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• ASP.Net FormsAuthentication Redirect Loses the cookie between Redirect and Application_AuthenticateR

  - by Joel Etherton

  I have a FormsAuthentication cookie that is persistent and works independently in a development, test, and production environment. I have a user that can authenticate, the user object is created, the authentication cookie is added to the response: 'Custom object to grab the TLD from the url authCookie.Domain = myTicketModule.GetTopLevelDomain(Request.ServerVariables("HTTP_HOST")) FormsAuthentication.SetAuthCookie(authTicket.Name, False) Response.SetCookie(authCookie) The user gets processed a little bit to check for a first time login, security questions, etc, and is then redirected with the following tidbit: Session.Add("ForceRedirect", "/FirstTimeLogin.aspx") Response.Redirect("~/FirstTimeLogin.aspx", True) With a debug break, I can verify that the cookie collection holds both a cookie not related to authentication that I set for a different purpose and the formsauthentication cookie. Then the next step in the process occurs at the ApplicationAuthenticateRequest in the global.asax: Sub Application_AuthenticateRequest(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As EventArgs) Dim formsCookieName As String = myConfigurationManager.AppSettings("FormsCookieName") Dim authCookie As HttpCookie = Request.Cookies(formsCookieName) At this point, for this ONE user authCookie is nothing. I have 15,000 other users who are not impacted in this manner. However, for one user the cookie just vanishes without a trace. I've seen this before with w3wp.exe exceptions, state server exceptions and other IIS process related exceptions, but I'm getting no exceptions in the event log. w3wp.exe is not crashing, the state server has some timeouts but they appear unrelated (as verified by timestamps) and it only happens to this one user on this one domain (this code is used across 2 different TLDs with approximately 10 other subdomains). One avenue I'm investigating is that the cookie might just be too large. I would think that there would be a check for the size of the cookie going into the response, and I wouldn't think it would impact it this way. Any ideas why the request might dumping the cookie? NOTE: The secondary cookie I mentioned that I set also gets dumped (and it's very tiny). EDIT-NOTE: The session token is NOT lost when this happens. However, since the authentication cookie is lost, it is ignored and replaced on a subsequent login.

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• WPF RelativeSource FindAncestor doesn't work outside of the Control.Resources context?

  - by sker

  I have this VisualBrush resource I took from some site and I apply it with triggers to a TextBox. <VisualBrush x:Key="HelpBrush" TileMode="None" Opacity="0.4" Stretch="None" AlignmentX="Left"> <VisualBrush.Visual> <TextBlock FontStyle="Italic" Text="{Binding Path=Tag, RelativeSource={RelativeSource AncestorType={x:Type Control}, AncestorLevel=1}}"/> </VisualBrush.Visual> </VisualBrush> <Style x:Key="DefaultText" TargetType="TextBox"> <Style.Triggers> <Trigger Property="Text" Value="{x:Null}"> <Setter Property="Background" Value="{StaticResource HelpBrush}"/> </Trigger> <Trigger Property="Text" Value=""> <Setter Property="Background" Value="{StaticResource HelpBrush}"/> </Trigger> </Style.Triggers> </Style> If I place both the VisualBrush and the Style inside the TextBox.Resources tag in XAML, it works fine. But if I take it out and place it in the Window.Resources or a merged dictionary, it stops working. The problem is the Binding, it doesn't find the ancestor TextBox for some reason. I already tried removing AncestorLevel and using AncestorType={x:Type TextBox} - it doesn't work. Any ideas?

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• using SeekToNavCuePoint with Custom Cue Points created by ActionScript

  - by meghana

  i have custom flvPlayBack player, i want to do like add Custom CuePoints using ActionScript and making one button Event , On click of that button , Flv should seek to that CuePoints added using ActionScript . I am using below code to do that. var rtn_obj:Object; //create cue point object my_FLVPlybk.source = "sj_clip.flv"; my_FLVPlybk.addASCuePoint(0, "abs",CuePointType.ACTIONSCRIPT); my_FLVPlybk.addASCuePoint(4, "abs",CuePointType.ACTIONSCRIPT); my_FLVPlybk.addASCuePoint(8, "abs",CuePointType.ACTIONSCRIPT); my_FLVPlybk.addASCuePoint(12, "abs",CuePointType.ACTIONSCRIPT); my_FLVPlybk.addASCuePoint(16, "abs",CuePointType.ACTIONSCRIPT); my_FLVPlybk.addASCuePoint(20, "abs",CuePointType.ACTIONSCRIPT); my_FLVPlybk.addASCuePoint(24, "abs",CuePointType.ACTIONSCRIPT); my_FLVPlybk.addASCuePoint(28, "abs",CuePointType.ACTIONSCRIPT); my_FLVPlybk.addASCuePoint(31, "abs",CuePointType.ACTIONSCRIPT); my_FLVPlybk.setFLVCuePointEnabled(true,"abs"); fwbtn1.addEventListener(MouseEvent.CLICK,Forward) function Forward(e:MouseEvent):void { if(rtn_obj != null) { traceit(rtn_obj) rtn_obj = my_FLVPlybk.findNextCuePointWithName(rtn_obj); if(rtn_obj != null) { traceit(rtn_obj) my_FLVPlybk.seekToNavCuePoint(rtn_obj.time); } } } my_FLVPlybk.addEventListener(fl.video.VideoEvent.READY, ready_listener); function ready_listener(eventObject:fl.video.VideoEvent):void { rtn_obj = my_FLVPlybk.findCuePoint("abs", CuePointType.ACTIONSCRIPT); } function traceit(cuePoint:Object):void { trace("Cue point name is: " + cuePoint.name); trace("Cue point time is: " + cuePoint.time); trace("Cue point type is: " + cuePoint.type); } I thought ,this code should work properly.. but when i run this code , it give me next cuePoint which i find using findNextCuePointWithName() method but it does not seek to that point , which i thought seekToNavCuePoint() method should do. anybody have any idea , how to make it work?? Thanks i Hope my i have explained my requirement to clear to understand. i really need this in urgent. please help me.

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• how to pass the parameters to the urlconnection in java/android?

  - by androidbase

  hi all, i can establish a connection using HttpUrlConnection. my code below. client = new DefaultHttpClient(); URL action_url = new URL(actionUrl); conn = (HttpURLConnection) action_url.openConnection(); conn.setDoOutput(true); conn.setDoInput(true); conn.setRequestProperty("domain", "bschool.hbs.edu"); conn.setRequestProperty("userType", "2"); conn.setRequestProperty("referer", "http://www.alumni.hbs.edu/"); conn.setRequestProperty("Content-Type", "application/x-www-form-urlencoded"); conn.setRequestMethod(HttpPost.METHOD_NAME); DataOutputStream ds = new DataOutputStream(conn.getOutputStream()); String content = "username=username1&password=password11"; Log.v(TAG, "content: " + content); ds.writeBytes(content); ds.flush(); ds.close(); InputStream in = conn.getInputStream();//**getting filenotfound exception here.** BufferedReader reader = new BufferedReader( new InputStreamReader(in)); StringBuilder str1 = new StringBuilder(); String line = null; while ((line = reader.readLine()) != null) { str1.append(line); Log.v(TAG, "line:" + line); } in.close(); s = str1.toString(); getting filenotfound exception. dont know why? else give me some suggestion to pass username and passwrod parameter to the url by code..

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• Using pinvoke in c# to call sprintf and friends on 64-bit

  - by bde

  I am having an interesting problem with using pinvoke in C# to call _snwprintf. It works for integer types, but not for floating point numbers. This is on 64-bit Windows, it works fine on 32-bit. My code is below, please keep in mind that this is a contrived example to show the behavior I am seeing. class Program { [DllImport("msvcrt.dll", CharSet = CharSet.Unicode, CallingConvention = CallingConvention.Cdecl)] private static extern int _snwprintf([MarshalAs(UnmanagedType.LPWStr)] StringBuilder str, uint length, String format, int p); [DllImport("msvcrt.dll", CharSet = CharSet.Unicode, CallingConvention = CallingConvention.Cdecl)] private static extern int _snwprintf([MarshalAs(UnmanagedType.LPWStr)] StringBuilder str, uint length, String format, double p); static void Main(string[] args) { Double d = 1.0f; Int32 i = 1; Object o = (object)d; StringBuilder str = new StringBuilder(); _snwprintf(str, 32, "%10.1f", (Double)o); Console.WriteLine(str.ToString()); o = (object)i; _snwprintf(str, 32, "%10d", (Int32)o); Console.WriteLine(str.ToString()); Console.ReadKey(); } } The output of this program is 0.0 1 It should print 1.0 on the first line and not 0.0, and so far I am stumped.

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• Failed to set the initialPlaybackTime for a MPMoviePlayerController when recreating it in the second

  - by vicky

  Hi, everyone. It's really wired. When at the first time a MPMoviePlayerController (e.g., theMovie) is created, its initialPlaybackTime can be set successfully. But when theMoive is released and re-create a new MPMoviePlayerController, its intialPlaybackTime can not be set correctly, actually the movie always plays from the start. The code is as follows. -(void)initAndPlayMovie:(NSURL *)movieURL { MPMoviePlayerController *theMovie = [[MPMoviePlayerController alloc] initWithContentURL:movieURL]; // create a notification for moviePlaybackFinish [[NSNotificationCenter defaultCenter] addObserver:self selector:@selector(moviePlayBackDidFinish:) name:MPMoviePlayerPlaybackDidFinishNotification object:theMovie]; theMovie.initialPlaybackTime = 15; [theMovie setScalingMode:MPMovieScalingModeAspectFill]; [theMovie play];} -(void) moviePlayBackDidFinish:(NSNotification*)notification { MPMoviePlayerController * theMovie = [notification object]; [[NSNotificationCenter defaultCenter] removeObserver:self name:MPMoviePlayerPlaybackDidFinishNotification object:theMovie]; [theMovie release]; [self initAndPlayMovie:[self getMovieURL]]; } With the above code, when the viewcontroller did load and run initAndPlayMovie, the movie starts to play from 15 seconds, but when it plays finished or "Done" is pushed, a new theMovie is created and starts to play from 0 second. Does anybody know what happened with the initialPlaybackTime property of MPMoviePlayerController? And whenever you reload the viewController where the above code is (presentModalViewController from a parent viewcontroller), the movie can start from any playback time. I am really confused what's the difference of the MPMoviePlayerController registration methods between the viewcontroller load and the recreating it after release. Need your help! Thank you!

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• DataGridView row is still dirty after committing changes

  - by Ecyrb

  DataGridView.IsCurrentRowDirty remains true after I commit changes to the database. I want to set it to false so it doesn't trigger RowValidating when it loses focus. I have a DataGridView bound to a BindingList<T>. I handle the CellEndEdit event and save changes to the database. After saving those changes I would like DataGridView.IsCurrentRowDirty to be set to true, since all cells in the row are up-to-date; however, it's set to false. This causes problems for me because when the row does lose focus it will trigger RowValidating, which I handle and validate all three cells in. So even though all the cells are valid and none are dirty it will still validate them all. That's a waste. Here's an example of what I have: void dataGridView_CellValidating(object sender, DataGridViewCellValidatingEventArgs e) { // Ignore cell if it's not dirty if (dataGridView.isCurrentCellDirty) return; // Validate current cell. } void dataGridView_RowValidating(object sender, DataGridViewCellCancelEventArgs e) { // Ignore Row if it's not dirty if (!dataGridView.IsCurrentRowDirty) return; // Validate all cells in the current row. } void dataGridView_CellEndEdit(object sender, DataGridViewCellEventArgs e) { // Validate all cells in the current row and return if any are invalid. // If they are valid, save changes to the database // This is when I would expect dataGridView.IsCurrentRowDirty to be false. // When this row loses focus it will trigger RowValidating and validate all // cells in this row, which we already did above. } I've read posts that said I could call the form's Validate() method, but that will cause RowValidating to fire, which is what I'm trying to avoid. Any idea how I can set DataGridView.IsCurrentRowDirty to true? Or maybe a way to prevent RowValidating from unnecessarily validating all the cells?

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• Is HttpContextWrapper all that....useful?

  - by bakasan

  I've been going through the process of cleaning up our controller code to make each action as testable. Generally speaking, this hasn't been too difficult--where we have opportunity to use a fixed object, like say FormsAuthentication, we generally introduce some form of wrapper as appropriate and be on our merry way. For reasons not particularly germaine to this conversation, when it came to dealing with usage of HttpContext, we decided to use the newly created HttpContextWrapper class rather than inventing something homegrown. One thing we did introduce was the ability to swap in a HttpContextWrapper (like say, for unit testing). This was wholly inspired by the way Oren Eini handles unit testing with DateTimes (see article, a pattern we also use) public static class FooHttpContext { public static Func<HttpContextWrapper> Current = () => new HttpContextWrapper(HttpContext.Current); public static void Reset() { Current = () => new HttpContextWrapper(HttpContext.Current); } } Nothing particularly fancy. And it works just fine in our controller code. The kicker came when we go to write unit tests. We're using Moq as our mocking framework, but alas var context = new Mock<HttpContextWrapper>() breaks since HttpContextWrapper doesn't have a parameterless ctor. And what does it take as a ctor parameter? A HttpContext object. So I find myself in a catch 22. I'm using the prescribed way to decouple HttpContext--but I can't mock a value in because the original HttpContext object was sealed and therefore difficult to test. I can map HttpContextBase, which both derive from--but that doesn't really get me what I'm after. Am I just missing the point somewhere with regard to HttpContextWrapper? I can find ways to work around the issue, but we are kind of fond of remaining consistent in decoupling using the Function delegate pattern--but it seems like we're not fully grokking intent of the wrapper.

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• Asp.Net MVC EditorTemplate Model is lost after Post

  - by Farrell

  I have a controller with two simple Methods: UserController Methods: [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Get)] public ActionResult Details(string id) { User user = UserRepo.UserByID(id); return View(user); } [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult Details(User user) { return View(user); } Then there is one simple view for displaying the details: <% using (Html.BeginForm("Details", "User", FormMethod.Post)) {%> <fieldset> <legend>Userinfo</legend> <%= Html.EditorFor(m => m.Name, "LabelTextBoxValidation")%> <%= Html.EditorFor(m => m.Email, "LabelTextBoxValidation")%> <%= Html.EditorFor(m => m.Telephone, "LabelTextBoxValidation")%> </fieldset> <input type="submit" id="btnChange" value="Change" /> <% } %> As you can see, I use an editor template "LabelTextBoxValidation": <%@ Control Language="C#" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewUserControl<string>" %> <%= Html.Label("") %> <%= Html.TextBox(Model,Model)%> <%= Html.ValidationMessage("")%> Showing user information is no problem. The view renders perfectly user details. When I submit the form, the object user is lost. I debugged on the row "return View(User);" in the Post Details method, the user object is filled with nullable values. If I dont use the editor template, the user object is filled with correct data. So there has to be something wrong with the editor template, but can't figure out what it is. Suggestions?

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• Help with entity frame work error. Error 0194: All artifacts loaded....

  - by Steve

  This is a c#/asp.net project. The full error message I get is:Error 0194: All artifacts loaded into the item collection must have the same version. Multiple versions were encountered. This project was started as a 3.5 and upgraded to 4.0. When I try to test any of the methods I get the error that I posted in the subject line. I am going to include the actual lines that it throws the exception on. If there is anything in people need to see to try to help let me know and I post it as well. Any help will be appreciated, I am having no luck with this. /// /// Initializes a new SFBExternalPaymentsEntities object using the connection string found in the 'SFBExternalPaymentsEntities' section of the application configuration file. /// public SFBExternalPaymentsEntities() : base("name=SFBExternalPaymentsEntities", "SFBExternalPaymentsEntities") { this.ContextOptions.LazyLoadingEnabled = false; OnContextCreated(); } /// /// Initialize a new SFBExternalPaymentsEntities object. /// public SFBExternalPaymentsEntities(string connectionString) : base(connectionString, "SFBExternalPaymentsEntities") { this.ContextOptions.LazyLoadingEnabled = false; OnContextCreated(); } /// /// Initialize a new SFBExternalPaymentsEntities object. /// public SFBExternalPaymentsEntities(EntityConnection connection) : base(connection, "SFBExternalPaymentsEntities") { this.ContextOptions.LazyLoadingEnabled = false; OnContextCreated(); } endregion

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• Mapping and metadata information could not be found for EntityType Exception

  - by dcompiled

  I am trying out ASP.NET MVC Framework 2 with the Microsoft Entity Framework and when I try and save new records I get this error: Mapping and metadata information could not be found for EntityType 'WebUI.Controllers.PersonViewModel' My Entity Framework container stores records of type Person and my view is strongly typed with class PersonViewModel which derives from Person. Records would save properly until I tried to use the derived view model class. Can anyone explain why the metadata class doesnt work when I derive my view model? I want to be able to use a strongly typed model and also use data annotations (metadata) without resorting to mixing my storage logic (EF classes) and presentation logic (views). // Rest of the Person class is autogenerated by the EF [MetadataType(typeof(Person.Metadata))] public partial class Person { public sealed class Metadata { [DisplayName("First Name")] [Required(ErrorMessage = "Field [First Name] is required")] public object FirstName { get; set; } [DisplayName("Middle Name")] public object MiddleName { get; set; } [DisplayName("Last Name")] [Required(ErrorMessage = "Field [Last Name] is required")] public object LastName { get; set; } } } // From the View (PersonCreate.aspx) <%@ Page Language="C#" MasterPageFile="~/Views/Shared/Site.Master" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewPage<WebUI.Controllers.PersonViewModel>" %> // From PersonController.cs public class PersonViewModel : Person { public List<SelectListItem> TitleList { get; set; } } // end class PersonViewModel

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• Invoking WCF functions using Reflection

  - by Jankhana

  I am pretty new to WCF applications. I have a WCF application that is using NetTcpBinding. I wanted to invoke the functions in WCF service using the System.Reflection's Methodbase Invoke method. I mean I wanted to Dynamically call the Function by passing the String as the Function name. Reflection works great for Web Service or a Windows application or any dll or class. So their is certain way to do this for WCF also but I am not able to find that. I am getting the Assembly Name than it's type everything fine but as we cannot create an instance of the Interface class I tried to open the WCF connection using the binding and tried to pass that object but it's throwing the exception as : "Object does not match target type." I have opened the connection and passed the object and type is of interface only. I don't know whether I'm trying wrong thing or in wrong way. Any idea how shall I accomplish this??? The NetTCPBinding all are properly given while opening the connection. And one more thing I am using WCF as a Windows Service using NETTCPBinding.

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• StackOverflow in VB.NET SQLite query

  - by Majgel

  I have an StackOverflowException in one of my DB functions that I don't know how to deal with. I have a SQLite database with one table "tblEmployees" that holds records for each employees (several thousand posts) and usually this function runs without any problem. But sometimes after the the function is called a thousand times it breaks with an StackOverflowException at the line "ReturnTable.Load(reader)" with the message: An unhandled exception of type 'System.StackOverflowException' occurred in System.Data.SQLite.dll If I restart the application it has no problem to continue with the exact same post it last crashed on. I can also make the exactly same DB-call from SQLite Admin at the crash time without no problems. Here is the code: Public Function GetNextEmployeeInQueue() As String Dim NextEmployeeInQueue As String = Nothing Dim query As [String] = "SELECT FirstName FROM tblEmployees WHERE Checked=0 LIMIT 1;" Try Dim ReturnTable As New DataTable() Dim mycommand As New SQLiteCommand(cnn) mycommand.CommandText = query Dim reader As SQLiteDataReader = mycommand.ExecuteReader() ReturnTable.Load(reader) reader.Close() If ReturnTable.Rows.Count > 0 Then NextEmployeeInQueue = ReturnTable.Rows(0)("FirstName").ToString() Else MsgBox("No more employees found in queue") End If Catch fail As Exception MessageBox.Show("Error: " & fail.Message.ToString()) End Try If NextEmployeeInQueue IsNot Nothing Then Return NextEmployeeInQueue Else Return "No more records in queue" End If End Function When crashes, the reader has "Property evaluation failed." in all values. I assume there is some problem with allocated memory that isn't released correctly, but can't figure out what object it's all about. The DB-connection opens when the DB-class object is created and closes on main form Dispose. Should I maybe dispose the mycommand object every time in a finally block? But wouldn't that result in a closed DB-connection?

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• JSF 2.0: use Enum values for selectOneMenu

  - by yournamehere

  I'm using JSF 2.0 and want to fill a selectOneMenu with the values of my Enum. A simple example: // Sample Enum public enum Gender { MALE("Male"), FEMALE("Female"); private final String label; private Gender(String label) { this.label = label; } public String getLabel() { return this.label; } } Unfortunately, i can't use Seam for my current project, which had a nice <s:convertEnum/> Tag that did most of the work. In Seam, to use the values of the Enum, i had to write the following markup (and create a factory that provides the #{genderValues}: <!-- the Seam way --> <h:selectOneMenu id="persongender" value="#{person.gender}"> <s:selectItems var="_gender" value="#{genderValues}"" label="#{_gender.label}"/> <s:convertEnum/> </h:selectOneMenu> The result is that i don't have to declare the Enum values explicitely anymore inside the markup. I know that this is not very easy in JSF <2.0, but is there any new in JSF2 to help with this issue? Or does Weld help here somehow? If there is nothing new in JSF2, what's the easiest way to do it in JSF 1.2? Or can i even integrate the Seam JSF tag and the corresponding classes of Seam to get the same feature in a JavaEE6-App (without the Seam container)?

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• Question on Scala Closure (From "Programming in Scala")

  - by Ekkmanz

  I don't understand why authors said that Code Listing 9.1 from "Programming in Scala" use closure. In chapter 9, they show how to refactor code into more less duplicated form, from this original code: object FileMatcher { private def filesHere = (new java.io.File(".")).listFiles def filesEnding(query: String) = for (file <- filesHere; if file.getName.endsWith(query)) yield file def filesContaining(query: String) = for (file <- filesHere; if file.getName.contains(query)) yield file def filesRegex(query: String) = for (file <- filesHere; if file.getName.matches(query)) yield file } To the second version: object FileMatcher { private def filesHere = (new java.io.File(".")).listFiles def filesMatching(query: String, matcher: (String, String) => Boolean) = { for (file <- filesHere; if matcher(file.getName, query)) yield file } def filesEnding(query: String) = filesMatching(query, _.endsWith(_)) def filesContaining(query: String) = filesMatching(query, _.contains(_)) def filesRegex(query: String) = filesMatching(query, _.matches(_)) } Which they said that there is no use of closure here. Now I understand until this point. However they introduced the use of closure to refactor even some more, shown in Listing 9.1: object FileMatcher { private def filesHere = (new java.io.File(".")).listFiles private def filesMatching(matcher: String => Boolean) = for (file <- filesHere; if matcher(file.getName)) yield file def filesEnding(query: String) = filesMatching(_.endsWith(query)) def filesContaining(query: String) = filesMatching(_.contains(query)) def filesRegex(query: String) = filesMatching(_.matches(query)) } Now they said that query is a free variable but I don't really understand why they said so? Since ""query"" seems to be passed from top method down to string matching function explicitly.

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• Argument exception after trying to use TryGetObjectByKey

  - by Rickjaah

  Hi, EDIT: Somethings wrong.... I have to use objectContext.Frontpages.ToArray() before I can use TryGetObjectByEntityKey(). Any ideas anyone? I'm trying to retrieve an object from my database using entity (framework 4) When I use the following code it gives an ArgumentException: An item with the same key has already been added. if (databaseContext.TryGetObjectByKey(entityKey, out result)) { return (result != null && result is TEntityObject) ? result as TEntityObject : null; } else { return null; } When I check the objectContext, I see the entities, but only if I enumerate the specific list of entities manually using VS2010, it works. What am I missing? Do I have to do something else before i can get the item from the database? I searched google, but could not find any results, the same for the msdn library EDIT: Still working on this.... It's a weird problem. I retrieve a value, but get an error that says a duplicate item exists. STACKTRACE: [ArgumentException: An item with the same key has already been added.] System.ThrowHelper.ThrowArgumentException(ExceptionResource resource) +52 System.Collections.Generic.Dictionary2.Insert(TKey key, TValue value, Boolean add) +9549131 System.Data.Metadata.Edm.ObjectItemAttributeAssemblyLoader.LoadRelationshipTypes() +661 System.Data.Metadata.Edm.ObjectItemAttributeAssemblyLoader.LoadTypesFromAssembly() +17 System.Data.Metadata.Edm.ObjectItemAssemblyLoader.Load() +25 System.Data.Metadata.Edm.ObjectItemAttributeAssemblyLoader.Load() +4 System.Data.Metadata.Edm.AssemblyCache.LoadAssembly(Assembly assembly, Boolean loadReferencedAssemblies, ObjectItemLoadingSessionData loadingData) +160 System.Data.Metadata.Edm.AssemblyCache.LoadAssembly(Assembly assembly, Boolean loadReferencedAssemblies, KnownAssembliesSet knownAssemblies, EdmItemCollection edmItemCollection, Action1 logLoadMessage, Object& loaderCookie, Dictionary2& typesInLoading, List1& errors) +166 System.Data.Metadata.Edm.ObjectItemCollection.LoadAssemblyFromCache(ObjectItemCollection objectItemCollection, Assembly assembly, Boolean loadReferencedAssemblies, EdmItemCollection edmItemCollection, Action`1 logLoadMessage) +316 System.Data.Metadata.Edm.MetadataWorkspace.ImplicitLoadAssemblyForType(Type type, Assembly callingAssembly) +306 System.Data.Metadata.Edm.MetadataWorkspace.ImplicitLoadFromEntityType(EntityType type, Assembly callingAssembly) +109 System.Data.Objects.ObjectContext.TryGetObjectByKey(EntityKey key, Object& value) +288 EDIT: Lazy loading is set to true. EDIT: Somethings wrong.... I have to use objectContext.Frontpages.ToArray() before I can use TryGetObjectByEntityKey(). Any ideas anyone?

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• Outlook Addin in C# - How to add button/group in New Mail (next to signatures)

  - by MadBoy

  I'm having some trouble understanding Outlook terms (CommandBarPopup, CommandBarButton etc) like what is what in Outlook so please be patient. I would like to create couple of things: I would like to create new group (or just button but i read it's not possible to add a button to an existing group in ribbon) on new mail next to Signature/Add attachment in Message Ribbon. It would have to work the same way Signature works so when you press it it display couple of options. How can i create it? I would like to override a button "NEW" (where you can choose that you want to send new mail, make appointment or do other things) so that when you are in Main Window when you press the down arrow next to new button you could choose one of options i will add? Is this possible? How do I do it? I have some code that adds a menu in Main Window private void AddMenuBar() { try { //Define the existent Menu Bar menuBar = this.Application.ActiveExplorer().CommandBars.ActiveMenuBar; //Define the new Menu Bar into the old menu bar newMenuBar = (Office.CommandBarPopup) menuBar.Controls.Add(Office.MsoControlType.msoControlPopup, missing, missing, missing, false); //If I dont find the newMenuBar, I add it if (newMenuBar != null) { newMenuBar.Caption = "Test"; newMenuBar.Tag = menuTag; buttonOne = (Office.CommandBarButton) newMenuBar.Controls.Add(Office.MsoControlType.msoControlButton, missing, missing, 1, true); buttonOne.Style = Office.MsoButtonStyle.msoButtonIconAndCaption; buttonOne.Caption = "Test Button"; //This is the Icon near the Text buttonOne.FaceId = 610; buttonOne.Tag = "c123"; //Insert Here the Button1.Click event buttonOne.Click += new Office._CommandBarButtonEvents_ClickEventHandler(ButtonOneClick); newMenuBar.Visible = true; } } catch (Exception ex) { //This MessageBox is visible if there is an error System.Windows.Forms.MessageBox.Show("Error: " + ex.Message.ToString(), "Error Message Box", MessageBoxButtons.OK, MessageBoxIcon.Exclamation); } } I would like to add submenu under the buttonOne so when i press it new submenus open up. How do I achieve that?

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• FullCalendar and events: function

  - by Ernest

  I am trying to display my events from a MySQL database. I'm using the events function. My XML file being returned is pretty basic. I've looked at all of the FullCalendar questions and most of them talk about JSON and point to the documentation for JSON. I can't use JSON. I have to go XML. Can you tell me where I'm off. Here is a sample of what my xml looks like: Grow Your Business on the Web 2010-06-05T9:30 2010-06-05T12:30 O The whole file is prefaced with a tag and closed with a tag. My jquery is as follows: $(document).ready(function() { $('#calendar').fullCalendar({ height: 550, theme: true, header: { left: 'prev,next today', center: 'title', right: 'month,agendaWeek,agendaDay' }, editable: true, events: function(start, end, callback) { $.ajax({ url: 'ncludeFiles/sbdp-cal-xml.php', dataType: 'xml', data: { // our hypothetical feed requires UNIX timestamps start: Math.round(start.getTime() / 1000), end: Math.round(end.getTime() / 1000) }, success: function(doc) { var events = []; $(doc).find('event').each(function() { events.push({ title: $(this).attr('title'), start: $(this).attr('start'), end: $(this).attr('end'), className: $(this).attr('className'), url: $(this).attr('url') }); }); callback(events); } }); } }); }); I'd appreciate any help you could give me. Thanks!

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• jQuery to select where no children or first child is not image

  - by hacker

  I'm trying to dynamically style some elements on my pages. So, if I had the following code: <a href="#"> Select Me </a> <a href="#"> <img src="blah.jpg" /> Don't select me </a> <a href="#"> <div>Don't select me either</div> <img src="blah.jpg" /> </a> <a href="#"> <div>You can select me too.</div> </a> I would like it to select the first and fourth tags. From what I could tell, by using: $("a:first-child") Won't select the first tag because it doesn't have any children (just text). The second tag should not get selected so something like: $("a:first-child").not("img) but that leaves out the first item. EDIT: If there is an IMG anywhere in the A element, don't select it.

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• Using Fancybox with Google Static Maps

  - by Levi Hackwith

  Setup I have multiple links on a page with the class location_link Each Links rel attribute is equal to a city state combo (i.e.,Omaha, NE) Once the page is loaded, a JavaScript function loops through all of the location_link items and binds a click event to them using jQuery. This click event fires a call to the Fancybox constructor that is supposed to show a Google Map of the location that link is associated with The Problem: Whenever I click on one of the "location links", I get the following error message: The requested content cannot be loaded. Please try again later. Code I've Already Written: function setUpLocationLinks() { locationLinks = $("a.location_link"); locationLinks.click( function() { var me = $(this); console.log(me.attr("href")); $.fancybox( { "showCloseButton" : true, "hideOnContentClick" : true, "titlePosition" : "inside", "title" : me.attr("rel"), "type" : "image" } ) return false; } ); } Research I've Already Done: The Google Static Map API no longer requires an API Key. The following is from the Google Static Maps API Page Note: The Google Static Maps API no longer requires a Maps API key! (Google Maps API Premier customers should instead sign their URLs using a new cryptographic key which will be sent to you. See the Premier documentation for more information.) The The Image URL I'm using does resolve and pulls back the data I need When I put the above mentioned URL into a standard <img> tag, the map shows up just fine. I'd like to pull this off without having to create some sort of dummy <img> tag that I'm constantly switching the src attribute out of. Hopefully, you'll find this information helpful. Please let me know if you have any other questions.

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• configuring local W3C validator on xampp - windows xp sp3

  - by Gabriel

  Hi I have no experience on perl. I am trying to configure the W3C validator on my localhost (win32). I have already followed all the instructions given by W3C @http://validator.w3.org/docs/install_win.html, but I am getting the following error: Can't locate loadable object for module Encode::HanExtra in @INC (@INC contains: C:/xampp/perl/lib C:/xampp/perl/site/lib .) at C:/xampp/validator-0.8.6/httpd/cgi-bin/check line 49 Compilation failed in require at C:/xampp/validator-0.8.6/httpd/cgi-bin/check line 49. BEGIN failed--compilation aborted at C:/xampp/validator-0.8.6/httpd/cgi-bin/check line 49. I'm running perl 5.10.1 on xampp and the following HandExtra Module http://cpansearch.perl.org/src/AUDREYT/Encode-HanExtra-0.23/lib/Encode/HanExtra.pm This is C:/xampp/validator-0.8.6/httpd/cgi-bin/check line 49 : use Encode::HanExtra qw(); # for some chinese character encodings if I document that line using # I get a similar message related to other object: Can't locate loadable object for module Sub::Name in @INC (@INC contains: C:/xampp/perl/lib C:/xampp/perl/site/lib .) at C:/xampp/perl/site/lib/Moose.pm line 12 This is Line 12 at Moose.pm : use Sub::Name 'subname'; I don't know how to proceed. I will appreciate any advise. Thanks

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• VB .NET DirectCast and Type Reflection

  - by msarchet

  The application that I am working on has a generic Parent Form called RSChild, that is used to perform some operations depending on whether or not the control that is contained within it is in a MdiTabManager or inside of its own modal form. Then the actual User Controls contained within Inherit from a Interface Called ObjectEdit (Objects that we allow to be edited). At a point in my code I am doing this. Public Function doesTabExist(ByVal id As Integer, ByVal recordType As Enums.eRecordType) As Boolean Dim alikePages As Object = (From tabs In DirectCast(Control.FromHandle(MainForm.SharedHandle), MainForm).XtraTabbedMdiManager1.Pages Where DirectCast(tabs.MdiChild, RSChild).RSObject.RecordType = recordType Select tabs) For Each page As DevExpress.XtraTabbedMdi.XtraMdiTabPage In alikePages Select Case recordType Case Enums.eRecordType.Doctor If id = DirectCast(castTabPageToRSChild(page).RSObject, UI.Doctor).ID Then pageToActive(page) Return True End If 'rest of the cases so the case block is repeated 10 times' End Function And my castTabPageToRSChild(page) is a lambda function as Such Dim castTabPageToRSChild As Func(Of DevExpress.XtraTabbedMdi.XtraMdiTabPage, RSChild) = Function(page) DirectCast(page.MdiChild, RSChild) So my Question is, I have about 10 case statements, all because I can't seem to find a way to use reflection to get the underlying Type of the RSObject Object. So I have the whole If block repeated over and over. I tried doing castTabPageToRSChild(page)RSObject.GetType and using that in the DirectCast and I also tried creating another object that was separate from that and doing the same thing. My code works as intended I'm just trying to see if there is a manner in which I didn't have a lot of replicated code. My vision would be to do something like For Each page As XtraMdiTabPage In alikePages If id = DirectCast(castTabPageToRSchild(page).RSObject, TypeOfThatObject).Id Then Return True Next However I have a feeling this is not possible due to the behavior of DirectCast.

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• Starting Java applet directly from jar file

  - by Thomas

  The goal is to have an applet run from a jar file. The problem is that the applet only seems to want to run from an exploded jar file. Samples on the Internet suggest this applet tag: <applet code="com.blabla.MainApplet" archive="applet.jar" width="600" height="600"> This will not even try to look in the jar file and fails with: Caused by: java.io.IOException: open HTTP connection failed:http://localhost:8080/helloWord/com/blabbla/MainApplet.class at sun.plugin2.applet.Applet2ClassLoader.getBytes(Unknown Source) at sun.plugin2.applet.Applet2ClassLoader.access$000(Unknown Source) at sun.plugin2.applet.Applet2ClassLoader$1.run(Unknown Source) at java.security.AccessController.doPrivileged(Native Method) ... 7 more Setting the codebase instead of the archive attribute to the jar file. Looks a bit better. However, the JVM does not realize that it has to open the jar file: <applet code="com.blabla.MainApplet" codebase="applet.jar" width="600" height="600"> Caused by: java.io.IOException: open HTTP connection failed:http://localhost:8080/helloWord/applet.jar/com/blabbla/MainApplet.class at sun.plugin2.applet.Applet2ClassLoader.getBytes(Unknown Source) at sun.plugin2.applet.Applet2ClassLoader.access$000(Unknown Source) at sun.plugin2.applet.Applet2ClassLoader$1.run(Unknown Source) at java.security.AccessController.doPrivileged(Native Method) ... 7 more How does the applet tag have to be formulated to start an applet class from inside of a jar file?

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• Update the Progress bar using winforms c#

  - by karthik

  There is a functionality in my module, where the user can scan the number of serial ports in the system and when the user clicks "Auto scan" button, the code will have to go through each serial port and send a test message and wait for the reply. I am using Progress bar control to show process of autoscan. For which i need to pass the value to "x" and "Y" in my code to update the bar. How can i pass the value since my code is already in a foreach loop for getting the serialports. Y = should pass the value of total number of serial ports X = should iterate through each port and pass the value Hope i am clear with req. private void backgroundWorker1_DoWork(object sender, DoWorkEventArgs e) { string strAckData = ""; foreach (SerialPort sp in comPortsList) { sp.Open(); string sendData = "Auto scan"; sp.Write(sendData); strAckData += "Connection live on port " + sp.ReadExisting() + "\n"; sp.Close(); double dIndex = (double)x; **//How to pass the value here ?** double dTotal = (double)y; **//How to pass the value here ?** double dProgressPercentage = (dIndex / dTotal); int iProgressPercentage = (int)(dProgressPercentage * 100); // update the progress bar backgroundWorker1.ReportProgress(iProgressPercentage); } richTextBox1.Invoke(new MethodInvoker(delegate { richTextBox1.Text = strAckData; })); } private void backgroundWorker1_ProgressChanged(object sender, ProgressChangedEventArgs e) { ProgressBar.Value = e.ProgressPercentage; } private void backgroundWorker1_RunWorkerCompleted(object sender, RunWorkerCompletedEventArgs e) { StatusLabel.Text = "Auto Scan completed"; }

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• DOM: element created with cloneNode(true) missing element when added to DOM

  - by user149327

  I'm creating a tree control and I'm attempting to use a parent element as a template for its children. To this end I'm using the element.cloneNode(true) method to deep clone the parent element. However when I insert the cloned element into the DOM it is missing certain inner elements despite having an outerHTML value identical to its parent. Surprisingly I observe the same behavior is in IE, Firefox, and Chrome leading me to believe that it is by design. This is the HTML for the node I'm attempting to clone. <SPAN class=node><A class=nodeLink href="/SparklerRestService2.aspx?q={0}" name=http://dbpedia.org/data/Taylor_Swift.rdf> <IMG class=nodeIcon alt="Taylor Swift" src="images/node.png"><SPAN class=nodeText>Taylor Swift</SPAN></A><SPAN class=nodeDescription>Taylor Swift is a swell gall who is realy great.</SPAN></SPAN> Once I've cloned the node using cloneNode(true) I examine the outerHTML property and find that it is indeed identical to the original. <SPAN class=node><A class=nodeLink href="/SparklerRestService2.aspx?q={0}" name=http://dbpedia.org/data/Taylor_Swift.rdf><IMG class=nodeIcon alt="Taylor Swift" src="images/node.png"><SPAN class=nodeText>Taylor Swift</SPAN></A><SPAN class=nodeDescription>Taylor Swift is a swell gall who is realy great.</SPAN></SPAN> However when I insert it into the DOM and inspect the result using FireBug I find that the element has been transformed: <span class="node" style="top: 0px; left: 0px;"<a class=nodeLink href="/SparklerRestService2.aspx?q={0}" name=http://dbpedia.org/data/Taylor_Swift.rdf>Taylor Swift</a><span class="nodeDescription">It's great</span></span> Notice that the grandchildren of the node (the image tag and the span tag surrounding "Taylor Swift") are missing, although strangely the great grandchild "Taylor Swift" text node has made it into the tree. Can anyone shed some light on this behavior? Why would nodes disappear after insertion into the DOM, and why am I seeing the same result in all three major browser engines?

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