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  • summer experiment: GWT & python for a trading game- arch question

    - by sadhu_
    Hi, As a summer learning experiment, I'm thinking of coding up a web front end for a trading game i wrote in python, that generates share prices and random snippets of text. I am sort of struggling with how this should work on the back-end though. I'd rather have my GWT client page interact with the python share price generator, than to try and re-code it in java. I suppose i could use an sqlite db, and then use jdbc to pick up the prices, but i was wondering if there is a better way, for me to be able to poll some python script either from my client page, or from the serverside java code ? I found this python wrapper, but i'm not sure how i could use it though: http://code.google.com/apis/visualization/documentation/dev/gviz_api_lib.html Thanks.

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  • Javascript culture always en-us

    - by LoveMeSomeCode
    I'm not sure if I understand this code or if I'm using it right, but I was under the impression that in an ASP.NET 2.0 AJAX website I could run javascript like: var c = Sys.CultureInfo.CurrentCulture and it would give me the culture/language settings the user had specified in their browser at the time of the visit. However, for me, it always comes back 'en-US' no matter what language I pick in firefox or IE. This serverside code however: string[] languages = HttpContext.Current.Request.UserLanguages; if (languages == null || languages.Length == 0) return null; try { string language = languages[0].ToLowerInvariant().Trim(); return CultureInfo.CreateSpecificCulture(language); } catch (ArgumentException) { return null; } does return the language I have currently set. But I need to do this clientside, because I need to parse a string into a datetime and do some validations before I postback, and the string could be a MM/DD/YYYY or DD/MM/YYYY, or some other such thing. What am I missing?

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  • ASP.NET client side validation with dataannotations - javascript minimumlength zero

    - by Kordonme
    Hi! I'm doing client side validation on a project I'm working on. Everything works, except for the minimumlength property of the StringLength attribute (it works when submitting and a serverside validation is done): [StringLength(50, MinimumLength = 6)] The javascript generated by Html.EnableClientValication(); is the following: // snip {"FieldName":"User.Password","ReplaceValidationMessageContents":true,"ValidationMessageId":"User_Password_validationMessage","ValidationRules":[{"ErrorMessage":"The field Password must be a string with a minimum length of 6 and a maximum length of 50.","ValidationParameters":{"minimumLength":0,"maximumLength":50},"ValidationType":"stringLength"}]}],"FormId":"form0","ReplaceValidationSummary":false}) The important thing is here: {"minimumLength":0,"maximumLength":50} It produces javascript with the wrong minimumproperty. You guys have a hint? Is this a possible bug?

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  • How to write a datatable to excel work book at client side

    - by senthilkumar
    Hi Guys Currently i am doing one project in that we need to generate report from database. Since my server memory is too low im getting 'Out of Memory' Exception when im writing it at serverside and also when i write directly to a excel file using http header as excel file im not able to create multiple sheets since my database table is huge more than 65536 rows. I saw many solution using a third party tool but i cant use those into mine..If anyone already worked on this please give me some direction. Also i tried using javascript but for that i need to use datagrid at server side?? but in my project i m not allowed to use like this.

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  • Use google analytics custom events for feedback form.

    - by chacko
    I was thinking of having a simple feedback form in my website. It would be something like: Your Feedback will help us improve. [ ] and then a textfield/textarea where the user can type (let's say) up to 100 characters of feedback. Rather than handling it all myself on the serverside I was thinking to use google analytics (since my site is already wireup) and everytime a user writes a comment send a custom event to google analytics. I think it might work. Can people suggest a better approach or point out any problem with this idea thanks

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  • Web based interface for open SSL client certificates

    - by Felix
    Hi there! We are currently developing a apache2-based web application and want to invite some beta testers to give it a try. To be on the safe side, access should be provided by individual browser certificates (.p12) which are issued using a (fake) CA. Our users should be passing a complete register/login process and some of them will be granted administrative privileges within the application. That's why a preceding simple web-based authentication won't be sufficient. Atm, I using a serverside shellscript to generate the certificates each time. Do you know about a small, web-based tool to simplify the process of generating / revoking those certificates? Maybe an overview of the CA's index.txt plus the option to revoke a cert and a link to download them directly?

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  • How do you configure firefox to open an application without prompting the user?

    - by Peter
    I've got a serverside app that send down a custom mime-type file "application/x-optibase". Firefox prompt user user to save or open the file and if the user clicks open the correct application launches so I believe I have mimeType.rdf configured correctly I've gone into about:config and set browser.helperApps.neverAsk.openFile to application/x-optibase and browser.helpApps.alwaysAsk.force to false According to the minimal documentation out there this should enable the application to automatically open when the user downloads the file but it doesn't seem to work. Any ideas? Thanks.

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  • jQuery - now: Creating an object and storing values in it to pass to an AJAX call

    - by Josh K
    I have an array: myarr = []; I'm filling it with some values: myarray['name'] = "Me!"; Now I want to transform that array into a set of Key = Value pairs. I though jQuery would do it automatically, but it doesn't seem to. $.ajax ({ type: "POST", dataType: "text", url: "myurl", data: myarr }); Is there a way to do this or something I'm doing wrong? I get no javascript errors, and no serverside errors other then no POST information at all. I need the request to be sent as a true POST request. I need to keep the php code simple because sometimes the login won't be an AJAX call. I'm now trying the following with an error unexepected token ':' myarr: { 'name':'me' } The question has now become: How do I initialize a new javascript object as "blank", how do I set up mappings, and how do I pass it in an AJAX call?

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  • jQuery jqXHR - cancel chained calls, trigger error chain

    - by m0sa
    I am creating a ajax utility for interfacing with my server methods. I would like to leverage jQuery 1.5+ deferred methods from the object returned from the jQuery.ajax() call. The situation is following. The serverside method always returns a JSON object: { success: true|false, data: ... } The client-side utility initiates the ajax call like this var jqxhr = $.ajax({ ... }); And the problem area: jqxhr.success(function(data, textStatus, xhr) { if(!data || !data.success) { ???? // abort processing, trigger error } }); return jqxhr; // return to caller so he can attach his own handlers So the question is how to cancel invocation of all the callers appended success callbacks an trigger his error handler in the place mentioned with ???? ? The documentation says the deferred function invocation lists are FIFO, so my success handler is definitely the first one.

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  • How to add on to an existing onclick event?

    - by Corey Sarnia
    I'm currently writing a Greasemonkey script for a page, so I can't modify the script myself. There is a form submit button on the page. When you click this button, it executes some fancy AJAX calls and such to update the page and do serverside things. What I'm trying to is basically set a "lastClick" value when the button is clicked. I want to add the code GM_setValue("lastClicked", (new Date()).getTime().toString()) to store the last time the button was clicked (for future uses of the script, it will actually do something with this date). How exactly can I accomplish this?

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  • replace asp.net Response.Output with my own content

    - by WebDude
    I am trying to intercept a asp.net web request and based on a lookup replace the page thats going to be rendered to the client. example: is a request for "/about-us" comes to my web server, i will first see if i have a version of this in the database, otherwise i will revert to flat files. The version i will retrieve from the database will be a .aspx page that has to be rendered and containt web controls and inline serverside script. What is the best way to go about this? I have tried overriding the CreateHtmlTextWriter method but this seems too late in the process as the TextWriter passed to this method is already instantiated. I have also tried to Implement my own PageHandlerFactory but this seems to create an instance of Page of which i cannot seem to override its internal setting of the Response.Output stream. Amd i barking up the wrong tree here? what is the best approach to take here?

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  • securing a webservice for use from a custom iphone app only

    - by mme
    I want to create an iphone application which consists of two parts: The app itself and a server side component. On a users request, the app sends data to the server which is to be handled by human operators. To prevent abuse from an iphone app user, the id of the iphone is sent along with the request, and the operators can blacklist pranksters to deny their iphone access to the service. So far so good. Now the problem is: Someone could easily discover the address of the serverside component, and write a script to send bogus requests, using multiple IP addresses etc. So my question is: how can I defend myself against this? Captchas to protect against scripted attacks or requiring the user to register himself are not an option for this particular application. If I had control of the download, I would associate a unique ID with each downloaded app, but obviously this is not an option with the appstore. What would be your approach to make the server side part more secure?

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  • jQuery passing an array to an AJAX call

    - by Josh K
    I have an array: myarr = []; I'm filling it with some values: myarray['name'] = "Me!"; Now I want to transform that array into a set of Key = Value pairs. I though jQuery would do it automatically, but it doesn't seem to. $.ajax ({ type: "POST", dataType: "text", url: "myurl", data: myarr }); Is there a way to do this or something I'm doing wrong? I get no javascript errors, and no serverside errors other then no POST information at all.

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  • Best way to put user input into generated javascript?

    - by Earlz
    Hello, I need for someone to be able to put some text into a page and then this gets sent to the server, saved in the database, and else where this text is put into a javascript variable. Basically like this: Write("var myVar=\""+MyData+"\";"); What is the best way of escaping this data? Is there anything out there already to deal with things like ' and " and new lines? Is base64 my only option? My serverside framework/language is ASP.Net/C#

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  • What are the drawbacks of sending XML to browsers and let them apply XSLT?

    - by MainMa
    Context Working as a freelance developer, I often made websites completely based on XSLT. In other words, on every request, an XML file is generated, containing everything we need to know about the page content: the name of the user currently logged in, the top menu entries, if this menu is dynamic/configurable, the text to display in a specific area of the page, etc. Then XSL process (caches, etc.) it to HTML/XHTML page to send to the browser. It has a good point to make it easier to create small-scale websites, especially with PHP. It is a sort of template engine, but which I prefer to other template engines because it's much more powerful than most of template engines, and because I know it better and like it. It is also possible, when need, to give an access to raw XML data on demand for an automated access, without the need to create separate APIs. Of course, it will fail completely on any medium-scale or large-scale website, since, even with good caching techniques, XSL still degrades overall website performance and requires more CPU serverside. Question Modern browsers have the ability to take an XML file and to transform it with an associated XSL file declared in XML like <?xml-stylesheet href="demo.xslt" type="text/xsl"?>. Firefox 3 can do it. Internet Explorer 8 can do it too. It means that it is possible to migrate XSL processing from the server to the client side for 50% of users (according on browser statistics on several websites where I may want to implement this). It means that those 50% of users will receive only the XML file at each request, thus reducing their and server's bandwidth (XML file being much shorter than its processed HTML analog), and reducing server's CPU usage. What are the drawbacks of this technique? I thought about several ones, but it doesn't apply in this situation: Difficult implementation and the need to choose, based on the browser request, when to send raw XML and when to transform it to HTML instead. Obviously, the system will not be much more difficult then the actual one. The only change to make is to add XSL file link to every XML, and to add a browser check. More IO and bandwidth usage, since the XSLT file will be downloaded by the browsers, instead of being cached by the server. I don't think it will be a problem, since XSLT file will be cached by the browsers (like images, or CSS, or JavaScript files are cached actually). Possibly some problems on client side, like maybe problems when saving a page in some browsers. Difficulty to debug code: it is impossible to obtain an HTML source the browser is actually using, since the only displayed source is the downloaded XML. On the other hand, I rarely go look at HTML code on client side, and in most cases, it is unusable directly (whitespace being removed).

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  • Mac creating files w/ wrong perms on samba share

    - by geoffjentry
    In my group, which is very heterogeneous in terms of machines, we use a samba share to collaborate on files and such. In all but one case, it works as expected (or at least close enough). The one exception is my boss' laptop, a snow leopard macbook air. On his desktop (also snow leopard), if he creates a file it ends up serverside with perms of 774, but when he creates it with the Air, the perms are 644. The key problem is the lack of group write permission on the laptop created files. What's really confusing is that everything that I've looked at on the two machines are identical - same version of OS X, same version of samba (3.0.25b-apple), same settings for the same software, etc. I can't imagine why one machine would be different than the other, but it is. To try to be complete w/ the description, here is the relevant portion of my smb.conf file: comment = my Share path = /path/to/share public = no writeable = yes printable = no force group = myshare directory mask = 0770 create mask = 0770 force create mode = 0770 force directory mode = 0770 EDIT: I looked at three more Macs and all of them worked as expected which leaves this one laptop the true oddball. This wasn't as good as a test as the others though, as they were all leopard.

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  • How can I diagnose what's causing Outlook 2007 when sending an attachment to fail with error 800CCC0F even though the message was sent?

    - by James
    As the title suggests, I've got an issue where outlook 2007 is reporting it failed to send email with error 800ccc0f (unexpectedly terminated connection) but only with attachments. The email is actually sent, but outlook keeps retrying (stays in the outbox), generating more emails to the original recipient (which do get delivered) I've got QMail on the server side supporting a half dozen domains. It doesn't appear to matter which account I send from. I can successfully send attachments via alternate mail clients (webmail, thunderbird) while outlook is failing, or send messages without attachments; so it's seemingly not the accounts themselves or serverside, which leaves outlook as the culprit. There doesn't appear to be any pattern to the failures, and it's not consistent (I successfully sent an attachment as recently as 3 weeks ago) so I'm at a loss as to where to look. Qmail logs don't look any different between successes and failures. Has anybody seen this before/have a solution? UPDATE : It appears it's only PDF files that this occurs with, so I'm even more stumped. I can send html/docx/txt and zip, UNLESS the zip file contains a pdf ... whiskey tango foxtrot

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  • The HTTP request was forbidden with client authentication scheme 'Anonymous'

    - by dudia
    I am trying to configure a WCF server\client to work with SSL I get the following exception: The HTTP request was forbidden with client authentication scheme 'Anonymous' I have a self hosted WCF server. I have run hhtpcfg both my client and server certificates are stored under Personal and Trusted People on the Local Machine Here is the server code: binding.Security.Transport.ClientCredentialType = HttpClientCredentialType.Certificate; binding.Security.Mode = WebHttpSecurityMode.Transport; _host.Credentials.ClientCertificate.Authentication.CertificateValidationMode = System.ServiceModel.Security.X509CertificateValidationMode.PeerOrChainTrust; _host.Credentials.ClientCertificate.Authentication.RevocationMode = X509RevocationMode.NoCheck; _host.Credentials.ClientCertificate.Authentication.TrustedStoreLocation = StoreLocation.LocalMachine; _host.Credentials.ServiceCertificate.SetCertificate("cn=ServerSide", StoreLocation.LocalMachine, StoreName.My); Client Code: binding.Security.Mode = WebHttpSecurityMode.Transport; binding.Security.Transport.ClientCredentialType = HttpClientCredentialType.Certificate; WebChannelFactory<ITestClientForServer> cf = new WebChannelFactory<ITestClientForServer>(binding, url2Bind); cf.Credentials.ClientCertificate.SetCertificate("cn=ClientSide", StoreLocation.LocalMachine, StoreName.My); ServicePointManager.ServerCertificateValidationCallback += RemoteCertificateValidate; Looking at web_tracelog.svclog and trace.log reveals that the server cannot autheticate the client certificate My certificate are not signed by an Authorized CA but this is why I added them to the Trusted People.... What Am I missing? What am I missing?

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  • WMD markdown editor - HTML to Markdown conversion

    - by gg1
    I am using wmd markdown editor on a project and had a question: When I post the form containing the markdown text area, it (as expected) posts html to the server. However, say upon server-side validation something fails and I need to send the user back to edit their entry, is there anyway to refill the textarea with just the markdown and not the html? Since as I have it set up, the server only has access to the post data (which is in the form of html) so I can't seem to think of a way to do this. Any ideas? Preferably a non-javascript based solution. Update: I found an html to markdown converter called markdownify. I guess this might be the best solution for displaying the markdown back to the user...any better alternatives are welcome! Update 2: I found this post on SO and I guess there is an option to send the data to the server as markdown instead of html. Are there any downsides to simply storing the data as markdown in the database? What about displaying it back to the user (outside of an editor)? Maybe it would be best to post both versions (html AND markdown) to the server... SOLVED: I can simply use php markdown to convert the markdown to html serverside.

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  • PHP, We have sessions, and cookies....I love cookies, but they are blowing my mind right now.

    - by Matt
    I am not sure how to go about accessing the variable I need to set on a cookie... I was thinking about using the $_POST global but I dont know how based on my design if it will work. I am using a master page type design seperating index.php from my function includes and database information and individual pages (that will be returned to an include in index.php based on a $_GET) Okay so back to my question. What is the most efficient way to set a cookie on a design that has a main page that everything will branch from. How would I pull the value. Is $_POST a good enough way to go about it? Also...by saying it must be the first thing sent...does that mean I cannot run any serverside scripts before that? I could definately utilize a login query I think but I dont want to write code just to be dissapointed based on my lack of time and knowledge. I did search for answers...I know this most likely feels like a generic question that could be answered in a difference place...but I know I will get an accurate and professional answer here...so I dont want to bet on the half answers I found otherwise. Of course I will sanitize everything and not store any sensitive information (passwords,address,phone,or anything really for that matter besides some kind of session ID and the username) If this is confusing I am sorry but I am on a gov computer...and they lock these tighter than ft knox...so getting my code on here will be a chore until I get back to my room. Thanks, Matt

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  • AJAX.NET __doPostBack changes other content

    - by Raul
    Hi. I have an application where a javascript reads the GPS location of the device and sends it to serverside script like this: f() { var initialLocation= Someshit(); document.getElementById('<% = text.ClientID %>').value=initialLocation; var button = document.getElementById('<% = Button4.ClientID %>'); button.click(); } And i have some AJAX.NET code: <asp:UpdatePanel ID="UpdatePanel1" runat="server"> <ContentTemplate> <asp:Button ID="Button4" runat="server" Text="PlaceHolder" onclick="Button4_Click"/> <asp:TextBox ID="text" runat="server"></asp:TextBox> </ContentTemplate> </asp:UpdatePanel> And a bit further down <asp:UpdatePanel ID="UpdatePanel2" runat="server"> <ContentTemplate> <div> <some divs and asp:gridviews and god knows what > </div> <ContentTemplate> </asp:UpdatePanel> The problem is that the the last divs inner content changes when the event of UpdatePanel1 has finished. Why is that? I don't want the content outside of UpdatePanel1 to be changed whenever UpdatePanel1 is doing its thing. Please help.

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  • multiple ajax requests with jquery

    - by Emil
    I got problems with the async nature of Javascript / JQuery. Lets say the following (no latency is counted for, in order to not make it so troublesome); I got three buttons (A, B, C) on a page, each of the buttons adds an item into a shopping cart with one ajax-request each. If I put an intentional delay of 5 seconds in the serverside script (PHP) and pushes the buttons with 1 second apart, I want the result to be the following: Request A, 5 seconds Request B, 6 seconds Request C, 7 seconds However, the result is like this Request A, 5 seconds Request B, 10 seconds Request C, 15 seconds This have to mean that the requests are queued and not run simultaneously, right? Isnt this opposite to what async is? I also tried to add a random get-parameter to the url in order to force some uniqueness to the request, no luck though. I did read a little about this. If you avoid using the same "request object (?)" this problem wont occure. Is it possible to force this behaviour in JQuery? This is the code that I am using $.ajax( { url : strAjaxUrl + '?random=' + Math.floor(Math.random()*9999999999), data : 'ajax=add-to-cart&product=' + product, type : 'GET', success : function(responseData) { // update ui }, error : function(responseData) { // show error } }); I also tried both GET and POST, no difference. I want the requests to be sent right when the button is clicked, not when the previous request is finnished. I want the requests to be run simultaneously, not in a queue.

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  • Call ASP.NET 2.0 Server side code from Javascript

    - by Kannabiran
    I'm struggling with this for the past 3 days. I need to call asp.net serverside code from Javascript when the user closes the browser. I'm using the following code to accomplish this. In my asp.net form I have various validation controls. Even if there are some validation errors, When I close the form the server side code works perfectly in my development box(windows 7). But the same code doesnt work in my production environment(windows server). Does it have something to do with the Validation summary or Validation controls. The button control has Causes validation set to false. So even if there is a validation error still my form will post back. Am I correct? I suspect the form is not getting post back to the server when there is a validation error. But i'm disabling all the validation controls in the javascript before calling the button click event. Can someone throw some light on this issue. There are few blogs which suggests to use JQUERY, AJAX (Pagemethods and script manager). function ConfirmClose(e) { var evtobj = window.event ? event : e; if (evtobj == e) { //firefox if (!evtobj.clientY) { evtobj.returnValue = message; } } else { //IE if (evtobj.clientY < 0) { DisablePageValidators(); document.getElementById('<%# buttonBrowserCloseClick.ClientID %>').click(); } } } function DisablePageValidators() { if ((typeof (Page_Validators) != "undefined") && (Page_Validators != null)) { var i; for (i = 0; i < Page_Validators.length; i++) { ValidatorEnable(Page_Validators[i], false); } } } //HTML <div style="display:none" > <asp:Button ID="buttonBrowserCloseClick" runat="server" onclick="buttonBrowserCloseClick_Click" Text="Button" Width="141px" CausesValidation="False" /> //Server Code protected void buttonBrowserCloseClick_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { //Some C# code goes here }

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  • What are the arguments against the inclusion of server side scripting in JavaScript code blocks?

    - by James Wiseman
    I've been arguing for some time against embedding server-side tags in JavaScript code, but was put on the spot today by a developer who seemed unconvinced The code in question was a legacy ASP application, although this is largely unimportant as it could equally apply to ASP.NET or PHP (for example). The example in question revolved around the use of a constant that they had defined in ServerSide code. 'VB Const MY_CONST: MY_CONST = 1 If sMyVbVar = MY_CONST Then 'Do Something End If //JavaScript if (sMyJsVar === "<%= MY_CONST%>"){ //DoSomething } My standard arguments against this are: Script injection: The server-side tag could include code that can break the JavaScript code Unit testing. Harder to isolate units of code for testing Code Separation : We should keep web page technologies apart as much as possible. The reason for doing this was so that the developer did not have to define the constant in two places. They reasoned that as it was a value that they controlled, that it wasn't subject to script injection. This reduced my justification for (1) to "We're trying to keep the standards simple, and defining exception cases would confuse people" The unit testing and code separation arguments did not hold water either, as the page itself was a horrible amalgam of HTML, JavaScript, ASP.NET, CSS, XML....you name it, it was there. No code that was every going to be included in this page could possibly be unit tested. So I found myself feeling like a bit of a pedant insisting that the code was changed, given the circumstances. Are there any further arguments that might support my reasoning, or am I, in fact being a bit pedantic in this insistence?

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  • Cookie blocked/not saved in IFRAME in Internet Explorer

    - by Piskvor
    I have two websites, let's say they're example.com and anotherexample.net. On anotherexample.net/page.html, I have an IFRAME SRC="http://example.com/someform.asp". That IFRAME displays a form for the user to fill out and submit to http://example.com/process.asp. When I open the form ("someform.asp") in its own browser window, all works well. However, when I load someform.asp as an IFRAME in IE 6 or IE 7, the cookies for example.com are not saved. In Firefox this problem doesn't appear. For testing purposes, I've created a similar setup on http://newmoon.wz.cz/test/page.php . example.com uses cookie-based sessions (and there's nothing I can do about that), so without cookies, process.asp won't execute. How do I force IE to save those cookies? Results of sniffing the HTTP traffic: on GET /someform.asp response, there's a valid per-session Set-Cookie header (e.g. Set-Cookie: ASPKSJIUIUGF=JKHJUHVGFYTTYFY), but on POST /process.asp request, there is no Cookie header at all. Edit3: some AJAX+serverside scripting is apparently capable to sidestep the problem, but that looks very much like a bug, plus it opens a whole new set of security holes. I don't want my applications to use a combination of bug+security hole just because it's easy. Edit: the P3P policy was the root cause, full explanation below.

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