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  • sort files by date in PHP

    - by sasori
    hi, I currently have an index.php file which allows me to output the list of files inside the same directory, the output shows the names then I used filemtime() function to show the date when the file was modified. my problem now is, how will I sort the output to show the latest modified file ?, I've been thinking for awhile how to do this. if only I am doing it with mysql interaction there will be no problem at all. please show me an example how to sort and output the list of files starting from the latest modified one. this is what i have for now if ($handle = opendir('.')) { while (false !== ($file = readdir($handle))) { if ($file != "." && $file != "..") { $lastModified = date('F d Y, H:i:s',filemtime($file)); if(strlen($file)-strpos($file,".swf")== 4){ echo "<tr><td><input type=\"checkbox\" name=\"box[]\"></td><td><a href=\"$file\" target=\"_blank\">$file</a></td><td>$lastModified</td></tr>"; } } } closedir($handle); }

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  • is concatenating the only way to 'import' one JS lib from another?

    - by Nikita
    Disclaimer: JS novice I have a JS widget that depends on JQuery. The widget's going to be embedded in a 3rd party site but I figure out how to avoid declaring dependency on jquery on the widget-hosting page: 3rd party's page: <head> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.4.2/jquery.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://mydomain/mywidget.js"></script> </head> mywidget.js jQuery(document).ready(function() { //do stuff }); I'd rather not include jquery.js in the 3d party page but express the dependency inside mywidget.js (so i can change this dependency or add/remove others w/o having to update the widget-hosting page) I tried adding: var script = document.createElement('script'); script.src = 'http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.4.2/jquery.js'; script.type = 'text/javascript'; document.getElementsByTagName('head')[0].appendChild(script); to the top of mywidget.js but that didn't work - jquery.js did load on page load but "jQuery" was not recognized. What did work was concatenating jquery.js and mywidget.js into a single .js file. But that seems kind of lame - is there no equivalent to? import com.jquery.*; thanks!

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  • Formating a table date field from the Model in Codeigniter

    - by Landitus
    Hi, I', trying to re-format a date from a table in Codeigniter. The Controller is for a blog. I was succesfull when the date conversion happens in the View. I was hoping to convert the date in the Model to have things in order. Here's the date conversion as it happens in the View. This is inside the posts loop: <?php foreach($records as $row) : ?> <?php $fdate = "%d <abbr>%M</abbr> %Y"; $dateConv = mdate($fdate, mysql_to_unix($row->date)); ?> <div class="article section"> <span class="date"><?php echo $dateConv ;?></span> ... Keeps going ... This is the Model: class Novedades_model extends Model { function getAll() { $this->db->order_by('date','desc'); $query = $this->db->get('novedades'); if($query->num_rows() > 0) { foreach ($query->result() as $row) { $data[] = $row; } } return $data; } } How can I convert the date in the Model? Can I access the date key and refactor it?

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  • Entity Framework POCO objects

    - by Dan
    I'm struggling with understanding Entity Framework and POCO objects. Here's what I'm trying to achieve. 1) Separate the DAL from the Business Layer by having my business layer use an interface to my DAL. Maybe use Unity to create my context. 2) Use Entity Framework inside my DAL. I have a Domain model with objects that reside in my business layer. I also have a database full of tables that doesn't really represent my domain model. I setup Entity Framework and generated POCO objects by using the ADO.NET POCO Generator extension. This gave me an object for each table in my database. Now I want to be able to say context.GetAll<User>(); and have it return a list of my User objects. The User object is in my business layer. Is that possible? Does that make sense or am I totally off and should start over? I'm guessing I need to use the repository pattern to achieve this, but I'm not sure. Can anyone help?

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  • How do I grep for entire, possibly wrapped, lines of code?

    - by NXT
    When searching code for strings, I constantly run into the problem that I get meaningless, context-less results. For example, if a function call is split across 3 lines, and I search for the name of a parameter, I get the parameter on a line by itself and not the name of the function. For example, in a file containing ... someFunctionCall ("test", MY_CONSTANT, (some *really) - long / expression); grepping for MY_CONSTANT would return a line that looked like this: MY_CONSTANT, Likewise, in a comment block: ///////////////////////////////////////// // FIXMESOON, do..while is the wrong choice here, because // it makes the wrong thing happen ///////////////////////////////////////// Grepping for FIXMESOON gives the very frustrating answer: // FIXMESOON, do..while is the wrong choice here, because When there are thousands of hits, single line results are a little meaningless. What I would like to do is have grep be aware of the start and stop points of source code lines, something as simple as having it consider ";" as the line separator would be a good start. Bonus points if you can make it return the entire comment block if the hit is inside a comment. I know you can't do this with grep alone. I also am aware of the option to have grep return a certain number of lines of content. Any suggestions on how to accomplish under Linux? FYI my preferred languages are C and Perl. I'm sure I could write something, but I know that somebody must have already done this. Thanks!

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  • AS3 ExternalInterface works in IE but not Firefox

    - by user567602
    Hi all, I am trying to execute an AS3 function from my javascript using the ExternalInterface. Seems to work fine in IE, but firefox is always returning javascript error method undefined. I have been Googling this for ages and eliminated the following possibilities: 1) Some people say you need to have an embed tag inside your object tag, so added one - no luck. 2) Many people say that you need to make sure that your flash is loaded before calling the javascript. Well my call is after pressing a link on the page. I am always using the flash application first and only pressing the link at the end. 3) Then I thought that maybe it is a security problem so added the following: try { ExternalInterface.addCallback("test", testing); trace("added callback"); } catch (error:SecurityError) { trace("Security Error:"+error.message); } catch (error:Error) { trace("Error:"+error.message); } But it prints out "added callback" :( Anyone else have any ideas what else could I possible try? I am running the latest Firefox and FlashPlayer 10. Regards, Olli

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  • fix needed for bug in TextField/Text

    - by Mark
    Sort of a complicated scenario - just curious if anyone else could come up with something: I have a Text control and when I scroll it and stop the scroll with the cursor over some text that has a url, the cursor doesn't revert to a hand, and also flash player starts acting as if a selection is being made from the last cursor position. So IOW a bonafide bug in flash as far as I can determine. The above probably wasn't completely clear so let me elaborate. If you grab a scrollbar thumb and start moving it up and down, you don't actually have to keep the mouse pointer on the thumb while doing so. When you stop the scroll, the mouse pointer could be outside the browser window, inside your flash application, but not currently on the scroll bar thumb, or wherever. The previously mentioned bug occurs when you stop the scroll with the mouse pointer positioned over text with an html anchor (a hyperlink). At that point the cursor enters into some state of limbo, and doesn't show the url hand pointer, and furthermore acts as if some text selection is taking place from the last cursor position prior to the scroll. So the question would be, what sort of event could I simulate in code to jolt flash out of this erroneous state it is in. And furthermore in what event could I perform this simulated event (given that for example there is no AS3 event to signal the end of a scroll.) To be clear, the Text control in question is on a canvas, and that canvas (call it A) is on another canvas which actually owns the scrollbar, and scrolling takes place by changing the scrollRect of canvas A.

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  • Not able to play videos (from youtube) in WebView

    - by user1205193
    I am using a webview to display a video (could be from youtube or vimeo) in my app. In order to not load the video webpages in the default Android Browser, I am also extending the WebViewClient so I can override the shouldOverrideUrlLoading method. This way the video webpage loads successfully in the WebView. However, when I click on the embedded video on the WebView, it does not play. If I do not override the shouldOverrideUrlLoading method, and let the video webpages load in the default Android browser, the videos work just fine. Any ideas why the videos are not working in the WebView? Also, the main reason why I overrode the shouldOverrideUrlLoading method is because if I do not do that, then when I exit the Android browser to come back to my activity (by hitting the back button on the phone), I see a white screen. Upon hitting the back button twice, I am able to get back to my Activity. I am using the emulator to do this test. Here is my code: public class YoutubeLink extends Activity { WebView myWebView; String video_url; private class HelloWebViewClient extends WebViewClient { @Override public boolean shouldOverrideUrlLoading(WebView view, String url) { view.loadUrl(url); return true; } } @Override protected void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.youtubelink); //Retrieving data from ListSample.java Bundle extras = getIntent().getExtras(); if(extras !=null) { video_url = extras.getString("video_url"); Log.d("inside YoutubeLink.java", video_url); } myWebView = (WebView) findViewById(R.id.web); myWebView.getSettings().setJavaScriptEnabled(true); myWebView.setWebViewClient(new HelloWebViewClient()); myWebView.loadUrl(video_url); } @Override public boolean onKeyDown(int keyCode, KeyEvent event) { if ((keyCode == KeyEvent.KEYCODE_BACK) && myWebView.canGoBack()) { myWebView.goBack(); return true; } return super.onKeyDown(keyCode, event); }}

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  • Java - problems iterating through an ArrayList

    - by cc0
    Ok so I have an ArrayList (arrBok), which is full of book objects (the code is in Norwegian, so pay no attention to that please). I want to make a public method which iterates through all the objects in the arraylist. When I execute the code, it just seems to run in an infinite loop, not producing any return values. Here is the relevant (I hope, because there are a couple of other classes involved) part of the code; public String listAll() { itr = arrBok.iterator(); while (itr.hasNext()) { i++; } return "lol"; } This code does nothing useful, but I just want to see if it can iterate through it successfully. What I have tried so far; Tested if the bokArr (arraylist) is empty, which it's not. It has 4 objects inside of it. Return the toString() method of the itr, with the following result; java.util.AbstractList$Itr@173a10f // <-- not sure if this would be relevant to anything return itr.next().toString(); <-- // which seems to return the first object in the array, does that make sense?

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  • Which class should store the lookup table?

    - by max
    The world contains agents at different locations, with only a single agent at any location. Each agent knows where he's at, but I also need to quickly check if there's an agent at a given location. Hence, I also maintain a map from locations to agents. I have a problem deciding where this map belongs to: class World, class Agent (as a class attribute) or elsewhere. In the following I put the lookup table, agent_locations, in class World. But now agents have to call world.update_agent_location every time they move. This is very annoying; what if I decide later to track other things about the agents, apart from their locations - would I need to add calls back to the world object all across the Agent code? class World: def __init__(self, n_agents): # ... self.agents = {} self.agent_locations = {} for id in range(n_agents): x, y = self.find_location() agent = Agent(self,x,y) self.agents.append(agent) self.agent_locations[x,y] = agent def update_agent_location(self, agent, x, y): del self.agent_locations[agent.x, agent.y] self.agent_locations[x, y] = agent def update(self): # next step in the simulation for agent in self.agents: agent.update() # next step for this agent # ... class Agent: def __init__(self, world, x, y): self.world = world self.x, self.y = x, y def move(self, x1, y1): self.world.update_agent_location(self, x1, y1) self.x, self.y = x1, y1 def update(): # find a good location that is not occupied and move there for x, y in self.valid_locations(): if not self.location_is_good(x, y): continue if self.world.agent_locations[x, y]: # location occupied continue self.move(x, y) I can instead put agent_locations in class Agent as a class attribute. But that only works when I have a single World object. If I later decide to instantiate multiple World objects, the lookup tables would need to be world-specific. I am sure there's a better solution... EDIT: I added a few lines to the code to show how agent_locations is used. Note that it's only used from inside Agent objects, but I don't know if that would remain the case forever.

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  • NHibernate. Initiate save collection at saving parent

    - by Andrew Kalashnikov
    Hello, colleagues. I've got a problem at saving my entity. MApping: ?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <hibernate-mapping xmlns="urn:nhibernate-mapping-2.2" assembly="Clients.Core" namespace="Clients.Core.Domains"> <class name="Sales, Clients.Core" table='sales'> <id name="Id" unsaved-value="0"> <column name="id" not-null="true"/> <generator class="native"/> </id> <property name="Guid"> <column name="guid"/> </property> <set name="Accounts" table="sales_users" lazy="false"> <key column="sales_id" /> <element column="user_id" type="Int32" /> </set> Domain: public class Sales : BaseDomain { ICollection<int> accounts = new List<int>(); public virtual ICollection<int> Accounts { get { return accounts; } set { accounts = value; } } public Sales() { } } When I save Sales object Account collection don't save at sales_users table. What should I do for saving it? Please don't advice me use classes inside List Thanks a lot.

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  • Calculating collision for a moving circle, without overlapping the boundaries

    - by Robert Vella
    Let's say I have circle bouncing around inside a rectangular area. At some point this circle will collide with one of the surfaces of the rectangle and reflect back. The usual way I'd do this would be to let the circle overlap that boundary and then reflect the velocity vector. The fact that the circle actually overlaps the boundary isn't usually a problem, nor really noticeable at low velocity. At high velocity it becomes quite clear that the circle is doing something it shouldn't. What I'd like to do is to programmatically take reflection into account and place the circle at it's proper position before displaying it on the screen. This means that I have to calculate the point where it hits the boundary between it's current position and it's future position -- rather than calculating it's new position and then checking if it has hit the boundary. This is a little bit more complicated than the usual circle/rectangle collision problem. I have a vague idea of how I should do it -- basically create a bounding rectangle between the current position and the new position, which brings up a slew of problems of it's own (Since the rectangle is rotated according to the direction of the circle's velocity). However, I'm thinking that this is a common problem, and that a common solution already exists. Is there a common solution to this kind of problem? Perhaps some basic theories which I should look into?

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  • convert an int to list of individual digitals more faster?

    - by user478514
    All, I want define an int(987654321) <= [9, 8, 7, 6, 5, 4, 3, 2, 1] convertor, if the length of int number < 9, for example 10 the list will be [0,0,0,0,0,0,0,1,0] , and if the length 9, for example 9987654321 , the list will be [9, 9, 8, 7, 6, 5, 4, 3, 2, 1] >>> i 987654321 >>> l [9, 8, 7, 6, 5, 4, 3, 2, 1] >>> z = [0]*(len(unit) - len(str(l))) >>> z.extend(l) >>> l = z >>> unit [100000000, 10000000, 1000000, 100000, 10000, 1000, 100, 10, 1] >>> sum([x*y for x,y in zip(l, unit)]) 987654321 >>> int("".join([str(x) for x in l])) 987654321 >>> l1 = [int(x) for x in str(i)] >>> z = [0]*(len(unit) - len(str(l1))) >>> z.extend(l1) >>> l1 = z >>> l1 [9, 8, 7, 6, 5, 4, 3, 2, 1] >>> a = [i//x for x in unit] >>> b = [a[x] - a[x-1]*10 for x in range(9)] >>> if len(b) = len(a): b[0] = a[0] # fix the a[-1] issue >>> b [9, 8, 7, 6, 5, 4, 3, 2, 1] I tested above solutions but found those may not faster/simple enough than I want and may have a length related bug inside, anyone may share me a better solution for this kinds convertion? Thanks!

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  • Method having an abstract class as a parameter

    - by Ferhat
    I have an abstract class A, where I have derived the classes B and C. Class A provides an abstract method DoJOB(), which is implemented by both derived classes. There is a class X which has methods inside, which need to call DoJOB(). The class X may not contain any code like B.DoJOB() or C.DoJOB(). Example: public class X { private A foo; public X(A concrete) { foo = concrete; } public FunnyMethod() { foo.DoJOB(); } } While instantiating class X I want to decide which derived class (B or C) must be used. I thought about passing an instance of B or C using the constructor of X. X kewl = new X(new C()); kewl.FunnyMethod(); //calls C.DoJOB() kewl = new X(new B()); kewl.FunnyMethod(); // calls B.DoJOB() My test showed that declaring a method with a parameter A is not working. Am I missing something? How can I implement this correctly? (A is abstract, it cannot be instantiated)

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  • Using Relative Paths to Load Resources in Cocoa/C++

    - by moka
    I am currently working directly with Cocoa for the first time to built a screen saver. Now I came across a problem when trying to load resources from within the .saver bundle. I basically have a small C++ wrapper class to load .exr files using freeImage. This works as long as I use absoulte paths, but that's not very useful, is it? So, basically, I tried everything: putting the .exr file at the level of the .saver bundle itself, inside the bundles Resources folder, and so on. Then I simply tried to load the .exr like this, but without success: particleTex = [self loadExrTexture:@"ball.exr"]; I also tried making it go to the .saver bundles location like this: particleTex = [self loadExrTexture:@"../../../ball.exr"]; ...to maybe load the .exr from that location, but without success. I then came across this: NSString * path = [[NSBundle mainBundle] pathForResource:@"ball" ofType:@"exr"]; const char * pChar = [path UTF8String]; ...which seems to be a common way to find resources in Cocoa, but for some reason it's empty in my case. Any ideas about that? I really tried out anything that came to my mind without success so I would be glad about some input!

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  • Access property of DataContext in ItemTemplate

    - by amrinder
    My datacontext has two properties: Items which is a collection and DetailsVisiblity which is enum of type Visiblity. On the page I have a Listbox with ItemsSource="{Binding Entries}". Inside the DataTemplate, I can bind stuff to properties of Items, but how do I get access to DetailsVisiblity which is a property of DataContext? DataContext has two properties: ObservableCollection<Item> Entries, and Visibility DetailsVisiblity. Item class has two properties: Title and Details. Here is the view. How do I bind Visiblity of the second TextBlock to DetailsVisiblity property? <ListBox "{Binding Items}"> <ListBox.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate> <StackPanel> <TextBlock Text="{Binding Title}" /> <TextBlock Text="{Binding Details}" Visibility="{Binding ???}" /> </StackPanel> </DataTemplate> </ListBox.ItemTemplate> </ListBox>

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  • FragmentActivity doesn't see activity in onActivityCreate(), after screen orientation changed

    - by hai bison
    I'm using Android support library v13. There is a strange thing I couldn't understand. When creating new activity, I load fragment as: Main activity layout: ... <FrameLayout android:id="@+id/fragment_1" ... /> In onCreate() of main activity: mFragment = (FragmentActivity) getSupportFragmentManager().findFragmentById(R.id.fragment_1); // if screen orientation changed, no need to create new instance of fragment if (mFragment == null) { mFragment = ...; // create new instance of fragment FragmentTransaction ft = getSupportFragmentManager().beginTransaction(); ft.replace(R.id.fragment_1, mFragment); // because this is called ONCE, we can use this method ft.commitAllowingStateLoss(); } Now, everything works perfectly in emulators 1.5, 1.6 and 2.2. I have a phone 2.2.2. But there is an exception: if the app is running, and screen orientation changed. Inside onActivityCreated(), getActivity() sometimes returns null. This only happens in emulators 1.5/ 1.6/ 2.2. My phone 2.2.2 works very well, I test hundreds of times but never catch that bug. Even other emulators 3.x, 4.x work well too. Unfortunately I don't have phone 1.5/ 1.6/ 2.2. So did you have experience with this? Is that a bug of the support library, or emulators? Could you please help me? Thank you in advance.

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  • Are C++ exceptions sufficient to implement thread-local storage?

    - by Potatoswatter
    I was commenting on an answer that thread-local storage is nice and recalled another informative discussion about exceptions where I supposed The only special thing about the execution environment within the throw block is that the exception object is referenced by rethrow. Putting two and two together, wouldn't executing an entire thread inside a function-catch-block of its main function imbue it with thread-local storage? It seems to work fine: #include <iostream> #include <pthread.h> using namespace std; struct thlocal { string name; thlocal( string const &n ) : name(n) {} }; thlocal &get_thread() { try { throw; } catch( thlocal &local ) { return local; } } void print_thread() { cerr << get_thread().name << endl; } void *kid( void *local_v ) try { thlocal &local = * static_cast< thlocal * >( local_v ); throw local; } catch( thlocal & ) { print_thread(); return NULL; } int main() try { thlocal local( "main" ); throw local; } catch( thlocal & ) { print_thread(); pthread_t th; thlocal kid_local( "kid" ); pthread_create( &th, NULL, &kid, &kid_local ); pthread_join( th, NULL ); print_thread(); return 0; } Is this novel or well-characterized? Was my initial premise correct? What kind of overhead does get_thread incur in, say, GCC and VC++? It would require throwing only exceptions derived from struct thlocal, but altogether this doesn't feel like an unproductive insomnia-ridden Sunday morning…

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  • Why doesn't the SplitView iPhone template have a nib file for the RootView?

    - by Dr Dork
    I'm diving into iPad development and am learning a lot quickly, but everywhere I look, I have questions. After creating a new SplitView app in Xcode using the template, it generates the AppDelegate class, RootViewController class, and DetailViewController class. Along with that, it creates a .xib files for MainWinow.xib and DetailView.xib. How do these five files work together? Why is there a nib file for the DetailView, but not the RootView? When I double click on the MainWindow.xib file, Interface Builder launches without a "View" window, why? Below is the code for didFinishLaunchingWithOptions method inside the AppDelegate class. Why are we adding the splitViewController as a subview? (BOOL)application:(UIApplication *)application didFinishLaunchingWithOptions:(NSDictionary *)launchOptions { // Override point for customization after app launch rootViewController.managedObjectContext = self.managedObjectContext; // Add the split view controller's view to the window and display. [window addSubview:splitViewController.view]; [window makeKeyAndVisible]; return YES; } Thanks so much in advance for all your help! I still have a lot to learn, so I apologize if this question is absurd in any way. I'm going to continue researching these questions right now!

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  • Breaking dependencies when you can't make changes to other files?

    - by codemuncher
    I'm doing some stealth agile development on a project. The lead programmer sees unit testing, refactoring, etc as a waste of resources and there is no way to convince him otherwise. His philosophy is "If it ain't broke don't fix it" and I understand his point of view. He's been working on the project for over a decade and knows the code inside and out. I'm not looking to debate development practices. I'm new to the project and I've been tasked with adding a new feature. I've worked on legacy projects before and used agile development practices with good result but those teams were more receptive to the idea and weren't afraid of making changes to code. I've been told I can use whatever development methodology I want but I have to limit my changes to only those necessary to add the feature. I'm using tdd for the new classes I'm writing but I keep running into road blocks caused by the liberal use of global variables and the high coupling in the classes I need to interact with. Normally I'd start extracting interfaces for these classes and make their dependence on the global variables explicit by injecting them as constructor arguments or public properties. I could argue that the changes are necessary but considering the lead never had to make them I doubt he would see it my way. What techniques can I use to break these dependencies without ruffling the lead developer's feathers? I've made some headway using: Extract Interface (for the new classes I'm creating) Extend and override the wayward classes with test stubs. (luckily most methods are public virtual) But these two can only get me so far.

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  • Maven + SSDM Build and Runtime Environment Automation

    - by Randy
    Preface: My Company, like most, has several run-time environments and several release versions which themselves are composed of different versions of various jars. For example, let us consider release versions 1.1, 1.2, and 1.3 of Software X, which may be deployed to a developer computer, testing, or production. Software-x-1.1 is itself composed of jarA-0.9.1 and jarB-0.7.5, but software-x-1.3 is composed of jarA-1.7.31 and jarB-0.8.1. Currently we use Spring's PropertyPlaceholderConfigurer to configure run-time variables (such as database credentials), however, properties also change with release versions. We also use Maven 2 POM version 4 to specify which versions of our code need to be used. We place the version numbers of our jars as properties within profiles (dev,test,prod) inside of the parent pom and then reference those version numbers in all project poms. As of right now, we have no way to specify which project versions pertain to a given release other than the most current one. Moreover, we deploy our run-time configurations to the SSDM pickup which then configures and creates the services defined by the built versions of our software. -- Questions: Is there any procedure/tool we can use to build our product by merely providing the run-time environment and version number? IE "build 1.1 dev"? Is there anyway we can store the required jar versions for each release build? We are currently versioning all files, including the parent pom, but merely versioning the parent pom does not record which release version is pertinent to that parent pom. What else can we do to further automate the process of builds? For example, if we could manage run-time configurations within the parent pom that would be a step in the right direction, but that seems like a violation of scope. Any tool outside of our framework is inconceivable at this point, but not in the far future. Summary: How can we automate our build process to the fullest extent without being error prone?

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  • Custom Android control with children

    - by Gromix
    Hi, I'm trying to create a custom Android control that contains a LinearLayout. You can think of it as an extended LinearLayout with fancy borders, a background, an image on the left... I could do it all in XML (works great) but since I have dozens of occurences in my app it's getting hard to maintain. I thought it would be nicer to have something like this: /* Main.xml */ <MyFancyLayout> <TextView /> /* what goes inside my control's linear layout */ </MyfancyLayout> How would you approach this? I'd like to avoid re-writing the whole linear layout onMeasure / onLayout methods. This is what I have for the moment: /* MyFancyLayout.xml */ <TableLayout> <ImageView /> <LinearLayout id="container" /> /* where I want the real content to go */ </TableLayout> and /* MyFancyLayout.java */ public class MyFancyLayout extends LinearLayout { public MyFancyLayout(Context context) { super(context); View.inflate(context, R.layout.my_fancy_layout, this); } } How would you go about inserting the user-specified content (the TextView in main.xml) in the right place (id=container)? Cheers! Romain ----- edit ------- Still no luck on this, so I changed my design to use a simpler layout and decided to live with a bit of repeated XML. Still very interested in anyone knows how to do this though!

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  • Clearing block affects wrong floating

    - by HiveHicks
    I've got two-column layout <div class="left-pane"> Left pane </div> <div class="central-pane"> <div> <ul class="customers-types-tabs"> <li>item 1</li> <li>item 2</li> <li>item 3</li> </ul> </div> <div>Main content</div> </div> and the stylesheet: .left-pane { width: 248px; float: left; background-color: #f6f6f6; border: 1px solid #e6e6e6; padding: 20px 5px; } .central-pane { margin-left: 270px; } .customers-types-tabs li { background-color: #f6f6f6; border: 1px solid #d5d5d5; line-height: 38px; padding: 0 20px; float: left; margin-right: 10px; position: relative; top: 1px; } The problem is that I want "Main content" to appear right below the div with ul inside it (that represents tabs control), but if I set Main content's div's style to clear: both, it appears below the left pane, which is taller than the ul. What should I do to get correct position of main content?

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  • How to setPage() a JEditorPane with a localfile which is outside of the .jar file?

    - by Jaguar
    My program has the following path in the .jar file src/test/Program.class and my program is as follow... Program.java package test; import java.io.File; import java.io.IOException; import javax.swing.JEditorPane; import javax.swing.JFrame; public class Program { JEditorPane editorPane; public Program() { File file = new File("temp.htm"); try { file.createNewFile(); editorPane = new JEditorPane(); editorPane.setPage(Program.class.getResource("temp.htm")); } catch (IOException e) { e.printStackTrace(); } } public JEditorPane getEditorPane(){ return editorPane; } public static void main(String[] args) { JFrame frame = new JFrame(); frame.setDefaultCloseOperation(JFrame.EXIT_ON_CLOSE); frame.setSize(400, 400); frame.setVisible(true); Program p = new Program(); frame.getContentPane().add(p.getEditorPane()); } } The problem is that I have compiled the program in a .jar file. The file.createNewFile(); creates the temp.htm file outside the .jar file So when editorPane.setPage(Program.class.getResource("temp.htm")); is called the file is not found as it searches for file inside the test package. How to setPage() the temp.htm file whiich is outside the .jar file but in the same folder as the .jar file? As the temp.htm is a localfile and I want a relative path instead of an absolute path. Thanks.

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  • How To Call Javascript In Ajax Response? IE: Close a form div upon success...

    - by B.Gordon
    I have a form that when you submit it, it sends the data for validation to another php script via ajax. Validation errors are echo'd back in a div in my form. A success message also is returned if validation passes. The problem is that the form is still displayed after submit and successful validation. I want to hid the div after success. So, I wrote this simple CSS method which works fine when called from the page the form is displayed on. The problem is that I cannot seem to call the hide script via returned code. I can return html like echo "<p>Thanks, your form passed validation and is being sent</p>"; So I assumed I could simply echo another line after that echo "window.onload=displayDiv()"; inside script tags (which I cannot get to display here)... and that it would hide the form div. It does not work. I am assuming that the problem is that the javascript is being returned incorrectly and not being interpreted by the browser... How can I invoke my 'hide' script on the page via returned data from my validation script? I can echo back text but the script call is ineffective. Thanks! This is the script on the page with the form... I can call it to show/hide with something like onclick="displayDiv()" while on the form but I don't want the user to invoke this... it has be called as the result of a successful validation when I write the results back to the div... function displayDiv() { var divstyle = new String(); divstyle = document.getElementById("myForm").style.display; if(divstyle.toLowerCase()=="block" || divstyle == "") { document.getElementById("myForm").style.display = "none"; } else { document.getElementById("myForm").style.display = "block"; } } PS: I am using the mootools.js library for the form validation if this matters for the syntax..

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