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  • How to connect to the process

    - by Polaris
    I have WPF Application. My Application consist of 2 exe files: Notifier.exe and MainApp.exe. Notifier is system tray popup application which check the remote server in equal intervals and get the list of current documents of user. When user click on one of the documents in list in Notification popup I open MainApp.exe and show required document in new tab. But When user click on another document in list it open new MainApp.exe process. Question: How Can I connect specific (already opened) process in the operating system and create some object in it?

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  • XSLT: moving a grouping html elements into section levels

    - by Jeff
    Hello there, I'm trying to write an XSLT that organizes an HTML file into different section levels depending on the header level. Here is my input: <html> <head> <title></title> </head> <body> <h1>HEADER 1 CONTENT</h1> <p>Level 1 para</p> <p>Level 1 para</p> <p>Level 1 para</p> <p>Level 1 para</p> <h2>Header 2 CONTENT</h2> <p>Level 2 para</p> <p>Level 2 para</p> <p>Level 2 para</p> <p>Level 2 para</p> </body> </html> I'm working with a fairly simple structure at the moment so this pattern will be constant for the time-being. I need an output like this... <document> <section level="1"> <header1>Header 1 CONTENT</header1> <p>Level 1 para</p> <p>Level 1 para</p> <p>Level 1 para</p> <p>Level 1 para</p> <section level="2"> <header2>Header 2 CONTENT</header2> <p>Level 2 para</p> <p>Level 2 para</p> <p>Level 2 para</p> <p>Level 2 para</p> </section> </section> </document> I had been working with this example: Stackoverflow Answer However, I cannot get it to do exactly what I need. I'm using Saxon 9 to run the xslt within Oxygen for dev. I'll be using a cmd/bat file in production. Still Saxon 9. I'd like to handle up to 4 nested section levels if possible. Any help is much appreciated! I need to append onto this as I've encountered another stipulation. I probably should have thought of this before. I'm encountering the following code sample <html> <head> <title></title> </head> <body> <p>Level 1 para</p> <p>Level 1 para</p> <p>Level 1 para</p> <p>Level 1 para</p> <h1>Header 2 CONTENT</h1> <p>Level 2 para</p> <p>Level 2 para</p> <p>Level 2 para</p> <p>Level 2 para</p> </body> </html> As you can see, the <p> is a child of <body> while in my first snippet, <p> was always a child of a header level. My desired result is the same as above except that when I encounter <p> as a child of <body>, it should be wrapped in <section level="1">. <document> <section level="1"> <p>Level 1 para</p> <p>Level 1 para</p> <p>Level 1 para</p> <p>Level 1 para</p> </section> <section level="1"> <header1>Header 2 CONTENT</header1> <p>Level 2 para</p> <p>Level 2 para</p> <p>Level 2 para</p> <p>Level 2 para</p> </section> </document>

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  • use JSON variable in jQuery dynamically

    - by user1644123
    I have two DIVs, #placeholder AND #imageLoad. When the user clicks on a particular thumb its larger version (thumb2) should then appear in #imageLoad DIV. Here is the jQuery that needs to be fixed: $.getJSON('jsonFile.json', function(data) { var output="<ul>"; for (var i in data.items) { output+="<li><img src=images/items/" + data.items[i].thumb + ".jpg></li>"; } output+="</ul>"; document.getElementById("placeholder").innerHTML=output; }); //This is wrong!! Not working.. $('li').on({ mouseenter: function() { document.getElementById("imageLoad").innerHTML="<img src=images/items/" + data.items[i].thumb2 + ".jpg>"; } }); Here is the external JSON file below (jsonFile.json): {"items":[ { "id":"1", "thumb":"01_sm", "thumb2":"01_md" }, { "id":"2", "thumb":"02_sm", "thumb2":"02_md" } ]}

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  • JSON datetime to SQL Server database via WCF

    - by moikey
    I have noticed a problem over the past couple of days where my dates submitted to an sql server database are wrong. I have a webpage, where users can book facilities. This webpage takes a name, a date, a start time and an end time(BookingID is required for transactions but generated by database), which I format as a JSON string as follows: {"BookingEnd":"\/Date(2012-26-03 09:00:00.000)\/","BookingID":1,"BookingName":"client test 1","BookingStart":"\/Date(2012-26-03 10:00:00.000)\/","RoomID":4} This is then passed to a WCF service, which handles the database insert as follows: [WebInvoke(Method = "POST", RequestFormat = WebMessageFormat.Json, UriTemplate = "createbooking")] void CreateBooking(Booking booking); [DataContract] public class Booking { [DataMember] public int BookingID { get; set; } [DataMember] public string BookingName { get; set; } [DataMember] public DateTime BookingStart { get; set; } [DataMember] public DateTime BookingEnd { get; set; } [DataMember] public int RoomID { get; set; } } Booking.svc public void CreateBooking(Booking booking) { BookingEntity bookingEntity = new BookingEntity() { BookingName = booking.BookingName, BookingStart = booking.BookingStart, BookingEnd = booking.BookingEnd, RoomID = booking.RoomID }; BookingsModel model = new BookingsModel(); model.CreateBooking(bookingEntity); } Booking Model: public void CreateBooking(BookingEntity booking) { using (var conn = new SqlConnection("Data Source=cpm;Initial Catalog=BookingDB;Integrated Security=True")) using (var cmd = conn.CreateCommand()) { conn.Open(); cmd.CommandText = @"IF NOT EXISTS ( SELECT * FROM Bookings WHERE BookingStart = @BookingStart AND BookingEnd = @BookingEnd AND RoomID= @RoomID ) INSERT INTO Bookings ( BookingName, BookingStart, BookingEnd, RoomID ) VALUES ( @BookingName, @BookingStart, @BookingEnd, @RoomID )"; cmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("@BookingName", booking.BookingName); cmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("@BookingStart", booking.BookingStart); cmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("@BookingEnd", booking.BookingEnd); cmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("@RoomID", booking.RoomID); cmd.ExecuteNonQuery(); conn.Close(); } } This updates the database but the time ends up "1970-01-01 00:00:02.013" each time I submit the date in the above json format. However, when I do a query in SQL server management studio with the above date format ("YYYY-MM-DD HH:MM:SS.mmm"), it inserts the correct values. Also, if I submit a millisecond datetime to the wcf, the correct date is being inserted. The problem seems to be with the format I am submitting. I am a little lost with this problem. I don't really see why it is doing this. Any help would be greatly appreciated. Thanks.

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  • Progressbar: Force element.innerHTML update before javascript sort call

    - by maras
    Hi, what is the best practice for this scenario: 1) User clicks "Sort huge javascript array" 2) Browser shows "Sorting..." through element.innerHTML="Sorting" 3) Browser sorts huge javascript array (100% CPU for several seconds) while displaying "Sorting..." message. 4) Browser shows result. Pseudo code: ... <a href="#" onclick="sortHugeArray();return false">Sort huge array</a> ... function sortHugeArray(){ document.getElementById("progress").innerHTML="Sorting..."; ...do huge sort ... ...render result... document.getElementById("progress").innerHTML=result; } When i do that this way, browser never shows "Sorting...", it freezes browser for several seconds and shows result without noticing user... Thank you for advice.

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  • HTML/Javascript Strange behavior with input field and TABBING

    - by Berlin Brown
    I have a strange error where if a user enters in data, say first name and then tabs, the text in the field is highlighted/selected as opposed to moving to the next. So, a person may type the first name and then tab to the next input item, text is selected and then they hit a character and now the name they typed in is deleted. If I use the default [input] tags, the tab works properly. But in the code below, with keyup, that may change the tabbing behavior. How can I get my code where it won't select the text. This is replicated in Firefox and Internet Explorer. function enableSearch(lnameObj) { var goButtonObj = document.getElementById('goButton'); var nextButtonObj = document.getElementById('nextButton'); var lastName = lnameObj.value; if (lastName == "") { goButtonObj.disabled = true; } else { goButtonObj.disabled = false; } } <input type="text" size="12" name="lastname" onKeyUp="return enableSearch(this);" value="">

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  • XML fragment with multiple roots: suppressing VS error

    - by Laurent
    In Visual Studio, I have an XML file (with .xml extension) which contains an XML fragment that I use in my program: <tag1> data ... </tag1> <tag2> data ... </tag2> Visual Studio shows me an error in the error list: "XML document cannot contain multiple root level elements". But this is not a complete document, just a fragment that will be reused. I want to keep my 2 roots in my fragment. How can I get rid of the error message? Thanks

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  • How to write following MongoDB query in C# Driver?

    - by user3043457
    I wrote the exact query I need in Mongo console, but I'm having trouble rewriting it in C# driver. Here's a sample of the document, it's simple dictionary: { "_id" : ObjectId("539716bc101c588f941e2c27"), "_t" : "DictionaryDocument", "CsvSeparator" : ",", "SelectedAccounts" : "0", ... } Here's the query: db.settings.find({"SelectedAccounts" :{$exists:true}},{"SelectedAccounts":1, "_id":0} ) Now, I got the first part, Find with exists working, but how to write the second parameter in C# driver? I'd just like a single string as a result, not entire document. Here's C# code I got so far: _collection.FindOneAs(typeof(DictionaryDocument), Query.Exists(key)); key in this case is "SelectedAccounts". I'd like the query to filter and return only the data I need, I don't want to return all the results and search on the C# side. EDIT: I wouldn't mind if _id was passed back, but I don't need it. So only this part would work if it could be converted in C#: db.settings.find({"SelectedAccounts" :{$exists:true}},{"SelectedAccounts":1} )

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  • how to use variable from runscript command

    - by poe
    I get some text from a web page 5,19 € 3,50 € I want to split this text after "€". for that I'm using this command runScript|javascript{var prices = storedVars['price'].split("€"); document.write(prices[0]); document.write(prices[1])}; after done that try this command getEval|alert(storedVars['prices[0]']) the answer is that prices is undefined. what is the problem here? how can I get this variable from a runScript command? thanks for helping me!

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  • After I appendChild() in ie6, do stylesheets apply to that element?

    - by rickharrison
    I am creating some elements in javascript like so: var parent = document.createElement('div'); parent.setAttribute('id', 'parent'); var child = document.createElement('div'); child.setAttribute('class', 'child'); parent.appendChild(child); otherelement.appendChild(parent); I have a stylesheet which has styles for #parent and .child. However, it appears the styles are being applied to the parent but not the child. Does ie6 only support styles on id's and not classes or am I doing something wrong?

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  • How to color HTML elements based on parsing a user command string

    - by Anonymous the Great
    I'm working on a little parsing thing to color objects. For an example, you could type red:Hi!: and "Hi!" would be red. This is my not working code: <script type="text/javascript"> function post() { var preview = document.getElementById("preview"); var submit = document.getElementById("post"); var text = submit.value; <?php str_replace("red:*:",'<i class="red">*</i>',text); ?> preview.value = text; } </script>

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  • Setting up a LAMP VM server for Development and Testing?

    - by TdotThomas
    Info: I would like to set up a VM server on my local computer which will serve pages in the exact same way as my current hosting (but only to me on my local computer). I currently pay a big web hosting company to host my website & web store and they are doing a great job, but I would like to be able to work on my Web site and its corresponding MySQL DB, HTML, and PHP code without being at risk of messing something completely up on the live servers. My current plan of action: Set up a VM webserver with Debian, MySQL, PHP, Apache. Copy web store (PHP/HTML) code to VM server. Copy my current MySQL databases from my hosting provider and install on VM server. Modify and test new features on VM server. Upload MySQL DB and HTML/PHP code back to web host's server where it should work as before but with new modifications. Questions: Now I'm pretty sure I have steps one and two down correctly but I can't for the life of me figure out how to proceed next, so here are my questions. I have my /etc/host file set up so www.MySite.test redirects to the IP address of the local VM webserver. Once I import my PHP/HTML files and MySQL file whats the best way to navigate around the fact that all of my files and DBs will reference www.MySite.com. I can export my MySQL dbs but do I also have to export my MySQL users and passwords to access those db or are those coded into my html/php code?

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  • How to put PrintWriter object content in to table cell

    - by user3599482
    I have a small problem about a content returning from servlet to put in table cell. In javascript I am calling servlet method using post, it returns some content and I have to put it in two different <td> cells. here is my code, In javascript, $.post('<%=request.getContextPath()%>/controller/UserLockController',{'userName':userName,'status':status}, function(data) { document.getElementById("status_"+userName).innerHTML=data; document.getElementById("td_"+userName).innerHTML=data; }); in servlet it writes as, out.println("<td id=\"status_"+inputParam+"\">Locked</td>"); out.println("<td id=\"td_"+inputParam+"\"><a href=\"#\" class=\"btn btn-sm btn-primary unlockBtn\" id=\"togBtn_"+inputParam+"\" onClick=\"LockAccount('"+inputParam+"','"+status+"')\">UnLock</td>"); Here content is returning but problem is the both <td> return from servlet will fit in single cell of html table. how to solve this please help me.

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  • jQuery click event not working when mouse moves from one div to another with button held down

    - by Acorn
    I've made a page that uses jQuery to allow you to place <div>s on the page based on your mouse coordinates when you click. The page And here's the javascript: $('document').ready(function() { $("#canvas").click(function(e){ var x = e.pageX - this.offsetLeft; var y = e.pageY - this.offsetTop; $(document.createElement('div')).css({'left':x + 'px', 'top':y + 'px'}).addClass('tile').appendTo('#canvas'); }); }); I've found that if you mousedown in the div#canvas and mouseup with your pointer over a placed <div> (or vice versa) then a new <div> doesn't get placed. Why is this?

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  • Returning currently displayed index of an array Javascript...

    - by Jeff Kindred
    I have a simple array with x number of items. I am displaying them individually via a link click... I want to update a number that say 1 of 10. when the next one is displayed i want it to display 2 of 10 etc... I have looked all around and my brain is fried right now... I know its simple I just cant get it out. <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Strict//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-strict.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" xml:lang="en" lang="en"> <head> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8"/> <title>Page Title</title> <link rel="stylesheet" href="style.css" type="text/css" media="screen" charset="utf-8"/> <script type="text/javascript"> var quotations = new Array() quotations[0]= "1" quotations[1]= "2" quotations[2]= "3" quotations[3]= "4" quotations[4]= "5" quotations[5]= "6" quotations[6]= "7" numQuotes = quotations.length; curQuote = 1; function move( xflip ) { curQuote = curQuote + xflip; if (curQuote > numQuotes) { curQuote = 1 ; } if (curQuote == 0) { curQuote = numQuotes ; } document.getElementById('quotation').innerHTML=quotations[curQuote - 1]; } var curPage = //this is where the current index should go </script> </head> <body> <div id="quotation"> <script type="text/javascript">document.write(quotations[0]);</script> </div> <div> <p><a href="javascript();" onclick="move(-1)">GO back</a> <script type="text/javascript">document.write(curPage + " of " + numQuotes)</script> <a href="javascript();" onclick="move(1)">GO FORTH</a></p> </div> </body> </html>

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  • How to get the handler position

    - by Geetha
    Hi All, I am using the following files to create a slider. <link type="text/css" href="CSS/demos.css" rel="stylesheet" /> <link type="text/css" href="CSS/jquery-ui.css" rel="stylesheet" /> <script type="text/javascript" src="js/jquery.ui.core.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="js/jquery.ui.slider.js"></script> Problem: i want to get the index of the handler, when i drag it to some other position. Ex: initial position of the handler: l-------------------------------- value = 0 After dragging it some other position ----------------------l---------- value = ? Code: var endTime = document.mediaPlayer.SelectionEnd; $("#slider-constraints").slider({ animate: true, max: endTime, range: $R(0, endTime), value: 1, enforceConstraints: false, start: function(event, index) { alert(index.value); } }); window.setInterval(function() { $('#slider-constraints').slider("value", document.mediaPlayer.currentPosition); }, 4000);

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  • How to infer the type of a derived class in base class?

    - by enzi
    I want to create a method that allows me to change arbitrary properties of classes that derive from my base class, the result should look like this: SetPropertyValue("size.height", 50); – where size is a property of my derived class and height is a property of size. I'm almost done with my implementation but there's one final obstacle that I want to solve before moving on, to describe this I will first have to explain my implementation a bit: Properties that can be modified are decorated with an attribute There's a method in my base class that searches for all derived classes and their decorated properties For each property I generate a "property modifier", a class that contains 2 delegates: one to set and one to get the value of the property. Property Modifiers are stored in a dictionary, with the name of the property as key In my base class, there is another dictionary that contains all property-modifier-dictionaries, with the Type of the respective class as key. What the SetPropertyValue method does is this: Get the correct property-modifier-dictionary, using the concrete type of the derived class (<- yet to solve) Get the property modifier of the property to change (e.g. of the property size) Use the get or set delegate to modify the property's value Some example code to clarify further: private static Dictionary<RuntimeTypeHandle, object> EditableTypes; //property-modifier-dictionary protected void SetPropertyValue<T>(EditablePropertyMap<T> map, string property, object value) { var property = map[property]; // get the property modifier property.Set((T)this, value); // use the set delegate (encapsulated in a method) } In the above code, T is the Type of the actual (derived) class. I need this type for the get/set delegates. The problem is how to get the EditablePropertyMap<T> when I don't know what T is. My current (ugly) solution is to pass the map in an overriden virtual method in the derived class: public override void SetPropertyValue(string property, object value) { base.SetPropertyValue((EditablePropertyMap<ExampleType>)EditableTypes[typeof(ExampleType)], property, value); } What this does is: get the correct dictionary containing the property modifiers of this class using the class's type, cast it to the appropiate type and pass it to the SetPropertyValue method. I want to get rid of the SetPropertyValue method in my derived class (since there are a lot of derived classes), but don't know yet how to accomplish that. I cannot just make a virtual GetEditablePropertyMap<T> method because I cannot infer a concrete type for T then. I also cannot acces my dictionary directly with a type and retrieve an EditablePropertyMap<T> from it because I cannot cast to it from object in the base class, since again I do not know T. I found some neat tricks to infere types (e.g. by adding a dummy T parameter), but cannot apply them to my specific problem. I'd highly appreciate any suggestions you may have for me.

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  • Serialization Error:Unable to generate a temporary class (result=1).\r\nerror CS0030:- c#

    - by ltech
    Running XSD.exe on my xml to generate C# class. All works well except on this property public DocumentATTRIBUTES[][] Document { get { return this.documentField; } set { this.documentField = value; } } I want to try and use CollectionBase, and this was my attempt public DocumentATTRIBUTESCollection Document { get { return this.documentField; } set { this.documentField = value; } } /// <remarks/> [System.SerializableAttribute()] [System.Diagnostics.DebuggerStepThroughAttribute()] [System.ComponentModel.DesignerCategoryAttribute("code")] [System.Xml.Serialization.XmlTypeAttribute(AnonymousType = true)] public partial class DocumentATTRIBUTES { private string _author; private string _maxVersions; private string _summary; /// <remarks/> [System.Xml.Serialization.XmlElementAttribute(Form = System.Xml.Schema.XmlSchemaForm.Unqualified)] public string author { get { return _author; } set { _author = value; } } /// <remarks/> [System.Xml.Serialization.XmlElementAttribute(Form = System.Xml.Schema.XmlSchemaForm.Unqualified)] public string max_versions { get { return _maxVersions; } set { _maxVersions = value; } } /// <remarks/> [System.Xml.Serialization.XmlElementAttribute(Form = System.Xml.Schema.XmlSchemaForm.Unqualified)] public string summary { get { return _summary; } set { _summary = value; } } } public class DocumentAttributeCollection : System.Collections.CollectionBase { public DocumentAttributeCollection() : base() { } public DocumentATTRIBUTES this[int index] { get { return (DocumentATTRIBUTES)this.InnerList[index]; } } public void Insert(int index, DocumentATTRIBUTES value) { this.InnerList.Insert(index, value); } public int Add(DocumentATTRIBUTES value) { return (this.InnerList.Add(value)); } } However when I try to serialize my object using XmlSerializer serializer = new XmlSerializer(typeof(DocumentMetaData)); I get the error: {"Unable to generate a temporary class (result=1).\r\nerror CS0030: Cannot convert type 'DocumentATTRIBUTES' to 'DocumentAttributeCollection'\r\nerror CS1502: The best overloaded method match for 'DocumentAttributeCollection.Add(DocumentATTRIBUTES)' has some invalid arguments\r\nerror CS1503: Argument '1': cannot convert from 'DocumentAttributeCollection' to 'DocumentATTRIBUTES'\r\n"} the XSD pertaining to this property is <xs:complexType> <xs:sequence> <xs:element name="ATTRIBUTES" minOccurs="0" maxOccurs="unbounded"> <xs:complexType> <xs:sequence> <xs:element name="author" type="xs:string" minOccurs="0" /> <xs:element name="max_versions" type="xs:string" minOccurs="0" /> <xs:element name="summary" type="xs:string" minOccurs="0" /> </xs:sequence> </xs:complexType> </xs:element> </xs:sequence> </xs:complexType> </xs:element>

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  • Working with VSS and ASP.NET

    - by Tyzak
    hello, i created a project to search textfiles with lucene.net. [asp.net/vs08] these textfiles are in a VSS server. i'm looking for a way how to "check out" or "copy" a Document (later on the whole vss structure with documents) and put it on in a folder on an IIS Server. how can i do that? -- copy a document from vss TO Folder on IIS Server [ Later all documents in the original strucutre] bye the way, its important that the documents keep their original creationdate. thanks in advance

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  • Is Sphinx better than LaTex in writing manuals/books?

    - by Masi
    Only a few people recommended to use Sphinx at the beginning of the year. Sphinx has developed rather fast recently. I noted today that Sage has made a change from direct editing with LaTex to Sphinx. This is evident in William Stein's answer on 2nd April about Sage's tutorial The tutorial is not a latex document anymore. It's an entirely different Sphinx document that can output pdf. It suggests me that Sphinx may be at a level such that it is suitable for me. Is Sphinx better than LaTex in writing manuals/books?

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  • Stop Time Sync Between Host and Guest - VirtualBox

    - by KoopaTroopa
    So I've been googling and I've tried the following commands. I want to stop the virtual machine from having the correct time and just to stick with what time it last recorded. The host operating system is Ubuntu 12.04 and the guest is Windows XP. I've turned time syncing off in XP so it won't do that when I connect to the Internet. However it does appear to take the time from ubuntu and set it as it's own. VBoxManage setextradata XP11 “VBoxInternal/TM/WarpDrivePercentage” 200 vboxmanage setextradata XP11 "VBoxInternal/Devices/VMMDev/0/Config/GetHostTimeDisabled" "1" Both commands haven't work as the time is always set to the exact same as Ubuntu's. I've located the extradata entry in the virtualbox XML file. It states both changes that the commands above are set to make. But of course it still hasn't stopped updating the time. <ExtraData> <ExtraDataItem name="GUI/LastGuestSizeHint" value="1152,864"/> <ExtraDataItem name="GUI/LastNormalWindowPosition" value="74,52,1152,911"/> <ExtraDataItem name="VBoxInternal/Devices/VMMDev/0/Config/GetHostTimeDisabled" value="1"/> <ExtraDataItem name="&#x201C;VBoxInternal/TM/WarpDrivePercentage&#x201D;" value="200"/> </ExtraData>

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  • Why does $('#id') return true if id doesn't exist?

    - by David
    I always wondered why jQuery returns true if I'm trying to find elements by id selector that doesnt exist in the DOM structure. Like this: <div id="one">one</div> <script> console.log( !!$('#one') ) // prints true console.log( !!$('#two') ) // is also true! (empty jQuery object) console.log( !!document.getElementById('two') ) // prints false </script> I know I can use !!$('#two').length since length === 0 if the object is empty, but it seems logical to me that a selector would return the element if found, otherwise null (like the native document.getElementById does). F.ex, this logic can't be done in jQuery: var div = $('#two') || $('<div id="two"></div>'); Wouldnt it be more logical if the ID selector returned null if not found? anyone?

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  • Count seconds and minutes with MCU timer/interrupt?

    - by arynhard
    I am trying to figure out how to create a timer for my C8051F020 MCU. The following code uses the value passed to init_Timer2() with the following formula: 65535-(0.1 / (12/2000000)=48868. I set up the timer to count every time it executes and for every 10 counts, count one second. This is based on the above formula. 48868 when passed to init_Timer2 will produce a 0.1 second delay. It would take ten of them per second. However, when I test the timer it is a little fast. At ten seconds the timer reports 11 seconds, at 20 seconds the timer reports 22 seconds. I would like to get as close to a perfect second as I can. Here is my code: #include <compiler_defs.h> #include <C8051F020_defs.h> void init_Clock(void); void init_Watchdog(void); void init_Ports(void); void init_Timer2(unsigned int counts); void start_Timer2(void); void timer2_ISR(void); unsigned int timer2_Count; unsigned int seconds; unsigned int minutes; int main(void) { init_Clock(); init_Watchdog(); init_Ports(); start_Timer2(); P5 &= 0xFF; while (1); } //============================================================= //Functions //============================================================= void init_Clock(void) { OSCICN = 0x04; //2Mhz //OSCICN = 0x07; //16Mhz } void init_Watchdog(void) { //Disable watchdog timer WDTCN = 0xDE; WDTCN = 0xAD; } void init_Ports(void) { XBR0 = 0x00; XBR1 = 0x00; XBR2 = 0x40; P0 = 0x00; P0MDOUT = 0x00; P5 = 0x00; //Set P5 to 1111 P74OUT = 0x08; //Set P5 4 - 7 (LEDs) to push pull (Output) } void init_Timer2(unsigned int counts) { CKCON = 0x00; //Set all timers to system clock divided by 12 T2CON = 0x00; //Set timer 2 to timer mode RCAP2 = counts; T2 = 0xFFFF; //655535 IE |= 0x20; //Enable timer 2 T2CON |= 0x04; //Start timer 2 } void start_Timer2(void) { EA = 0; init_Timer2(48868); EA = 1; } void timer2_ISR(void) interrupt 5 { T2CON &= ~(0x80); P5 ^= 0xF0; timer2_Count++; if(timer2_Count % 10 == 0) { seconds++; } if(seconds % 60 == 0 && seconds != 0) { minutes++; } }

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  • Content organizer auto create folder has wrong time in sharepoint 2010

    - by user208628
    Hi, I have a problem, I am using the content organizer feature to redirect document on upload and the auto create folder feature of it, the property used is a date set by the user when the document gets uploaded. My problem is that when the folder gets created it writes the time set by the user minus two hours, I see that it uses GMT time while everything on the server, the site and the computers is set to UTC+2, so how come it still uses GMT time ? Can someone help me out please. Thank you.

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