app is launched app = new App(); App.Current.Properties["rcID"] = e.CommandLine; //IntroLibrary.OpenDocumentFromNotify(); app.Run(); return false; } catch (Exception ex) { MessageBox.Show(ex.Message); return false; } } protected override void OnStartupNextInstance(StartupNextInstanceEventArgs eventArgs) { // Subsequent launches base.OnStartupNextInstance(eventArgs); Intro win = (Intro)app.MainWindow; if (eventArgs != null) { App.Current.Properties["rcID"] = eventArgs.CommandLine[0]; } IntroLibrary.OpenDocumentFromNotify(); app.Activate(); } } and my own Entry Point: public class EntryPoint { [STAThread] public static void Main(string[] args) { SingleInstanceManager manager = new SingleInstanceManager(); manager.Run(args); } } And my App.Xaml code behind: public partial class App : Application { protected override void OnStartup(System.Windows.StartupEventArgs e) { base.OnStartup(e); // Create and show the application's main window Intro window = new Intro(); window.Show(); } public void Activate() { // Reactivate application's main window this.MainWindow.Activate(); } } And my App.xaml has some code which decribe ResourceDictionaries which doesnt work. Why?

    Read the article

  • Ways to make (relatively) safe assumptions about the type of concrete subclasses?

    - by Kylotan
    I have an interface (defined as a abstract base class) that looks like this: class AbstractInterface { public: bool IsRelatedTo(const AbstractInterface& other) const = 0; } And I have an implementation of this (constructors etc omitted): class ConcreteThing { public: bool IsRelatedTo(const AbstractInterface& other) const { return m_ImplObject.has_relationship_to(other.m_ImplObject); } private: ImplementationObject m_ImplObject; } The AbstractInterface forms an interface in Project A, and the ConcreteThing lives in Project B as an implementation of that interface. This is so that code in Project A can access data from Project B without having a direct dependency on it - Project B just has to implement the correct interface. Obviously the line in the body of the IsRelatedTo function cannot compile - that instance of ConcreteThing has an m_ImplObject member, but it can't assume that all AbstractInterfaces do, including the other argument. In my system, I can actually assume that all implementations of AbstractInterface are instances of ConcreteThing (or subclasses thereof), but I'd prefer not to be casting the object to the concrete type in order to get at the private member, or encoding that assumption in a way that will crash without a diagnostic later if this assumption ceases to hold true. I cannot modify ImplementationObject, but I can modify AbstractInterface and ConcreteThing. I also cannot use the standard RTTI mechanism for checking a type prior to casting, or use dynamic_cast for a similar purpose. I have a feeling that I might be able to overload IsRelatedTo with a ConcreteThing argument, but I'm not sure how to call it via the base IsRelatedTo(AbstractInterface) method. It wouldn't get called automatically as it's not a strict reimplementation of that method. Is there a pattern for doing what I want here, allowing me to implement the IsRelatedTo function via ImplementationObject::has_relationship_to(ImplementationObject), without risky casts? (Also, I couldn't think of a good question title - please change it if you have a better one.)

    Read the article

  • Can you explain this generics behavior and if I have a workaround?

    - by insta
    Sample program below: using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Text; namespace GenericsTest { class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { IRetrievable<int, User> repo = new FakeRepository(); Console.WriteLine(repo.Retrieve(35)); } } class User { public int Id { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } } class FakeRepository : BaseRepository<User>, ICreatable<User>, IDeletable<User>, IRetrievable<int, User> { // why do I have to implement this here, instead of letting the // TKey generics implementation in the baseclass handle it? //public User Retrieve(int input) //{ // throw new NotImplementedException(); //} } class BaseRepository<TPoco> where TPoco : class,new() { public virtual TPoco Create() { return new TPoco(); } public virtual bool Delete(TPoco item) { return true; } public virtual TPoco Retrieve<TKey>(TKey input) { return null; } } interface ICreatable<TPoco> { TPoco Create(); } interface IDeletable<TPoco> { bool Delete(TPoco item); } interface IRetrievable<TKey, TPoco> { TPoco Retrieve(TKey input); } } This sample program represents the interfaces my actual program uses, and demonstrates the problem I'm having (commented out in FakeRepository). I would like for this method call to be generically handled by the base class (which in my real example is able to handle 95% of the cases given to it), allowing for overrides in the child classes by specifying the type of TKey explicitly. It doesn't seem to matter what parameter constraints I use for the IRetrievable, I can never get the method call to fall through to the base class. Also, if anyone can see an alternate way to implement this kind of behavior and get the result I'm ultimately looking for, I would be very interested to see it. Thoughts?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 494 495 496 497 498 499 500 501 502 503 504 505  | Next Page >