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• JDBC/OSGi and how to dynamically load drivers without explicitly stating dependencies in the bundle?

  - by Chris

  Hi, This is a biggie. I have a well-structured yet monolithic code base that has a primitive modular architecture (all modules implement interfaces yet share the same classpath). I realize the folly of this approach and the problems it represents when I go to deploy on application servers that may have different conflicting versions of my library. I'm dependent on around 30 jars right now and am mid-way though bnding them up. Now some of my modules are easy to declare the versioned dependencies of, such as my networking components. They statically reference classes within the JRE and other BNDded libraries but my JDBC related components instantiate via Class.forName(...) and can use one of any number of drivers. I am breaking everything up into OSGi bundles by service area. My core classes/interfaces. Reporting related components. Database access related components (via JDBC). etc.... I wish for my code to be able to still be used without OSGi via single jar file with all my dependencies and without OSGi at all (via JARJAR) and also to be modular via the OSGi meta-data and granular bundles with dependency information. How do I configure my bundle and my code so that it can dynamically utilize any driver on the classpath and/or within the OSGi container environment (Felix/Equinox/etc.)? Is there a run-time method to detect if I am running in an OSGi container that is compatible across containers (Felix/Equinox/etc.) ? Do I need to use a different class loading mechanism if I am in a OSGi container? Am I required to import OSGi classes into my project to be able to load an at-bundle-time-unknown JDBC driver via my database module? I also have a second method of obtaining a driver (via JNDI, which is only really applicable when running in an app server), do I need to change my JNDI access code for OSGi-aware app servers?

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• Updating Multiple Drop-Down Lists in AjaxTags

  - by Berin

  I'm using AjaxTags as a defined set of JSP tags to facilitate AJAX programming, saving me from some heavy lifting. The project is in trial mode, so I may not adopt the technology and write my own solution. Here's what I'm running into (code abbreviated) I have a drop-down list that defines an item that populates numerous other drop-down lists. <form> ... <select id="item1" name="item1"> <c:forEach items="${list1}" var="item"> <option value="${item}">${item}</option> </c:forEach> </select> <select id="item2" name="items2"></select> <select id="item3" name="items3"></select> ... </form> <ajax:select source="item1" target="item2" baseUrl="${pageContext.request.contextPath}/doAction.view" parameters="action1 = {item}" /> <ajax:select source="item1" target="item3" baseUrl="${pageContext.request.contextPath}/doAction.view" parameters="action2 = {item}" /> The code above works with my back-end, initiating a call to a servlet class that is listening for calls, parses the parameter and takes action based upon the name of the parameter passed. The problem comes from adding the second ajax:select tag above. An action in drop-down "item 1" only causes "item 3" to be populated with new values. What I want is for an action in "item 1" to populate "item 2" and "item 3" (and 4, 5, 6...). Has anyone else used AjaxTags (ajaxtags.sourceforge.net) and solved a similar solution? Environment Details: Tomcat 5.5.27, Spring 2.0.8, Struts 1.2.9, Java 6

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• How Does MVC Handle Missing Data Requirements

  - by Don Bakke

  I'm teaching myself MVC concepts in hopes of applying them to a non-OO/procedural development environment. I am pretty sure I understand simple View - Request - Controller - Request - Model - Response - Controller - Response - View flow. What I am struggling with is understanding more complex scenarios. For instance, let's say I have a shopping cart form with a button for 'Calculate Shipping'. Normally a click on this button will follow the above flow. But what if there is missing data, like the zip code? Should the View verify this first and alert the user before making a 'Calculate Shipping' request? Or should the request be made and the Model returns a notification that critical data is missing? If the latter, does the Controller instruct the View to alert the user? What if I wanted to prompt the user for the missing zip code (perhaps in a popup input display) and then automatically request the 'Calculate Shipping' method again? I suppose this gets into the question of how smart a View ought to be. It seems that MVC has evolved due to richer UI and automation (such as with data-binding) and this muddies the water from a purist MVC perspective. Any thoughts are greatly appreciated.

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• django: cannot import settings, cannot login to admin, cannot change admin password

  - by xpanta

  Hi, It seems that I am completely lost here. Yesterday I noticed that I cannot login to the admin panel (don't use it much, so it's been some weeks since last login). I thought that I might have changed the admin password and now I can't remember it (though I doubt it). I tried django-admin.py changepassword (using django 1.2.1) but it said that 'changepassword' is unknown command (I have all the necessary imports in my settings.py. Admin interface used to work ok). Then I gave a django-admin.py validate. Then the hell begun. django-admin.py validate gave me this error: Error: Settings cannot be imported, because environment variable DJANGO_SETTINGS_MODULE is undefined. I then gave a set DJANGO_SETTINGS_MODULE=myproject.settings and then again a django-admin.py validate This is what I get now: Error: Could not import settings 'myproject.settings' (Is it on sys.path? Does it have syntax errors?): No module named myproject.settings and now I am lost. I tried django console and sys.path.append('c:\workspace') or sys.append('c:\workspace\myproject') but still get the same errors. I use windows 7 and my project dir is c:\workspace. I don't use a PYTHONPATH variable (although I tried setting it temporarily to C:\workspace but I still get the same error). I don't use Apache, just the django development server. What am I doing wrong? My web page works fine. I think that the fact that I can't login as admin is related to the previous import error, no? PS: I also tried this: http://coderseye.com/2007/howto-reset-the-admin-password-in-django.html but still I couldn't change admin password for some reason. Although I could create another admin user (with which I couldn't login).

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• AS3 - Can't access properties or methods of a MC child that has been added in script

  - by Chris

  Hi All - I am still a bit of a beginner at AS3, so bear with me, please. I have created a loop to instantiate tiles on a board. In the following example, "Gametiles" is an array containing objects of class "Tile" which is a class that extends MovieClip. "Game" is a MC that I added to the stage in the flash developing environment. for(var i:uint=0;i < Gametiles.length;i++){ var pulledTile = Gametiles[i]; var tilename:String = "I_Tile_" + pulledTile.grid_y + "_" + pulledTile.grid_x; var createdTile = new InteractiveTile(); pulledTile.addAnims(createdTile); Game.addChildAt(pulledTile, 0); Game.getChildAt(0).name = tilename; } The above code works - but with a tricky problem. If I did something like the following: trace(Game.I_Tile_1_3.x); I get "TypeError: Error #1010: A term is undefined and has no properties." However, I am able to access theses children in the following manner: var testing = Game.getChildByName("I_Tile_1_3") trace(testing.x); This method is a bit cumbersome though. I really don't want to have to create a var and call getChildByName every time I want to interact with these properties or methods. How can I set up these children so that I can access them directly without the extra steps?

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• C# text creation issue

  - by Mike

  This is whats going on. I have a huge text file that is suppose to be 1 line per entry. The issue is sometimes the line is broken with a new line. I edit this entire file and wherever the file doesn't begin with ("\"A) i need to append the current line to the previous line ( replacing \n with " "). Everything I come up with keeps appending the line to a new line. Any help is appricated... CODE: public void step1a() { string begins = ("\"A"); string betaFilePath = @"C:\ext.txt"; string[] lines = File.ReadAllLines(betaFilePath); foreach (string line in lines) { if (line.StartsWith(begins)) { File.AppendAllText(@"C:\xt2.txt",line); File.AppendAllText(@"C:\xt2.txt", "\n"); } else { string line2 = line.Replace(Environment.NewLine, " "); File.AppendAllText(@"C:\xt2.txt",line2); } } } Example: Orig: "\"A"Hero|apple|orange|for the fun of this "\"A"Hero|apple|mango|lots of fun always "\"A"Her|apple|fruit|no pain is the way "\"A"Hero|love|stackoverflowpeople|more fun Resulting: "\"A"Hero|apple|orange|for the fun of this "\"A"Hero|apple|mango|lots of fun always "\"A"Her|apple|fruit|no pain is the way "\"A"Hero|love|stackoverflowpeople|more fun

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• How do I print an HTML document from a web service?

  - by Chris Marasti-Georg

  I want to print HTML from a C# web service. The Web Browser control is overkill, and does not function well in a service-environment, nor does it function well on a system with very tight security constraints. Is there any sort of free .NET library that will support the printing of a basic HTML page? Here is the code I have so far, that is not running properly. public void PrintThing(string document) { if (Thread.CurrentThread.GetApartmentState() != ApartmentState.STA) { Thread thread = new Thread((ThreadStart) delegate { PrintDocument(document); }); thread.SetApartmentState(ApartmentState.STA); thread.Start(); } else { PrintDocument(document); } } protected void PrintDocument(string document) { WebBrowser browser = new WebBrowser(); browser.DocumentText = document; while (browser.ReadyState != WebBrowserReadyState.Complete) { Application.DoEvents(); } browser.Print(); } This works fine when called from UI-type threads, but nothing happens when called from a service-type thread. Changing Print() to ShowPrintPreviewDialog() yields the following IE script error: Error: 'dialogArguments.___IE_PrintType' is null or not an object URL: res://ieframe.dll/preview.dlg And a small empty print preview dialog appears.

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• ruby on rails delajed_job failing with rvm

  - by mottalrd

  I have delayed_job installed and I start the daemon to run the jobs with this ruby script require 'rubygems' require 'daemon_spawn' $: << '.' RAILS_ROOT = File.expand_path(File.join(File.dirname(__FILE__), '..')) class DelayedJobWorker < DaemonSpawn::Base def start(args) ENV['RAILS_ENV'] ||= args.first || 'development' Dir.chdir RAILS_ROOT require File.join('config', 'environment') Delayed::Worker.new.start end def stop system("kill `cat #{RAILS_ROOT}/tmp/pids/delayed_job.pid`") end end DelayedJobWorker.spawn!(:log_file => File.join(RAILS_ROOT, "log", "delayed_job.log"), :pid_file => File.join(RAILS_ROOT, 'tmp', 'pids', 'delayed_job.pid'), :sync_log => true, :working_dir => RAILS_ROOT) If I run the command with rvmsudo it works perfectly If I simply use the ruby command without rvm it fails and this is the output, but I have no idea why this happens. Could you give me some clue? Thank you user@mysystem:~/redeal.it/application$ ruby script/delayed_job start production /usr/local/rvm/gems/ruby-1.9.3-p194/gems/daemon-spawn-0.4.2/lib/daemon_spawn.rb:16:in `kill': Operation not permitted (Errno::EPERM) from /usr/local/rvm/gems/ruby-1.9.3-p194/gems/daemon-spawn-0.4.2/lib/daemon_spawn.rb:16:in `alive?' from /usr/local/rvm/gems/ruby-1.9.3-p194/gems/daemon-spawn-0.4.2/lib/daemon_spawn.rb:125:in `alive?' from /usr/local/rvm/gems/ruby-1.9.3-p194/gems/daemon-spawn-0.4.2/lib/daemon_spawn.rb:176:in `block in start' from /usr/local/rvm/gems/ruby-1.9.3-p194/gems/daemon-spawn-0.4.2/lib/daemon_spawn.rb:176:in `select' from /usr/local/rvm/gems/ruby-1.9.3-p194/gems/daemon-spawn-0.4.2/lib/daemon_spawn.rb:176:in `start' from /usr/local/rvm/gems/ruby-1.9.3-p194/gems/daemon-spawn-0.4.2/lib/daemon_spawn.rb:165:in `spawn!' from script/delayed_job:37:in `<main>'

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• Convert pre-IEEE-574 C++ floating-point numbers to/from C#

  - by Richard Kucia

  Before .Net, before math coprocessors, before IEEE-574, Microsoft defined a bit pattern for floating-point numbers. Old versions of the C++ compiler happily used that definition. I am writing a C# app that needs to read/write such floating-point numbers in a file. How can I do the conversions between the 2 bit formats? I need conversion methods in both directions. This app is going to run in a PocketPC/WinCE environment. Changing the structure of the file is out-of-scope for this project. Is there a C++ compiler option that instructs it to use the old FP format? That would be ideal. I could then exchange data between the C# code and C++ code by using a null-terminated text string, and the C++ methods would be simple wrappers around sprintf and atof functions. At the very least, I'm hoping someone can reply with the bit definitions for the old FP format, so I can put together a low-level bit manipulation algorithm if necessary. Thanks.

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• C#: Accessing PerformanceCounters for the ".NET CLR Memory category"

  - by Mads Ravn

  I'm trying to access the performance counters located in ".NET CLR Memory category" through C# using the PerformanceCounter class. However a cannot instantiate the categories with what I would expect was the correct category/counter name new PerformanceCounter(".NET CLR Memory", "# bytes in all heaps", Process.GetCurrentProcess().ProcessName); I tried looping through categories and counters using the following code string[] categories = PerformanceCounterCategory.GetCategories().Select(c => c.CategoryName).OrderBy(s => s).ToArray(); string toInspect = string.Join(",\r\n", categories); System.Text.StringBuilder interestingToInspect = new System.Text.StringBuilder(); string[] interestingCategories = categories.Where(s => s.StartsWith(".NET") || s.Contains("Memory")).ToArray(); foreach (string interestingCategory in interestingCategories) { PerformanceCounterCategory cat = new PerformanceCounterCategory(interestingCategory); foreach (PerformanceCounter counter in cat.GetCounters()) { interestingToInspect.AppendLine(interestingCategory + ":" + counter.CounterName); } } toInspect = interestingToInspect.ToString(); But could not find anything that seems to match. Is it not possible to observe these values from within the CLR or am I doing something wrong. The environment, should it matter, is .NET 4.0 running on a 64-bit windows 7 box.

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• Why is OpenSubKey() returning null on my Win 7 64 bit system?

  - by BrMcMullin

  Has anyone seen OpenSubKey() and other Microsoft.Win32 registry functions return null on 64 bit systems when 32 bit registry keys are under Wow6432node in the registry? I'm working on a unit testing framework that makes a call to OpenSubKey() from the .net library. My dev system is a Win 7 64 bit environment with VS 2008 SP1 and the Win 7 SDK installed. The application we're unit testing is a 32 bit application, so the registry is virtualized under HKLM\Software\Wow6432node. When we call: Registry.LocalMachine.OpenSubKey( @"Software\MyCompany\MyApp\" ); Null is returned, however explicitly stating to look here works: Registry.LocalMachine.OpenSubKey( @"Software\Wow6432node\MyCompany\MyApp\" ); From what I understand this function should be agnostic to 32 bit or 64 bit environments and should know to jump to the virtual node. Even stranger is the fact that the exact same call inside a compiled and installed version of our application is running just fine on the same system and is getting the registry keys necessary to run; which are also being placed in HKLM\Software\Wow6432node. Any suggestions? Thanks in advance!

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• Test-First development tool for SQL Server 2005?

  - by Jeff Jones

  For several years I have been using a testing tool called qmTest that allows me to do test-driven database development for some Firebird databases. I write a test for a new feature (table, trigger, stored procedure, etc.) until it fails, then modify the database until the test passes. If necessary, I do more work on the test until it fails again, then modify the database until the test passes. Once the test for the feature is complete and passes 100% of the time, I save it in a suite of other tests for the database. Before moving on to another test or a deployment, I run all the tests as a suite to make sure nothing is broken. Tests can have dependencies on other tests, and the results are recorded and displayed in a browser. Nothing new here, I am sure. Our shop is aiming toward standardizing on MSSQLServer and I want to use the same procedure for developing our databases. Does anyone know of tools that allow or encourage this kind of development? I believe the Team System does, but we do not own that at this point, and probably will not for some time. I am not opposed to scripting, but would welcome a more graphical environment. Any suggestions?

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• Can I ignore a SIGFPE resulting from division by zero?

  - by Mikeage

  I have a program which deliberately performs a divide by zero (and stores the result in a volatile variable) in order to halt in certain circumstances. However, I'd like to be able to disable this halting, without changing the macro that performs the division by zero. Is there any way to ignore it? I've tried using #include <signal.h> ... int main(void) { signal(SIGFPE, SIG_IGN); ... } but it still dies with the message "Floating point exception (core dumped)". I don't actually use the value, so I don't really care what's assigned to the variable; 0, random, undefined... EDIT: I know this is not the most portable, but it's intended for an embedded device which runs on many different OSes. The default halt action is to divide by zero; other platforms require different tricks to force a watchdog induced reboot (such as an infinite loop with interrupts disabled). For a PC (linux) test environment, I wanted to disable the halt on division by zero without relying on things like assert.

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• Can ElementTree be told to preserve the order of attributes?

  - by dmckee

  I've written a fairly simple filter in python using ElementTree to munge the contexts of some xml files. And it works, more or less. But it reorders the attributes of various tags, and I'd like it to not do that. Does anyone know a switch I can throw to make it keep them in specified order? Context for this I'm working with and on a particle physics tool that has a complex, but oddly limited configuration system based on xml files. Among the many things setup that way are the paths to various static data files. These paths are hardcoded into the existing xml and there are no facilities for setting or varying them based on environment variables, and in our local installation they are necessarily in a different place. This isn't a disaster because the combined source- and build-control tool we're using allows us to shadow certain files with local copies. But even thought the data fields are static the xml isn't, so I've written a script for fixing the paths, but with the attribute rearrangement diffs between the local and master versions are harder to read than necessary. This is my first time taking ElementTree for a spin (and only my fifth or sixth python project) so maybe I'm just doing it wrong. Abstracted for simplicity the code looks like this: tree = elementtree.ElementTree.parse(inputfile) i = tree.getiterator() for e in i: e.text = filter(e.text) tree.write(outputfile) Reasonable or dumb? Related links: How can I get the order of an element attribute list using Python xml.sax? Preserve order of attributes when modifying with minidom

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• Need events to execute on timer events, metronome precision.

  - by user295734

  I setup a timer to call an event in my application. The problme is the event execution is being skewed by other windows operations. Ex. openning and window, loading a webpage. I need the event to excute exactly on time, every time. When i first set up the app, used a sound file, like a metronome to listen to the even firing, in a steady state, its firing right on, but as soon do something in the windows environment, the sound fires slower, then sort of sppeds up a bit to catch up. So i added a logging method to the event to ctahc the timer ticks. From that data, it appears that the timer is not being affected by the windows app, but my application event calls are being affected. I figured this out by checking the datetime.now in the event, and if i set it to 250 milliseconds, which is 4 clicks per second. You get data something like below. (sec):(ms) 1:000 1:250 1:500 1:750 2:000 2:250 2:500 2:750 3:000 3:250 3:500 3:750 (lets say i execute some windows event)(time will skew) 4:122 4:388 4:600 4:876 (stop doing what i was doing in windows) (going to shorten the data for simplicit, my list was 30sec long) 5:124 5:268 5:500 5:750 (you would se the time go back the same milliseconds it was at the begining) 6:000 6:250 6:500 6:750 7:000 7:250 7:500 7:750 So i'm thinking the timer continues to fire on the same millisecond every time, but its the event that is being skewed to fire off time by other windows operations. Its not a huge skew, but for what i need to accomplish, its unacceptable. Is there anyhting i can do in .NET, hoping to use XAML/WPF application, thats will correct the skewing of events? thx.

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• Ruby script/console and Ruby script/server using two different DBs?

  - by aronchick

  Has anyone seen where script/console and script/server load two different databases (though both report using the same)? Here's the first output $ script/server => Booting WEBrick => Rails 2.3.5 application starting on http://0.0.0.0:3000 => Call with -d to detach => Ctrl-C to shutdown server [2010-03-21 15:54:05] INFO WEBrick 1.3.1 [2010-03-21 15:54:05] INFO ruby 1.8.7 (2010-01-10) [i386-mingw32] [2010-03-21 15:54:05] INFO WEBrick::HTTPServer#start: pid=7148 port=3000 No errors. I then run my standard code for entering a form - no problems. Checking the Dev Database (.yml at bottom): mysql> select * from books; [...] | 712 | Book | Book Name | 2010-03-21 22:29:22 | 2010-03-21 22:29:22 | [...] 712 rows in set (0.00 sec) The code CLEARLY saved it seconds ago And now here's the output of script/console: $ script/console Loading development environment (Rails 2.3.5) >> Books.all => [] Nothing. Further, upon further inspection, it's using the production database, but I can't figure out why. Any thoughts here? All consoles have been closed and reopened. UPDATE: Requested .yml file (can't see how it'd be helpful (user name and password are all the same for each)) - development: adapter: mysql database: BooksDBdev username: <user name> password: <long string> timeout: 5000 # Warning: The database defined as "test" will be erased and # re-generated from your development database when you run "rake". # Do not set this db to the same as development or production. test: adapter: mysql database: BooksDBtest username: <user name> password: <long string> timeout: 5000 production: adapter: mysql database: BooksDB username: <user name> password: <long string> timeout: 5000

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• OdbcCommand on Stored Procedure - "Parameter not supplied" error on Output parameter

  - by Aaron

  I'm trying to execute a stored procedure (against SQL Server 2005 through the ODBC driver) and I recieve the following error: Procedure or Function 'GetNodeID' expects parameter '@ID', which was not supplied. @ID is the OUTPUT parameter for my procedure, there is an input @machine which is specified and is set to null in the stored procedure: ALTER PROCEDURE [dbo].[GetNodeID] @machine nvarchar(32) = null, @ID int OUTPUT AS BEGIN SET NOCOUNT ON; IF EXISTS(SELECT * FROM Nodes WHERE NodeName=@machine) BEGIN SELECT @ID = (SELECT NodeID FROM Nodes WHERE NodeName=@machine) END ELSE BEGIN INSERT INTO Nodes (NodeName) VALUES (@machine) SELECT @ID = (SELECT NodeID FROM Nodes WHERE NodeName=@machine) END END The following is the code I'm using to set the parameters and call the procedure: OdbcCommand Cmd = new OdbcCommand("GetNodeID", _Connection); Cmd.CommandType = CommandType.StoredProcedure; Cmd.Parameters.Add("@machine", OdbcType.NVarChar); Cmd.Parameters["@machine"].Value = Environment.MachineName.ToLower(); Cmd.Parameters.Add("@ID", OdbcType.Int); Cmd.Parameters["@ID"].Direction = ParameterDirection.Output; Cmd.ExecuteNonQuery(); _NodeID = (int)Cmd.Parameters["@Count"].Value; I've also tried using Cmd.ExecuteScalar with no success. If I break before I execute the command, I can see that @machine has a value. If I execute the procedure directly from Management Studio, it works correctly. Any thoughts? Thanks

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• Send document to printer from web page

  - by FiveTools

  I have a webpage that activates a print job on a printer. This works in the localhost environment but does not work when the application is deployed to the webserver. I'm using the PrintDocument class from the .net System.Drawing.Print namespace. I'm now assuming the printer has to be available to the application on the remote server? Any suggestions on how I would get this to work? PrintDocument pd = new PrintDocument(); PaperSource ps = new PaperSource(); pd.DefaultPageSettings.PaperSize = new System.Drawing.Printing.PaperSize("Custom", 1180, 850); pd.PrintPage += new PrintPageEventHandler (this.pd_PrintPage); // Set your printer's name. Obtain from // System's Printer Dialog Box. pd.PrinterSettings.PrinterName = "Okidata ML 321 Turbo/D (IBM)"; //PrintPreviewDialog dlgPrintPvw = new PrintPreviewDialog(); //dlgPrintPvw.Document = pd; //dlgPrintPvw.Focus(); //dlgPrintPvw.ShowDialog(); pd.Print();

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• How to move/drag multiple images with CALayer???

  - by gbf.sara

  I have more than 10 images in screen and i want to move each image using CALayer concept. While am trying to move first image,its working. Even when i drag my second image also, its working. But after that when i get back to first image and when i try to move , am struck up. its not working. I dono where it went wrong. Here's ma code //Assigning Layer to UIImage// layer = [CALayer layer]; UIImage *image1 = [UIImage imageNamed:[NSString stringWithFormat:@"%@_thumb.png",[tiv imageName]]]; layer.contents = (id)image1.CGImage; layer.position=CGPointMake(200,200); layer.frame = CGRectMake(110, 180, 100, 100); [self.view.layer addSublayer:layer]; [layer needsDisplay]; [self.view.layer needsDisplay]; [layer needsLayout]; //Here i try to move my image// - (void)touchesMoved:(NSSet *)touches withEvent:(UIEvent *)event { [super touchesMoved:touches withEvent:event]; NSArray *allTouches = [touches allObjects]; int count = [allTouches count]; if (count == 1) { if (CGRectContainsPoint([layer frame], [[allTouches objectAtIndex:0] locationInView:self.view])) { layer.position = [[allTouches objectAtIndex:0] locationInView:self.view]; return; } } if (count > 1) { if (CGRectContainsPoint([layer frame], [[allTouches objectAtIndex:-1] locationInView:self.view])) { layer.position = [[allTouches objectAtIndex:0] locationInView:self.view]; return; } } } Also ive planned to use single CALayer for multiple images.. When i click an image, it should be placed in that CALayer and when i click another, the same CALayer should take the latter one. So tat whenever i drag an image it should move(no matter how many images r there) . Do u think this concept will work out or is there any other idea??? My concept may seems to be a basic one. Am new to this environment n so kindly help me..

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• Why is there unreachable code here?

  - by Richard

  I am writing a c# app and want to output error messages to either the console or a messagebox (Depending on the app type: enum AppTypeChoice { Console, Windows } ), and also control wether the app keeps running or not ( bool StopOnError ). I came up with this method that will check all the criteria, but I'm getting an "unreachable code detected" warning. I can't see why! Here is the whole method (Brace yourselves for some hobbyist code!) public void OutputError(string message) { string standardMessage = "Something went WRONG!. [ But I'm not telling you what! ]"; string defaultMsgBoxTitle = "Aaaaarrrggggggggggg!!!!!"; string dosBoxOutput = "\n\n*** " + defaultMsgBoxTitle + " *** \n\n Message was: '" + message + "'\n\n"; AppTypeChoice appType = DataDefs.AppType; DebugLevelChoice level = DataDefs.DebugLevel; // Decide how much info we should give out here... if (level != DebugLevelChoice.None) { // Give some info.... if (appType == AppTypeChoice.Windows) MessageBox.Show(message, defaultMsgBoxTitle, MessageBoxButtons.OK, MessageBoxIcon.Error); else Console.WriteLine(dosBoxOutput); } else { // Be very secretive... if (appType == AppTypeChoice.Windows) MessageBox.Show(standardMessage, defaultMsgBoxTitle, MessageBoxButtons.OK, MessageBoxIcon.Error); else Console.WriteLine(standardMessage); } // Decide if app falls over or not.. if (DataDefs.StopOnError == true) Environment.Exit(0); // UNREACHABLE CODE HERE } Also, while I have your attention, to get the app type, I'm just using a constant at the top of the file (ie. AppTypeChoice.Console in a Console app etc) - is there a better way of doing this (i mean finding out in code if it is a DOS or Windows app)? Also, I noticed that I can use a messagebox with a fully-qualified path in a Console app...How bad is is to do that ( I mean, will I get tarred and feathered when other developers see it?!) Thanks for your help

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• ColdFusion blank page in IE7 on refresh?

  - by richardtallent

  I'm new to ColdFusion, have a very basic problem that's really slowing me down. I'm making edits in a text editor and refreshing the page in web browsers for testing. Standard web dev stuff, no browser-sniffing, redirection, or other weirdness, and no proxies involved. When I refresh the page in Chrome or Firefox, everything works fine, but when I refresh in IE7, I get a blank page. View Source shows me: <!DOCTYPE HTML PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD HTML 4.0 Transitional//EN"> <HTML><HEAD> <META http-equiv=Content-Type content="text/html; charset=utf-8"></HEAD> <BODY></BODY></HTML> That's it. While I am rendering to the transitional DTD, the real head contains a title, etc. My development server is CF 9, production is 8. This problem has been happening in both. Seems it may only be happening on pages that are the the result of a POST action. I've never experienced this in ASP.NET (my usual development environment) using the same browsers.

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• How do I lookup a JNDI Datasource from outside a web container?

  - by masotime

  I have the following environment set up: Java 1.5 Sun Application Server 8.2 Oracle 10 XE Struts 2 Hibernate I'm interested to know how I can write code for a Java client (i.e. outside of a web application) that can reference the JNDI datasource provided by the application server. The ports for the Sun Application Server are all at their defaults. There is a JNDI datasource named jdbc/xxxx in the server configuration, but I noticed that the Hibernate configuration for the web application uses the name java:comp/env/jdbc/xxxx instead. Most of the examples I've seen so far involve code like Context ctx = new InitialContext(); ctx.lookup("jdbc/xxxx"); But it seems I'm either using the wrong JNDI name, or I need to configure a jndi.properties or other configuration file to correctly point to a listener? I have appserv-rt.jar from the Sun Application Server which has a jndi.properties inside of it, but it does not seem to help. There's a similar question here, but it doesn't give any code / refers to having iBatis obtain the JNDI Datasource automatically: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/39053/accessing-datasource-from-outside-a-web-container-through-jndi

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• Starting with versioning mysql schemata without overkill. Good solutions?

  - by tharkun

  I've arrived at the point where I realise that I must start versioning my database schemata and changes. I consequently read the existing posts on SO about that topic but I'm not sure how to proceed. I'm basically a one man company and not long ago I didn't even use version control for my code. I'm on a windows environment, using Aptana (IDE) and SVN (with Tortoise). I work on PHP/mysql projects. What's a efficient and sufficient (no overkill) way to version my database schemata? I do have a freelancer or two in some projects but I don't expect a lot of branching and merging going on. So basically I would like to keep track of concurrent schemata to my code revisions. [edit] Momentary solution: for the moment I decided I will just make a schema dump plus one with the necessary initial data whenever I'm going to commit a tag (stable version). That seems to be just enough for me at the current stage.[/edit] [edit2]plus I'm now also using a third file called increments.sql where I put all the changes with dates, etc. to make it easy to trace the change history in one file. from time to time I integrate the changes into the two other files and empty the increments.sql[/edit]

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• How do I fix this installation problem with multicore Solr on Ubuntu 10.04?

  - by coleifer

  Following instructions from the two sites below, I've installed Tomcat 6 and Solr 1.4. http://gist.github.com/204638 https://wiki.fourkitchens.com/display/TECH/Solr+1.4+on+Ubuntu+9.10+and+CentOS+5 I have successfully got it up and running on a server running 9.04 with multicore support, but on the 10.04 I can't seem to get it to work. I am able to reach localhost:xxxx/solr/ on the 10.04 box and see a single link to the Solr Admin, but following the link takes me to a 404 page with the following output: /solr/admin/ HTTP Status 404 - missing core name in path The requested resource (missing core name in path) is not available I am also unable to access /solr/site1/ as I would except - it similarly returns a 404. <!-- from /var/solr/solr.xml, site dirs exist --> <cores adminPath="/admin/cores"> <core name="site1" instanceDir="site1" /> <core name="site2" instanceDir="site2" /> </cores> <!-- from /etc/tomcat6/Catalina/localhost/solr.xml --> <Context docBase="/var/solr/solr.war" debug="0" privileged="true" allowLinking="true" crossContext="true"> <Environment name="solr/home" type="java.lang.String" value="/var/solr" override="true" /> </Context>

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• Cannot upload media via Wordpress uploader

  - by Justin Johnson

  This has to do with media uploading in Wordpress. Every time WP creates a folder for new uploads (it organizes uploads by year and month: yyyy/mm), it creates it with the "apache:apache' user and group, with full access to all (777 or drwxrwxrwx). However, after that, WP cannot create a folder within that folder (e.g.: mkdir 2011 succeeds, but mkdir 2011/01 fails). Also, uploads cannot be moved into these newly created folders even though the permissions are 777 (rwxrwxrwx). Once a month, I have to chown the newly created folders to be the same as user:group as the rest of the files. Once I do that, uploading works fine (which doesn't make sense to me The really frustrating part is that this problem doesn't exist in other WP installs on other domains on the same server. * I wasn't sure if this should be here or on serverfault. Edit: The containing directory /.../httpdocs/blog/wp-content/uploads has the correct ownership drwxrwxrwx 5 myuser psaserv 4096 Jun 3 18:38 uploads This is a Plesk/CentOS environment hosted by Media Temple (dv). I've written the following test script to simulate the problem <pre><?php $d = "d" . mt_rand(100, 500); var_dump( get_current_user(), $d, mkdir($d), chmod($d, 0777), mkdir("$d/$d"), chmod("$d/$d", 0777), fileowner($d), getmyuid() ); The script always creates the first directory mkdir($d) successfully. On domain A, where the WP problem is, it cannot create the nested directory mkdir("$d/$d"). However, on domain B, both directories are successfully created. I am running each script at /var/www/vhosts/domainA/httpdocs/tmp/t.php and /var/www/vhosts/domainB/httpdocs/tmp/t.php respectively I checked the permissions on tmp, httpdocs, and domain[AB] and they are the same for each path. The only thing that differs is the user.

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